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1
Q

4 steps to pipe lining

A

1.Fetch data
2.Decode data
3.Execute calculation
4.Write data and send back

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2
Q

Ethernet speeds

A

1.10BaseT
2.100BaseT
3.1000BaseT
4.10GbaseT

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3
Q

Speed of
1.10BaseT
2.100BaseT
3.1000BaseT
4.10GbaseT

A

1.10Mbps
2.100Mbps
3.1Gbps
4.10Gbps

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4
Q

Star bus topology is

A

When all clients connect to a single box that takes care of sending frames to correct system

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5
Q

UTP vs STP

A

They are copper wire used in networking but UTP is unshielded while STP is shielded

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6
Q

What rating system is used for UTP and STP

A

CAT rating system

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7
Q

Cat 1

A

Standard telephone line

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8
Q

Cat 3

A

10Mbps speed

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9
Q

Cat 5

A

100Mbps speed

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10
Q

Cat 5e

A

Enhanced Cat 5 with 1Gbps and 2.5Gbps at 100 meters

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11
Q

Cat 6

A

Supports 1Gbps and 2.5Gbps at 100 meters and 10Gbps at 55 meters

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12
Q

Cat 6a

A

Supports 10 Gbps at 100 meters

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13
Q

Cat 7

A

Supports 10Gbps at 100 meters with shielding for individual wire pairs reduces cross talk and noise problems

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14
Q

What does the subnet mask do

A

It tells the NIC which part of the IPv4 is the network and which part is the personal identifier

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15
Q

What range of addresses are private

A
  1. Block A, 172.16-31 Block B, 192.168 Block C
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16
Q

What are the email ports for POP3, IMAP4, and SMTP

A
  1. port 110
  2. port 143
  3. port 25
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17
Q

What are the email ports for the secured versions of POP3, IMAP4, and SMTP

A

1.port 995
2.port 993
3.port 465 and 587

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18
Q

DDR3 and DDR3 SO-DIMM pin count

A

1.240
2.204

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19
Q

DDR4 and DDR4 SO-DIMM pin count

A

1.288
2.260

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20
Q

DDR5 and DDR5 SO-DIMM pin count

A

1.288
2.262

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21
Q

How many extra bits does ECC RAM require

A

8 extra bits

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22
Q

What is the 6 steps in the trouble shooting method

A

1.Identify the problem
2.Establish a theory of probable cause
3.Test theory to determine cause
4. Establish a plan of action to resolve problem and implement
5.Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures
6.Document findings, actions, and outcomes

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23
Q

USB 3.0

A

A version of USB that runs at 5 Gbps and uses cables up to 3 meters long. Also called SuperSpeed USB.

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24
Q

USB 2.0

A

A version of USB that runs at 480 Mbps and uses cables up to 5 meters long. Also called Hi-Speed USB.

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25
Q

USB C

A

A USB connector that is flat with rounded sides and used by smartphones and tablets. The connector is required for USB 3.2 devices to attain maximum speeds.

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26
Q

Two main types of coax cables

A

RG-6 and RG-59

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27
Q

5 examples of connection types that enable device synchronization?

A

IEEE 802.11
IEEE 802.3
USB-C
Bluetooth
Cellular

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28
Q

Advantage(s) of VA LCDs?

A

Good color representation
Good viewing angles
High contrast ratios

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29
Q

Advantage(s) of IPS LCDs?

A

Excellent color representation
Wide viewing angles

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30
Q

3 LCD types of active-matrix technologies?

A

Twisted Nematic (TN) LCD
In Plane Switching (IPS) LCD
Vertical Alignment (VA) LCD

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31
Q

Advantage(s) of TN LCDs?

A

Fast response times

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32
Q

What is a digitizer?

A

Device that converts analog feedback into digital instructions

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33
Q

2 categories of fiber optic cable?

A

Multi-mode fiber
Single-mode fiber

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34
Q

What is Multi-mode fiber mainly used for?

A

Short-range communication

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35
Q

What is Single-mode fiber mainly used for?

A

Long-range communication

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36
Q

6 types of Internet Connections?

A

Satellite
Fiber
Cable
DSL
Cellular
WISP

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37
Q

What do Modems do?

A

Converts analog signals to digital signals & vice versa

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38
Q

What is broadband?

A

Form of communication that sends multiple data streams on a wire via different frequencies

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39
Q

What is a WISP?

A

ISP that wirelessly provides internet

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40
Q

What is a WAN?

A

Network of LANs connected with long-distance technologies

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41
Q

What is a LAN?

A

Network of devices within a localized area

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42
Q

What is a PAN?

A

Small network for device communication

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43
Q

Meaning of WPAN?

A

Wireless PAN

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44
Q

Meaning of MAN?

A

Metropolitan Area Network

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45
Q

What is a MAN?

A

Network of LANs within the same city/geographical area

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46
Q

What is a SAN?

A

Network to connect storage devices to servers within a LAN

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47
Q

What standards define WLAN protocols?

A

802.11 standards

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48
Q

What do address records do in DNS?

A

Link FQDNs with their IP addresses

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49
Q

What does DNS translate?

A

FQDNs (aka URLs)

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50
Q

What do MX records in DNS do?

A

Gives email servers the destination email server’s FQDN

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51
Q

What are TXT records used for?

A

Email security & verification

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52
Q

3 types of TXT records used for spam management?

A

DMARC
DKIM
SPF

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53
Q

Meaning of DMARC?

A

Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, & Conformance

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54
Q

Meaning of DKIM?

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail

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55
Q

Meaning of SPF?

A

Sender Policy Framework

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56
Q

What do SPF records in DNS do?

A

Specifies which email servers are allowed to send emails on behalf of a domain

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57
Q

What does DKIM in DNS do?

A

uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity & domain of origin of an email

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58
Q

What does DMARC do?

A

Specifies actions for unvalidated messages

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59
Q

When are DHCP leases renewed?

A

When device rejoins the network

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60
Q

Difference between a static IP address & a reservation?

A

Static IP address is configured at the client.
DHCP reservation is created at the server.

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61
Q

Where does DHCP get IP addresses from?

A

Preconfigured subnet pool

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62
Q

What is a VLAN?

A

Logical network segment created within a switch to control broadcast domains

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63
Q

What do VPNs do?

A

Creates a secure & encrypted connection over public networks

64
Q

Main benefit of VPNs?

A

Remote users can connect to office networks as if they were on the office’s LAN

65
Q

Configuration parameters needed to assign an IP address to device?

A

IP address
Subnet mask
Default gateway address
Primary DNS address

66
Q

How do private IP addresses differ from public IP addresses?

A

By being internal to a network & not communicating directly to the Internet which provides protection/anonymity to client devices, ensures their re-use on other LANs, & conserves IPv4 addresses

67
Q

How do private networks access the internet?

A

Using a gateway device

68
Q

What is a gateway address?

A

A gateway device’s private IP address used for communication between networks

69
Q

What type of addresses do SOHO routers have?

A

Private & dynamic public IP addresses for internal & Internet communication

70
Q

What does NAT do?

A

Converts LAN device IP addresses to the gateway address as data crosses the gateway

71
Q

Reserved Looback/localhost IPv4 address range?

72
Q

Reserved Link-local IPv4 address range?

73
Q

What is a loopback address?

A

IP address used for self-testing & internal communication within a device

74
Q

Alternative to manual IP address assignment?

A

DHCP reservations

75
Q

How do DHCP reservations reserve IP addresses for devices?

A

by configuring their MAC addresses in DHCP server

76
Q

What do DNS servers maintain?

A

Records to perform their functions

76
Q

What is a server?

A

Device that provides services to connected devices

77
Q

What does it mean that DNS is a distributed naming system?

A

Responsibilties for managing DNS requests may be shared among multiple DNS servers

78
Q

What can servers be?

A

Physical box or a VM located within the LAN or cloud.

79
Q

What are NAS servers?

A

Type of file servers that connects directly to the network & has 1 or more storage drives

80
Q

What is syslog?

A

Protocol that sends system logs to central logging server/collector

81
Q

What is a UTM?

A

Device or software that consolidates network & security features

82
Q

What are IDS & IPS used for?

A

To detect & thwart unauthorized access to a network

83
Q

What do SCADA systems do?

A

Manage industrial machines by controlling their functions in real-time

84
Q

What do 802.11 standards define?

A

wireless data transmission in small areas using unlicensed frequency bands

85
Q

List 6 common IEEE 802.11 Wi-Fi standards

A

802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
802.11ac
802.11ax

86
Q

What are frequency bands?

A

Ranges of radio waves used for wireless data transmissions

87
Q

802.11 standards that ONLY use the 2.4GHz ISM band?

A

802.11b & g

88
Q

802.11 standards that ONLY use the 5GHz UNII band?

A

802.11a & ac

89
Q

802.11 standards that can use 2.4GHz ISM band & 5GHz UNII band?

A

802.11n & ax

90
Q

what are non-overlapping channels?

A

channels in a frequency band that do not interfere with each other

91
Q

What is NFC’s Read/write operation for?

A

To read/write data to NFC tags

92
Q

What is NFC’s card emulation mode for?

A

To make NFC device act as a smart card

93
Q

What is RFID technology used for?

A

To Identify & track objects using radio waves

94
Q

What is NFC?

A

Near-field communication is a set of communication protocols that enables communication between two electronic devices over a distance of 4 cm or less

95
Q

What do Wi-Fi analyzers do?

A

Identifies wireless networks & their associated channels/frequencies

96
Q

What are toner probes used for?

A

To locate a cable amidst a bunch of cables

97
Q

What does a loopback plug do?

A

Identifies switch port for RJ45 jack
Tests PC’s network adapter & TCP/IP

98
Q

What does a cable tester do?

A

Verifies wire connections & continuity

99
Q

3 types of ITX MOBO form factors?

A

Mini-ITX
Nano-ITX
Pico-ITX

100
Q

4 types of expansion cards?

A

Sound card
Video card
Capture card
NIC

101
Q

Meaning of GSM?

A

Global System for Multiple Communications

102
Q

Meaning of CDMA?

A

Code Division Multiple Access

103
Q

Meaning of WAP?

A

Wireless Access Point

104
Q

Meaning of SIM & eSIM?

A

Subscriber Identity Module
Embedded SIM

105
Q

Reason devices have a SIM/eSIM?

A

to connect & communicate with a specific cellular network service

106
Q

How did GSM differ from CDMA?

A

GSM SIM cards could be transferred to another device with same or different provider

107
Q

What is PRL?

A

Database containting info. about the provider’s radio bands, sub-bands, & service provider IDs

108
Q

What is Bluetooth?

A

Wireless standard for transmitting data over short distances

109
Q

What is MDM?

A

Software that allows to customize remote mobile devices

110
Q

MDM allows admins to…

A

manage & secure mobile devices remotely from 1 admin console

111
Q

What is MAM?

A

Software used to manage specific corporate mobile apps

112
Q

USB speed

A

USB 1 at 12Mbps, USB 2 at 480Mbps, USB 3 at 5Gbps, and USB 3.1 at 10GPS.

113
Q

In a Windows environment, this protocol is often associated with Active Directory for central management of a user database. What is this protocol called?

114
Q

What are the three standard rpm for hard drives

A

Standard drive disks move at a rotational speed of 5,400, 7,200, or 10,000 revolutions per minute (rpm).

115
Q

What are the three types of “as a service”?

A

IaaS= Infrastructure as a service
PaaS= Platform as a service
SaaS= Software as a service

116
Q

What does IaaS do?

A

Delivers IT infrastructure like compute, storage, and network resources on a pay-as-you-go basis over the internet but you are responsible for deploying, maintaining, and supporting your applications, and the IaaS provider is responsible for maintaining the physical infrastructure

117
Q

What does PaaS do?

A

Complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications.

118
Q

What does SaaS do?

A

software delivery and licensing in which software is accessed online via a subscription, rather than bought and installed on individual computers.

119
Q

What are the three IEEE standards that match with PoE,PoE+, and PoE++

A

PoE=IEEE 802.3af
PoE+=IEEE 802.3at
PoE++=IEEE 802.3bt

120
Q

TCP vs. UDP

A

TCP is a connection oriented while UDP is a connection-less protocol

121
Q

Name the connection oriented protocols

A

HTTPS, SSH, and TCP

122
Q

Name the connection-less protocols

A

DHCP,TFTP. and UDP

123
Q

What is a managed switch?

A

Managed switches let users adjust each port on the switch to any setting, enabling them to manage, configure and monitor the network in many ways

124
Q

HTTP port

125
Q

HTTPS port

126
Q

FTP ports

127
Q

Telnet

128
Q

SSH port

129
Q

RDP

130
Q

DNS port and protocol

A

UDP port 53

131
Q

DHCP ports and protocol

A

UDP port 67,68

132
Q

LDAP port and protocol

133
Q

SNMP ports and protocol

A

UDP ports 161,162

134
Q

SMB/CIFS ports and protocols

A

TCP 445
UDP ports 137,138,139

135
Q

Netbios

A

TCP 137,139
UDP 137,138

136
Q

What is APIPA?

A

If a computer cant connect to a DHCP server it will assign itself an address starting with 169.254 after checking no other system has that IP on the local network

137
Q

What is significant about IPs starting with 169.254?

A

They indicate that the device couldn’t connect to a DHCP server and that APIPA was activated

138
Q

what is “People Don’t Need Those Stupid Packets Anyway”?

A

The layers of OSI
1.Physical
2.Data Link
3.Network
4.Transport
5.Session
6.Presentation
7.Application

139
Q

Which protocols do you use to receive emails

A

IMAP or POP3

140
Q

Standard hard drive form factors

A

2.5 inch and 3.5 inch

141
Q

SSD standard form factors

A

2.5 inch, mSATA, and M.2

142
Q

RAID 0

A

Disk striping requires two drives. no redundancy

143
Q

RAID 1

A

Disk mirroring/duplexing requires two hard drives but can use any even number of drives. data is mirrored in two drives so there is redundancy but you use twice as much space

144
Q

RAID 5

A

Disk striping with distributed parity requires three drives. Can lose one drive and keep data safe so it does have redundancy

145
Q

RAID 6

A

Disk striping with extra parity requires 4 drives. can lose two drives and keep data safe so it has redundancy

146
Q

RAID 1+0 or RAID 10

A

Nested, mirrored stripes requires 4 drives. It takes 4 hard drives and creates two RAID 1 arrays that look like singular drives to the raid controller then create a RAID 0 array with those two “drives”. can lose up to 2 drives so it has redundancy

147
Q

RAID 0+1

A

Opposite of RAID 10 with two RAID 0 “singular” drives created into a RAID 1 array

148
Q

T568B color scheme

A

orange stripe, orange, green stripe, blue, blue stripe, green, brown stripe, brown

149
Q

T568A color scheme

A

green stripe, green, orange stripe, blue, blue stripe, orange, brown stripe, brown

150
Q

What is AAA?

A

AAA authenticates users, authorizes what they can and cant access and logs all of their actions for accountability

151
Q

What two protocols power AAA?

A

RADIUS and TACACS+

152
Q

What does an impact printer do?

A

Uses an ink ribbon to strike the papers surface

153
Q

What does an ink jet printer do?

A

It uses a print head connected to a carriage that contains ink a carriage belt moves the paper back and forth so that the ink can cover the whole page. ink is ejected through tiny tubes onto the paper

154
Q

What does a thermal printer do?

A

A heating element burns the special paper to create a image

155
Q

What does a laser print do?

A

Has a toner cartridge that supplies the toner that creates the image. has a imaging drum that gets hit with light and gets electrically charged in the areas hit. The toner has a lower charge than the areas on the drum that get hit with the laser so it sticks to those areas while avoiding the ones that were not hit because they are even lower charged. The paper is then given a positive charge so that the toner is then transferred to it before it goes through the fuser that fuses the toner to the paper by using a heated roller on top and a pressure roller on bottom.

156
Q

7 steps of laser printing

A

1.Processing
2.Charging
3.Exposing
4.Developing
5.Transferring
6.Fusing
7.Cleaning

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