A CSV Flashcards
1 The decibel range for a hearing aide compatible telephone is between ___ and ___ decibels
Per the ADA the range for a hearing compatible phone is 12 – 18 decibels
2 What are the main symptoms of Tardives dyskinesia?
Lip Smacking and uncontrolled facial gestures
3 What do the initials COPD stand for?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
4 What do the initials CHF stand for?
Congestive Heart Failure
5 What is blockage of the arteries called?
A blockage of the arteries is arteriosclerosis
6 What is hardening of the artery walls called?
Hardening of the artery walls is called atherosclerosis
7 What do the initials TIA stand for?
Trans Ischemic Attack
8 What is a TIA? (i.e., heart attack, end stage renal failure or a stroke)
A TIA is a stroke
9 What do the initials EKG stand for?
Electro Kardio (cardio) Gram (measures heart activity)
10 What do the initials CVA stand for?
Cerebral Vascular Accident
11 What is a CVA? (i.e., heart attack, end stage renal failure or a stroke)
A CVA is a stroke
12 What is a physiatrist?
A physiatrist is a physician who works with the musculoskeletal system and works closely with the physical therapist.
13 Per OBRA 1987, does a resident have the right to a bath?
OBRA 1987 does not specify any requirement that a resident must have a bath
14 Per OBRA 1987, does a resident have the right to a shower?
OBRA 1987 does not specify any requirement that a resident must have a shower – it is assumed that you will keep the residence clean.
15 What is gerontology?
Gerontology is the study of the aging process
16 What is a gerontologist?
A gerontologist is a person who studies the aging process
17 Describe the 4 stages of a decubitis sore?
The 4 stages of a decubitis sore: 1. Redness/warm to touch 2. A blister that opens with possible pus 3. Tissue loss of the upper and lower layers of the epidermis 4. Tissue loss down to the bone potential
18 Explain what a severity of Level 1, Class 2, Class 3 and Class 4 deficiency is per OBRA 1987?
Class 1 deficiency – no harm, no potential for harm Class 2 deficiency – no harm but possible (They could not identify any residents actually harmed) Class 3 deficiency – Harm but not immediate jeopardy Class 4 deficiency is Harm and immediate jeopardy
19 Which of the letters between A-L would indicate the existence of substandard care?
Substandard care would begin with the letter G Class 1 – A – isolated B- patterned C – Widespread Class 2 - D – isolated E- pattered F- Widespread Class 3 - G – isolated H – patterned I- widespread Class 4 - J - isolated K – Pattered L – Widespread
20 What is a myocardial infarct?
A myocardial infarct is a heart attack
21 What is the first stage of the annual survey?
The first stage of the annual survey is OFFSITE PREPARATION where the surveyors review the facility’s prior surveys, incident report, ombudsman reports, quality indicatorys and other information from OSCAR.
22 Which stage is where the survey team sits down with staff and discloses the results of the annual survey
In the EXIT CONFERENCE the survey team sits down with staff and discloses the results of the annual survey.
23 Which stage of the annual survey involves the team leader sitting down with the facility staff and discuss the survey about to take place and what records they will need to see
In the ENTRANCE CONFERENCE the team leader sits down with the facility staff and discusses the survey about to take place and what records they will need to see.
24 Which stage of the survey involves the survey team walking around the facility and identifying the layout of the facility
The FACILITY TOUR involves the survey team walking around the facility and identifying the layout of the facility.
25 Which phase of the survey involves the survey team identifying which people they want to talk to and records they want to review
SAMPLE SELECTION involves the survey team identifying which people they want to talk to and records they want to review.
26 Which phase of the survey involves identifying which deficiencies, if any, the facility will cited for
INFORMATION ANALYSIS involves identifying which deficiencies, if any, the facility will cited for.
27 Which phase of the survey involves the survey team observing residents and staff, taking notes, interviewing the resident council and other residents
INFORMATION GATHERING involves the survey team observing residents and staff, taking notes, interviewing the resident council and other residents.
28 What is the correct order of the steps of an annual survey
What is the correct order of the steps of an annual survey: 1. Offsite Preparation 2. Enterance Conference 3. Sample Selection 4. Information Gathering 5. Information Analysis 6. Exit Interview
29 Within how many days of the survey team exiting a facility and completing a survey must the facility receive a report of the results of compliance survey?
The facility must receive a report of the results of a compliance survey within 10 days of the exit interview.
30 Within how many days must a facility submits a plan of correction in response to any alleged deficiencies?
A facility must submit a plan of correction for any alleged deficiencies within 10 days from receipt of the report of deficiencies.
31 When is your date certain for re-survey ( the earliest the survey team can return to verify the facility corrected all cited deficiencies
Your date certain for re-survey ( the earliest the survey team can return to verify the facility corrected all cited deficiencies) is 30 days from the date the survey team exited the facility.
32 What is the number of the form that you will receive detailing any deficiencies found during an annual or complaint survey?
You will receive a form 2567 that will detail any deficiencies found during an annual or complaint survey.
33 You have how many days to file a request for administrative hearing to dispute a citation?
You have 20 days from the date you receive the 2567 to file a request for administrative hearing to dispute a citation.
34 What is an IDR?
An IDR is an informal dispute resolution (i.e. sending a letter to the survey team leader or requesting a face to face meeting with the local licensing office to dispute a citation)
35 What is a FDR?
An FDR is a formal dispute resolution which involves requesting a hearing before an administrative law judge within 20 days of receipt of the 2567.
36 What does OSCAR stand for?
OSCAR stands for Online Survey and Certification Reporting
37 Which entity created OSCAR and what is the purpose of this database?
The CMS created OSCAR and it is a national base that collects all of the information collected from the MDS data entered into the system from each of the 17,000 nursing homes in the nation.
38 Which 3 reports does a survey team pull off OSCAR before entering a facility to do an annual survey or complaint survey?
The survey team will print off: 1) the facility profile report 2) the facility characteristics report 3) resident level summary – from OSCAR before they enter your facility
39 Which survey type is the annual survey?
A standard survey is an annual survey
40 Which survey type a complaint survey?
An abbreviated standard survey is a complaint survey
41 Which survey type will you have if the surveyors find substandard care during an annual survey?
A extended survey would be imposed if the surveyors found substandard care during an annual survey.
42 Which survey type with you be subject to if the surveyors find substandard care during a complaint survey?
A partial extended survey would be imposed if the surveyors find substandard care during a complaint survey.
43 Which survey type is used to verify a facility corrected any cited deficiencies?
A re-survey is done to verify a facility corrected any cited deficiencies where the facility was cited for no more than a level F citation.
44 What is a psychiatrist?
A psychiatrist is a physician who specializes in mental disorders.
45 What is an MDS?
An MDS is a minimum data set.
46 What is the purpose of the MDS?
The MDS is required to maintain a continuing evaluation of each residents physical, mental and psychosocial well-being throughout the year.
47 What is the standard of care a facility must provide each resident per OBRA 1987?
A facility must maintain each resident’s highest practical physical, mental and psychosocial well being and minimize decline per OBRA 1987.
48 What is the standard you must provide residents with respect to the facility environment per OBRA 1987?
You must provide residents an environment that is homelike and de-emphasizes the institutional look of most nursing homes.
49 What is type 1 Diabetes and what treatment is required?
Type 1 Diabetes is insulin dependent diabetes and is treated with regular insulin injections
50 What is type 2 diabetes and what treatment is required?
Type 2 diabetes is adult onset and is treated with diet, exercises and pills.
51 What does CMS stand for?
CMS stands for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
52 How often must a facility be surveyed?
A facility must be surveyed at every 15 months
53 What is a class 1 deficiency?
A class 1 deficiency is no harm and no potential for harm
54 What is a class 2 deficiency?
What is a class 2 deficiency is no harm but potential for harm
55 What is a class 3 deficiency?
What is a class 3 deficiency is Harm but not immediate jeopardy
56 What is a class 4 deficiency?
What is a class 4 deficiency is harm and immediate jeopardy
57 A class A fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?
A class A fire extinguisher would be used to put out a PAPER OR WOOD fire.
58 A class B fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?
A class B fire extinguisher would be used to put out a FLAMMABLE LIQUID FIRE like like kerosene.
59 A class C fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?
A class C fire extinguisher would be used to put out an ELECTRICAL fire.
60 A class D fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?
A class D fire extinguisher would be used to put out a flammable METALS fire like
61 An MDS must be signed by a _______?
An MDS must be signed by a registered nurse.
62 A care plan must be signed by a _______?
A care plan must be signed by a registered nurse.
63 A comprehensive assessment must be completed within ___ days of admission to a facility?
A comprehensive assessment must be completed within 14 days of admission to a facility.
64 A care plan must be completed within ___ days of the completion of the MDS?
A care plan must be completed within 7 days of the completion of the MDS.
65 A significant change must be processed within ____ days?
A significant change must be processed within 14 days (the comprehensive assessment is the MDS and a significant change means doing a completely new MDS).
66 A comprehensive assessment must be reviewed every ____ and completely updated ____.
A comprehensive assessment must be reviewed every 3 months (quarterly) and completely updated annually or since last significant change.
67 A comprehensive care plan must be reviewed every ____ and completely updated ____.
A care plan must be reviewed every 3 months (quarterly) and completely updated annually. (The care plan must be updated every time the MDS is revised).
68 What does HCFA stand for?
HCFA stands for the Health Care Financing Administration
69 What does the HCFA do?
HCFA is the sister organization to the CMS. HCFA sets the rates for Medicare and establishes the RUG rates that SNF’s are paid.
70 What does OIG stand for?
OIG is the office of the Inspector General. This is the inspector general for the Department of Health and Human Services which oversees the CMS and HCFA.
71 What does the OIG do?
The OIG investigates Medicare and Medicaid Fraud
72 Which national organization represents health care administrators?
The American College of Health Care Administrators represents health care administrators
73 Which national organization represents for profit nursing homes?
The AHCA represents for profit nursing homes
74 Which national organization represents non-profit long term care facilities?
The AAHSA represents non-profit long term care facilities
75 What does DHHS stand for and what does the DHHS do?
DHHS stands for the Department of Health and Human Services and it administers the Social Security Administration, CMS, HCFA, and the FD.
76 Which organization provides research to OSHA?
NIOSH provides research to OSHA
77 What does OSHA stand for?
OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Act or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration which enforces the Act.
78 What does OSHA do?
OSHA protects American workers by ensuring a safe workplace
79 Who enforces OSHA?
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration enforces OSHA
80 Which organization sets the standards for the Americans with Disabilities Act?
ANSI or the American National Standards Institute sets the standards for the for the American with Disabilities Act?
81 Which organization develops and publishes the life safety code?
NFPA develops and publishes the life safety code
82 Which life safety code do we follow?
WE follow the life safety code of 2000
83 What is the purpose of the life safety code?
The life safety code is designed to prevent deaths due to structural fires
84 The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of _____, ______, _____, _____ and ______.
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of (RRGCRN) _Race, religion, gender, color and national origin.
85 Which entity enforces the Civil Rights Act?
The EEOC enforces the Civil Rights Act
86 Which entity enforces the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act with respect to discrimination in employment based on physical disabilities?
The EEOC enforces the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act with respect to discrimination in employment based on physical disabilities?
87 Which federal law prohibits discrimination against workers 40 years and older?
The Age in Discrimination Act prohibits discrimination against workers 40 years and older
88 How many employees does an employer need to have to be subject to the federal law identified in question 87 above?
Need 20 employees to be subject to the Age in Discrimination Law
89 Which entity enforces the Equal Employment Opportunity Act?
The EEOC enforces the Equal Employment Opportunity Act
90 What is the standard we use today to determine if discrimination in hiring employees has occurred per the EEOA?
ADVERSE IMPACT is the standard we use today to determine if discrimination in hiring employees has occurred per the EEOA.
91 If I hire 10 white people (the majority group), then how many minority people do I have to hire per EEOA?
If I hire 10 white people (the majority group), then I need to hire 80% of the majority or 80% x 10 = 8 minorities.
92 If I need to hire additional minorities because I did not meet the minimum required by the EEOA, this is called ____ hiring.
Ratio Hiring
93 What does NFPA stand for?
NFPA stands for National Fire Protection Association
94 What does the NFPA do?
NFPA researches and publishes the life safety code. It does not enforce the code.
95 What does ANSI stand for?
ANSI means the American National Standards Institute
96 What does ANSI do?
ANSI develops and publishes the Americans with Disabilities Act. It does not enforce the Act.
97 Which entity enforces the Life Safety Code?
NFPA enforces the Life Safety Code
98 Which entity enforces the ADA with respect to access to public buildings by the handicapped?
The Architectural Barriers Compliance Board enforces the ADA with respect to access to public buildings by the handicapped.
99 Which entity enforces the Discrimination in Pregnancy Act?
The EEOC enforces the Discrimination in Pregnancy Act
100 What is the main objective of the Equal Pay Act?
The main objective of the Equal Pay Act is to ensure that females are paid the same wages as males for the same work.
101 What is “Plegia”?
Plegia means paralysis
102 What is Paraplegia?
Paraplegia is paralyzed from the waist down
103 What is quadriplegia?
Quadriplegia means paralyzed from the neck down
104 What is Hemiplegia?
Hemiplegia means paralyzed on one side of the body
105 What does FMLA stand for?
FMLA stands for family medical leave act
106 How long do you have to work for an employer to be eligible for FMLA?
Must work 12 months or 1250 hours to be eligible for FMLA
107 How many compensatory hours can you accrue each year?
Cannot accrue more than 240 compensatory hours each year (this is time off to compensate overtime exempt employees for hours they work and are not paid time and a half).
108 True or False – the employer must provide an employee paid leave while on FMLA?
False the employer is not required to provide paid leave while on FMLA. You can be required to use up any vacation and sick leave before you go to unpaid status.
109 True or False – the employer is not required to pay for health insurance premiums while an employee is on FMLA?
False – the employer is required to pay for health insurance premiums while an employee is on FMLA. You must pay it back if you do not return to work.
110 True or False – If an employee worked 11 months and 1300 hours they would not be entitled to FMLA because they need to work 12 months to qualify?
False – they worked more than 1250 hours and that qualifies them for FMLA
111 The administrator of a facility is considered ________ and may not be entitled to paid overtime pay?
The administrator of a facility is considered overtime exempt or salaried. Salaried employees do not punch a clock.
112 An exempt employee would or would not be entitled to over time pay?
An exempt employee is not entitled to over time pay
113 An employee who punches in on a time clock is considered _______ for purposes of over time pay?
An employee who punches in on a time clock is considered hourly or non-exempt
114 A salaried employee would or would not be entitled to overtime pay?
A salaried employee is not entitled to overtime pay
115 An hourly employee is or is not an overtime exempt employee?
An hourly employee is not an overtime exempt employee. They must be paid overtime
116 What is Respondeat Superior?
MUST KNOW THIS - Respondent Superior means the superior must respond for the inferior or servant. The employer must pay for injury or damage to third persons caused by employees.
117 What is the federal employer liability Act?
The federal employer liability Act says the employer must pay for the medical bills and lost time for a worker injured on the job.
118 Which entity licenses nursing homes?
The state licenses each nursing home
119 Which entity certifies nursing homes for Medicaid and Medicare
The CMS certifies nursing homes to be a provider for Medicaid and Medicare
120 If a facility is subject to a federal survey, which type of tag would they receive? (F or or N or K tag)
A facility subject to a federal survey would receive an F tag or Federal Tag
121 If a facility is subject only to a state survey which type of tag would they receive? (F or N or K tag)
A facility subject only to a state survey would receive an N tag or Non-Federal tag)
122 If a facility had any life safety violations, which type of tag would they receive? (F or N or K tag)
A facility with life safety violations would receive a K tag
123 Which federal agency administers Medicare and Medicaid contracts?
The CMS administers Medicare and Medicaid contracts
124 What do we mean by substandard care?
Substandard care means a resident was harmed and is a class 3 or 4 violation
125 How often do business file business taxes?
Businesses file business taxes quarterly while individuals file annually
126 Which tax form do businesses use to file FICA and workers compensation taxes?
Businesses use form 941 file FICA and workers compensation taxes
127 Which tax form do employers provide employees at the end of year that is a statement of their wages and taxes paid?
Employees are provided a W-2 that is a statement of their wages and taxes paid
128 Which tax form do you fill out to declare your tax individual exemptions?
Each employee fills out a Form W-4 to declare number of exemptions
129 Which law requires workers to complete an I-9?
The Immigration law requires workers to complete an I-9
130 How many days does the I-9 need to be completed from the date of hire?
Must complete the I-9 within 3 days of hire
131 Which federal law requires employers to pay their employees a minimum federal wage?
The Fair Labor Standards Act requires employers to pay their employees a minimum federal wage.
132 What does SMDA stand for?
SMDA means Safe Medical Devices Act
133 How many days do you have to report any injuries from a medical device?
You have 10 days to report any injuries from a medical device
134 Who do you report injuries to related to any medical device?
Must report injuries from medical devices to the manufacturer and the FDA
135 What is the difference between a power of attorney and a durable power of attorney?
A power of attorney is for financial matters only and a durable power of attorney can be for both financial and health care decisions as well.
136 If a person were declared not competent to make their own decisions by a court, who would make decisions for that individual?
A guardian would make decisions for a person declared not competent by a court
137 What is a living will?
A living will specifies whether an individuals wants artificial life prolonging measures if they cannot sustain bodily functions on their own.
138 What does the PSDA stand for?
PSDA stands for the Patient Self Determination Act
139 What does the PSDA require a facility to do?
The PSDA requires a facility to inform a resident they have the right to make an advanced directive but cannot require them to do so.
140 How many years do you have to keep the OSHA medical records?
Must keep OSHA medical records for the course of employment plus 30 years
141 You must enter all injuries into the OSHA summary log of occupational injuries and illnesses with in how many days?
Must enter all injuries into the OSHA summary log of occupational injuries and illnesses within 7 days.
142 Which types of injuries must be reported to OSHA?
Must report any injuries that require medical attention or lost time
143 How do you report injuries to OSHA?
You enter most injuries into the summary log and supplemental log of injuries and illnesses within 6 days. If several workers are hospitalized or killed then you must call within 8 hours.
144 How many employees do you need to be subject to the OSHA injury reporting requirement?
Need 11 employees to be subject to the OSHA injury reporting requirement
145 Who requires a safety committee?
OSHA requires the safety committee
146 How often must the safety committee meet?
The safety committee must meet monthly
147 How often must the quality assurance committee per OBRA 1987
The quality assurance committee must meet quarterly
148 Who requires nursing home staff to use universal precautions?
OSHA requires nursing home staff to use universal precautions
149 What is the difference between universal precautions and standard precautions?
Universal precautions are gloves and a gown and handwashing and standard precautions means total body protection and involves a gown, face mask, gloves and head covering.
150 What does the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Program require an employer to do?
OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Program requires a written plan in case of exposure
151 What is the focus of the OSHA Hazard communication standard?
The Hazard communication standard focuses on the MSDS
152 What do we mean by an “employee’s right to know”?
An “employee’s right to know” means the MSDS
153 True or False – OSHA requires employees to have a physical exam?
OSHA does requires employees to have a physical exam
154 If 153 is true, what physical exam does OSHA require employees to have post hire but before they work with any residents?
OSHA requires a TB test and vaccination against Hepatitis B
155 How often do workers have to have a physical exam?
Workers need annual TB test and offer Hepatitis B exam
156 What is the OSHA general duty clause?
OSHA general duty clause requires employers to provide workers a safe workplace
157 If 3 or more workers are hospitalized or killed, how must you notify OSHA and within what timeframe? How long do you have?
If 3 or more workers are hospitalized or killed, how must you notify OSHA and within 8 hours by telephone.
158 What does HIPAA stand for?
HIPAA Stands for Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act.
159 What did HIPAA require when first passed?
HIPAA makes a workers insurance portable by limiting the period of time a workers new insurance company can refuse to cover pre-existing conditions to 12 months.
160 Which federal labor law required employers to bargain collectively with unions?
The Wagner Act requires employers to bargain collectively with unions.
161 Which federal law prohibited federal courts from issuing an order preventing unions from striking?
The Norris LaGuardia Act prohibits federal courts from issuing an order preventing unions from striking.
162 Which federal law created the National Labor Relations Board?
The Taft Hartley Act created the National Labor Relations Board?
163 A union must give employers ____ days notice before they can strike
A union must give employers 10 days notice before they can strike
164 Must provide ____ days notice of an intent to change an existing union contract.
Must provide 90 days notice of an intent to change an existing union contract.
165 Employers must provide employees training in any changes in OSHA laws within ____ days
Employers must provide employees training in any changes in OSHA laws within 90 days
166 A nursing home may can only have ___ bargaining units.
A nursing home may have 2_ bargaining units.
167 The _____ must approve any bargaining unit
The National Labor Relations Board must approve any bargaining unit
168 The nursing home bargaining units may only represent which employees?
Can only have 2 bargaining units – professional and non professional
169 The president may halt a union strike for how many days?
The president may halt a union strike for 80 days
170 What is the only thing an employer or manager may tell workers about the benefits of a union?
A manager tell workers how they feel about a union but they cannot ay anything else or ask any questions about union participation of meetings or donate monehy ot a union.
171 What is a mission statement?
A mission statement is simply the purpose of a corporation
172 Which document is the governance of a corporation?
The by-laws are the governance of a corporation – by these laws we govern
173 Which document is filed with the state to form a corporation?
The certificate of incorporation is filed with the state to form a corporation
174 Which document details the name of a corporation, the officers and directors, the number and amount of stock to be issued, and how the corporation will be run?
The by-laws details the name of a corporation, the officers and directors, the number and amount of stock to be issued, and how the corporation will be run?
175 Who has ultimate legal responsibility for the operation of a nursing home?
The governing body has ultimate legal responsibility for the operation of a nursing home?
176 Who has responsibility for the day-to- day operation of a nursing home?
The administrator has responsibility for the day-to- day operation of a nursing home
177 Who must supervise union elections?
The National Labor Relations Board must supervise union elections
178 Who must make the critical decisions for a nursing home?
The governing body must make the critical decisions for a nursing home
179 Who must approve the budget for a nursing home?
The governing body must approve the budget for a nursing home
180 Who must implement facility policies in a nursing home?
The governing body must implement facility policies in a nursing home
181 Who must develop the mission statement for a nursing home?
The governing body must develop the mission statement for a nursing home
182 What question or questions can you ask a job applicant about their prior criminal background?
Have you ever been convicted – cannot ask you have ever been arrested
183 What questions can you ask a job applicant about their health?
Can they do the tasks of the job – show them the job description
184 Who must determine if a job applicant requires special accommodation under the ADA?
A physician must determine if a job applicant requires special accommodation under the ADA
186 Under HIPAA, can the new insurance company preclude coverage for John’s heart condition, which is a pre-existing condition, and if so, for how long? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
The new insurance company can preclude coverage for pre-existing conditions for up to 12 months.
187 How could John secure insurance coverage for his medical expenses during his 90 day probationary period and during any period of time coverage would be excluded under his new policy? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
John can elect to continue coverage under COBRA under his previous employers health plan for up to 12 months provided he pays the full cost of the insurance. John will most likely continue coverage for the 90 day probation period until new insurance become effective.
188 Under what circumstances would John be covered from day 1 by his new insurance plan without any exclusionary period? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
If John produced a certificate of coverage under COBRA then the new insurance plan has to cover John in full the day his coverage becomes effective.
189 What is the minimum time John would be entitled to COBRA? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
John can continue COBRA coverage for 18 months.
190 What is purpose for the COBRA and how would it help your employees if you had to counsel them upon termination of their employment and insurance benefits? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
COBRA was designed to allow workers with pre-existing conditions to move from one employer to another without losing insurance coverage for pre-existing conditions. With the certificate of coverage John is covered in full by his new employer.
191 What is a facility policy?
A facility policy is a broad statement of a goal.
192 Why do we have policies for everything we do in a nursing home?
The purpose for policies and procedures to provide guidance to staff to allow the facility to run 24 hours a day even when managers are not physically present in the building.
193 What is a procedure?
A procedure is a step by step description on how to implement a policy.
194 If a resident was harmed because a nurse gave the resident the wrong medication, which insurance policy would cover you?
Professional Liability insurance will cover you if a resident was harmed because a nurse gave
195 If an employee damages the facility van resulting in costly repairs, which insurance policy would cover you?
Auto insurance will cover the facility if an employee damages the facility van
196 If a nursing aide punches a visiting family member, causing serious injury, which insurance policy will cover you?
General liability insurance will cover the facility ff a nursing aide punches a visiting family member, causing serious injury.
197 If a wind storm blows the roof off the facility, which insurance policy would cover you?
Property insurance with cover a facility if a wind storm blows the roof off the facility
198 An electric power transformer blows up down the block, and your facility loses power for a week and you lose $100,000 in income. Which insurance policy would cover you?
Business interruption insurance will cover a facility if an electric power transformer blows up down the block, and your facility loses power for a week and you lose $100,000 in income.
199 Some one breaks into the facility safe and steals $1000. Which insurance policy will cover you?
Burglary insurance will cover a facility if someone breaks into the facility safe and steals $1,000.
200 The CEO is sued by shareholders for mismanaging the company and losing money. Which policy will cover you?
Officers and Directors insurance will cover a facility if the CEO is sued by shareholders for mismanaging the company and losing money.
201 How many fire drills do you need per year?
Must have 12 drills per year, all three shifts per quarter
202 The emergency generator must switch on within _______ if there is a loss of power
The emergency generator must switch on within 10 seconds if there is a loss of power
203 It cannot take more than ____ lbs of pressure to operate a faucet?
It cannot take more than 5 lbs of pressure to operate a faucet
204 It cannot take more than ____ lbs of pressure to operate a water fountain?
It cannot take more than 5 lbs of pressure to operate a water fountain
205 It cannot take more than ____ lbs of pressure to flush a toilet?
It cannot take more than 5 lbs of pressure to flush a toilet
206 A railing or grab bar must support a minimum of _____ lbs?
A railing or grab bar must support a minimum of 250 ibs
207 A telephone cord must be minimum of _____ inches long?
A telephone cord must be minimum of 29 inches long
208 You must have _____ days of emergency food
You must have 7 days of emergency food
209 Must prepare the menu _____ days in advance
Must prepare the menu 30 days in advance
210 Must keep the menu _____ days
Must keep the menu 30 days
211 What information is recorded on the OSHA Summary Log of Injuries?
Must record the date of an injury, employee name, and type of injury (i.e back sprain) this is only a summary.
212 What information is recorded on the OSHA Supplemental Log?
The Supplemental Log is your accident investigation form and contains all of the detailed information about the incident.
213 When do you have to post the OSHA year end summary?
The year end report is essentially the summary log that is posted between February 1 and April 31 by the employee clock.
214 What information is on the OSHA year end summary?
The year end summary is essentially the summary log but you may need to redact employees names with confidential medical conditions (i.e. - exposure to HIV/AIDS).
215 What does MSDS stand for?
Materials safety data sheets
216 What is Hepatitis?
Iinflammation of the liver
217 What is Arthritis
Inflammation of the joints
218 What is Nephritis
Inflammation of the kidneys
219 Who must approve resident care policies?
The medical director must approve resident care policies
220 How often must all facility policies be reviewed?
All facility policies be reviewed annually employees actions.
221 Who must attend the quality assurance committee meeting?
The don, a physician and three staff members must attend the quality assurance committee
222 What is respondent superior?
Respondent superior requires to employer to answer to third parties injured or damaged by an
223 A window sill cannot be higher than ____ inches
A window sill cannot be higher than 36 inches
224 The livable space in a resident room would not include?
The livable space in a resident room would not include the bathroom, closet, vestibule or hallway.
225 A semi private room must have a minimum of ____ square feet of living space per person?
A semi private room must have a minimum of 80 square feet of living space per person
226 A private room must have a minimum of ____ square feet?
A private room must have a minimum of 100 square feet
227 High forward reach from a wheel chair is ____ inches?
High forward reach from a wheel chair is 48 inches
228 Side reach from a wheel chair is ____ inches?
Side reach from a wheel chair is 9 – 54 inches
229 Toe clearance is _____ inches?
Toe clearance is 9 inches
230 Knee clearance is ____ inches?
Knee clearance is 19 inches
231 What are the requirements for a closet in a resident room?
The closet must have 30 x 48 inch clear floor space, a clothes rack and a shelf no higher than 54 inches high (high side reach).
232 What furniture are you required to provide residents in the resident bedroom per OBRA 1987
Must provide residents a bed, mattress, side table, dresser with drawers, chair, bed pan and window or door with a window to the outside.
233 What is the temperature of the final rinse cycle of a hot water dishwasher?
The final rinse cycle of a hot water dishwasher 180 degrees
234 What is in each compartment of a 3 compartment sink?
A 3 compartment sink: compartment 1 – warm sudsy water, compartment 2 – clear water to rinse and the compartment 3 – sanitizing solution (wash – rinse- sanitize).
235 Must have a wheelchair passing lane every ____ feet?
Must have a wheelchair passing lane every 200 feet
236 Two wheelchairs require ___ inches to pass?
Two wheelchairs require 60 inches to pass
237 A wheelchair is ____ inches wide?
A wheelchair is 30 inches wide
238 The width of the bathroom door in a resident bedroom is a minimum of ___ inches wide?
The width of the bathroom door in a resident bedroom is a minimum of 32 inches
239 A door on the fire exit corridor must be ____ inches thick with a ____ core and ____ minutes of fire rating
A door on the fire exit corridor must be 1 3/4 inches thick with a solid wood core and 20 minute fire rating.
240 Lighting of the means of egress must be continuous with exit floor surfaces illuminated at the level of ____ foot candle light from the _____.
Lighting of the means of egress must be continuous with exit floor surfaces illuminated at the level of 1 foot candle light from the floor.
241 Every facility must be divided into a minimum of ___ smoke compartments
Every facility must be divided into a minimum of 2 smoke compartments
242 Fire exists must be located ____ from each other
Fire exists must be located remotely from each other
243 A fire exit corridor (hallway) cannot be longer than ____ feet
A fire exit corridor (hallway) cannot be longer than 150 feet
244 The distance from inside a resident room to the fire exit corridor (hallway) cannot exceed ____ feet
The distance from inside a resident room to the fire exit corridor (hallway) cannot exceed 50 feet.
245 The distance from inside a resident’s room to the outside fire exit cannot exceed ___ feet
The distance from inside a resident’s room to the outside fire exit cannot exceed 200 feet
246 The emergency electrical generator must be inspected ______.
The emergency electrical generator must be inspected weekly.
247 The emergency generator must be tested under full load for ____ minutes every ____
The emergency generator must be tested under full load for 30 minutes every month
248 Food must be stored _____ inches off the floor
Food must be stored 6 inches off the floor
249 Cannot store any object above ____ inches from the ceiling
Cannot store any object above 18 inches from the ceiling
250 Must keep the resident contract for ___ years
Must keep the resident contract for 5 years
251 Must keep the resident chart for _____ years
Must keep the resident chart for 5years
252 The resident chart belongs to the ______.
The resident chart belongs to the facility.
253 Must make records available for inspection within ___ hours of request by a resident
Must make records available for inspection within 24 hours of request by a resident
254 Must provide copies of a resident’s records within ___ hours of request
Must provide copies of a resident’s records within 48 hours of request
255 What can you specifically charge a resident when providing photocopies of their records
You can specifically charge a resident a per page copy charge and the actual time required to copy the records.
256 Can you charge a resident for the time to locate records?
Cannot charge a resident for the time to locate records
257 Can you charge a resident a per page photocopy charge?
Can charge a resident a per page photocopy charge
258 Can you charge a resident for the time to locate records?
Cannot charge a resident for the time to locate records
259 Can you charge for the time to type a bill?
Cannot charge for the time to type a bill
260 Air temperature is measured from the ____?
Air temperature is measured from just above the floor or 3 feet above the floor
261 Per OBRA 1987, the comfortable air temperature range in a facility is between ____ and ___ degrees?
Per OBRA 1987, the comfortable air temperature range in a facility is between 71-81 degrees
262 A handrail on a staircase must extend ____ inches beyond the bottom and top step?
A handrail on a staircase must extend 12 inches beyond the bottom and top step?
263 The landing on a stair case must be a minimum of ____ square inches?
The landing on a stair case must be a minimum of 60 square inches
264 A hallway or ramp must have a minimum width of ___ Inches wide?
A hallway or ramp must have a minimum width of 8 feet wide
265 A carpet cannot have a pile higher than ____ inches?
A carpet cannot have a carpet pile higher than 1/2 inch
266 True or False – you can use extension cords in a facility?
False – you cannot use extension cords in a facility
267 What does R-A- C-E stand for?
R-A- C-E means Rescue Alarm Contain and Extinguish
268 How often must your emergency plan be approved and by whom?
The facility emergency disaster plan must be approved by the county emergency management agency each year. The county has 60 days to approve the plan and the state surveyors will check to see if you have an approved plan during annual survey.
269 Who must approve your fire plan and how often?
The local fire department must approve your fire plan annually
270 True or false – must have glass panels in the double doors of a fire compartment?
True – must have glass panels in the double doors of a smoke compartment
271 True or false – the double doors of a fire compartment must both swing in the same direction?
False – the double doors of a fire compartment must both swing in opposite directions
272 True or false – the walls of a smoke compartment have a fire rating of 1 hour?
False – the Walls of a smoke compartment have a fire rating of 2 hours
273 Must have battery power to power the emergency lighting for _____ hours?
Must have battery power to power the emergency lighting for 1 1/2 hours
274 The width of an interior staircase must be a minimum of ____ inches?
The width of an interior staircase must be a minimum of 44 inches
275 How is the fire alarm activated (automatically, electronically or manually)?
Afire alarm is activated manually – by a manual pull station
276 The fire exit door swings inward or outward?
The fire exit door swing outward – if the bodies pile up inside the door still swings open
277 The door that leads from a resident room to the main hallway must be a minimum of ___ inches wide?
The door that leads from a resident room to the main hallway must be a minimum of 44 inches wide – need clearance for a bed.
278 True or False – the window in a resident’s room must open?
False – the window in a resident’s room does not need to open
279 An incline or slope of more than ½ inch requires ______?
An incline or slope of more than ½ inch requires ramp treatment
280 An incline or slope of less than ½ inch requires ______?
An incline or slope of less than ½ inch requires a beveled edge
281 A semi private room with 4 residents would require ____ square feet?
A semi private room with 4 residents would require 320 square feet
282 Every resident should have a physical exam at least _____?
Every resident should have a physical exam at least quarterly – the MDS
283 A sidewalk must be a minimum of ____ feet wide?
A sidewalk must be a minimum of 3 feet wide
284 Skilled therapy that focuses on the lower body and strengthening weight bearing
Skilled therapy that focuses on the lower body and strengthening weight bearing muscles is called physical therapy.
285 Which therapists are concerned with the upper body and ADL’s?
Occupational therapists are concerned with the upper body and ADL’s
286 Which therapists evaluate residents for speech and swallowing problems?
Speech therapists evaluate residents for speech and swallowing problems
287 Who can prescribe skilled therapy?
Only a physician can prescribe skilled therapy
288 Who can dispense medication?
Only a pharmacist can dispense medication
289 The maximum number of residents you can have in a resident bedroom is ____ people?
The maximum number of residents you can have in a resident bedroom is 4 people
290 Which therapy uses heating pads?
Occupational therapy uses heating pads
291 Name three types of liquid thickeners?
Name three types of liquid thickeners – nectar, pudding and honey
292 What is a therapeutic diet?
A therapeutic diet is any diet that deviates from the regular menu
293 Who can prescribe a therapeutic diet?
Only a physician can prescribe a therapeutic diet
294 What are examples of a therapeutic diet?
Any diet other than the regular diet – low fat, low salt, mechanically altered, puree, etc
295 How many hours can pass from the evening meal till breakfast without a snack?
14 hours can pass from the evening meal till breakfast without a snack
296 How many hours can pass from the evening meal till breakfast with a snack?
16 hours can pass from the evening meal till breakfast with a snack
297 Who must prepare the menu?
A registered dietician must prepare the menu
298 What does palatable mean?
Palatable means taste of the food
299 What are examples of mechanically altered food?
Puree, mechanical softened, etc
300 Name 3 ways food can be prepared or stored that destroys its nutritive value?
3 ways food can be prepared or stored that destroys its nutritive value is over boil in water, add baking soda, and leave uncovered in the refrigerator.
301 The CEO is sued by shareholders for mismanaging the company and losing money. Which insurance policy will cover you?
Officer’s and director insurance will cover a facility if a CEO is sued by shareholders for mismanaging the company and losing money.
302 Physical restraints are checked every ______ and removed every _____ for ____ hour(s)
Physical restraints are removed every 2 hours, leave residents out of restraints for one hour, and check them every 30 minutes.
303 The loss of urine and bowel control is called ________.
Stress incontinence. (Incontinence is loss of urine and bowel control.)
304 When urine is accidently released when an individual sneezes or laughs, this is called __________.
When urine is accidently released when an individual sneezes or laughs, this is called stress incontinence.
305 Minimum daily nursing hours are set by _______
Minimum daily nursing hours are set by the states with federal approval
306 Infections residents develop after an individual is admitted to a facility is called ______.
Nosocomial (from “within”) infections are infections residents develop after they are admitted to a facility (infections not developed in hospital or the home).
307 Nursing home placement causes anxiety because of ___________
Nursing home placement causes anxiety because of the fear of the unknown
308 A _____ would exercise the rights of a person declared incompetent by a court
A legally responsible person would exercise the rights of a person declared incompetent by a court (or court appointed guardian).
309 A resident _____ be required to sign an advance directive as a condition of admission
A resident cannot be required to sign an advance directive as a condition of admission
310 An attending physician must visit residents every ____ days for the first 3 months (90 days) and then ________ thereafter
Attending physician must visit resident once every 30 days for the first 3 months (90days) and then every other month thereafter (once every 60days).
311 The facility must make dental services available. The _____ is responsible to pay for such services
The facility must make dental services available, The resident or famly must pay for them
312 An Otologist deals with _______
An Otologist deals with hearing loss
313 What kind of activities should residents be encouraged to participate in and offered?
Residents are encouraged to participate in activities personally satisfying to them
314 Activities should focus on _______
Activities should focus on resident enjoyment and participation
315 Reality orientation involves ______________
Reality orientation involves calendars, clocks and signs
316 Assessment of a resident’s condition produces a description of their _____ status
Assessment of a resident’s condition produces a description of their current status – this the MDS that requires a physical exam every 3 months.
317 _______ provides pain relief
Analgesics (aspirin) provides pain relief
318 Outdated, deteriorated or discontinued drugs may or may not stored in the drug room
Outdated, deteriorated or discontinued drugs should not be in the drug room
319 Ambulate means to _________
Ambulate means to walk
320 Listening intently, connecting with the speaker and acknowledging you hear their concerns is called ________.
Active listening involves listening intently, connecting with the speaker and acknowledging you hear their concerns.
321 The most effective form of communication is _____
Face to face communication is the most effective
322 The most you can earn each month and still be eligible for Medicaid is ______.
The most you can earn each month and still be eligible for Medicaid is $1860
323 A court order to deduct monies from a worker’s paycheck to repay a debt is called a ___________
A garnishment is a court order to deduct monies from a worker’s paycheck to repay a debt
324 The main function of personnel management is ______
The main function of personnel management is staffing
325 Referrals from ______ is best source for new hires
Referrals from current employees is best source for new hires
326 Solid lines show _____ on an organizational chart
Solid lines show line authority
327 Department managers have _____authority.
Department managers have line authority.
328 A charge nurse has ______ authority
A charge nurse has line authority
329 ______ depreciation depreciates evenly over a set period of years
Straight line depreciation depreciates evenly over a set period of years
330 True of false - the medical director has line authority
True of false - the medical director has line authority
331 The DON is responsible to supervise the ______
The DON is responsible to supervise the nursing staff
332 The medical director coordinates the _______in the facility
The medical director coordinates physician services in the facility
333 The _____ can act in the place of an attending physician in an emergency
The medical director can act in the place of an attending physician in an emergency
334 The ______ is responsible to ensure resident rights are respected
The administrator is responsible to ensure resident rights are respected
335 Overtime is required by the ___________
Overtime is required by the fair Labor Standards Act
336 Vacation, sick leave are required by law or provided at the employers discretion?
Vacation, sick leave are employee benefits provided at the employers discretion
337 Personnel policies are found in the ______
Personnel policies are found in the employee handbook
338 Which accident accounts for most resident injuries?
Falls account for most accidents to residents
339 _______ depreciation claims most depreciation deduction in the first years of an assets life
Accelerated depreciation claims most depreciation deduction in the first years of an assets life while straight line depreciation depreciates evenly over a set period of years.
340 Assets appear on which financial statement_____
Assets appear on the balance sheet
341 Expenses appear on which financial statement ______
Expenses appear on the profit and loss Statement
342 Liabilities appear on which financial statement _______
Liabilities appear on the balance sheet
343 How do you calculate working capital?
Working capital = current assets – current liabilities
344 What is the accounting equation?
Assets equal liabilities + shareholders equity (this is the accounting equation ALC or Assets = Liabilities plus Capital
345 What is your business plan?
Your budget is your business plan
346 _____ inventory keeps count of inventory supplies throughout the year
Perpetual is the best of the two because it perpetually keeps count of inventory supplies through the year.
346A ______ is where the inventory is only counted once a year
A Periodic is where the inventory is only counted once a year
347 _____ is first in and first out – older inventory used first
FIFO is first in and first out – older inventory used first
348 _____ is last in and first out – newer inventory is used first
LIFO is last in and first out – newer inventory is used first
349 Current ratio is calculated by ________
Current ratio is calculated by dividing current assets by current liabilities
350 When your assets are able to meet your current liabilities this is called ______
Liquidity means your current assets can meet current liabilities
351 What is FUTA?
FUTA is federal unemployment tax act and refers to unemployment taxes
352 How often is the balance sheet prepared?
The Balance Sheet is prepared quarterly
353 What document summarizes the assets, liabilities and capital (or net worth or equity)
The balance sheet summarizes the assets, liabilities and capital (or net worth or equity) on a certain date.
354 If you wanted to know how much your business was worth you would look at the ______
If you wanted to know how much a business was worth you would look at the balance sheet
355 Annual audits are done by _______ and are necessary to verify the information in financial statements
Annual audits are done by independent certified public accountants and are necessary to verify the information in financial statements.
356 An effective maintenance program emphasizes _____________
An effective maintenance program emphasizes preventative maintenance
357 Work orders must include ____, ____and _____.
Work orders must include location, problem and an authorized signature
358 The maintenance cost of aging capital equipment justifies replacement in ___ years
The maintenance cost of aging machine justifies replacement in 10 years
359 Must close doors in a fire to contain ______
Must close doors to contain smoke
360 Facilities are constructed of ______ materials
Facilities are constructed of non combustible materials
361 The terms “lock out and tag out” refer to _________
“Lock out and tag out” refer to OSHA requirement to protect staff and residents from hazardous energy discharges (electrocution).
362 Pest control programs can or cannot use open traps, sticky fly paper or poison bait
Pest control programs cannot use open traps, sticky fly paper poison bait
363 MSDS material sheets are required by _____
MSDS material sheets are required by OSHA
364 Under respondent superior, is the employer or the employee liable for wrongful acts by the employee to third parties (residents and visitors)
Under Respondeat superior, both the employer and the employee are liable for wrongful acts of employees to third parties (residents and visitors).
365 Where oxygen is in use in a room you are required to ______as required by rule not law
A no smoking sign must be posted outside a room where oxygen is in use
366 Where would you correct a mistake made in the journals?
The general journal
367 Preparing for future eventualities and uncertainties is called ______
Strategic planning prepares or anticipates future eventualities and uncertainties
368 Rookie managers make the mistake of _________
Rookie managers make the mistake of over managing
369 What are general statements that guide thinking?
Policies are general statements that guide thinking
370 What is the most effective way for an administrator to verify what is actually going on in a facility?
Management by walking around
371 What is MBWA?
Leadership starts with visibility (management by walking around)
372 The ombudsman program is funded by the _____________
The ombudsman program is funded by the Administration on Aging
373 Where would you record prepaid expenses?
The general journal
374 Which form of therapy uses the environment as treatment?
Milieu therapy uses the environment as treatment
375 True or false - Seniors lose interest in intimacy and sex as they age
False - The aging continue to have a strong interest and need for intimacy and sex through out their lives.
376 State survey process is _____based
State survey process is outcome based
377 Attracting customers to buy the facility’s services and fill empty beds is called _____.
Marketing
378 Managing communication between the facility and the public and managing the facility’s image is called ______
Public relations is management of communication between the facility and the public and managing the facility’s image.
379 _____ is the least effective way to market a facility
Advertising in print media and TV ads is least effective way to market a facility
380 _____ is the most effective way to market a facility
Word of mouth is the most effective way to market a facility
381 True or False - A facility is unable to manage a resident with AIDS and must not admit a resident with that diagnosis or discharge if a current resident
False - A facility is able to care for a resident with AIDS using universal precautions
382 Name the 5 legal reasons to involuntarily discharge a resident against their will?
Can discharge a resident if they 1. Are a danger to themselves 2. Are a threat to others 3. The facility cannot meet their needs 4. The resident has improved and longer requires SNF care and 5. Did pay their bill.
383 If a resident is given an anti-psychotic, the physician must document _______ in the chart per OBRA 1987
A rationale or reason for the use of the anti-psychotic
384 Name 2 revenue centers in a nursing home
Nursing, Physical Therapy, Dietary (sells meals)
385 Name 3 expense centers in a nursing home
Social Services, Nursing, Physical Therapy, Maintenance, etc.
386 CARF stands for the _________
CARF stands for Commission on Accreditation of Rehab Facilities
387 Must monitor physical restraints every ____ minutes
Must monitor physical restraints every 30 minutes
388 DON can serve as a charge nurse with ______ beds
DON can serve as a charge nurse with 60 beds or less
389 True or false – the administrator must implement all recommendations of the Resident council
False - the administrator must respond to such recommendations is not required to implement them.
390 How soon should supplies just delivered to the facility be secured behind locked doors?
Should store supplies immediately. DO not leave supplies in the hallway or public areas that can be easily carried away.
391 When supplies are delivered to a facility, what is the correct procedure to verify the items delivered?
Check each item delivered against the invoice and manifest and confirm receipt. Items are almost always missing – demand a refund.
392 Carcinoma is _____
Carcinoma is cancer
393 A doctor involved with identifying diseases is a ________
Pathologist is a doctor involved with causes of diseases
394 Who is responsible to implement resident care policies in a SNF?
The medical director is responsible to implement resident care policies
395 Physicians must write, date and sign progress notes at _____
Physicians must write, date and sign progress notes at each visit
396 True or False - A facility may but is not required to have a transfer agreement with one or more hospitals approved for participation under Medicare and Medicaid
Every facility must have a transfer agreement with one or more hospitals approved for participation under Medicare and Medicaid - To EXCHANGE MEDICAL INFORMATION PER HIPAA.
397 Under OBRA, the quality improvement committee must meet at least _____
Under OBRA, the quality improvement committee must meet at least quarterly
398 Significant weight loss for 1 month is _____ percent
Significant weight loss for 1 month is 5 percent
399 Significant weight loss for 3 months is __ percent
Significant weight loss for 3 months is 7.5 percent
400 Significant weight loss for 6 months is __ percent
Significant weight loss for 6 months is 10 percent
401 The maximum in assets in you can have and qualify for Medicaid is $_______
The maximum in assets in you can have and qualify for Medicaid is $2000
402 Care plans address activities appropriate for each resident based on the ______
Care plans address activities appropriate for each resident based on the comprehensive assessment.
403 Main job of the activity director is to ___________
Main job of activity director is to complete assessments and identify interests
404 What three things must the facility written fire plan address?
The use of an alarm, transmission of an alarm, a procedure to isolate and extinguish a fire, a plan to remove any persons in proximity to a fire and a fire evacuation plan. Just remember R-A- C-E.
405 _____ mandates that the governing body approve all facility policies
OBRA 1987
406 Requests by a resident to see their medical records can be submitted _____
Request to see their medical records can be either orally or in writing
407 Topical drugs are for ______ use
Topical drugs are for external use only
408 Drugs should be administered _______ after they are prepared
Drugs should be administered within one hour after they are prepared
409 STAT means _______
STAT means immediately
410 The sum of all activities to create desired changes in quality care is the definition of _____.
Quality Improvement
411 Who is responsible to ensure drug records are in order and accounted for?
Consultant pharmacist is responsible to ensure drug records are in order and accounted for
412 Who must store and record drugs self administered by residents?
Nursing staff must store and record drugs self administered by residents
413 Residents have the right to self administer drugs if approved by the ________
Residents have right to self administer drugs if approved by inter disciplinary team
414 If a medication has a stop order – when must the nurse notify the physician?
If a medication has a stop order – the nurse must notify the physician before the last dose is administered.
415 Must offer therapeutic activities based on a resident’s _____
Must offer therapeutic activities based upon resident interests and hobbies
416 Management by walking around would not involve _____
Management by walking around would not involve taking corrective action.
417 The primary purpose of a safety program is to ______
Prevent or minimize accidents and injuries
418 Administrator communication with family is or is not privileged communication (protected from disclosure by law)
Administrator communication with residents and family is not privileged (protected from disclosure by law) (Attorneys, doctors and clergy do have confidential privilege and cannot be forced to disclose what you reveal to them).
419 HIPAA limits the exclusion period for pre existing conditions to ___ months
HIPAA limits the exclusion period for pre existing conditions to 12 months
420 Under the Family Medical Leave Act, an employee can or cannot be required to use up leave time as part of the 12 weeks of FMLA they are entitled to each year
Under the family leave act, the employee can be required to use up leave time for the 12 weeks of FMLA they are entitled to each year.
421 Under the ADA, employees can or cannot be required to submit to a fitness for duty
Under the ADA, employees can be required to submit to a fitness for duty exam relevant to their job after being hired.
422 True or False - Can you require medical exams prior to an offer to hire
Can only require medical exams post hire
423 The process of determining job tasks, employee behavior and skills necessary for a job is called a ________.
A job analysis determines job tasks, employee behavior and skills necessary for a job
424 A collection of tasks that can be performed by one person is called a ____.
A job is a collection of tasks that can be performed by one person
425 Affirmative action relates to ______.
Affirmative action relates to hiring practices
426 What is the difference between a leader and a manager?
A manager maintains the status quo and resists change whereas a leader is forward thinking and understands the need to innovate, adapt and change.
427 True or false – Employees not formally evaluated by their supervisor can be expected to make good progress
False - Employees not formally evaluated by their supervisor cannot be expected to make good progress.
428 Which entity enforces the Fair Labor Standards Act?
The Dept of Labors enforces the Fair Labor Standards Act
429 Employment at will allows an employer to _____
Employment at will provides an employer can fire an employee without cause
430 Budgets are based on _______________
Budgets are based on past experience and future expectations
431 Under GAAP, what is the entity principle?
The owner of a public corporation is separate from the company and cannot take cash from the cash register and not record the transaction.
432 The accrual method of accounting is required by ______
The accrual method of accounting is required by Medicare and Medicaid
433 Income and expenses are recorded in the accrual method when _____
Income and expenses are recorded in accrual method when incurred
434 Depreciation is correctly defined as the decrease in value due to ______
Depreciation is correctly defined as the decrease in value due to wear and tear and obsolescence.
435 An amortization is a schedule showing _______
Amortization is a schedule showing interest and principal owed to a creditor
436 Working capital is calculated by ________
Working capital equals current assets minus current liabilities
437 Which law requires overtime?
Vacation is most costly fringe benefit
438 Identifying and solving problems before they get out of hand is called _____.
Risk management is identifying and solving problems before they get out of hand. Purchasing insurance decreases your risks.
439 Workers compensation premiums are based on ________
Workers compensation premiums on based on how many employees are collecting workers compensation benefits.
440 The key to inventory control is to ________
The key to inventory control is to standardize supplies, organize a central purchasing department and control number of people authorized to purchase.
441 A fiscal intermediary is an _______ who processes Medicare and Medicaid claims
A fiscal intermediary is an insurance company
442 Employees pay ____of their FICA tax
Employees pay 50% of their FICA tax and the employer pays the other half
443 When is a transaction recorded in the cash accounting system?
In the cash basis of accounting a transaction is recorded when a bill is actually paid or cash is actually received. In the accrual system the transaction is recorded when incurred or the date of the invoice.
444 How does a business pay its payroll taxes? Which form?
Employers pay payroll taxes quarterly on form 941
445 Which federal law requires written policies and procedures to protect patient info
HIPAA requires written policies and procedures to protect patient info
446 Principal cause of odors in nursing homes is _____
Principal cause of odors in nursing homes is incontinence
447 Most common accident in nursing homes to employees is ______
Most common accident in nursing homes to employees is lacerations/cuts
448 All personal appliances brought into a facility must be inspected by the ______ ensure it is safe before it can be plugged in
All personal appliances brought into a facility must be inspected by maintenance ensure it is safe before it can be plugged in.
449 Egress is _____
Egress is outward
450 Ingress is ____
Ingress is inward
451 In GAAP, what is the Conservatism principle?
The Conservatism principle states that you must use the lower valuation when deciding which depreciation schedule to use calculate the value of your assets.
452 In GAAP, what is the Objective Evidence Principle?
The Objective Evidence Principle states you must use source documents to evidence your transactions.
453 Disclosure of ownership requires facilities to ______
Disclosure of ownership requires licensees to notify the state licensing agency of changes in corporate officers, administrator and director of nursing.
454 Which form of doing business provides the most limited liability?
Corporations provide the most limited liability
455 True or False – Non profit corporations own most nursing homes
False – For profit corporations own most nursing homes
456 Which document contains rules, regulations and a mission statement?
Bylaws contain rules, regulations and mission statement
457 Other than an emergency, must give a resident ____days advance notice of transfer or discharge
Other than an emergency, must give resident 30 days notice of transfer
458 A resident can work for the facility provided it is recorded in the ________
A resident can work for the facility provided it is in the plan of care
459 What are source documents under GAAP?
Source documents include invoices, receipts and cancelled checks
460 True or False – the Governing body creates or implements procedures
Governing body does not create or implement procedures
461 The conscientious use of assets is called ____________
A key role of the governing body is stewardship which the conscientious use of assets
462 Who hires most staff in a nursing home
The governing body does not hire staff – that is mostly done by dept heads
463 What is Time Period Principle under GAAP?
The Time Period Principle states that you must use the same time period from year to year (calendar or fiscal year).
464 A person who dies without a will is ________
A person who dies without a will is intestate
465 What is the Consistency Principle under GAAP?
The Consistency Principle states that you must use the same accounting system year from year – can’t use accrual one year and cash system the next year.
466 True or False – The ombudsman can review a resident’s records without the resident’s consent
The Ombudsman cannot see resident records without the resident’s consent
467 Demographic information relates to ______
Demographic information relates to population statistics
468 What is the Continuing Concern Principle under GAAP?
That a company will still be in business next year and the year after that
469 Marketing is concerned with _____
Marketing is concerned with filling your beds
470 When decisions are made at lowest level authorized to make them this called _____
Effective delegation is where decisions are being made at lowest level authorized to make them.
471 Becoming neurotic is a psychological or physiological change
Becoming neurotic is a psychological change
472 Slowed reflexes is a psychological or physiological change
Slowed reflexes is a physiological change
473 Becoming incontinent is a psychological or physiological change
Becoming incontinent is a physiological change
474 Autism is or is not a developmental illness
Autism is a developmental illness
475 What percentage of residents selected to be interviewed during a survey must be interviewable?
50% of those residents selected to be interviewed during a survey must be interviewable (cognitive or able to speak).
476 The purpose of a transfer agreement between facilities is to provide ______
The purpose of a transfer agreement between facilities is to provide an interchange of medical information.
477 A resident to be admitted to a nursing home must have a physical evaluation or examination done ___ days prior to admission or ___ hours after admission
A resident to be admitted to a nursing home must have a physical evaluation or examination done with 5 days prior to admission or 48 hours after admission.
478 Adaptive feeding equipment must be prescribed by a ______ or an_______
Adaptive feeding equipment must be prescribed by a physician or the occupational therapist
479 An ophthalmologist is a medical doctor that treats _______
Ophthalmologist treats visual disorders and is a medical doctor
480 A professional who grinds lenses for glasses is called ______
An optician grinds lenses for glasses
481 The main purpose for a resident council is _______
Resident councils give residents a sense of control over their lives s
482 The RAPs has __ triggers
The MDS has 18 triggers
483 The ____ is responsible to check resident drug regimens monthly
The pharmacist consultant is responsible to check resident drug regimens monthly
484 The ____ consultant is responsible to verify facility drug records
The pharmacist consultant is responsible to verify drug records
485 The pharmacist consultant is or is not required to dispense or dispose of drugs
The pharmacist consultant does not administer, dispense or dispose of drugs The pharmacy under contract does that.
486 A private room, television and phone are or are not covered by Medicare or Medicaid
A private room, television, phone, reading materials, hair salon are not covered by Medicare or Medicaid.
487 PRN means ______
As requested
488 STAT means ______
Immediately
489 P.O. – means ______
By mouth
490 NPO – means ______
Nothing by mouth
491 True or False - Internal and external meds may kept in the same drawer or area.
False - Internal and external meds must be kept in separate areas. They are stored in different drawers on med cart.
492 True or False - Sexuality drastically diminishes with age
False - Sexuality does not drastically diminish with age
493 A resident must be given a physical examination at least ______
A resident must be given a physical examination at least every 3 months to keep assessment accurate (MDS).
494 Discharge planning is started ____
Discharge planning is started upon admission
495 The most common cause of infections in a nursing home is ______
Exposure to visitors and employees is most common cause of infections
496 Bedfast means being confined to a bed all of the time within the past __ days
Bedfast means being confined to a bed all of the time within the past 7 days.
Resident councils give residents a sense of control over their lives.
497 Privacy considerations include privacy curtains, knocking on doors and understanding each individuals need for privacy
Privacy considerations include privacy curtains, knocking on doors and understanding each individuals needs for privacy.
498 Calculate percentage of occupancy where you have 120 beds and 87 are occupied?
Approximately 73% 87/120 = 87
499 Which document specifies an individuals preference for the use of life prolonging measures such as tube feedings and ventilators?
Living will specifies an individuals preference for the use of life prolonging measures such as tube feedings and ventilators.
500 A person who makes a will is called a ________.
A testator makes a will
