A CSV Flashcards
1 The decibel range for a hearing aide compatible telephone is between ___ and ___ decibels
Per the ADA the range for a hearing compatible phone is 12 – 18 decibels
2 What are the main symptoms of Tardives dyskinesia?
Lip Smacking and uncontrolled facial gestures
3 What do the initials COPD stand for?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
4 What do the initials CHF stand for?
Congestive Heart Failure
5 What is blockage of the arteries called?
A blockage of the arteries is arteriosclerosis
6 What is hardening of the artery walls called?
Hardening of the artery walls is called atherosclerosis
7 What do the initials TIA stand for?
Trans Ischemic Attack
8 What is a TIA? (i.e., heart attack, end stage renal failure or a stroke)
A TIA is a stroke
9 What do the initials EKG stand for?
Electro Kardio (cardio) Gram (measures heart activity)
10 What do the initials CVA stand for?
Cerebral Vascular Accident
11 What is a CVA? (i.e., heart attack, end stage renal failure or a stroke)
A CVA is a stroke
12 What is a physiatrist?
A physiatrist is a physician who works with the musculoskeletal system and works closely with the physical therapist.
13 Per OBRA 1987, does a resident have the right to a bath?
OBRA 1987 does not specify any requirement that a resident must have a bath
14 Per OBRA 1987, does a resident have the right to a shower?
OBRA 1987 does not specify any requirement that a resident must have a shower – it is assumed that you will keep the residence clean.
15 What is gerontology?
Gerontology is the study of the aging process
16 What is a gerontologist?
A gerontologist is a person who studies the aging process
17 Describe the 4 stages of a decubitis sore?
The 4 stages of a decubitis sore: 1. Redness/warm to touch 2. A blister that opens with possible pus 3. Tissue loss of the upper and lower layers of the epidermis 4. Tissue loss down to the bone potential
18 Explain what a severity of Level 1, Class 2, Class 3 and Class 4 deficiency is per OBRA 1987?
Class 1 deficiency – no harm, no potential for harm Class 2 deficiency – no harm but possible (They could not identify any residents actually harmed) Class 3 deficiency – Harm but not immediate jeopardy Class 4 deficiency is Harm and immediate jeopardy
19 Which of the letters between A-L would indicate the existence of substandard care?
Substandard care would begin with the letter G Class 1 – A – isolated B- patterned C – Widespread Class 2 - D – isolated E- pattered F- Widespread Class 3 - G – isolated H – patterned I- widespread Class 4 - J - isolated K – Pattered L – Widespread
20 What is a myocardial infarct?
A myocardial infarct is a heart attack
21 What is the first stage of the annual survey?
The first stage of the annual survey is OFFSITE PREPARATION where the surveyors review the facility’s prior surveys, incident report, ombudsman reports, quality indicatorys and other information from OSCAR.
22 Which stage is where the survey team sits down with staff and discloses the results of the annual survey
In the EXIT CONFERENCE the survey team sits down with staff and discloses the results of the annual survey.
23 Which stage of the annual survey involves the team leader sitting down with the facility staff and discuss the survey about to take place and what records they will need to see
In the ENTRANCE CONFERENCE the team leader sits down with the facility staff and discusses the survey about to take place and what records they will need to see.
24 Which stage of the survey involves the survey team walking around the facility and identifying the layout of the facility
The FACILITY TOUR involves the survey team walking around the facility and identifying the layout of the facility.
25 Which phase of the survey involves the survey team identifying which people they want to talk to and records they want to review
SAMPLE SELECTION involves the survey team identifying which people they want to talk to and records they want to review.
26 Which phase of the survey involves identifying which deficiencies, if any, the facility will cited for
INFORMATION ANALYSIS involves identifying which deficiencies, if any, the facility will cited for.
27 Which phase of the survey involves the survey team observing residents and staff, taking notes, interviewing the resident council and other residents
INFORMATION GATHERING involves the survey team observing residents and staff, taking notes, interviewing the resident council and other residents.
28 What is the correct order of the steps of an annual survey
What is the correct order of the steps of an annual survey: 1. Offsite Preparation 2. Enterance Conference 3. Sample Selection 4. Information Gathering 5. Information Analysis 6. Exit Interview
29 Within how many days of the survey team exiting a facility and completing a survey must the facility receive a report of the results of compliance survey?
The facility must receive a report of the results of a compliance survey within 10 days of the exit interview.
30 Within how many days must a facility submits a plan of correction in response to any alleged deficiencies?
A facility must submit a plan of correction for any alleged deficiencies within 10 days from receipt of the report of deficiencies.
31 When is your date certain for re-survey ( the earliest the survey team can return to verify the facility corrected all cited deficiencies
Your date certain for re-survey ( the earliest the survey team can return to verify the facility corrected all cited deficiencies) is 30 days from the date the survey team exited the facility.
32 What is the number of the form that you will receive detailing any deficiencies found during an annual or complaint survey?
You will receive a form 2567 that will detail any deficiencies found during an annual or complaint survey.
33 You have how many days to file a request for administrative hearing to dispute a citation?
You have 20 days from the date you receive the 2567 to file a request for administrative hearing to dispute a citation.
34 What is an IDR?
An IDR is an informal dispute resolution (i.e. sending a letter to the survey team leader or requesting a face to face meeting with the local licensing office to dispute a citation)
35 What is a FDR?
An FDR is a formal dispute resolution which involves requesting a hearing before an administrative law judge within 20 days of receipt of the 2567.
36 What does OSCAR stand for?
OSCAR stands for Online Survey and Certification Reporting
37 Which entity created OSCAR and what is the purpose of this database?
The CMS created OSCAR and it is a national base that collects all of the information collected from the MDS data entered into the system from each of the 17,000 nursing homes in the nation.
38 Which 3 reports does a survey team pull off OSCAR before entering a facility to do an annual survey or complaint survey?
The survey team will print off: 1) the facility profile report 2) the facility characteristics report 3) resident level summary – from OSCAR before they enter your facility
39 Which survey type is the annual survey?
A standard survey is an annual survey
40 Which survey type a complaint survey?
An abbreviated standard survey is a complaint survey
41 Which survey type will you have if the surveyors find substandard care during an annual survey?
A extended survey would be imposed if the surveyors found substandard care during an annual survey.
42 Which survey type with you be subject to if the surveyors find substandard care during a complaint survey?
A partial extended survey would be imposed if the surveyors find substandard care during a complaint survey.
43 Which survey type is used to verify a facility corrected any cited deficiencies?
A re-survey is done to verify a facility corrected any cited deficiencies where the facility was cited for no more than a level F citation.
44 What is a psychiatrist?
A psychiatrist is a physician who specializes in mental disorders.
45 What is an MDS?
An MDS is a minimum data set.
46 What is the purpose of the MDS?
The MDS is required to maintain a continuing evaluation of each residents physical, mental and psychosocial well-being throughout the year.
47 What is the standard of care a facility must provide each resident per OBRA 1987?
A facility must maintain each resident’s highest practical physical, mental and psychosocial well being and minimize decline per OBRA 1987.
48 What is the standard you must provide residents with respect to the facility environment per OBRA 1987?
You must provide residents an environment that is homelike and de-emphasizes the institutional look of most nursing homes.
49 What is type 1 Diabetes and what treatment is required?
Type 1 Diabetes is insulin dependent diabetes and is treated with regular insulin injections
50 What is type 2 diabetes and what treatment is required?
Type 2 diabetes is adult onset and is treated with diet, exercises and pills.
51 What does CMS stand for?
CMS stands for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
52 How often must a facility be surveyed?
A facility must be surveyed at every 15 months
53 What is a class 1 deficiency?
A class 1 deficiency is no harm and no potential for harm
54 What is a class 2 deficiency?
What is a class 2 deficiency is no harm but potential for harm
55 What is a class 3 deficiency?
What is a class 3 deficiency is Harm but not immediate jeopardy
56 What is a class 4 deficiency?
What is a class 4 deficiency is harm and immediate jeopardy
57 A class A fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?
A class A fire extinguisher would be used to put out a PAPER OR WOOD fire.
58 A class B fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?
A class B fire extinguisher would be used to put out a FLAMMABLE LIQUID FIRE like like kerosene.
59 A class C fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?
A class C fire extinguisher would be used to put out an ELECTRICAL fire.
60 A class D fire extinguisher would be used to put out a ___ fire?
A class D fire extinguisher would be used to put out a flammable METALS fire like
61 An MDS must be signed by a _______?
An MDS must be signed by a registered nurse.
62 A care plan must be signed by a _______?
A care plan must be signed by a registered nurse.
63 A comprehensive assessment must be completed within ___ days of admission to a facility?
A comprehensive assessment must be completed within 14 days of admission to a facility.
64 A care plan must be completed within ___ days of the completion of the MDS?
A care plan must be completed within 7 days of the completion of the MDS.
65 A significant change must be processed within ____ days?
A significant change must be processed within 14 days (the comprehensive assessment is the MDS and a significant change means doing a completely new MDS).
66 A comprehensive assessment must be reviewed every ____ and completely updated ____.
A comprehensive assessment must be reviewed every 3 months (quarterly) and completely updated annually or since last significant change.
67 A comprehensive care plan must be reviewed every ____ and completely updated ____.
A care plan must be reviewed every 3 months (quarterly) and completely updated annually. (The care plan must be updated every time the MDS is revised).
68 What does HCFA stand for?
HCFA stands for the Health Care Financing Administration
69 What does the HCFA do?
HCFA is the sister organization to the CMS. HCFA sets the rates for Medicare and establishes the RUG rates that SNF’s are paid.
70 What does OIG stand for?
OIG is the office of the Inspector General. This is the inspector general for the Department of Health and Human Services which oversees the CMS and HCFA.
71 What does the OIG do?
The OIG investigates Medicare and Medicaid Fraud
72 Which national organization represents health care administrators?
The American College of Health Care Administrators represents health care administrators
73 Which national organization represents for profit nursing homes?
The AHCA represents for profit nursing homes
74 Which national organization represents non-profit long term care facilities?
The AAHSA represents non-profit long term care facilities
75 What does DHHS stand for and what does the DHHS do?
DHHS stands for the Department of Health and Human Services and it administers the Social Security Administration, CMS, HCFA, and the FD.
76 Which organization provides research to OSHA?
NIOSH provides research to OSHA
77 What does OSHA stand for?
OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Act or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration which enforces the Act.
78 What does OSHA do?
OSHA protects American workers by ensuring a safe workplace
79 Who enforces OSHA?
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration enforces OSHA
80 Which organization sets the standards for the Americans with Disabilities Act?
ANSI or the American National Standards Institute sets the standards for the for the American with Disabilities Act?
81 Which organization develops and publishes the life safety code?
NFPA develops and publishes the life safety code
82 Which life safety code do we follow?
WE follow the life safety code of 2000
83 What is the purpose of the life safety code?
The life safety code is designed to prevent deaths due to structural fires
84 The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of _____, ______, _____, _____ and ______.
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of (RRGCRN) _Race, religion, gender, color and national origin.
85 Which entity enforces the Civil Rights Act?
The EEOC enforces the Civil Rights Act
86 Which entity enforces the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act with respect to discrimination in employment based on physical disabilities?
The EEOC enforces the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act with respect to discrimination in employment based on physical disabilities?
87 Which federal law prohibits discrimination against workers 40 years and older?
The Age in Discrimination Act prohibits discrimination against workers 40 years and older
88 How many employees does an employer need to have to be subject to the federal law identified in question 87 above?
Need 20 employees to be subject to the Age in Discrimination Law
89 Which entity enforces the Equal Employment Opportunity Act?
The EEOC enforces the Equal Employment Opportunity Act
90 What is the standard we use today to determine if discrimination in hiring employees has occurred per the EEOA?
ADVERSE IMPACT is the standard we use today to determine if discrimination in hiring employees has occurred per the EEOA.
91 If I hire 10 white people (the majority group), then how many minority people do I have to hire per EEOA?
If I hire 10 white people (the majority group), then I need to hire 80% of the majority or 80% x 10 = 8 minorities.
92 If I need to hire additional minorities because I did not meet the minimum required by the EEOA, this is called ____ hiring.
Ratio Hiring
93 What does NFPA stand for?
NFPA stands for National Fire Protection Association
94 What does the NFPA do?
NFPA researches and publishes the life safety code. It does not enforce the code.
95 What does ANSI stand for?
ANSI means the American National Standards Institute
96 What does ANSI do?
ANSI develops and publishes the Americans with Disabilities Act. It does not enforce the Act.
97 Which entity enforces the Life Safety Code?
NFPA enforces the Life Safety Code
98 Which entity enforces the ADA with respect to access to public buildings by the handicapped?
The Architectural Barriers Compliance Board enforces the ADA with respect to access to public buildings by the handicapped.
99 Which entity enforces the Discrimination in Pregnancy Act?
The EEOC enforces the Discrimination in Pregnancy Act
100 What is the main objective of the Equal Pay Act?
The main objective of the Equal Pay Act is to ensure that females are paid the same wages as males for the same work.
101 What is “Plegia”?
Plegia means paralysis
102 What is Paraplegia?
Paraplegia is paralyzed from the waist down
103 What is quadriplegia?
Quadriplegia means paralyzed from the neck down
104 What is Hemiplegia?
Hemiplegia means paralyzed on one side of the body
105 What does FMLA stand for?
FMLA stands for family medical leave act
106 How long do you have to work for an employer to be eligible for FMLA?
Must work 12 months or 1250 hours to be eligible for FMLA
107 How many compensatory hours can you accrue each year?
Cannot accrue more than 240 compensatory hours each year (this is time off to compensate overtime exempt employees for hours they work and are not paid time and a half).
108 True or False – the employer must provide an employee paid leave while on FMLA?
False the employer is not required to provide paid leave while on FMLA. You can be required to use up any vacation and sick leave before you go to unpaid status.
109 True or False – the employer is not required to pay for health insurance premiums while an employee is on FMLA?
False – the employer is required to pay for health insurance premiums while an employee is on FMLA. You must pay it back if you do not return to work.
110 True or False – If an employee worked 11 months and 1300 hours they would not be entitled to FMLA because they need to work 12 months to qualify?
False – they worked more than 1250 hours and that qualifies them for FMLA
111 The administrator of a facility is considered ________ and may not be entitled to paid overtime pay?
The administrator of a facility is considered overtime exempt or salaried. Salaried employees do not punch a clock.
112 An exempt employee would or would not be entitled to over time pay?
An exempt employee is not entitled to over time pay
113 An employee who punches in on a time clock is considered _______ for purposes of over time pay?
An employee who punches in on a time clock is considered hourly or non-exempt
114 A salaried employee would or would not be entitled to overtime pay?
A salaried employee is not entitled to overtime pay
115 An hourly employee is or is not an overtime exempt employee?
An hourly employee is not an overtime exempt employee. They must be paid overtime
116 What is Respondeat Superior?
MUST KNOW THIS - Respondent Superior means the superior must respond for the inferior or servant. The employer must pay for injury or damage to third persons caused by employees.
117 What is the federal employer liability Act?
The federal employer liability Act says the employer must pay for the medical bills and lost time for a worker injured on the job.
118 Which entity licenses nursing homes?
The state licenses each nursing home
119 Which entity certifies nursing homes for Medicaid and Medicare
The CMS certifies nursing homes to be a provider for Medicaid and Medicare
120 If a facility is subject to a federal survey, which type of tag would they receive? (F or or N or K tag)
A facility subject to a federal survey would receive an F tag or Federal Tag
121 If a facility is subject only to a state survey which type of tag would they receive? (F or N or K tag)
A facility subject only to a state survey would receive an N tag or Non-Federal tag)
122 If a facility had any life safety violations, which type of tag would they receive? (F or N or K tag)
A facility with life safety violations would receive a K tag
123 Which federal agency administers Medicare and Medicaid contracts?
The CMS administers Medicare and Medicaid contracts
124 What do we mean by substandard care?
Substandard care means a resident was harmed and is a class 3 or 4 violation
125 How often do business file business taxes?
Businesses file business taxes quarterly while individuals file annually
126 Which tax form do businesses use to file FICA and workers compensation taxes?
Businesses use form 941 file FICA and workers compensation taxes
127 Which tax form do employers provide employees at the end of year that is a statement of their wages and taxes paid?
Employees are provided a W-2 that is a statement of their wages and taxes paid
128 Which tax form do you fill out to declare your tax individual exemptions?
Each employee fills out a Form W-4 to declare number of exemptions
129 Which law requires workers to complete an I-9?
The Immigration law requires workers to complete an I-9
130 How many days does the I-9 need to be completed from the date of hire?
Must complete the I-9 within 3 days of hire
131 Which federal law requires employers to pay their employees a minimum federal wage?
The Fair Labor Standards Act requires employers to pay their employees a minimum federal wage.
132 What does SMDA stand for?
SMDA means Safe Medical Devices Act
133 How many days do you have to report any injuries from a medical device?
You have 10 days to report any injuries from a medical device
134 Who do you report injuries to related to any medical device?
Must report injuries from medical devices to the manufacturer and the FDA
135 What is the difference between a power of attorney and a durable power of attorney?
A power of attorney is for financial matters only and a durable power of attorney can be for both financial and health care decisions as well.
136 If a person were declared not competent to make their own decisions by a court, who would make decisions for that individual?
A guardian would make decisions for a person declared not competent by a court
137 What is a living will?
A living will specifies whether an individuals wants artificial life prolonging measures if they cannot sustain bodily functions on their own.
138 What does the PSDA stand for?
PSDA stands for the Patient Self Determination Act
139 What does the PSDA require a facility to do?
The PSDA requires a facility to inform a resident they have the right to make an advanced directive but cannot require them to do so.
140 How many years do you have to keep the OSHA medical records?
Must keep OSHA medical records for the course of employment plus 30 years
141 You must enter all injuries into the OSHA summary log of occupational injuries and illnesses with in how many days?
Must enter all injuries into the OSHA summary log of occupational injuries and illnesses within 7 days.
142 Which types of injuries must be reported to OSHA?
Must report any injuries that require medical attention or lost time
143 How do you report injuries to OSHA?
You enter most injuries into the summary log and supplemental log of injuries and illnesses within 6 days. If several workers are hospitalized or killed then you must call within 8 hours.
144 How many employees do you need to be subject to the OSHA injury reporting requirement?
Need 11 employees to be subject to the OSHA injury reporting requirement
145 Who requires a safety committee?
OSHA requires the safety committee
146 How often must the safety committee meet?
The safety committee must meet monthly
147 How often must the quality assurance committee per OBRA 1987
The quality assurance committee must meet quarterly
148 Who requires nursing home staff to use universal precautions?
OSHA requires nursing home staff to use universal precautions
149 What is the difference between universal precautions and standard precautions?
Universal precautions are gloves and a gown and handwashing and standard precautions means total body protection and involves a gown, face mask, gloves and head covering.
150 What does the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Program require an employer to do?
OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Program requires a written plan in case of exposure
151 What is the focus of the OSHA Hazard communication standard?
The Hazard communication standard focuses on the MSDS
152 What do we mean by an “employee’s right to know”?
An “employee’s right to know” means the MSDS
153 True or False – OSHA requires employees to have a physical exam?
OSHA does requires employees to have a physical exam
154 If 153 is true, what physical exam does OSHA require employees to have post hire but before they work with any residents?
OSHA requires a TB test and vaccination against Hepatitis B
155 How often do workers have to have a physical exam?
Workers need annual TB test and offer Hepatitis B exam
156 What is the OSHA general duty clause?
OSHA general duty clause requires employers to provide workers a safe workplace
157 If 3 or more workers are hospitalized or killed, how must you notify OSHA and within what timeframe? How long do you have?
If 3 or more workers are hospitalized or killed, how must you notify OSHA and within 8 hours by telephone.
158 What does HIPAA stand for?
HIPAA Stands for Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act.
159 What did HIPAA require when first passed?
HIPAA makes a workers insurance portable by limiting the period of time a workers new insurance company can refuse to cover pre-existing conditions to 12 months.
160 Which federal labor law required employers to bargain collectively with unions?
The Wagner Act requires employers to bargain collectively with unions.
161 Which federal law prohibited federal courts from issuing an order preventing unions from striking?
The Norris LaGuardia Act prohibits federal courts from issuing an order preventing unions from striking.
162 Which federal law created the National Labor Relations Board?
The Taft Hartley Act created the National Labor Relations Board?
163 A union must give employers ____ days notice before they can strike
A union must give employers 10 days notice before they can strike
164 Must provide ____ days notice of an intent to change an existing union contract.
Must provide 90 days notice of an intent to change an existing union contract.
165 Employers must provide employees training in any changes in OSHA laws within ____ days
Employers must provide employees training in any changes in OSHA laws within 90 days
166 A nursing home may can only have ___ bargaining units.
A nursing home may have 2_ bargaining units.
167 The _____ must approve any bargaining unit
The National Labor Relations Board must approve any bargaining unit
168 The nursing home bargaining units may only represent which employees?
Can only have 2 bargaining units – professional and non professional
169 The president may halt a union strike for how many days?
The president may halt a union strike for 80 days
170 What is the only thing an employer or manager may tell workers about the benefits of a union?
A manager tell workers how they feel about a union but they cannot ay anything else or ask any questions about union participation of meetings or donate monehy ot a union.
171 What is a mission statement?
A mission statement is simply the purpose of a corporation
172 Which document is the governance of a corporation?
The by-laws are the governance of a corporation – by these laws we govern
173 Which document is filed with the state to form a corporation?
The certificate of incorporation is filed with the state to form a corporation
174 Which document details the name of a corporation, the officers and directors, the number and amount of stock to be issued, and how the corporation will be run?
The by-laws details the name of a corporation, the officers and directors, the number and amount of stock to be issued, and how the corporation will be run?
175 Who has ultimate legal responsibility for the operation of a nursing home?
The governing body has ultimate legal responsibility for the operation of a nursing home?
176 Who has responsibility for the day-to- day operation of a nursing home?
The administrator has responsibility for the day-to- day operation of a nursing home
177 Who must supervise union elections?
The National Labor Relations Board must supervise union elections
178 Who must make the critical decisions for a nursing home?
The governing body must make the critical decisions for a nursing home
179 Who must approve the budget for a nursing home?
The governing body must approve the budget for a nursing home
180 Who must implement facility policies in a nursing home?
The governing body must implement facility policies in a nursing home
181 Who must develop the mission statement for a nursing home?
The governing body must develop the mission statement for a nursing home
182 What question or questions can you ask a job applicant about their prior criminal background?
Have you ever been convicted – cannot ask you have ever been arrested
183 What questions can you ask a job applicant about their health?
Can they do the tasks of the job – show them the job description
184 Who must determine if a job applicant requires special accommodation under the ADA?
A physician must determine if a job applicant requires special accommodation under the ADA
186 Under HIPAA, can the new insurance company preclude coverage for John’s heart condition, which is a pre-existing condition, and if so, for how long? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
The new insurance company can preclude coverage for pre-existing conditions for up to 12 months.
187 How could John secure insurance coverage for his medical expenses during his 90 day probationary period and during any period of time coverage would be excluded under his new policy? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
John can elect to continue coverage under COBRA under his previous employers health plan for up to 12 months provided he pays the full cost of the insurance. John will most likely continue coverage for the 90 day probation period until new insurance become effective.
188 Under what circumstances would John be covered from day 1 by his new insurance plan without any exclusionary period? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
If John produced a certificate of coverage under COBRA then the new insurance plan has to cover John in full the day his coverage becomes effective.
189 What is the minimum time John would be entitled to COBRA? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
John can continue COBRA coverage for 18 months.
190 What is purpose for the COBRA and how would it help your employees if you had to counsel them upon termination of their employment and insurance benefits? ~ John Smith was newly hired by ABC nursing home today. John came from another nursing home where he participated in the company’s major medical plan. John’s new health insurance plan with his new employer will become effective in 90 days. John has a serious heart condition and is worried about having continuous coverage to pay for his expensive monthly health bills
COBRA was designed to allow workers with pre-existing conditions to move from one employer to another without losing insurance coverage for pre-existing conditions. With the certificate of coverage John is covered in full by his new employer.
191 What is a facility policy?
A facility policy is a broad statement of a goal.
192 Why do we have policies for everything we do in a nursing home?
The purpose for policies and procedures to provide guidance to staff to allow the facility to run 24 hours a day even when managers are not physically present in the building.
193 What is a procedure?
A procedure is a step by step description on how to implement a policy.
194 If a resident was harmed because a nurse gave the resident the wrong medication, which insurance policy would cover you?
Professional Liability insurance will cover you if a resident was harmed because a nurse gave
195 If an employee damages the facility van resulting in costly repairs, which insurance policy would cover you?
Auto insurance will cover the facility if an employee damages the facility van
196 If a nursing aide punches a visiting family member, causing serious injury, which insurance policy will cover you?
General liability insurance will cover the facility ff a nursing aide punches a visiting family member, causing serious injury.
197 If a wind storm blows the roof off the facility, which insurance policy would cover you?
Property insurance with cover a facility if a wind storm blows the roof off the facility
198 An electric power transformer blows up down the block, and your facility loses power for a week and you lose $100,000 in income. Which insurance policy would cover you?
Business interruption insurance will cover a facility if an electric power transformer blows up down the block, and your facility loses power for a week and you lose $100,000 in income.
199 Some one breaks into the facility safe and steals $1000. Which insurance policy will cover you?
Burglary insurance will cover a facility if someone breaks into the facility safe and steals $1,000.
200 The CEO is sued by shareholders for mismanaging the company and losing money. Which policy will cover you?
Officers and Directors insurance will cover a facility if the CEO is sued by shareholders for mismanaging the company and losing money.
201 How many fire drills do you need per year?
Must have 12 drills per year, all three shifts per quarter
