A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Practice Exam Flashcards
1
Q
1. Which of the following components can be considered the “brains” of a computer? ❍ A. RAM ❍ B. Hard drive ❍ C. CPU ❍ D. Motherboard
A
- Answer: C. The central processing unit (CPU), otherwise known as the processor,
is often considered to be the “brains” of the computer because it performs the
bulk of the calculations for the system. See Chapter 12, “CPUs,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Random access memory (RAM) stores calculated data over
the short term—it is often called volatile memory because its contents are lost
when the computer is shut down. A hard drive stores data over the long term—it
is often called nonvolatile memory, or simply “storage,” because it retains data
when the computer is shut down. The motherboard is the central connecting
point for all components and connections within the computer, including the
CPU, RAM, and hard drive.
2
Q
- You are attempting to load an operating system from a USB flash drive at
computer startup. Which of the following settings should you modify in the BIOS?
❍ A. Enable a BIOS password
❍ B. Boot sequence
❍ C. Enable TPM
❍ D. Disable TPM
A
- Answer: B. Most of the time a computer’s BIOS (or UEFI) will be configured to
boot to the hard drive first. To boot from a USB flash drive, or optical disc, or
other removable media, you might need to change the boot sequence, otherwise
known as the boot order or boot priority, and place the removable media first.
However, if the drive is brand new and blank, you might be able to still boot from
the removable media, even if it is not first on the list. This will depend on the
system, but essentially, the BIOS will see that the drive is blank and move on
to the next boot media on the list. Keep in mind that you might boot to removable media with an operating system for other reasons than installing the OS (for
example, recovering an existing system). See Chapter 11, “Motherboards and
Add-on Cards,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Enabling a password is not necessary, but there should be a
password. If there is, you will need to know it in order to access the BIOS. If not,
you should create one while you are there. TPM (Trusted Platform Module) deals
with the encryption of data on the hard drive and should be enabled or disabled
before an operating system is installed; it won’t have any bearing on the boot
sequence.
3
Q
Which of the following is the most common type of networking connector? ❍ A. RJ11 ❍ B. F-connector ❍ C. BNC ❍ D. RJ45
A
- Answer: D. The RJ45 connector is the most common type of networking connector. It is used in twisted-pair networks. See Chapter 9, “Cables and Connectors,”
for more information.
Incorrect answers: RJ11 is the connector used by landline-based phones (POTS
connections) and DSL connections in households. The F-connector is a type
of coaxial connector used for cable TV and cable Internet connections. BNC is
another type of coaxial connector used in some video applications and in older
networks.
4
Q
4. Which of the following is the module format used by a laptop’s DDR4 SODIMMs? ❍ A. 200-pin ❍ B. 204-pin ❍ C. 240-pin ❍ D. 260-pin
A
- Answer: D. DDR4 SODIMMs use the 260-pin module format. See Chapter 1,
“Laptops, Part 1,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: As far as SODIMM technology goes, DDR1 and DDR2 use the
200-pin module format and DDR3 is 204-pin. 240-pin is used by full-size desktop
DDR3.
5
Q
Which of the following should be reset during normal printer maintenance? ❍ A. Page count ❍ B. Job queue ❍ C. Print job cache ❍ D. Tray settings
A
- Answer: A. The page count should be reset whenever you perform normal,
scheduled printer maintenance. For example, a laser printer can print about
200,000 pages before it needs a scheduled maintenance. By resetting the page
count after a successful maintenance, you will know when the next maintenance
should occur. This is reset on the printer itself. See Chapter 15, “Printers and
Multifunction Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The job queue and cache should reset automatically; this is
because you would normally turn the printer off before maintaining it. Any print
queue located on a computer is not reset automatically, but jobs in the queue will
probably have to be resent. The tray settings do not have to be reset.
6
Q
- You are a technician for an accounting company. You have submitted a request
for a new wireless access point. You receive and set up the new device and
power it on, but the company router doesn’t appear to recognize it. Which of
the following statements best describes how to fix the problem? (Select the best
answer.)
❍ A. You should perform an apt-get update.
❍ B. You should run Windows Update.
❍ C. You should perform an RPM update.
❍ D. You should install the firmware update.
A
- Answer: D. Always check if there is a new firmware update available for your
wireless access point or other networking device before configuring it and making it available for use. In the scenario, a protocol is probably not the correct version, so the router cannot see the wireless access point. In this case, updating
the firmware is the right move. But always check your company policies before
doing so. See Chapter 6, “SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: The apt-get command is used to install and update applications in Linux operating systems. Windows Update is the program used to
update and patch Windows operating systems. A Red Hat Package Manager
(RPM) update, now simply known as RPM Package Manager, is used to install
software on Linux systems.
7
Q
7. A laptop’s battery fails to charge. Which of the following should be checked first? ❍ A. DC-in jack ❍ B. AC-in jack ❍ C. CMOS battery ❍ D. AC circuit breaker
A
- Answer: A. Of the listed answers, you should check the DC-in jack on the laptop.
The very first thing you should do is check the basics; see if the power brick is
connected to the AC outlet and to the DC-in jack and verify that the battery is
connected properly. See Chapter 2, “Laptops, Part 2,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Laptops don’t have an AC-in jack—the power adapter takes
care of converting AC power to DC power for the laptop to use. Of course, you
should always check the laptop battery first, in the event that it is missing or not
connected properly. Next, make sure the power adapter is plugged into the DC-in
jack and that the jack is not damaged. A damaged DC-in jack can also cause the
laptop to occasionally shut off. Users often damage the DC-in jack because they
leave the power adapter plugged in while they are in transit. On most laptops, a
new one has to be soldered on to the board. The CMOS battery is inside the laptop. It retains UEFI/BIOS settings and has nothing to do with charging the main
laptop battery. The AC circuit breaker might have tripped, but is less likely than
the previously listed reasons. Also, a good indication of a failed AC circuit is that
all of the devices on that circuit would stop working.
8
Q
- One of your co-workers has opened a trouble ticket concerning paper jams on a
laser printer. The paper jams have become more frequent of late. You decide
to attempt to re-create the problem and then check the printer log for more
information. Which of the following are the most likely solutions to the problem?
(Select the two best answers.)
◻ A. Clean and inspect the entire paper path.
◻ B. Clean the fuser roller and verify fuser operation.
◻ C. Clean and replace the paper out sensor.
◻ D. Use a printer maintenance kit to replace parts.
◻ E. Replace the paper exit assembly switch.
◻ F. Clean and inspect the print drum.
A
- Answers: A and D. You should clean and inspect the entire paper path first. This
costs nothing; plus, by clearing out any papers within the path, you will often
solve the problem, at least temporarily, if not permanently. Also, use the corresponding printer maintenance kit to replace worn parts. The parts from these kits
should be installed every 100,000 to 200,000 pages printed (depending on the
printer). Older worn parts can often lead to paper jamming, and is the most likely
answer, especially if the problem has been getting worse of late. See Chapter 21,
“Troubleshooting Printers,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Paper jams don’t usually occur in the fusing assembly, but it
is a possibility. Of course, you should wait 10 to 15 minutes for the fuser to cool
before cleaning or replacing it. (Don’t forget to make sure the printer is turned off
and unplugged.) Replacing other components such as sensors and switches (if
they exist) is less common. It is also uncommon to clean and inspect the print
drum; instead, you would simply replace the toner cartridge. However, this concerns problems such as streaking, marks, and ghosting more than it does paper
jams.
9
Q
- A user boots a computer and a message is displayed that reads “Alert! Cover
previously removed.” Which of the following was configured in the UEFI/BIOS to
cause this alert?
❍ A. Date and time settings
❍ B. Boot sequence
❍ C. Intrusion detection
❍ D. Virtualization support
A
- Answer: C. If the intrusion detection setting is enabled in the UEFI/BIOS, and
the computer was opened, the system will display a message and log what
happened. This is a security feature on most of today’s motherboards. See
Chapter 11, “Motherboards and Add-on Cards,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Configuring the date and time settings would not result in a
message. The boot sequence deals with the list of drives that the system will
attempt to boot from in order. Virtualization support allows the system to use
CPUs that take advantage of Intel and AMD virtualization extensions.
10
Q
The power supply fan and case fans spin, but there is no power to other devices.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this?
❍ A. Failed hard drive
❍ B. Improper connectivity
❍ C. Drive not recognized
❍ D. Failed RAM
A
- Answer: B. If the power supply fan and the case fans are spinning but there is
no power to other devices, the chances are that the main 24-pin power connection was not made from the power supply to the motherboard. In this scenario,
the case fans would have been connected by way of Molex power connectors
directly to the power supply. Although it’s usually better to connect case fans
to the motherboard, if they were connected to the motherboard, they would not
spin, because the motherboard is not receiving power. If this scenario was to
occur, no other devices would get power, including the CPU, RAM, motherboard,
hard drives, optical drives, and so on. See Chapter 13, “Peripherals and Power,”
for more information.
Incorrect answers: If the hard drive fails, the operating system will fail to boot
up. If the hard drive cannot be repaired, it will have to be removed (often with
a Phillips-head screwdriver) and replaced. If the drive is not recognized, again,
the OS will not boot. It would have to be reconnected properly, configured in the
UEFI/BIOS, or partitioned and formatted properly in Windows, depending on the
specific situation. Failed RAM could cause a boot failure and will definitely be
registered by the POST, but it doesn’t necessarily mean that the RAM (or any
other device) is not receiving power
11
Q
- One of the desktop computers at a customer site is randomly rebooting several
times per day. You have checked for overheating issues, but everything seems okay
with the case fans, CPU fan, and power supply. What should you check for next?
❍ A. The integrated network adapter has the latest drivers.
❍ B. The hard drive is defragmented.
❍ C. The motherboard for signs of swollen capacitors.
❍ D. The RAM to confirm it is of the right type.
A
- Answer: C. The best answer listed is to check the motherboard for swollen capacitors. A swollen (or distended) capacitor could cause the system to reboot intermittently. The capacitor (or entire motherboard) needs to be replaced. See Chapter 18,
“Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: It is unlikely that the network adapter or fragmented hard drive
would cause the system to sporadically reboot, but you should check for the latest drivers and firmware for the network adapter anyway and analyze whether the
hard drive has been defragmented of late (especially for magnetic disks). RAM
could cause the system to periodically reboot, mainly if the RAM is overheating.
(RAM heat sinks could fix that.) But the wrong type of RAM will usually result in a
POST failure instead.
12
Q
- Which of the following should be used when building a high-end graphics
workstation for CAD applications? (Select the two best answers.)
◻ A. An IDE drive
◻ B. More than four accessible USB 3.0 ports
◻ C. Main memory of 16 GB or more
◻ D. A 32-bit OS for the large amount of expected drive I/O
◻ E. A PCIe video card with a large amount of memory
A
- Answers: C and E. The most important components in a CAD workstation are
maximized RAM, high-end video, and an SSD (as well as a good multicore CPU).
See Chapter 14, “Custom PCs and Common Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: IDE drives are not seen much anymore, because they are an
older technology that is not nearly as fast as SATA. It is more likely that the system will use internal SATA 3.0 drives, or NVMe-based drives (or perhaps SATA
Express drives). The USB ports are not as important on a CAD workstation. More
likely, the system will run a 64-bit OS, not 32-bit.
13
Q
13. Which of the following is an example of a MAC address? ❍ A. 10.1.1.255 ❍ B. 4410:FF11:AAB3::0012 ❍ C. https://dprocomputer.com ❍ D. 00-1C-C0-A1-55-21
A
- Answer: D. The only answer listed that is an example of a MAC address is
00-1C-C0-A1-55-21. The MAC address is the address burned into the ROM chip
of a network adapter that uniquely identifies it. This address is composed of six
hexadecimal numbers, each between 00 and FF. The decimal equivalent of this is
0 through 255. The first three numbers are the OUI (organizationally unique identifier); 00-1C-C0 is an Intel OUI. The last three numbers are the individual address
of the particular network adapter. You might also encounter MAC addresses
separated by colons instead of hyphens. See Chapter 5, “Ports, Protocols, and
Network Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: 10.1.1.255 is an IPv4 address. 4410:FF11:AAB3::0012 is a
truncated IPv6 address. https://dprocomputer.com is a web address. It includes
the protocol used (HTTPS) and the domain name (dprocomputer.com).
14
Q
- You are installing an IP-based camera system that connects directly to the
network. To access the system remotely, which capability most likely requires
configuration?
❍ A. QoS
❍ B. Port forwarding
❍ C. Static IPs
❍ D. VPN passthrough
A
- Answer: B. Port forwarding is the best answer. For a person to remotely access
the network and gain access to the system, you should forward a specific port
from the router over to the system. This happens after the remote user has made
a virtual private networking (VPN) connection to the network. See Chapter 6,
“SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: QoS stands for quality of service, which can be configured
to grant more connection performance to particular services, such as streaming
media and Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP). Static IP addresses are used when
you need to have a permanent identification for a server (or the entire network)
that can be accessed by hosts on the Internet. Although this might be used in
the scenario, it isn’t necessary and doesn’t need to be configured to access the
camera system.
VPN passthrough means that VPN traffic is allowed on routers that utilize network
address translation (NAT). NAT is the technology that allows multiple clients on
the LAN to share the router to access the Internet.
15
Q
- Which of the following best describes the most likely reason for connecting a
tone generator to an RJ45 cable drop?
❍ A. To confirm continuity of the conductors
❍ B. To locate the position of the cable on a patch panel
❍ C. To test the transmission quality of the connection
❍ D. To validate proper wiring of the network jack
A
- Answer: B. A tone generator (part of a tone and probe kit) is often used to locate
cables, especially if there are a bunch of them in a small area. In the scenario,
the technician is connecting the tone generator to an RJ45 port, perhaps near
a person’s desk. Then the technician uses the probe (an inductive amplifier) to locate the other end of that cable at the patch panel either in a wiring closet or in
the server room. See Chapter 8, “Network Types and Networking Tools,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: The other answers require a cable certifier. Although a cable
certifier can often act as a tone generator, a tone generator is not a cable certifier—it can only generate a tone across the cable. Cable certifiers are used to
confirm continuity, validate proper wiring, and test the transmission quality of a
given connection.
16
Q
- When placing a mobile device into airplane mode, which of the following features
are typically disabled? (Select the two best answers.)
◻ A. Wireless
◻ B. Cellular data
◻ C. Multitouch capability
◻ D. Data encryption
◻ E. Camera
A
- Answers: A and B. Cellular connections are disabled when a mobile device
enters airplane mode, and any other wireless connections as well, such as Wi-Fi,
Bluetooth, GPS, and NFC. However, on some devices, some of these other wireless technologies can be turned on individually after the device has been placed
in airplane mode. See Chapter 4, “Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile
Devices, Part 2,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The display’s multitouch capabilities will work as normal, but
web browsers, e-mail programs, and other apps that require Internet access
will appear not to function properly when tapped on and navigated through—
because, indeed, they are not functioning at all due to airplane mode. Data
encryption will still function, though you won’t be able to send that encrypted
data anywhere. The camera will work, but posting images and video to a remote
source will not function.
17
Q
- One of your co-workers has asked for a cable for an Apple mobile device that
can charge it and transfer data to and from it. Which of the following connection
types would meet the customer’s requirements?
❍ A. Lightning
❍ B. Micro-USB
❍ C. Molex
❍ D. Mini-USB
A
- Answer: A. The Lightning connector is a proprietary connector used by Apple
mobile devices. It is the successor to the 30-pin connector. However, keep
in mind that some Apple devices use USB-C. See Chapter 3, “Smartphones,
Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Apple devices do not use Micro-USB or Mini-USB, although
adapters may be available depending on the device used. Micro-USB is common
on Android-based devices. Molex is a power connection found inside PCs.
18
Q
18. You have been tasked with resolving a shadowy image that is being printed from a network printer. What should you do? ❍ A. Replace the drum. ❍ B. Replace the fuser. ❍ C. Run a calibration. ❍ D. Replace the network cable.
A
- Answer: A. Try replacing the drum. If this is within the toner cartridge (which it
often is), then replace that as well. See Chapter 21, “Troubleshooting Printers,”
for more information.
Incorrect answers: If the fuser needs replacing, you will probably see smeared
text and images. If images or text are not straight or are colored incorrectly, you
might need to calibrate the printer. If the network cable fails, the printer should
not print at all from networked computers; however, a test page run locally at the
printer should print just fine
19
Q
- A desktop computer (named workstation22) can’t connect to the network. A
network card was purchased without documentation or driver discs. Which of the
following is the best way to install the network card driver?
❍ A. Purchase the disc online and install.
❍ B. Run Windows Update to install the drivers.
❍ C. From the desktop computer (workstation22), download and install the
drivers.
❍ D. Copy the driver to a flash drive and install.
A
- Answer: D. You will need to go to another computer, download the driver from
the manufacturer’s website, copy that to a flash drive, and bring it back to
the affected computer. See Chapter 22, “Troubleshooting Wired and Wireless
Network Problems,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: If you have access to another computer, it would be silly to wait
for a disc from the manufacturer. And any manufacturer that charges for drivers
(or a driver disc) should be ashamed, as should the user who actually purchases
the disc! You can’t run Windows Update or download drivers from the computer
in question because the computer has no network connection; and remember,
Windows Update is used to download Microsoft drivers, not other vendors’ drivers.
20
Q
- You are working in a command line and see the following results:
dprocomputer.com = 216.97.236.245
Which of the following server types has most likely helped supply this
information to you?
❍ A. DHCP server
❍ B. DNS server
❍ C. Authentication server
❍ D. Syslog server
❍ E. Print server
A
- Answer: B. The Domain Name System (DNS) server is the server that is in charge
of resolving domain names (such as davidlprowse.com) to their corresponding IP
addresses (such as 216.97.236.245). So, in other words, it provides mapping of
user-friendly names to network resources. The DNS server can supply this information to you when you make use of various commands in the command-line
such as ping, tracert, nslookup, and dig. See Chapter 7, “Networked Hosts and
Network Configuration,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: A DHCP server takes care of handing out IP addresses to
client computers automatically. An authentication server—such as a domain controller running LDAP—is in charge of verifying the identity of users who attempt
to log in. A Syslog server is used to gather the logs from network devices and
present the information in a manageable way to an admin’s workstation. Though
you could probably find out the name resolution within the log details, it wouldn’t
be done in the command line and it wouldn’t be presented in the manner that it
was in the question. A print server is a computer that is in charge of one or more
printers on the network.
21
Q
Which of the following computer components connect directly to the CPU or northbridge? ❍ A. Video card ❍ B. Hard drive ❍ C. Audio ❍ D. Fan ❍ E. RAM
A
- Answers: A and E. The video card and RAM are situated in such a way so that
they can connect quickly to the CPU or to the northbridge. On newer Intel systems, the northbridge is actually part of the CPU. The video card connects by
way of PCI Express ×16 or ×4 slots. The RAM connects via the address bus. See
Chapter 10, “RAM and Storage,” and Chapter 11, “Motherboards and Add-on
Cards,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The hard drive and audio connect to the southbridge; in newer
Intel systems, they connect directly to the single chip within the chipset (which is
still referred to as a southbridge.) Fans are physically connected to the motherboard; any functionality is controlled by the UEFI/BIOS.
22
Q
22. A customer of yours is opening an Internet café and wants to offer computers for the patrons to access the Internet. Which type of computer system should you recommend? ❍ A. Thin client ❍ B. Standard thick client ❍ C. Audio/video workstation ❍ D. Gaming PC ❍ E. HTPC
A
- Answer: A. The best answer listed is thin client. A thin client is used for basic
applications, and it meets the minimum requirements for a selected OS. It is
usually a diskless workstation with limited CPU power. It gets its operating system from flash-based memory or from a server and doesn’t have a hard drive.
In addition, it resets itself every time it is restarted. This helps to protect against
malware and decreases the chances of hardware failure. See Chapter 14,
“Custom PCs and Common Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: A standard thick client is generally a PC. Internet cafes do not
need the power of a thick client, an audio/video workstation, a gaming PC, or an
HTPC. By the way, HTPC stands for home theater PC—a kind of computer used
to connect to television stations, play DVDs and Blu-rays, connect to streaming services, as well as work like a regular computer. The acronym is not in the
CompTIA A+ bulleted objectives, but it is listed in the CompTIA A+ Acronyms list
at the end of the objectives.
23
Q
- You are part of a team that has decided to make use of a cloud provider for
some of your organization’s technology needs. Your top priority is to offload
some of your networking, storage, and VM hosting to the cloud. Which of the
following services best suits your needs?
❍ A. SaaS
❍ B. IaaS
❍ C. PaaS
❍ D. DBaaS
A
- Answer: B. The best answer listed is infrastructure as a service (IaaS). This allows
for networking services (also known as NaaS), storage, load balancing, routing, VM hosting, and more. See Chapter 16, “Cloud Computing and Client-side
Virtualization,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Software as a service (SaaS) provides common applications to
clients over the Internet. Platform as a service (PaaS) provides software solutions
such as the ability to develop and test applications within the cloud. Database as a service (DBaaS)—or cloud database—is where the creator of the database
does not have to install or support the database software or server; instead, it is
provided by a cloud service. The acronym DBaaS is not in the CompTIA A+ bulleted objectives, but it is listed in the CompTIA A+ Acronym list, where you will
also find data as a service (DaaS) and network as a service (NaaS).
24
Q
- Your guest virtual machines get direct access to the hosting computer’s network
connection. What is another name for this?
❍ A. NAT
❍ B. Private virtual network
❍ C. Host-only networking
❍ D. Bridged networking
A
- Answer: D. Bridged networking is when virtual machines can get direct access to
the hosting computer’s network connection and access other systems on the LAN
and the Internet. You might also see this referred to as “external” or “public.” See
Chapter 16, “Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Network address translation (NAT) is when the guest can
access the external network, but not directly. Instead, the guests using NAT get
IP addresses on a separate private IP network. Host-only networking creates a
private virtual network for the guests, and they can communicate with each other,
but not out to the external network or Internet.
25
Q
- Your office printer was working earlier in the day but is no longer printing any
documents. Preexisting workstations are manually configured to print to the
printer directly over the network. You begin troubleshooting the problem and
determine that the printer is still visible when browsing the network directory.
You also verify, at the physical printer, that the printer can print test pages
successfully. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
❍ A. The print spooler was restarted.
❍ B. Two users sent print jobs at the same time, which caused a collision.
❍ C. The printer’s IP address has changed.
❍ D. The message “perform printer maintenance” is displayed on the
printer’s display panel.
A
25. Answer: C. In this scenario, it is possible that the printer’s IP address has been changed, and it is the best choice of the listed answers. The workstations were manually configured (most likely via IP address), which means that an IP address change on the printer would cause any print jobs from those workstations to fail. The IP address could have been configured manually by another tech, or if it was set to DHCP, the printer might have received a new address from the DHCP server. Because of this exact scenario, it is always a good idea to configure a static IP address at the printer itself (within the LCD display). Remember, in the scenario the printer can be seen in the network directory, which usually searches by printer name as opposed to printer IP address. Also, test pages are printing successfully. All these are clues that point to a potential IP problem. See Chapter 21, “Troubleshooting Printers,” for more information. Incorrect answers: Restarting the print spooler service is a troubleshooting technique used when the spooler service is hung up for some reason. It generally doesn’t cause problems but can fix a lot of spooling issues. Two print jobs can’t be sent at the same time—collisions are a concept related to networking. It is possible that packets or frames can collide, but not the print jobs. The print jobs are placed into a queue either at the printer or at the print server. The need to perform printer maintenance doesn’t usually cause print failures, but if you see that message, you should attend to it right away
26
Q
26. Which of the following is an advantage of UDP over TCP? ❍ A. It uses flow control. ❍ B. It transfers packets faster. ❍ C. It uses connection handshakes. ❍ D. It is connection based.
A
- Answer: B. The main advantage of UDP (User Datagram Protocol) over TCP
(Transmission Control Protocol) is that it can transfer data packets faster.
Because it is a connectionless protocol, it doesn’t require the synchronization or
sequencing that TCP does. This makes it a faster option for streaming services,
VoIP, and so on. See Chapter 5, “Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices,” for
more information.
Incorrect answers: UDP does not have an option for flow control. Also, it does
not use a handshaking process. (TCP uses the three-way handshake: SYN, SYNACK, ACK.) As mentioned, UDP is connectionless, whereas TCP is connection
based. However, even though UDP can transmit packets faster, you will find that
TCP is used for most services and applications you will deal with.
27
Q
- John is a PC technician for an organization that has a computer network with
12 computers. Each contains vital information, so each uses static IP addresses
(on the 192.168.50.0 network). John just finished troubleshooting a Windows
computer that could not access the network. He ascertained (correctly) that the
computer needed a new network card. He purchased a plug-and-play card and
physically installed the card. He then turned on the computer, noting that the
network card’s LED link was lit and that there was activity. He then rebooted the
computer to Windows and then documented the whole process. Later, his boss
tells him that the user is complaining that she cannot access the Internet. Which
step of the A+ troubleshooting methodology did John forget to perform?
❍ A. Identify the problem.
❍ B. Establish a theory of probable cause.
❍ C. Test the theory to determine cause.
❍ D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
❍ E. Verify full system functionality.
❍ F. Document findings, actions and outcomes.
A
- Answer: E. John forgot to verify full system functionality. As I’ve said many
times during the course of the book, always test! And by “test” I mean verify
functionality—make sure it works—not “test the theory.” With a default installation of a plug-and-play network card, the card will, by default, be set to obtain
an IP address automatically. If the computers need to be configured for static
IP addresses, this will most likely cause a problem. There might not even be a
device or server that is handing out IP addresses on the network. If that is the
case, the Windows computer would attempt to self-assign an IP address (an
APIPA address starting with 169.254). If that happens, the computer will most
definitely not be able to communicate with the gateway—or the Internet, for that
matter. And even if there is a DHCP server on the network, the chances are very
slim that it is handing out addresses on the 192.168.50.0 network. Most SOHO
routers will hand out addresses on the 192.168.0.0 or 192.168.1.0 networks, and
that is only if DHCP is enabled.
John should have logged in to Windows, ran a ping test, tried to connect to
websites with one or more browsers, and so on. Verifying full functionality is very
important. Always remember to test every repair thoroughly. See Chapter 17,
“Computer Troubleshooting 101,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: All the steps of the A+ troubleshooting methodology are listed
in the answers. John performed each step except for verifying full system functionality.
28
Q
- On your server, two drives of a RAID 5 array have failed. What should you do?
❍ A. Replace one of the drives and run RAID repair.
❍ B. Replace the failed drives and format the RAID array using the quick
option.
❍ C. Replace one of the failed drives and repair the RAID array using system utilities.
❍ D. Replace the failed drives and restore the data from tape backup to the
repaired RAID array
A
- Answer: D. You will need to replace both failed drives (which causes a total RAID
5 array failure, by the way) and restore the entire set of data from tape backup.
See Chapter 19, “Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: In a RAID 5 array, one drive can fail and you can still
recover from the issue without tape backup (using the RAID parity information), but no more than one can fail. If more than one fails—as in the question’s
scenario—then you need to restore all data from a previous backup. However, in
RAID 6, two drives can fail and it can still recover. Formatting the RAID array is
a good idea if you have to recover from backup but not a good idea otherwise
because it will make the current data inaccessible. However, the term “quick
option” is a Windows term, implying that the RAID array was created in Windows,
and is therefore a software-based array. It is recommended that you create
hardware-based arrays that connect to a RAID adapter card (or RAID-enabled
motherboard). In a hardware-based system such as this, you could repair the
array with the system utilities, but again, in this scenario (RAID 5) only if one drive
has failed.
29
Q
- A user working at a PC is experiencing screen flicker. Of the following, what
should you reconfigure? (Select the best answer.)
❍ A. CCFL
❍ B. Refresh rate
❍ C. Resolution
❍ D. Switch from HDMI to DVI
A
- Answer: B. If the PC’s display is experiencing screen flicker then it could be
due to an improperly configured refresh rate. Usually, monitors and operating systems will auto-configure a setting such as this, but not always—for example,
if you are using a less common operating system or a more advanced application. The refresh rate is the number of times the display is drawn on the screen
per second. A common amount is 60 Hz, but perhaps the user is working with
an editing program or game that requires a higher refresh rate, and the monitor
supports it, but it is not configured properly, either in the OS or in the application.
Or perhaps it is an older system that is more prone to refresh rate issues. As you
can see, there are a lot of possibilities when it comes to video. See Chapter 20,
“Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The cold-cathode fluorescent bulb (CCFL) is the backlight for
LCD screens. You wouldn’t reconfigure it, but you might have to replace it if the
display starts blinking or shuts off completely. Keep in mind that many displays
are LED based today and do not use a CCFL. A different resolution shouldn’t
cause screen flicker on a flat-panel display—it would either show the different
resolution, no resolution, or possibly a distorted image. Resolution issues are
more common with CRT monitors. Screen flicker could be caused by a loose
connection, regardless of the connection used. But switching from one video port
type to another probably won’t help fix the actual problem.
30
Q
- Which of the following types of printers requires a maintenance kit that contains
a fuser, transfer roller, and pickup rollers?
❍ A. Thermal
❍ B. Laser
❍ C. Inkjet
❍ D. Impact
A
- Answer: B. The laser printer is the one that is most associated with maintenance
kits. Common components of a laser printer maintenance kit include a fuser,
transfer roller, and pickup rollers. See Chapter 21, “Troubleshooting Printers,” for
more information.
Incorrect answers: Common components of a thermal printer include the feed
assembly and heating element. The inkjet printer normally includes the ink cartridge, print head, roller, feeder, duplexing assembly, carriage, and belt. An impact
printer’s components include the print head, ribbon, and tractor feed.
31
Q
- You are tasked with fixing a laptop that is not booting. You have analyzed the
system and can’t see any system lights or display, and you can’t hear any
sounds when the Power button is pressed. Which of the following should be
attempted first when troubleshooting the problem?
❍ A. Boot the system from a boot CD.
❍ B. Disconnect the AC and the battery and press and hold the Power
button for several seconds.
❍ C. Remove hard drives and optical drives, RAM, and USB devices from
the laptop.
❍ D. Connect an external monitor to the laptop to determine if the LCD has
failed.
A
- Answer: B. Although you could try several things, the best of the listed answers
is to disconnect the AC connection and the battery and press and hold the
Power button for several seconds. This effectively discharges the laptop (capacitors and such) and may also clear the BIOS, either one of which can fix the problem. Exactly what happens will depend on the model of laptop, and the length of
time you will need to hold down the Power button will vary. Afterward, reconnect
the battery and AC connection and continue troubleshooting from there if necessary. The key in this question is that you cannot hear or see anything happening.
In most cases, something will happen, but in this case, the laptop may have had
a voltage overload or other similar problem. Discharging it in this fashion can
fix the problem, but you might have to reconfigure your BIOS. See Chapter 1,
“Laptops, Part 1,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Booting the system to a disc will probably result in nothing.
If you can’t see or hear anything, you need to take stronger measures than that.
Sometimes, removing drives and USB devices can help when troubleshooting,
but again, in this scenario where you can see and hear nothing, it probably won’t
help. Connecting an external monitor is a good idea if you can see LED lights
blinking when you press the Power button but get no main display. In this case,
the result will probably be no image on both displays.
32
Q
- You are planning to build a computer that will be used at trade shows on
several different continents. Part of your planning includes specifications such
as maximum RAM and a typical video card, CPU, and storage drive. Which of
the following specifications is the most important for you to consider when you
select a power supply unit?
❍ A. Efficiency
❍ B. 12 V rail amperage
❍ C. Input voltage
❍ D. Number of SATA connectors
A
- Answer: C. One of your most important considerations should be the input
voltage. For example, in the United States (and some other countries) this is 120 volts. However, in many other countries it is 240 volts. (These are also represented as 115 V and 230 V.) It’s better to avoid voltage converters if at all possible, so you will need a power supply unit (PSU) that can handle both. That means
one of two things: 1. An auto-selecting PSU, or 2. A PSU with a voltage switch.
The former is preferable, so that the person setting up the computer at trade
shows does not need to remember to check the switch. However, keep in mind
that you might still need an adapter for the actual three-prong connection used in
other countries. See Chapter 13, “Peripherals and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The efficiency rating tells you how effectively the PSU uses
energy. For example, the 80 Plus program promotes energy efficiency of more
than 80 percent. While this is important for most computers—because we all
want to conserve energy, right?—it is not as important for this particular system,
because the PC will be relying on power that is provided by the trade show venues. Rail amperage is important for resource-intensive computers such as gaming PCs, design systems, and so on, where an individual rail (such as the 12 V)
can overheat if driven too hard. Of course, we don’t want our devices (such as
GPUs) to draw too much current from the PSU (which generally can max out at
about 30 amps or so); however, the system is using typical components, so current should not be a factor. As long as the PSU meets the wattage requirements,
it should be okay. Maximizing the RAM shouldn’t cause the computer to go
beyond the maximum current or wattage (as long as we don’t overclock it! And
even then it is unlikely.) Almost all PSUs come with several SATA power connectors, and we are only using one hard drive, so that should not be a factor either.
33
Q
33. Which of the following devices should a technician calibrate as part of an installation? ❍ A. Touchscreen ❍ B. Mouse ❍ C. Keyboard ❍ D. Video card
A
- Answer: A. Some touchscreens require calibration to respond to input properly.
See Chapter 3, “Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1” for
more information.
Incorrect answers: Keyboards and mice do not require this. Video cards are not
calibrated, but monitors can be (in a variety of ways). Printers can be calibrated
as well.
34
Q
- A monitor’s on-screen display (OSD) indicates that the proper video source has
been selected, yet no image is displayed. Which of the following are the most
likely causes? (Select the two best answers.)
◻ A. The monitor’s brightness setting is too low.
◻ B. The monitor’s backlight has failed.
◻ C. There is no device sending video.
◻ D. The source cable has been disconnected.
◻ E. The monitor’s contrast setting is too high.
A
- Answers: C and D. The most likely answers here are that there is no device sending video (such as a video card) or that the source cable has been disconnected
(for example, from the computer’s video card to the monitor). Always check the
connections on both ends, and make sure that the computer (the video source)
is on and booting properly. See Chapter 20, “Troubleshooting Video Issues and
Mobile Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The brightness and contrast settings are not likely to cause
a no-image issue. On most monitors you can reduce the brightness to zero but
still see the image on the screen. Likewise, you can increase the contrast to 100
(or whatever maximum number is used) and still see the image on the screen. It
is not possible for the monitor’s backlight to have failed because you can see in
the OSD that the proper video source has been selected. The OSD would not be
visible (or would only be barely visible with a flashlight) if the backlight had failed.
Again, it is much more likely that there is a connectivity or source video problem.
Always check the connections first!
35
Q
35. A computer you are working on randomly reboots. Which of the following should be checked first when troubleshooting the computer? (Select the two best answers.) ◻ A. Memory integrity ◻ B. Video card integrity ◻ C. CMOS battery ◻ D. PSU integrity ◻ E. Optical drive integrity
A
- Answers: A and D. Check the memory and the power supply unit (PSU) first.
Both of these can fail intermittently, causing random reboots. Try reseating
and cleaning RAM (and replacing if necessary). Test the PSU with a PSU tester or multimeter and replace if necessary. The PSU can also cause the computer to quickly shut down immediately after it was started. See Chapter 18,
“Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: If the video card fails, the computer simply won’t display to
the monitor. If the CMOS battery fails (or discharges), the time and date will reset
to an earlier date (for example, to January 1, 20XX.) Other settings in the BIOS
will be lost as well. If the optical drive fails, you won’t be able to read CDs and
DVDs, but the optical drive should not cause the computer to reboot.
36
Q
- One of your customers has signed up for a mobile pay service to be used on
a first-generation smartphone. However, the smartphone does not work at any
location that supports mobile pay service. Which of the following is missing from
the customer’s smartphone?
❍ A. IMSI
❍ B. NFC
❍ C. RFID
❍ D. Bluetooth
A
- Answer: B. Near field communication (NFC) is missing from the smartphone.
Older (first generation) smartphones do not have NFC. Always check the minimum requirements of any software or service that you are planning to use with a
smartphone, tablet, or other computer. Make sure that the mobile device in question meets the minimum requirements. See Chapter 3, “Smartphones, Tablets,
and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1” for more information.
Incorrect answers: IMSI stands for International Mobile Subscriber Identity and
is a unique 64-bit field used to identify the user of a cellular network. By the
way, don’t confuse IMSI with IMEI. IMEI stands for International Mobile Station
Equipment Identity, which identifies the phone. RFID stands for radio-frequency
identification, a technology that uses tags and radio-frequency scanning to identify those tags. Bluetooth is a technology primarily used to allow for peripherals’
access to a computer, such as using a Bluetooth headset with a smartphone.
37
Q
- You are setting up a network for a small office with 30 computers and one server.
The server will be used as a file sharing device, a print server, and will act as
the domain controller. What kind of addresses should you assign to the server?
(Select the two best answers.)
◻ A. DHCP
◻ B. MAC
◻ C. Static IP
◻ D. Dynamic IP
◻ E. Subnet mask
◻ F. FTP
A
- Answers: C and E. Unless a company has a lot of servers, then the servers
will usually be assigned static IP addresses, as opposed to being dynamically
assigned those IP addresses by a DHCP server. When you manually configure
the TCP/IP properties of a computer you are required to enter the IP address and
a subnet mask; for example, IP: 192.168.1.100 and subnet mask: 255.255.255.0.
Often times, you will also configure a gateway address and a DNS server
address, though they might not be required. The great thing about the static IP
address is that you know what it is because you assigned it; you can enter it into
your network documentation knowing that it will not change. DHCP-assigned
addressed can change from time to time, depending on how the DHCP scope
was configured. See Chapter 7, “Networked Hosts and Network Configuration,”
for more information. Incorrect answers: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)—as a rule of
thumb—is not used for servers in a small company. Dynamic IPs are handed out
by the DHCP server to client computers. The MAC address is the hexadecimal address that is programmed into the firmware of the network adapter at the
manufacturing plant; it is not (normally) set by the administrator. A File Transfer
Protocol (FTP) address is rather vague—does that mean an IP address or a
name? Either way, the scenario didn’t mention anything about FTP.
38
Q
38. Which protocol is relied upon most by Active Directory? (Select the best answer.) ❍ A. SMB ❍ B. HTTP ❍ C. LDAP ❍ D. WINS
A
- Answer: C. Of the listed answers, the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
(LDAP) is relied upon most by Active Directory. LDAP deals with directory lists
(such as the users within a Microsoft Active Directory domain) or the users’
e-mail addresses listed within a Microsoft Exchange server. See Chapter 5,
“Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol that allows shared
access to files; it is important to any computer running Windows, not just computers that are in charge of, or connect to, a Microsoft Active Directory domain.
SMB is also known as the Common Internet File System (CIFS.) HTTP stands for
Hypertext Transfer Protocol, used to transfer data from a web server to a client
computer’s web browser. WINS stands for Windows Internet Naming Service, a
name resolution technology that converts NetBIOS names to IP addresses. It is
somewhat deprecated and is not commonly used; its successor is the Domain
Name System (DNS.)
39
Q
- You are building a new PC and you notice that the motherboard has eight DIMM
sockets that are labeled 0 through 7. Four of them are gray, and the other four
are a darker shade of gray. Which of the following should be performed first?
❍ A. Install the memory into the gray slots.
❍ B. Install the memory into the dark-gray slots.
❍ C. Install the memory into slots 0 through 3.
❍ D. Fill all the slots with memory.
❍ E. Consult the motherboard documentation.
A
- Answer: E. Always check the motherboard documentation before you begin
installing components. You need to know what type of memory you should be
using, what type of channel configuration (most likely dual- or quad-channel), and
where the sticks of RAM should be installed depending on what configuration
you will use. The motherboard documentation will have a table or matrix explaining all the different possibilities. A single motherboard might allow one stick of
RAM, plus configurations for dual-channel, tri-channel, and quad-channel. You
need to know what is allowed and plan for the right type of RAM before you
purchase it. In this scenario there are eight slots in total (0–7). If you install the
memory into all the gray slots, then you are probably setting the system up for
a multichannel configuration, but you must get the correct RAM. Note that the
colors of the slots can be different depending on the manufacturer; for example,
they might be blue and black, and the first slots you should use are the blue
ones. It all depends—always check documentation first! See Chapter 10, “RAM
and Storage,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Installing the memory to the dark-gray slots might work, but
it might not if those are the secondary slots for each channel. Going by the first
four numbers might not be correct either, depending on the motherboard. In
fact, a motherboard will often use the numbering system A1, A2, B1, B2, C1,
C2, D1, D2, with each letter corresponding to a different channel. Filling all the
slots might work, perhaps if you get quad-channel-compliant memory (and a
lot of it), but it is not the recommended choice because it can be expensive
and probably is not necessary. The main lesson here is that there are a lot of
possibilities, depending on the motherboard, and depending on what you as
the user wish to accomplish. So always RTM (read the manual) and plan your
purchases wisely.
40
Q
- Which of the following printer technologies uses piezoelectric pressure pads to
produce small bubbles that are moved to the paper?
❍ A. Laser
❍ B. Inkjet
❍ C. Thermal
❍ D. Impact
A
- Answer: B. The inkjet printer uses piezoelectric pressure pads to produce small
bubbles that are moved to the paper. See Chapter 15, “Printers and Multifunction
Devices,” for more information. Incorrect answers: The laser printer applies toner to the paper in the electrophotographic imaging process. A thermal printer uses heat to create text and images
on specially coated paper. Impact printers use a print head to hammer the letters
through a ribbon and on to the paper.
41
Q
- You need to describe RAID to a nontechnical customer. Which of the following
represents the best way describe RAID?
❍ A. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks.
❍ B. RAID utilizes multiple disks to increase performance and/or enable
protection from data loss.
❍ C. RAID is a dynamic disk management system.
❍ D. RAID uses striping to reduce the amount of hard drive write time and
utilizes parity bits to reconstruct the data from a failed hard drive.
A
- Answer: B. The best answer is “RAID utilizes multiple disks to increase performance
and/or enable protection from data loss.” RAID 0 and 5 can be used to increase
read performance, while RAID 1, 5, and 10 can be used to enable protection from
data loss. See Chapter 10, “RAM and Storage,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Telling a customer that RAID stands for Redundant Array of
Independent (or Inexpensive) Disks is technical jargon that you should try to
avoid. RAID is not a dynamic disk management system. However, in Microsoft
operating systems, you need to set disks to dynamic in the Disk Management
utility if you wish to add them to RAID arrays. Regardless, this is more information that the customer does not need to know. Finally, the statement “RAID uses
striping to reduce the amount of hard drive write time and utilizes parity bits to
reconstruct the data from a failed hard drive” is not altogether correct. RAID
can also be mirroring. In addition, not all versions of RAID can use parity bits to
reconstruct data from a failed hard drive. RAID 0, 1, and 10 do not. However,
RAID 5 and 6 do. Remember that the customer needs to know how the technology will make their business more efficient; he or she does not need to know the
technical details or jargon.
42
Q
- You just completed a CPU installation. However, when you turn on the computer,
the POST sounds a series of beeps and the system won’t boot. What is the most
likely cause?
❍ A. The mouse is not plugged in.
❍ B. The operating system is corrupted.
❍ C. The CPU is not properly seated.
❍ D. The fan is running too fast.
A
- Answer: C. Of the listed answers, the most likely cause is that the CPU needs
to be reseated. This will result in a series of beeps from the power-on selftest (POST) as the BIOS searches for the CPU and can’t find it. If a computer
was being built in this scenario, then it’s also possible that the RAM was not
seated properly, or there is some RAM compatibility issue. See Chapter 18,
“Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: No other answer choice would cause the POST to issue a series
of beeps. The mouse would not, but a lack of a keyboard would result in beeps.
(Always make sure the keyboard is securely connected!) Also, the POST doesn’t
look for operating system corruption; it is relegated to hardware only. But it can
display messages such as “no operating system found” or a similar message if the
hard drive is missing, not formatted, or not in the correct location in the BIOS boot
order. “The fan is running too fast” is subjective; regardless, its maximum speed is
usually governed by the BIOS, and shouldn’t affect how the system boots.
43
Q
43. Which of the following devices should be configured to block specific ports on the network? ❍ A. Firewall ❍ B. Gateway ❍ C. Router ❍ D. Bridge ❍ E. Access point
A
- Answer: A. The firewall is the device that prevents outside intrusion by blocking ports and protocols. In many networks it is the first line of defense. See
Chapter 5, “Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: A gateway is a device (usually a router) that allows multiple clients on one network access to another (for example, computers on the LAN that
want to gain access to the Internet). A router connects two networks together.
A bridge separates a LAN into two distinct network sections. An access point
allows wireless connectivity to the network for Wi-Fi-enabled computers.
44
Q
44. Which connector is necessary to supply power to a graphics expansion card? (Select the best answer.) ❍ A. 8-pin EATX12V ❍ B. PCIe 6-pin ❍ C. 24-pin ATX ❍ D. SATA 15-pin
A
- Answer: B. PCIe 6-pin is the best answer. 8-pin PCIe power connectors are
also common, but don’t confuse them with 8-pin CPU power connectors. See
Chapter 13, “Peripherals and Power,” for more information. Incorrect answers: Though there are 8-pin 12 V connectors for PCIe, the
EATX12V 8-pin connector is used for CPUs. 24-pin ATX refers to the main power
connection from the PSU to the motherboard. SATA power connectors are 15-pin
and are used for hard drives and optical drives.
45
Q
- Which of the following monitor types provide for the widest viewing angle along
with rich colors and consistent backlighting? (Select the two best answers.)
◻ A. Plasma
◻ B. TN
◻ C. IPS
◻ D. LED
◻ E. CCFL
A
- Answers: C and D. IPS (in-plane switching) monitor technology offers the widest
viewing angle, and LED (light-emitting diode) monitors offer rich colors and
consistent backlighting. See Chapter 13, “Peripherals and Power,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: Plasma screens do not perform as well in these respects.
TN (twisted-nematic) monitors are less expensive monitors that do not have as
good of a viewing angle as IPS. CCFL stands for cold-cathode fluorescent lamp,
which is the backlight used in standard LCD monitors. LED is superior to plain
LCD when it comes to backlighting and rich colors. Note: LED also performs the
best (compared to the others listed) when it comes to use in an area with a lot of
natural light.
46
Q
- You replaced a bad internal WLAN card in a Windows laptop. You completed the
installation and verified that the new WLAN card is listed in the Device Manager
as enabled. What should you do next to actually use the card?
❍ A. Type the security passphrase.
❍ B. Update the firmware of the WLAN card.
❍ C. Configure encryption on the router.
❍ D. Add the SSID of the network to the connection.
A
- Answer: D. The next thing you need to do is connect to a wireless network, the
first step of which will be to scan for network names (SSIDs) or to add them
manually. See Chapter 6, “SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: You won’t type the security passphrase until you connect to a
wireless network. Updating the firmware and/or drivers for the WLAN card (Wi-Fi
adapter) should be done as part of the installation of that card. If the router is set
up to accept wireless connections, encryption should have already been configured on that router as well.
47
Q
- You need to connect external peripherals to a typical PC. Which of the following
connector types will allow you to do this? (Select the two best answers.)
◻ A. SATA
◻ B. SAS
◻ C. EIDE
◻ D. eSATA
◻ E. USB 3.0
A
- Answers: D and E. External SATA (eSATA) is an SATA port that is meant for use
with external devices. It is sometimes found as a port on the back of a PC or
can be added with an adapter card. Of course, USB (3.0, 2.0, and so on) is
another external port that is used to connect to audio and video equipment
as well as external hard drives. See Chapter 10, “RAM and Storage,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: Normally, SATA (without the e preceding it) is used for internal
devices, not external. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) is a type of hard drive technology, which is used more in servers and power workstations, not typical PCs.
Enhanced IDE (EIDE, also known as Parallel ATA) is an older hard drive standard
that you won’t see often—unless you are recovering data!—and it is internal by
default.
48
Q
- Look at the following list of wires. What wiring standard is being used here?
- White/orange, 2. Orange, 3. White/green, 4. Blue,
- White/blue, 6. Green, 7. White/brown, 8. Brown
❍ A. RJ45
❍ B. T568B
❍ C. T568A
❍ D. TIA
A
- Answer: B. White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/
brown, brown is the correct wiring sequence for the T568B wiring standard. You
might also see this shown as: WO, O, WG, B, WB, G, WBr, Br. It’s the same
thing, just abbreviated. See Chapter 9, “Cables and Connectors,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: The T568A standard, which switches the orange and green
pins, is the older standard that was replaced by T568B. But to stay within electrical code and municipal guidelines, use the wiring scheme defined by the T568B standard on each end for straight-through cables. To create a crossover
cable, use T568B on one end and T568A on the other. RJ45 is a type of plug
(or jack) that network cards, switches, and network jacks use. TIA stands for
Telecommunications Industry Association—they developed the T568 standards,
and other wiring standards.
49
Q
- You need to make a patch cable to connect a computer to an RJ45 wall jack.
Which of the following tools should be used to attach the RJ45 plugs to the
patch cable?
❍ A. Crimper
❍ B. Punchdown tool
❍ C. Loopback plug
❍ D. Cable tester
A
- Answer: A. Use an RJ45 crimper to crimp those RJ45 plugs on the ends of a
patch cable. See Chapter 8, “Network Types and Networking Tools,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: Use a punchdown tool to terminate individual wires to the
RJ45 wall jack and to patch panels. Use a loopback plug to test a network
adapter by plugging it into the card’s RJ45 port. Use a cable tester to test patch
cables or longer LAN cable connections.
50
Q
- There are four people who share a connection to a SOHO router that connects to
the Internet. When a single user starts streaming media over the Internet, browsing slows down for the rest of the users. Which setting should be configured to
alleviate the problem?
❍ A. QoS
❍ B. DSL
❍ C. WAN
❍ D. VPN
A
- Answer: A. Quality of service (QoS) is the performance of user connections over
the network, particularly connections to the Internet. On some small office/home
office (SOHO) routers, this can be configured to allow for equal data transfers
among all users, or it can be used to configure special traffic (such as streaming media) to transfer faster. See Chapter 6, “SOHO Networks and Wireless
Protocols,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, which is a family of
technologies used to transfer data over the Internet. WAN stands for wide area
network—a network that spans a large geographic area and connects two or
more LANs. VPN stands for virtual private network, which allows for secure (tunneled) connections over the Internet.
51
Q
- A user with an inkjet printer states that all color printouts are missing red ink.
The printer has cartridges for each of the CMYK colors and the user has recently
replaced the magenta cartridge. Which of the following steps should be performed next?
❍ A. Verify that the printer cables are connected.
❍ B. Perform printer head cleaning.
❍ C. Purchase a maintenance kit.
❍ D. Use different weighted paper.
A
- Answer: B. You should clean the print head! Most printers come with an onscreen utility that will do this or you can manually clean the print head (delicately!). Similar to this, printers might need to be calibrated if colors are slightly
off. See Chapter 21, “Troubleshooting Printers,” and Chapter 15, “Printers and
Multifunction Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: If the printer cables weren’t connected, the printer wouldn’t
print anything at all. Maintenance kits are used more often for laser printers and
are unnecessary in this case. The weight of the paper will not affect what colors
are printed by an inkjet printer
52
Q
- A user calls you and tells you that his computer won’t boot and that there is a faint
smell of something burning. Which tool should be used to identify the problem?
❍ A. Loopback plug
❍ B. Cable tester
❍ C. PSU tester
❍ D. ESD strap
A
- Answer: C. Use a power supply unit (PSU) tester to check if the power supply
is malfunctioning. If you ever smell something burning, even if it is a faint smell,
turn off the power to any associated computers or devices and disconnect them
from the AC outlet. Then test the affected PSU. Sometimes there is a burn-in
period when it comes to new PSUs, and there might be a very faint smell for
the first 24 to 48 hours. This is possible if the PSU was newly installed, but you
should still test and monitor the PSU until the smell goes away. However, if the
computer was working previously and suddenly doesn’t work anymore, and
you smell something burning, then you should most likely replace the PSU after
testing it. Only test the PSU in your lab, and make sure you have all the necessary fire prevention tools and technologies available to you. See Chapter 18,
“Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: A loopback plug is used to test a switch port or the RJ45 port
on a computer. There are many cable testers, but the term is often associated
with network cabling, such as cable certifiers for Category 6 (Cat 6) cable. The ESD strap, or more accurately antistatic strap, is used to protect components from electrostatic discharge (ESD).
53
Q
- Which of the following describes the function of a switch in a network?
❍ A. Converts a packet for transmission from one network to another
network
❍ B. Transmits packets it receives to specific connections
❍ C. Broadcasts packets it receives to all connections
❍ D. Determines whether a packet belongs on an internal or an external
network
A
- Answer: B. A switch can be described as a network device that transmits packets it receives to specific connections. It does this by mapping systems’ MAC
addresses to physical ports on the switch. See Chapter 5, “Ports, Protocols, and
Network Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: A router would convert a packet for transmission from one
network to another network. It also determines whether a packet belongs on an
internal or an external network, though this process can be augmented by other
devices. A hub broadcasts packets it receives to all connections.
54
Q
54. Of the following, which components are the most important in a virtualization server? (Select the two best answers.) ◻ A. Maximum memory ◻ B. High-end sound card ◻ C. High-end video card ◻ D. Dual-rail 1000w PSU ◻ E. Quad-core CPU
A
- Answers: A and E. A virtualization computer (especially a virtualization server)
requires memory and a powerful multicore CPU above all else. Because virtual
machines require a lot of raw resources, maximum memory and maximumcore CPUs are the most important items for virtualization workstations. See
Chapter 14, “Custom PCs and Common Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: High-end sound cards and video cards are typical in gaming
computers and audio/video editing workstations. High-end video cards are also
common in CAD/CAM computers (which, by the way, also require a lot of RAM
and CPU power.) A dual-rail PSU is one that has two amperage outputs instead
of just one; this is common in today’s PSUs. 1000 watts is quite a high amount
and is required by computers with a lot of powerful components, such as gaming
computers
55
Q
55. Which of the following cables is prone to EMI? ❍ A. Fiber optic ❍ B. STP ❍ C. UTP ❍ D. Multimode
A
- Answer: C. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is prone to electromagnetic interference (EMI). See Chapter 9, “Cables and Connectors,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: Fiber optic cable is not prone to EMI because it uses light as
the medium instead of electricity. Multimode cable is a type of fiber optic. STP
stands for shielded twisted pair, and as the name indicates, it incorporates an
aluminum shield around the wires in order to prevent EMI.
56
Q
- You just installed a barcode reader. Which of the following should you do to
configure the reader?
❍ A. Use the Device Manager to enable the IR port.
❍ B. Adjust jumper switches.
❍ C. Enable the reader in the BIOS.
❍ D. Scan in program codes.
A
- Answer: D. After installing a barcode reader, you should start scanning various
test barcodes in order to calibrate and configure the reader. Many reader devices
will come with a physical book that has printed test codes used to calibrate the
device. See Chapter 13, “Peripherals and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The infrared (IR) port should work automatically on a barcode
reader; there is no reason to enable it. Barcode readers do not usually have
jumper switches. Also, these are usually plug-and-play devices that do not need
to be enabled in the BIOS.
57
Q
- A workgroup of five PCs uses a shared printer. A customer says she cannot print
to the printer but can access shares on another PC used for common files. The
printer appears to be powered on. Which of the following would be the most
likely cause?
❍ A. The PC is off the network.
❍ B. The printer needs to be restarted.
❍ C. The printer is low on toner.
❍ D. Device drivers are corrupted.
A
- Answer: A. The most likely listed cause is that the PC to which the printer is connected is currently off of the network. It would appear from this scenario that
the printer is connected to a PC by way of USB and is shared at the PC itself,
which is offline. If the customer can connect to other shares on other PCs, you
know that that particular computer is functional on the network. See Chapter 15,
“Printers and Multifunction Devices,” for more information. Incorrect answers: The printer is on, and restarting a printer can fix some issues,
but it will most likely return the printer to the same state it was in previously. The
printer being low on toner should have no effect on whether it can be accessed.
But a message would probably appear on one of the computer’s screens stating
that the toner cartridge should be changed soon. If device drivers are corrupted,
the printer should still be accessible and might print, but it will probably print
garbled information.
58
Q
- Which of the following is a possible symptom of a damaged video display?
❍ A. Disconnected punchdown
❍ B. Low RF signal
❍ C. Dead pixel
❍ D. Computer repeatedly boots to Safe Mode
A
- Answer: C. A dead pixel on a video display is a possible symptom of a damaged
monitor screen. Sometimes dead pixels can be repaired with third-party software
programs, but more often than not, the dead pixel indicates a damaged display.
Another common display issue is when artifacts show up on the screen. This
could be due to a damaged display or an incorrect video setting (such as resolution). See Chapter 20, “Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices,” for
more information.
Incorrect answers: A disconnected punchdown at a punchblock, patch panel,
or RJ45 jack can cause a disruption in wired network data transfer, just as a low
radio frequency (RF) signal can cause a loss in wireless network data transfer,
but these will not affect the video display. If there is a problem with a wired connection, a punchdown tool will be required to rewire the network connection.
Generally, the best method is to remove the cable’s individual wires, cut it, strip
the plastic jacket with a wire stripped, and re-terminate the individual wires. If a
computer repeatedly boots into Safe Mode, there might be a driver issue, malware issue, or other OS problem, and though the system will boot in VGA resolution (640×480), that doesn’t mean there is damage to the video display.
59
Q
- You just set up a printer in the company training room. The trainer wants to
be able to print multiple copies of the training documentation for class. Which
feature should be enabled on the printer?
❍ A. Duplexing
❍ B. Faxing
❍ C. Collating
❍ D. Scanning
❍ E. Print to PDF
A
- Answer: C. The functionality that the trainer desires is collating. This prints the
documentation as entire jobs (for example, page 1 through 10, then repeat)
instead of printing all the required copies of page 1 before moving to page 2. This
makes it easier on the trainer when it comes time to hand out documentation to
students. Collating is usually enabled on today’s printers, but if not, you would
enable it in the printer properties in Windows or on the display of the printer.
To test if it works, simply print out a document that has two or more pages and
select 2 for the number of copies. See Chapter 15, “Printers and Multifunction
Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Duplexing means that the printer will print to both sides of the
paper. Faxing and scanning are options found commonly on multifunction printers, but they don’t have anything to do with collating. There are several ways to
print to a file, such as printing to PDF, which takes a document such as one created in Microsoft Word and converts it into a PDF. The physical printer isn’t actually involved with this at all.
60
Q
60. Which of the following voltages are normally supplied by a PSU’s rails? (Select the two best answers.) ◻ A. 1.5 V ◻ B. 3.3 V ◻ C. 5 V ◻ D. 9 V
A
- Answers: B and C. The voltages a power supply unit (PSU) typically supplies
include 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V (as well as their negatives) to components in the
computer. See the section titled “Power Supplies” in Chapter 13, “Peripherals
and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: 1.5 is a common voltage for DDR3 RAM and for AA and AAA
batteries. 9 V is usually associated with batteries used by handheld devices such as
power supply testers and multimeters. PSU’s do not supply a 9 V rail or 1.5 V rail.
61
Q
- You are troubleshooting a printer. Which of the following are common symptoms
of printer failure or other printer issues? (Select the two best answers.)
◻ A. Vertical lines on the page
◻ B. Num Lock indicator lights are on
◻ C. Unable to install the printer to the OS
◻ D. Failure to document cable and screw locations
◻ E. Failure to organize parts
A
- Answers: A and C. Some common symptoms of printer trouble include vertical
lines on the page, which would indicate a print drum issue, likely fixed by a toner
cartridge replacement or inkjet cartridge calibration. Also, problems installing the
printer to an operating system are a symptom of printer trouble. If the printer has
failed, the OS will have difficulty seeing it and the printer will have to be repaired
before the printer and print driver can be installed to the client computer’s OS.
See Chapter 21, “Troubleshooting Printers.”
Incorrect answers: Num Lock (Number Lock) indicator lights are displayed on
laptop and PC keyboards. If a laptop’s Num Lock indicator light is on, it will
probably be difficult for a user to log in to the system. Instead of the user typing
the regular password, a mixture of unwanted letters and numbers will be typed,
causing the login to fail. Of course, this is not a common symptom of printer
failure but could be the cause for a failed login. Failure to document cable
and screw locations and the failure to organize parts could make reassembly of
a printer or laptop difficult. These failures could possibly even be reasons why
the printer or laptop fails, but they wouldn’t be symptoms of the problem. When
troubleshooting, be sure to understand the difference between a symptom of a
problem and a cause of a problem. And of course, think carefully about the best
solution to the problem!
62
Q
62. Which of the following cable types would most likely experience degraded video signal quality over long distances? ❍ A. VGA ❍ B. HDMI ❍ C. DVI ❍ D. DisplayPort
A
- Answer: A. VGA is an older standard that outputs analog signals to a monitor. Of the listed answers, it is the most susceptible to signal degradation. See
Chapter 9, “Cables and Connectors,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: HDMI, DVI, and DisplayPort are designed to work best sending digital signals and can send them over longer distances than analog cables
(such as VGA). Digital is inherently better as far as distance and signal quality
goes.
63
Q
63. Which of the following is the best option for storing 6153 MB of data on one disc? ❍ A. DVD-9 DL ❍ B. CD-R 48x ❍ C. DVD-5 SL ❍ D. RAID 5
A
- Answer: A. DVD-9 DL is the best answer when it comes to saving 6153 MB
(6 GB) of data. DL stands for dual-layer. DVD-9 has one side and two layers
by default, allowing it to save up to 8.5 GB of data maximum. See Chapter 10,
“RAM and Storage,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: CD-R discs can only save 700 MB or so; the 48x simply tells
you the write speed. DVD-5 SL discs are standard single-sided, single-layer
DVDs that can save up to 4.7 GB. A RAID 5 array would definitely be able to
hold the data, but it is not a “disc”; in fact, it is three or more drives—if those
drives were magnetic-based, then it would be “disks.” Either way, a lot of work is
required to build that array, plus the question did not mention that fault tolerance
was required.
64
Q
- You are tasked with fixing a client’s PC that hasn’t booted after the latest test of
the building’s backup generator. As you analyze the computer, you notice that
once it is powered on there is no display or beep codes. After 15 seconds, the
fans inside the computer start spinning faster and making more noise. The computer was working fine before the test, and you verify that no one has opened the
computer. Which of the following is most likely the problem?
❍ A. The RAM was damaged by ESD.
❍ B. The motherboard was damaged by the power test.
❍ C. The hard drive was erased due to the power test.
❍ D. The power supply was damaged and is nonfunctional.
A
- Answer: B. The most likely answer (of the listed answers) is that the motherboard
was damaged by the power test. This causes a failure to power-on self-test
(POST) and causes the fans to function improperly. There was probably some
kind of surge or spike of electricity, which could have overloaded the motherboard in a variety of ways. Perhaps a capacitor burst, or maybe one of the circuits burned out. You might be able to repair it, but chances are you will need to
replace the motherboard. You should notify your manager or your building facilities about the issue. Also, to protect systems from this kind of problem in the
future, consider upgrading the surge suppressor, installing a new one, or using a
line conditioner or uninterruptible power supply, or UPS (depending on the type
of system). See Chapter 18, “Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and
Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: If no one opened the computer, then it is unlikely that the
RAM was damaged by electrostatic discharge (ESD). Internal components are
usually only affected by ESD when someone handles them improperly. You
don’t know yet, but the hard drive could have data corruption or become erased
due to a power surge. But that isn’t the cause of the problem in the scenario;
it is simply another potential result. It’s another reason to have good protective
power equipment to plug the computer into. If the power supply was damaged
and was nonfunctional, then the fans wouldn’t spin at all. However, the power
supply might also be partially damaged. You will need to do a lot of testing of
the computer to make sure it is fully functional before putting it back into its
normal work environment.
65
Q
65. Which of the following memory technologies enables protection against random inconsistencies when storing data? ❍ A. Quad-channel ❍ B. Parity ❍ C. Dual-channel ❍ D. ECC ❍ E. RAID 5
A
- Answer: D. ECC stands for error correcting code. ECC memory can detect and
correct common types of data corruption. It is often used in servers. It is not typically installed to desktops but might be used if data corruption cannot be tolerated. It provides for error correction, and therefore protection while storing data
in RAM. See Chapter 10, “RAM and Storage,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Quad-channel means that the RAM can send data over four
64-bit channels at the same time—four sticks of RAM are required to take advantage of that. Parity support in RAM means that the memory can detect errors,
but not correct them the way ECC does. Dual-channel RAM uses two 64-bit data
channels at the same. RAID 5 is not a memory technology; rather it is a redundant hard drive array technology. While RAID 5 does use parity, it is not the same
type of parity that RAM might use.
66
Q
- A PC’s network adapter has a link light that is lit, but the PC can’t access internal
network resources. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
❍ A. IP address conflict
❍ B. Incorrect gateway
❍ C. Packet collisions
❍ D. Slow transfer speed
A
- Answer: A. An IP address conflict is a possible cause for the problem. This happens when two computers are assigned the same IP address (usually when at
least one was configured statically). When this happens, the link light on the
network adapter will still work as usual because the system has a physical link
to a central connecting device such as a switch, and bits (and frames) of data
are still being sent back and forth between that computer and that switch.
It’s the IP layer that is nonfunctional due to the IP conflict. See Chapter 22,
“Troubleshooting Wired and Wireless Network Problems,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The answer “incorrect gateway” is not correct because the
scenario states that the PC cannot access internal network resources. A gateway
deals with external network resources. Packet collisions only occur if the system
has a valid IP connection. Slow transfer speed doesn’t mean no transfer of data.
Although slow transfer speeds could cause the system to take a while to connect, it should still connect at some point to internal network resources. You can
tell if the system has sent or received data in the current session by going to the
network icon in the Notification Area or by running a netstat -e command in the
Command Prompt (in Windows); these will show packets that were transceived
(transmitted and received).
67
Q
- A workstation fails to boot. The POST found an error, and the computer beeps
twice. This happens again and again. Which of the following is the most likely
issue?
❍ A. Power supply failure
❍ B. Video adapter failure
❍ C. Memory failure
❍ D. CPU failure
A
- Answer: C. The most likely cause is a memory failure. Two beeps often means a
problem with memory. Of course, this will depend on the type of BIOS or UEFI.
For example, two beeps in some Dell systems means that no memory has been
detected, causing a RAM failure. Two short beeps in AMI BIOS systems means
a memory parity error. See Chapter 18, “Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs,
RAM, and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: If the power supply were to fail, the system wouldn’t even
POST because the motherboard didn’t receive power. If the video adapter failed,
you would get a different set of beeps. For example, in Award BIOS systems, one
long and two short beeps (or three short beeps) means some kind of video error.
In some Dell systems, six beeps means a video card failure. Read the motherboard documentation to find out what the beep codes mean exactly. If the CPU
fails, the system will not boot or power-on self-test (POST).
68
Q
- You are attempting to install Hyper-V on a Windows computer. However, you
receive an error that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following CPU
characteristics should be checked?
❍ A. Number of cores
❍ B. Virtualization support
❍ C. Hyper-Threading
❍ D. Cache size
A
- Answer: B. You need to check whether the CPU has virtualization support
enabled in the BIOS/UEFI. If this is not enabled, Windows will not allow the
installation of Hyper-V to continue. You may receive an error message, or
Windows will simply have a grayed-out area where you want to select Hyper-V in
Programs and Features. See Chapter 11, “Motherboards and Add-on Cards,” for
more information.
Incorrect answers: The number of cores, Hyper-Threading, and cache size will
not cause an error in Windows. However, you should make sure that your system
meets the minimum requirements to run Hyper-V. In most cases, if the system
can run Windows, then it should be able to run Hyper-V.
69
Q
- Which of the following best describes why you might hear a loud clicking noise
coming from a faulty hard drive?
❍ A. The hard drive has a bad spindle motor bearing.
❍ B. The solid-state read/write head is scratching the platter surface.
❍ C. The coil reversing the polarity is in an endless loop.
❍ D. The noise is created by the repeated motion of the read/write head
arm located parallel to the platter.
A
- Answer: D. The loud clicking noise coming from a faulty hard drive is usually
due to repeated motion of the read/write head parallel to the platter. It could be
that the armature (arm) or its corresponding actuator is faulty and is not moving
correctly. See Chapter 19, “Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays,” for
more information. Incorrect answers: Remember that this is a problem associated with hard disk
drives, meaning magnetic-based drives. It does not affect solid-sate drives
(SSDs) because they do not use read/write heads. If a bearing in the motor was
causing problems, then the arm might not move at all. If the coil was in an endless loop, there would be no activity or data would keep getting written to the
same place; either way, you probably wouldn’t hear anything.
70
Q
70. You are troubleshooting a laptop that has a problem with the cursor. When working on Word documents, the cursor jumps around the display. Which of the following is the most likely cause? ❍ A. Improper screen calibration ❍ B. Faulty software ❍ C. Touchpad settings ❍ D. Unsigned device drivers
A
- Answer: C. The problem is most likely due to the touchpad settings (or calibration). The sensitivity might be too high, causing the cursor to jump quickly across
the display. Another possibility is that the user’s sleeve (or part of their arm or
hand) is dragging across the touchpad. As a quick fix, you can disable the touchpad, often from a function key on the keyboard of the laptop (or in the Device
Manager), until it is configured to the user’s liking. See Chapter 1, “Laptops,
Part 1,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Touchpad calibration is separate from screen calibration,
which should not cause a problem with the cursor. Faulty software is a pretty
vague answer. It’s possible that third-party software that is used to configure
the touchpad is where the issue lies, but more accurately, this would still be the
touchpad settings. You don’t know if the laptop uses Windows to configure the
sensitivity of the touchpad, so the answer is not accurate enough. If a driver is
unsigned, then Windows will ask for an administrator’s permission to go ahead
with the installation. If you can’t provide the admin username and password (or
you are not logged in as an admin), then the installation will fail. So, the driver
either installs or it doesn’t, but that has no bearing on the settings or calibration
of the touchpad.
71
Q
71. Which of the following ports can be used for audio, video, and storage? ❍ A. Thunderbolt ❍ B. DisplayPort ❍ C. HDMI ❍ D. DVI
A
- Answer: A. Thunderbolt is the only answer listed that can be used for audio,
video, and storage. See Chapter 9, “Cables and Connectors,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: DisplayPort and HDMI can transfer audio and video data but
are not used for storage. DVI is used for video only.
72
Q
- You are responding to a server issue reported to you by the accounting department. A particular mapped network drive has high latency. When you go to the
server room, you identify the problem as one of the drives in a RAID array. Which
of the following best describes how to fix the problem?
❍ A. You should reseat the faulty drive.
❍ B. You should replace the faulty drive.
❍ C. You should reinstall the RAID driver.
❍ D. You should replace the RAID controller.
A
- Answer: B. You should replace the faulty drive. If one of the drives is performing below expectations due to high latency, then it might be because the drive
is about to fail. You should back up the data, replace the drive, and restore the
data (either from mirror, parity, or tape backup, as the case may be) to the array
as soon as possible. See Chapter 19, “Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID
Arrays,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Reseating the drive probably won’t fix the problem. You might
reseat a drive immediately after installation if it isn’t responding properly. But if it
has been working properly for a time, then this isn’t a valid solution. Reinstalling
the RAID driver would require that you take the entire array down (which might
be necessary anyway) but is not something to try first due to the fact that it will
require a lot of time and configuration (not to mention the downtime associated
with the task). Replacing the RAID controller should be far down the troubleshooting list. If only one drive has failed (or is causing latency in this case), then
it probably isn’t the controller. Remember, hard drives will fail. It’s just a matter of
time, and it will normally happen before a controller fails.
73
Q
- Which of the following protocols is used to perform file sharing between Apple
computers running macOS and PCs running Windows on a LAN?
❍ A. RDP
❍ B. SSH
❍ C. POP3
❍ D. SMB
A
- Answer: D. SMB (Server Message Block) can be used to facilitate file sharing
between Windows computers and computers running macOS. It is sometimes
referred to as its older name CIFS (Common Internet File System). If SMB is for
some reason unavailable on the Mac-based systems, then they will attempt to
use the Apple File Protocol (AFP). See Chapter 5, “Ports, Protocols, and Network
Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: RDP is the Remote Desktop Protocol, used to view or take
control of remote computers from a central workstation. SSH is Secure Shell, a
protocol used to make secure connections to other systems; it replaces protocols such as Telnet. POP3 is the Post Office Protocol (version 3) used with downloading e-mail.
74
Q
- You have been tasked with installing Microsoft Office on a customer’s
computer. As you attempt to do so, you are told that Office cannot be installed
directly to that computer. Which of the following types of computers are you
working on?
❍ A. Thin client
❍ B. MacBook
❍ C. Tablet
❍ D. Thick client
A
- Answer: A. A thin client is the best answer. That is typically a computer that has
an embedded operating system (one that is stored on flash memory); it cannot
have additional programs installed to it. Any programs that the thin client makes
use of quite often come from a server. This isn’t always the case (because there
are varying levels of thin clients), but it is common. See Chapter 14, “Custom
PCs and Common Devices,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Microsoft Office could be installed to any of the other computing systems listed in the answers. There is a version for macOS (for MacBooks),
there is a version for some tablets, especially ones that run Microsoft OSes, and
thick clients are essentially PCs, so Office can usually be installed to those as
well.
75
Q
- You replace a failed hard drive with a new one. You then boot to a special preinstallation environment disc so that you can install a custom operating system
build that is meant for deployment to the network. The hard drive is recognized
in the UEFI/BIOS, but once you have booted to the preinstallation environment,
the hard drive is not recognized, the process fails, and the drive can’t be imaged.
Which of the following statements best describes the most likely problem?
❍ A. The PC’s power supply cannot provide enough power for the new
drive.
❍ B. The boot media has failed and needs to be replaced.
❍ C. The hard drive has not been partitioned correctly.
❍ D. The hard drive must be configured in the UEFI/BIOS.
A
- Answer: C. Of the listed answers, the most likely problem is that the hard drive
has not been partitioned correctly. In this scenario, the point of the preinstallation environment (PE)—which is often located on removable media such as a
USB flash drive or boot disc—is to boot the system and partition the hard drive,
readying it for the image to be obtained over the network. If the drive is not partitioned properly, the process will fail because the image will expect to be installed
to a specific partition. See Chapter 19, “Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID
Arrays,” for more information. Incorrect answers: Hard drives don’t vary much from one to the next in regard
to power, so the power supply should provide plenty of power. If it didn’t, then
you wouldn’t see the drive in the UEFI/BIOS. The boot media has not failed;
in the scenario it says that you have accessed the preinstallation environment.
That is only possible if the PE boot media was booted to successfully. Today, it
is uncommon for the drive to be configured in the BIOS or UEFI (unless it is part
of a RAID array, which is controlled by the motherboard). Normally, the drive is
either seen or not. If not, you might need to perform a flash of the BIOS or UEFI.
76
Q
- Which of the following LAN hosts would most likely provide the services needed
to allow multiple clients access to cached Internet web pages?
❍ A. File server
❍ B. Proxy server
❍ C. Web server
❍ D. DNS server
A
- Answer: B. A proxy server provides the services needed for multiple clients to
access Internet web pages. It is a server that is normally located on the LAN, or
the internal computer network, and as such is known as a LAN host or a network
host. See Chapter 7, “Networked Hosts and Network Configuration,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: A web server provides web pages, yes, but the web server
is not normally on the LAN. Web servers normally exist on the Internet, or on an
intranet, or in a DMZ, so they cannot be considered network hosts or LAN hosts.
File servers simply store files for multiple clients to access; Word documents
and Excel spreadsheets are examples. A DNS server is used to resolve hosts’
domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. They are very common on
the Internet, though they can exist on the LAN as well. However, they don’t deal
with cached web pages the way that a proxy server will.
77
Q
- Your organization subscribed to a cloud service and is paying monthly for a
group of services. The organization is then billed incrementally when it exceeds
the monthly amount. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent?
❍ A. Rapid elasticity
❍ B. On-demand
❍ C. Measured services
❍ D. Resource pooling
A
- Answer: C. Measured services is when the provider monitors services rendered;
this allows the provider (and the customer) to analyze the rate of resource usage.
See Chapter 16, “Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: Rapid elasticity is when a provider offers a scalable cloudbased network that can grow as the organization needs it to. On-demand is the
ability for customers to gain access to resources 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
Resource pooling is when servers and infrastructure are grouped together for
multiple customers to share.
78
Q
78. You are tasked with building a high-end gaming PC and need to select the right power supply. Which features should you be looking for? (Select the three best answers.) ◻ A. Large number of connectors ◻ B. 20-pin power connector ◻ C. 24-pin power connector ◻ D. Mini-ITX form factor ◻ E. Dual 12 V rails ◻ F. 400 watts
A
- Answers: A, C, and E. You should be looking for a high number of connectors
because gaming PCs will often have multiple video cards, hard drives, and so on.
You should also look for a 24-pin main power connector as opposed to a 20-pin.
Finally, look for a multirail system. This distributes the power used (and gaming
PCs use a lot of power) and avoids overheating on the rails. See Chapter 13,
“Peripherals and Power,” for more information.
Incorrect answers: The 20-pin main power connector is the older ATX style that
is not often used today. Mini-ITX is good for smaller computing systems, but the
form factor simply doesn’t allow for the space necessary for most gaming PCs.
400 watts is not nearly enough power for a high-end gaming PC; the number will
be double that or more.
79
Q
- You are planning a secure DMZ that will incorporate several servers, including a
web server, an FTP server, and a mail server. Which inbound ports will need to be
opened at the firewall so that the servers can securely communicate with users
on the Internet? (Select the four best answers.)
◻ A. 21
◻ B. 22
◻ C. 23
◻ D. 53
◻ E. 80
◻ F. 110
◻ G. 143
◻ H. 443
◻ I. 587
◻ J. 995
◻ K. 3389
A
- Answers: B, H, I, and J. In the scenario, the secure DMZ needs to have several
inbound ports open to the servers. To do this in a secure way, one possibility
would be to use SFTP on port 22, HTTPS on port 443, SMTP on port 587 (for
outbound mail), and POP3 on port 995 (for inbound mail). That meets the requirements for our secure FTP server, web server, and mail server. Besides SFTP—
which rides on Secure Shell (SSH)—the rest of the secure solutions use SSL/TLS
by default. See Chapter 5, “Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices,” for more
information.
Incorrect answers: While you can use any port and secure it with the appropriate
protocols, there are default security port numbers that you will usually work with.
For example, when configuring FTP you would use SFTP (port 22) or FTPS (ports
989/990), but not port 21, which is used with standard FTP. As for the rest of the
incorrect answers: Port 23 is used with Telnet (considered insecure). Port 53 is used by DNS, which can be secured in a variety of ways, but the scenario does
not require a DNS server. Port 80 is HTTP (which is rarely seen today). Port 110
is POP3 without security. Port 143 is IMAP without security. Port 3389 is used by
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). By the way, you probably won’t get a question
with 11 possible answers—I’m just trying to stress that you should know your
ports and protocols!
80
Q
- You need to run a diagnostic disc on a laptop running Windows. You modify
the boot order in the UEFI/BIOS and set it to DVD first. However, the laptop still
boots into Windows. What do you need to adjust to boot to the DVD?
❍ A. Secure Boot
❍ B. TPM
❍ C. UEFI/BIOS password
❍ D. Virtualization
A
A
