A-21. Antiarrhythmic agents. Flashcards

1
Q

Class I/A antiarrhythmic MOA and drugs

A

Na+ channel inhibitors; intermediate dissociation and K+ channel inhibition

a. ) quinidine
b. ) disopyramide
c. ) procainamide

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2
Q

Class I/B MOA and drugs

A

Na+ channel inhibitors; fast dissociation

a. ) lidocaine
b. ) mexiletine
c. ) phenytoin

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3
Q

Phase 0, depolarization/upstoke phase in cardiac action potentials

A

Sodium influx

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4
Q

Phase 1, notch of cardiac action potential

A

slight repolarization as sodium channels inactivate

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5
Q

Phase 2, plateau of cardiac action potential

A

Ca2+ influx

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6
Q

Phase 3, repolarization of cardiac action potential

A

K+ efflux

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7
Q

phase 4, pacemaker current

A

K+ influx

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8
Q

Absolute refractory period

A

h gate (fast gate) closes, leaving the channel in an inactive conformation

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9
Q

Relative refractory period

A

As cell repolarizes h gate open again until sufficient depolarization triggers another AP

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10
Q

Class 1 antiarrhythmics bind Na+ channels in which conformation? And which confirmation does it not bind?

A

Class I antiarrhythmics bind Na+ channels in active and inactive conformations, but not in the resting state

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11
Q

Types of calcium channels in cardiac myocytes? Which type are responsible for plateau phase of cardiac action potential? Which two antiarrhythmics target this channel type?

A

L and T-type calcium channels.
L-type channels are responsible for plateau phase.
Verapamil and diltiazem inhibit these L-type calcium channels.

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12
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmics prolong repolarization? What are they good for treating? What risks does it cause?

A
Class III is a good class of antiarrhythmic for prolonging repolarization.
They are good at treating re-entry arrhythmias by prolonging the refractory period.
TdP tachycardia risk is increased.
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13
Q

Two types of arrhythmias groupings

A

Impulse formation or impulse conduction abnormalities

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14
Q

Impulse formation can be separated into?

A

Regular- only the rate is modified, as in tachy- or bradycardia
Irregular- as in triggered impulse formation abnormailites such as…
a.)Early After depolarization (EAD)
b.)Delayed After depolarization (DAD)

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15
Q

Early after depolarization is

A
ion channel (Ca or Na) reactivate before repolarization has finished, triggering an extrasystole before the cell can fully repolarize.
Often the trigger of TdP tachycardia and can be caused by anything which prolongs QT interval (hypokalemia, drugs, or genetic abnormalities)
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16
Q

Delayed after depolarization is

A

After repolarization is complete, an increased IC calcium level activates the Na/Ca exchanger
Such as triggering an extrasystole, due to cardiac glycoside

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17
Q

Impulse conduction abnormality can be due to

A

re-entry mechanism which requires
1.) parallel pathway
2.) a unidirectional block
3.) a short enough refractory period in the ublocked path
An AP travels along the unblocked pathway, then travels retrograde back through the unidirectionally block path, restimulating the unblocked path after it’s refractory period, resulting in an extrasystole

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18
Q

Re-entry arrhythmias can be treated by prolonging refractory periods of cardiac myocytes with drugs that …

A

block K+ channels (thus slowing repolarization) or blocks Na+ channels (thus leaving them inactive)

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19
Q

Class I antiarrhythmic dependence effect? What does this mean?

A

Use-dependence/state-dependence
Effect depends on heart frequency will inhibit a tachycardia HR, but have less effect on normal HR.
Since class I antiarrhythmics bind inactive and active, not the resting conformation. The more rapid the heart rate the more likely it will be in active state.

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20
Q

IC, IB, IA

Order from most to least use-dependence

A

IC>IA>IB

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21
Q

Class 1 antiarrythmics do what to the slope of depol, conduction, and QRS?
How did it effect SA/AV nodes

A

It decreases the slope of depolarization (phase 0), slows conduction, and widens QRS
Na+ channel blockers do not affect depolarization in the SA/AV nodes

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22
Q

Class I/A antiarrythmics kinetics

A
intermediate dissociation (this plus the anticholinergic effects, tends to slow physiological HR leading to bradycardia)
intermediate affinity
inhibit K channels and prolongs AP (increases risk of TdP)
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23
Q

The two Class I/A antiarrhythmic drugs not used anymore

A

ajmaline (parenteral)
prajmaline (oral)
both quinidine analogs

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24
Q

Quinidine
Indication?
Kinetics?
Side effects?

A

Indication: both atrial and ventricular tachyarrhythmias
Kinetics: oral admin; medium DOA
Side Effects
1.) Inhibits alpha receptors increasing reflex tachycardia
2.) Anticholinergic effect increases HR and AV conduction which can increase rate of ventricle
3.) At low doses anticholinergic effect dominates/ High doses Na+ channel blockade dominates
-Often combind with something to slow AV conduction (BB or verapamil/diltiazem)
-Note; digoxin also decreases HR and conduction, but quinidine causes an increased serum digoxin level, so the two drugs can’t be combined
4.) Negative inotropic effect- careful with admin in heart failure
5.) Chinchonism- tinnitus, headache, and dizziness
6.) Thrombocytopenia- rare

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25
Q

Procainamide
How does it compare to to Quinidine?
Side effects?

A

Less anticholinergic and less negative inotropic effect, rarely used now due to side effects.
Side effects are similar to quinidien plus
Lupus-like syndrome-via long term treatment (athralgia/-itis, pericarditis, pulmonitis, etc.)

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26
Q

Disopyramide
How does it compare to quinidine?
Side effects?
Indication?

A

Similar to quinidine, with stronger anticholinergic and negative inotropic effect.
Side effects
1.) Anticholinergic effects: glaucoma attack, urinary retention, constipation
2.) Strong negative inotropy- CI in HF
Indication: ventricular arrhythmia associated with HCMP

27
Q

Class I/B antiarrhythmic kinetics

A

1.)Fast dissociation
-Have minimal cumulative effects over multiple cardiac cycles
-More specific to tissues where Sodium channels are open/inactive and APs are longer (ventricles+His/Purkinje system, rather than atria)
2.)Low binding affinity
3.)Low use dependence
4.)Modest slowing of depolarization
(Blocked Na current shortens plateau/repolarization phase which shortens refractory period so there is no long QT. Also it is specific to ischemic tissue because reduced resting membrane potential delays transition from inactive to resting state of Na channels)

28
Q

Lidocaine
Dosing effect?
Kinetics

A

Local anesthetic
a.) At low doses- inhibits cardiac Na channels
b.) At high doses- neural Na channels
Kinetics
-Strong first pass metabolism so it is required to parenterally administer w/ DOA of 2 hours
-Binds serum proteins (especially alpha acid glycoprotein which accumulates in MI, so higher doses will be needed)

29
Q

Lidocaine
Indications
Side effects

A

Indications
a.) Used in ICU for ventricular tachyarrhythmias following MI (no effect on SVTs)
b.) Cardiac glycoside intoxication- ventricular arrhythmias via DAD causes extrasystole
Side effects
1.) CNS symptoms: tremor paresthesia, serizure, slurred speech
2.) Low cardiotoxicity- no anticholinergic effects so much less arrhythmogenic

30
Q

Mexiletine
How does it relate to lidocaine?
DOA
Indication

A

Mexiletine is the oral version of lidocaine; similar effects
DOA is 10 hours
Indication is ventricular extrasystole and other ventricular tachycardias

31
Q
Phenytoin
Typically used for and effect at the heart?
Indications
How is it given?
Side effects?
A

Phenytoin is typically used for anti-epiletics for general tonic-clonic and partial seizures; also affects cardiac Na channels
Indications include cardiac glycoside intoxication, rarely used in other arrhythmias
Given parenterally
Side effects
1.) Gingival hyperplasia
2.) Hematopoietics issues (anemia)- with longer use
3.) Acute neuro effect

32
Q

Class I/C antiarrhythmics kinetics

A

1.)Slow dissociation
2.) High affinity
3.) High use dependence
4.) Drastically slow depolarization
5.) Widen QRS
*Contraindication: structural/ischemic heart disease since delayed conduction speeds disproportionately to the refractory period and thus have proarrhythmic increasing re-entry risk effect
(Little effect on K+ channels so do not affect AP duration or repolarization significantly)

33
Q

Class I/C antiarrhythmics

MOA and drugs

A

Na+ channel inhibitors; slow to very slow dissociation

  1. ) Flecainide
  2. ) Propafenone
34
Q

Flecainide
kinetics
Effect on K channels
Indications

A

Slowest dissociation kincetics (diastole lasts 500 ms; flecainide dissociates in 5-30 seconds)
Weak effect on K channels
Indications: supraventricular tachycardias (but has an increased risk of sudden death after MI so it is rarely used)

35
Q

Propafenone
Kinetics and secondary effects
Indications

A

Propafenone is safer and more typically used
Orally administered with liver metabolism making for 2 active metabolites
Also has B blocker effect and no K channel effects
Indications are similar to group 1A (supraventricular tachyarrhythmias- especially as drug of choice in A Fib/flutter)

36
Q

Propafenone Side effects

A
  1. ) GI symptoms
  2. ) Visual disturbances
  3. ) Impotence
  4. ) Seizures
  5. ) Beta blocker effects- bradycardia, decreased BP, and negative inotropy
37
Q

Class II antiarrhythmics

MOA and drugs used

A

Sympathetic tone decreasers

  1. ) Propranolol
  2. ) Esmolol
  3. ) Metoprolol
  4. ) Atenolol
38
Q

How are beta blockers used as class II antiarrhythmics

A

Sympathetic stimulation increases SA node by increasing pacemaker currents and increased conduction velocity through the AV nodes.

Beta blockers exert their antiarrhythmic effect by inhibiting B-1 receptors (Gs) and decreasing cAMP closing membrane calcium channels and inhibiting nodal depolarization.

Beta blockers also prolong phase 4 (pacemaker current) of the nodal AP, as well as prolong conduction time and refractory period

39
Q

Indications and disadvantages of type II antiarrhythmics

A

Indications: Generally indicated in SV tachycardias (not VTs) including atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
Disadvantage: Long term use upregulates the production of B1 receptors so sudden discontinuation can cause tachyarrhythmias. Overuse can cause heart block via effect on AV condution (see as long PR interval on ECG)

40
Q
Indications for...
Propranolol
Esmolol
Metoprolol
Atenolol
A
  1. ) Propranolol: inhibits Na channels as well
    - inhibits T4 to T3 conversion; double effect in hyperthyroidism (decreasing hormone and HR)
  2. ) Esmolol: short DOA (10 min)
    - Parenteral admin for PSVT or other tachyarrhythias in emergency settings
  3. ) Metoproplol: SVT
  4. ) Atenolol: SVT and ventricular extrasystole
41
Q

Class III antiarrhythmics

MOA and drugs

A

K+ channel inhibitors

  1. ) Sotalol
  2. ) Bretylium
  3. ) Amiodarone
  4. ) Dronedarone
  5. ) Ibutilide
  6. ) Dofetilide
  7. ) Vernakalant
42
Q

Class III antiarrhythmic kinetics and indications

A

Kinetics
-Exhibit reverse use dependence: at bradycardic rates, have stronger effect
-Prolong plateau and repolarization phases (phases 2+3) leading to EAD and a increased risk of TdP
Indications: SVTs and VTs
a.) A fib.
b.) Especially re-entry tachycardias- K+ channel inhibition prolongs refractory period

43
Q
Sotalol
MOA
Dose effect?
Kinetics
Side effects
A

Beta blocker with K channel inhibition effect.
Normal concentration cause no Na/Ca effects
Higher concentrations cause Na/Ca blockade
Orally administered
Side effects
-bradycardia
-negative inotropy
-decreased blood pressure
-EAD
-TdP

44
Q

Bretylium
MOA
Kinetics
Indication

A

Bretylium is an adrenergic neuron blocker
MOA is that it is taken up in pre-synaptic neurons and empties the vesicles leading to decrease in BP and inhibits Na channels with RUD
-Parenterally administered
Indication: used as a chemical defibrillator when electrical defibrillation fails

45
Q

Amiodarone
Has properties of which antiarrhythmic classes?
MOA?

A

Amiodarone has properties of class 1-4 antiarrhythmics
MOA
-Inhibits Na channels like I/B (fast dissociation)
-Inhibits L type Ca channels (this leads to peripheral and coronary vasodilation and pacemaker effects)
-Inhibits alpha and beta receptors
-Dominant effect is K+ channel inhibition (w/out RUD making it non-arrhytmogenic and with low TdP risk)

46
Q

Amiodarone kinetics

A

Amiodarone kinetics

  • Oral, IM, or IV administration
  • Binds serum proteins; accumulates in tissues
  • Due to protein binding and tissue accumulation, requires loading period (i.e. 800 mg/day for 2 weeks, then 400 mg, then 200)
47
Q

Amiodarone side effects

A
  1. ) Hypo or hyperthyroidism
    - Via iodine content of drug; test T function before and during treatment
  2. ) Corneal microdeposits- grey; can be asymptomatic or cause halos/blindness
  3. ) Skin symptoms due to skin deposits causing photosensitivity and grey discoloration
  4. ) Pulmonary fibrosis
    - restrictive lung disease; bi-yearly radiologic control, fatal in 1%
  5. ) Heart block via beta blocker and CCB effects
  6. ) Heart Failure, especially when given IV
  7. ) Hepatitis due to a hypersensitivity mechanism (do regular liver function tests)
  8. ) Neuro effects- tremor, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, sleep disturbances
  9. ) CYP450 inhibition
48
Q

Indications of amiodarone

A

All types of atrial and ventricular arrhythmias

49
Q

Dronedarone
Similarities/Differences to amiodarone?
Which patients does it lower mortality and which does it increase mortality?

A

Amiodarone analog w/o iodine so no thyroid dysfunction.
Also no pulmonary toxicity but has stronger liver side effects and may cause fatal liver toxicity.
Decreases mortality in A. fib patients but increases mortality in HF (only use when no HF in anamnesis or when EF is higher than 40%)

50
Q

Ibutilide and dofetilide

MOA and indication

A

MOA: inhibit rapid delayed rectifier K channels
Indication: pharmacological cardioversion of A. Fib

51
Q

Vernakalant
Indication
Kinetics
Side effects

A

Indication: pharmacardioversion of A. Fib
Kinetics: Parenteral administration
Side Effects: decrease in BP and bradycardia

52
Q

Class 4 antiarrhythmics

MOA and drugs

A

Calcium channel blockers

  1. ) dihydropyridines
  2. ) verapamil
  3. ) diltiazem
53
Q

What effect do the L-type calcium channel blocker have on the heart? (type 4 antiarrhythmics)

A

Negative chrono/dromo/inotropy (so should not be combined with BBs)
*Remember that SA/AV nodal APs rely on Calcium influx for depolarization so CCBs mainly affect arrhythmias via effects on nodes (decreasing pacemaker activity, prolonging conduction time/refractory period)

54
Q

Indication of type 4 antiarrhythmics

A

Mainly SVTs

-Atrial fibrillation- CCBs slow ventricular response via negative dromotropy (decreased conduction speeds)

55
Q

Side effects of type 4 antiarrhythmics

A
  1. ) Cardiac Depression- bradycardia, AV block (w/ PR prolongation), cardiac arrest
  2. ) smooth muscle effects causing constipation and nausea
  3. ) Vasodilatory side effects cause flushing, dizziness, peripheral edema
56
Q

Class 5 antiarrhythmic drugs

A
  1. ) adenosine
  2. ) digoxin
  3. ) atropine
  4. ) magnesium
  5. ) ivabradine
57
Q

Adenosine

MOA

A

MOA: activates the inhibitory A1 receptors on cardiomyocytes and nodes which increases K+ efflux and decreases Ca2+ influx. This leads to hyperpolarization and decreased automaticity.

  1. ) Decreased AV node conduction with transient high grade AV block
  2. ) A2 receptor effects increase coronary vasodilation (used during stress tests to meaure flow in CAD patient)
58
Q

Adenosine kinetics and indications

A

Adenosine
Kinetics: short DOA (10 second half-life); administered as IV bolus
Indications: first-line for PSVT treatment in emergency settings

59
Q

Adenosine side effects and interactions

A

Side effects of adenosine
1.) Asystole- can cause cardiac arrest, so only administer with defibrillator available (patient may experience dyspnea, chest pain, and sense of doom
2.) Hypotension effects- including headache and fainting
Interactions: Thyeophylline/Caffeine (adenosine receptor blockers which can decrease adenosine effects

60
Q

Digoxin MOA and indication

A

Digoxin
MOA: Vagal stimulation which decreases HR and AV conduction
Indication: SVTs associated with heart failure (including atrial fibrillation)

61
Q

When is atropine used?

A

Used in any condition when increased vagal activation causes severe bradycardia/AV block (ex. digoxin intoxication or post-MI cardiac arrest via overactive vagal stimulation)

62
Q

Magnesium

MOA and 1st line treatment for what?

A

MOA: various effects on ion channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, and Na/K-ATPase
1st line for tx of TdP, used parenterally

63
Q

Ivabradine

Used off-label for? Treats? Official indication?

A

Used off-label to inhibit funny current and decrease pacemaker activity to treat SVTs.
Official indication is for HF and angina (IHD)