A+ 1002 Flashcards
1
Q
Domain 1
What is the maximum amount of RAM a 32-bit installation of Windows will see? Choices: 16GB 32GB 2GB 4GB
A
4GB
2
Q
Domain 1
Which statement is true regarding compatibility between 32-bit and 64-bit operating systems? Choices: A. 32-bit apps are typically installed in the Program Files folder on a 64-bit system B. 32-bit apps can run on 64-bit systems C. 64-bit apps are typically installed in the Program Files (x86) folder on a 64-bit system D. 64-bit apps can only un if a system has 8GBofRAMor higher
A
B. 32-bit apps can run on 64-bit
systems
3
Q
Domain 1
Which is the most recent version of Windows? Choices: Windows 8.1 Windows 8 Windows 10 Windows 10.1
A
Windows 10
4
Q
Domain 1
Acustomer is looking for a desktop operating system. The customer specializes in graphic design and audio and video editing. Which operating system should a technician recommend? Choices: Apple MacintoshOS Windows iOS Linux
A
Apple MacintoshOS
5
Q
Domain 1
Which operating system is featured on both desktops and tablets? Choices: iOS Linux Android Windows
A
Windows
6
Q
Domain 1
Which two operating systems are open source? Choices: iOS Android Linux Windows
A
Android
Linux
7
Q
Domain 1
Which mobile operating system is used on Apple devices? Choices: iOS Windows Android Linux
A
iOS
8
Q
Domain 1
Which operating system is the Android equivalent on netbook devices? Choices: Pie ChromeOS Linux iOS
A
ChromeOS
9
Q
Domain 1
What are the two main reasons to avoid running operating systems that have reached end-of-life status? Choices: The OS will be vulnerable to attack The OS will no longer receive updates The OS will cease to function Apps will no longer work on the OS
A
TheOSwill be vulnerable to attack
TheOSwill no longer receive
updates
10
Q
Domain 1
In order for files to be readable on both Windows and MacOS, the files need to be on a drive with which format? Choices: FAT32 NTFS exFAT ReFS
A
exFAT
11
Q
Domain 1
Which two editions of Windows 7 are not available for retail purchase? Choices: Professional Enterprise Home Starter
A
Enterprise
Starter
12
Q
Domain 1
Which is the first edition of Windows to have the Charms bar? Choices: Windows 8.1 Windows 8 Windows 7 Windows 10
A
Windows 8
13
Q
Domain 1
Which feature disappeared in Windows 8 but came back in Windows 8.1? Choices: Start button Taskbar Tiles Charms bar
A
Start button
14
Q
Domain 1
What is the name of the voice-based search feature in Windows 10? Choices: Siri Cortana Searcher Alexa
A
Cortana
15
Q
Domain 1
Which is the minimum edition of Windows eligible to join a network domain? Choices: Enterprise Starter Professional Home
A
Professional
16
Q
Domain 1
Which tool is used to encrypt entire hard drives? Choices: Digital Signatures EFS Disk Management BitLocker
A
BitLocker
17
Q
Domain 1
Which two versions of Windows have Windows Media Center? Choices: Windows 8 Professional Windows 7 Home Windows 7 Home Premium Windows 8 Home
A
Windows 8 Professional
Windows 7 Home Premium
18
Q
Domain 1
Which is a bandwidth optimization feature that allows content to be cached on a local hard drive? Choices: DirectAccess QoS EFS BranchCache
A
BranchCache
19
Q
Domain 1
Which two editions of Windows have tiles for apps and no traditional Start menu? Choices: Windows 10 Windows 8.1 Windows 8 Windows 7
A
Windows 8.1
Windows 8
20
Q
Domain 1
Which medium is likely to be too small for holding operating system installation files? Choices: Internal drive Flash drive Network boot CD
A
CD
21
Q
Domain 1
An administrator wants to use an external drive as a source for an operating system installation. What should be done first on the system about to receive the
install?
Choices:
A. Disable the old OS
B. Make sure the boot order in the
BIOS is set properly
C. Uninstall the old OS
D. Delete the old OS
A
B. Make sure the boot order in the BIOS is set properly
22
Q
Domain 1
How do PXE boots take place for installing an operating system?
Choices:
A. Boot happens on an external drive
B. Boot takes placement over the
network
C. Boot happens on a DVD
D. Boot happens on an internal
drive
A
B. Boot takes placement over the
network
23
Q
Domain 1
Where should installation files be located on an internal hard drive for a clean install of Windows? Choices: A. In C:\Images B. On C: C. On a different partition D. In C:\Windows
A
C. On a different partition
24
Q
Domain 1
Which type of file is needed in order to perform an unattended installation of Windows? Choices: Answer Unattended Question Attended
A
Answer
25
Q
Domain 1
A user has Windows 8.1 Home edition. Which version of Windows 10 can the user upgrade to? Choices: Windows 10 Enterprise Windows 10 Home Windows 10 Education Windows 10 Professional
A
Windows 10 Home
26
Q
Domain 1
For homes and small businesses, which two types of installations are the most common installations of Windows? Choices: Network boot Unattended In-place upgrade Clean install
A
In-place upgrade
Clean install
27
Q
Domain 1
When doing a repair installation of Windows, what happens to a user's current Windows data?
Choices:
A. It is moved to a Windows.old
folder
B. It is moved to a
Windows.backup
folder
C. It stays in the same place
D. It is deleted
A
A. It is moved to a Windows.old
folder
28
Q
Domain 1
Which is considered a best practice for multiboot installations?
Choices:
A. Install the oldest operating
system last
B. Install the Windows operating
system last
C. Install the newest operating
system last
D. Install the non-Windows
operating system last
A
C. Install the newest operating
system last
29
Q
Domain 1
Which two statements are true regarding network installations of Windows?
Choices:
A. The system receiving the
installation must have network
boot enabled in the BIOS or UEFI
B. The server hosting the installation
must have network boot enabled
in the BIOS or UEFI
C. The installation media must be on
a Windows server
D. A 10Gbps network connection is
preferable
A
D. A 10Gbps network connection is preferable
30
Q
Domain 1
For Windows installations, which deployment type is suitable for when installations need to include apps and settings to be deployed on multiple systems? Choices: Recovery partition DVD Image Network
A
Image
31
Q
Domain 1
Which best describes what a recovery partition on a computer typically stores? Choices: System files Backup software The original image deployed on the computer OEM software
A
The original image deployed on
the computer
32
Q
Domain 1
Which reinstall method in Windows looks for and replaces corrupt system files? Choices: Restore Reset Upgrade Refresh
A
Refresh
33
Q
Domain 1
A user wants to resize a basic partition on a hard drive. What must be done to the drive first? Choices: It needs to be expanded It needs to be converted to a dynamic partition It needs to be formatted It needs to be shrunk
A
It needs to be converted to a
dynamic partition
34
Q
Domain 1
How are primary partitions determined on a hard drive? Choices: They are the first partitions created They are the first formatted partitions created They are the largest partitions created They are the partitions that hold operating systems
A
They are the partitions that hold
operating systems
35
Q
Domain 1
Which type of partition is needed on a hard drive in order to have more than four logical drives, each with a drive letter on a single physical hard drive? Choices: Primary Extended Dynamic Basic
A
Extended
36
Q
Domain 1
How many GPT partitions can be on one disk? Choices: 32 256 128 4
A
128
37
Q
Domain 1
What is the maximum partition size on a disk using an exFAT format? Choices: 32GB 2 TB 512 TB 256 TB
A
512 TB
38
Q
Domain 1
What is the maximum partition size on a disk using a FAT32 format? Choices: 32GB 512 TB 2 TB 256 TB
A
2 TB
39
Q
Domain 1
Which partition format supports file and folder encryption? Choices: CDFS exFAT NTFS FAT32
A
NTFS
40
Q
Domain 1
Which file system is commonly used on CDs? Choices: exFAT FAT32 CDFS NTFS
A
CDFS
41
Q
Domain 1
Which is a distributed file system that allows a client computer to access files over a network? Choices: CDFS NFS NTFS ReFS
A
NFS
42
Q
Domain 1
Which operating system uses ext3 and ext4 for disk formats? Choices: Linux Android Windows MacOS
A
Linux
43
Q
Domain 1
Which Mac OS file system is used on Mac OS versions 10.12 and older? Choices: ext3 NTFS HFS NFS
A
HFS
44
Q
Domain 1
Which is the Linux equivalent of the page file in Windows? Choices: Page space Page partition VM file Swap partition
A
Swap partition
45
Q
Domain 1
Which best describes what actually happens when a a quick format is performed on a hard drive? Choices: Files on the drive have their access removed The drive has zeros written on it The drive is emptied The drive has ones written on it
A
Files on the drive have their
access removed
46
Q
Domain 1
For loading third-party drivers during a Windows installation, on what media do the drivers need to be? Choose two answers. Choices: HDD SSD USB drive Optical drive
A
USB drive
Optical drive
47
Q
Domain 1
Which type of network will most Windows devices be connected to in a home network? Choices: Workgroup Internal Domain HomeGroup
A
Workgroup
48
Q
Domain 1
Which is the first step in a Windows installation once the installation process starts? Choices: File system format choice Partition to install Entering a product key Language and time format
A
Language and time format
49
Q
Domain 1
Which tool should be used to check to see if any peripherals need drivers right after a Windows installation? Choices: Device Manager System Information Computer Management System Configuration
A
Device Manager
50
Q
Domain 1
Besides a primary partition, which type of partition should be present on a computer right after a Windows installation? Choices: Extended Basic Logical Recovery
A
Recovery
51
Q
Domain 1
What is the recommended minimum amount of RAM for a 64-bit installation of Windows? Choices: 2GB 1GB 4GB 3GB
A
2GB
52
Q
Domain 1
A user has Windows 10 but needs to run an app that was built for Windows 7. How should the user run the app? Choices: Legacy Mode Virtual Mode Embedded Mode Compatibility Mode
A
Compatibility Mode
53
Q
Domain 1
Which versions of Windows can upgrade to Windows 10? Choose two answers. Choices: Windows 7 Windows 8.1 Windows 8 Windows Vista
A
Windows 7
Windows 8.1
54
Q
Domain 1
Which Windows command lists the files inside of a folder? Choices: ls sd show dir
A
dir
55
Q
Domain 1
Which Windows command takes a user up a level of folders in a folder structure? Choices: cd\ cd.. md\ md..
A
cd..
56
Q
Domain 1
A user states that a frequent website the user visits cannot be reached. Which command should a technician run in order to test connectivity to the site? Choices: nslookup ping tracert ipconfig
A
ping
57
Q
Domain 1
A user states that there are intermittent connectivity problems to the Internet. Which command should a technician run in order to isolate where the connection might be dropping? Choices: ping tracert ipconfig nslookup
A
tracert
58
Q
Domain 1
A technician wants to see established TCP connections on a device. Which command should the technician run to get this list? Choices: netstat -a tcp netstat -c tcp netstat -proto tcp netstat -p tcp
A
netstat -p tcp
59
Q
Domain 1
A technician wants to see the advertised DNS server address for google.com. Which command should the technician run? Choices: nslookup google.com finddns google.com lookup google.com dns google.com
A
nslookup google.com
60
Q
Domain 1
A junior technician wants to add a command that will restart a device at the end of an installation. Which command should the technician add? Choices: restart -r shutdown restart shutdown -r
A
shutdown -r
61
Q
Domain 1
Which are the two main uses for the Dism command? Choices: Deploy a system image Prepare a system image for deployment Scan and repair a system image Build a system image
A
Prepare a system image for
deployment
Scan and repair a system image
62
Q
Domain 1
Which two commands can check for and attempt to fix errors on a system? Choices: fixdsk scannow sfc chkdsk
A
sfc
chkdsk
63
Q
Domain 1
Which command can list both disks and partitions on a device? Choices: dir diskpart disklookup chkdsk
A
diskpart
64
Q
Domain 1
A user was told an app was installable as a result of a policy change on a domain, but the user still cannot install the app. What can a technician run on the device to force the policy change? Choices: gpchange gpupdate gpresult gpforce
A
gpupdate
65
Q
Domain 1
In an effort to troubleshoot rights on a device, a technician want to see which Group Policy settings apply to a user. Which command should the technician run? Choices: gpresult /R gpresult gpresult /U gpresult /P
A
gpresult /R
66
Q
Domain 1
When running the format command, what will be formatted? Choices: Folders Hard drives Accounts Files
A
Hard drives
67
Q
Domain 1
A user runs this command: copytempalte.docxtemplate2.docx. What happens as a result of that command? Choices: A. template2.docxhas been copied to the template.docxfolder B. template.docxhas been copied to a file named template2.docx C. template2.docxhas been copied to a file named template.docx D. template.docxhas been copied to the template2.docxfolder
A
B. template.docxhas been copied to a file named template2.docx
68
Q
Domain 1
A junior technician wants to make sure all subdirectories from the c:\u201 folder get copied to the c:\u202folder. Which command should the junior technician run? Choices: xcopyc:\u201 c:\u202 /s xcopyc:\u201 c:\u202 /sub copyc:\u201 c:\u202 /sub copyc:\u201 c:\u202 /s
A
69
Q
Domain 1
A user runs this command: robocopyc:\u202 c:\u203. What gets copied from u202 to u203? Choices: Files Folders and subdirectories Folders The entire directory structure
A
The entire directory structure
70
Q
Domain 1
Which command would a technician need to run to map a user's P drive to the Techies folder on the 1002winserver server? Choices: A. net use p: \\1002winserver\Techies B. net user p: \\1002winserver\Techies C. map p: \\1002winserver\Techies D. net map p: \\1002winserver\Techies
A
A. net use p:
\1002winserver\Techies
71
Q
Domain 1
A technician needs to see when a user last logged on to a device. Which command can the technician run to accomplish this? Choices: use net user net use user
A
net user
72
Q
Domain 1
Which switch, entered after a command, returns a list of switches the command uses? Choices: /switch /man /help /?
A
/?
73
Q
Domain 1
Which commands must be run with an elevated command prompt? Choose two answers. Choices: shutdown sfc dism dir
A
sfc
dism
74
Q
Domain 1
Which administrative tool is used to display other system tools? Choices: System Information Computer Management Device Manager System Configuration
A
Computer Management
75
Q
Domain 1
A user claims a hardware device is not found. Upon looking at Device Manager, an administrator notices a black arrow next to the device in question. What does this indicate? Choices: The device is unplugged The device has malfunctioned The device is disabled The device has the wrong driver installed
A
The device is disabled
76
Q
Domain 1
Which two local user accounts should be disabled by default? Choices: Administrator User Backup operator Guest
A
Administrator
Guest
77
Q
Domain 1
Which are the two main features of the Local Security Policy tool? Choices: Account policies Administrative tasks Security policies User rights assignments
A
Account policies
User rights assignments
78
Q
Domain 1
Which three areas of device performance are visible from the initial Performance Monitor screen? Choices: Memory Tasks Physical Disk Network Processor Information
A
Memory
Physical Disk
Processor Information
79
Q
Domain 1
What should one do with an unnecessary service? Choices: Set it to start up manually Disable it Remove it Stop it
A
Disable it
80
Q
Domain 1
Apps set to start up when a system is booted are contained in the System Configuration tool in which operating system? Choices: Windows 7 Windows 8 Windows 10 Windows 8.1
A
Windows 7
81
Q
Domain 1
A system administrator needs to run a scanning app daily. Where can this be set up? Choices: System Configuration Services System Information Task Scheduler
A
Task Scheduler
82
Q
Domain 1
Building blocks that work toward building object-oriented applications are managed in which administrative tool? Choices: Data Sources Task Scheduler Component Services System Configuration
A
Component Services
83
Q
Domain 1
A user needs to set up a connection to SQL Server database. Which tool can the user use to accomplish this task? Choices: System Configuration Data Sources Task Scheduler Component Services
A
Data Sources
84
Q
Domain 1
The Print Management tool can be used on which operating system? Choices: Windows MacOS Linux Android
A
Windows
85
Q
Domain 1
Which app runs the Windows Memory Diagnostic tool? Choices: wmdiag dxdiag msdiag mdsched
A
mdsched
86
Q
Domain 1
Which are the main types of event logs in the Event Viewer? Choose three answers. Choices: System Auditing Application Syslog Security
A
System
Application
Security
87
Q
Domain 1
Which is the default setting for User Account Control?
Choices:
A. Notify only when apps try to make changes
B. Never notify
C. Notify when apps try to make
changes without dimming the desktop
D. Always notify
A
C. Notify only when apps try to make changes
88
Q
Domain 1
Which tab within Msconfig has startup selections? Choices: Startup Boot Services General
A
Boot
89
Q
Domain 1
In which mode should a system be booted into in order to run antimalware effectively? Choices: Safe Mode Windows RE VGAMode Config Mode
A
Safe Mode
90
Q
Domain 1
What can be done with a service inside of Msconfig? Choices: Started Disabled Stopped Removed
A
Disabled
91
Q
Domain 1
In which tool is the startup options located in Windows 10? Choices: Msconfig Task Manager System Information Computer Management
A
Task Manager
92
Q
Domain 1
Which type of tools are located on the Tools tab of the Msconfig window? Choices: Windows tools Boot tools Services Startup options
A
Windows tools
93
Q
Domain 1
Which tab in Task Manager in Windows 10 allows one to see apps and the resources they have taken since the last time booting up? Choices: Processes Performance history Details App history
A
App history
94
Q
Domain 1
In which edition of Windows do apps running not show on the Processes tab? Choices: Windows 7 Windows 8 Windows 10 Windows 8.1
A
Windows 7
95
Q
Domain 1
On which Task Manager tab can one see a mini-snapshot of CPU, memory, disk, and network statistics? Choices: Applications Performance Resources Processes
A
Performance
96
Q
Domain 1
In which edition of Windows does Networking appear on its own tab in Task Manager? Choices: Windows 10 Windows 7 Windows 8 Windows 8.1
A
Windows 7
97
Q
Domain 1
Which best describes the list of users on the Users tab in Task Manager? Choices: Users who are logged on to the device Administrative users on the device Users who have an account on the device Standard users on the device
A
Users who are logged on to the
device
98
Q
Domain 1
What is the drive status one hopes to see when looking at drives using the Disk Management tool? Choices: Running Basic Primary Healthy
A
Healthy
99
Q
Domain 1
What is needed in order to mount a drive? Choose two answers. Choices: An empty NTFS-formatted folder A virtual hard drive A partition that is not assigned a drive letter An empty hard drive partition
A
An empty NTFS-formatted folder
A partition that is not assigned a
drive letter
100
Q
Domain 1
A new disk has been installed and is showing in the Disk Management tool. In order for the drive to be put to use, what is the first step an administrator needs to take? Choices: Format the drive Initialize the drive Create a partition Extend the drive
A
Initialize the drive
101
Q
Domain 1
Before a disk partition can be split, what must be done to it? Choices: It must have been extended It must be shrunk It must be emptied It must be formatted
A
It must be shrunk
102
Q
Domain 1
A drive is added to a device. It is not recognized right away. Which option in Disk Management could one run to have the device try to find the drive? Choices: Add Disks Device Manager Refresh Disks Rescan Disks
A
Rescan Disks
103
Q
Domain 1
How are most RAIDs set up on a computer? Choices: As a hardware RAID through Disk Management As a software RAID in the system BIOS As a software RAID through Disk Management As a hardware RAID in the system BIOS
A
As a hardware RAID in the system
BIOS
104
Q
Domain 1
When creating a storage pool with two different-sized disks in Windows, what will be the size of the storage pool? Choices: The sum of the disks The size of the larger disk The difference between the two disks The size of the smaller disk
A
The size of the smaller disk
105
Q
Domain 1
Which registry hive stores file associations? Choices: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE HKEY_CURRENT_USER HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
A
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
106
Q
Domain 1
What happens when a user without administrative privileges tries to run a command prompt in elevated mode? Choices: The UAC window pops up to confirm the opening The command prompt opens The user is asked to provide administrative credentials The user is denied access to the command prompt
A
The user is asked to provide
administrative credentials
107
Q
Domain 1
What is the name of the Services tool? Choices: services.msi services services.exe services.msc
A
services.msc
108
Q
Domain 1
Which tool allows one to set up custom consoles to manage tools and utilities? Choices: System Management Console Microsoft Management Console Disk Management Console Computer Management Console
A
Microsoft Management Console
109
Q
Domain 1
What information on a device can be used to connect to the device via MSTSC? Choose two answers. Choices: IP address Device name Port Username
A
Device name
Username
110
Q
Domain 1
A user wants a text editing tool that will put absolutely no formatting onto the text. Which tool should a technician recommend to the user? Choices: Pages Word WordPad Notepad
A
Notepad
111
Q
Domain 1
In which tool can a user control whether to view extensions on files? Choices: Explorer This PC Finder Msconfig
A
Explorer
112
Q
Domain 1
A technician needs to knowhow much RAM a system has. Which tool can the technician use to find this out? Choices: MSC MSRAM Msconfig Msinfo32
A
Msinfo32
113
Q
Domain 1
Which tool shows the version of DirectX on a Windows device? Choices: Directxshow Directxdiag Dxshow Dxdiag
A
Dxdiag
114
Q
Domain 1
Which types of disks do not need disk defragmenter run on them? Choices: Internal drives SSDs HDDs External drives
A
SSDs
115
Q
Domain 1
What can be controlled within Windows Update settings? Choose three answers. Choices: Which specific apps are updated The update history When updates are installed The hours in which updates occur What downloads during an update
A
The update history
When updates are installed
The hours in which updates occur
116
Q
Domain 1
In which tab in Internet Options would one set a proxy server? Choices: General Privacy Security Connections
A
Connections
117
Q
Domain 1
Which types of websites are most commonly found in the Trusted Sites area of the Internet Options window? Choices: External Public Internal Private
A
Internal
118
Q
Domain 1
A user wants to delete browsing history for Microsoft Edge. Which Internet Options tab should an administrator use to make this happen? Choices: Programs Privacy Security General
A
General
119
Q
Domain 1
What can be controlled on the Privacy tab within Internet Options? Choices: Temporary Internet files Cookies Browsing history Accessibility
A
Cookies
120
Q
Domain 1
In which version of Windows can the default web browser be set in the Settings area rather than in the Control Panel? Choices: Windows 10 Windows 8 Windows 7 Windows 8.1
A
Windows 10
121
Q
Domain 1
In which tab in Internet Options would one restore Internet Explorer or Microsoft Edge to its default settings? Choices: Security General Programs Advanced
A
Advanced
122
Q
Domain 1
Which screen resolution in Windows offers the best quality picture on a screen? Choices: 1280 x720 1024 x768 The monitor recommendation 1920 x1080
A
The monitor recommendation
123
Q
Domain 1
How many colors are supported in a 32-bit color depth setting? Choices: 32 to the 2nd power 2 * 32 32 2 to the 32nd power
A
2 to the 32nd power
124
Q
Domain 1
A user set the refresh rate on a monitor to higher than the monitor supports and the monitor now displays nothing. Which two tasks could a technician do to fix the problem? Choices: Reboot into Safe Mode Plug in a different monitor Reboot into Windows RE Reboot into VGAMode
A
Reboot into Safe Mode
Reboot into VGAMode
125
Q
Domain 1
Which two account types are the two main account types on a Windows device? Choices: Standard Administrator Guest Power User
A
Standard
Administrator
126
Q
Domain 1
Within File Explorer, In which tab under Folder Options can one control how an item is clicked when one wants to open an item? Choices: Search View Navigate General
A
General
127
Q
Domain 1
When is virtual memory used on a PC? Choices: When a machine is running a virtual reality app When a machine is out of hard disk space When a machine is out of RAM When a virtual machine is running
A
When a machine is out of RAM
128
Q
Domain 1
What must be configured within Remote Desktop settings before one can remote into a machine? Choices: When Remote Desktop is enabled The port on which Remote Desktop will run The IP address of the machine Who can connect to the machine
A
Who can connect to the machine
129
Q
Domain 1
In this Control Panel window, where does one click to start the process of creating a restore point? Choices: System protection Device manager Remote settings Advanced system settings
A
System protection
130
Q
Domain 1
How many firewalls should be turned on per host machine on a network? Choices: 2 1 0 if the network firewall is on 3
A
1
131
Q
Domain 1
Which are available power options on a Windows device? Choose three answers. Choices: Balanced Sleep Power saver Low performance High performance
A
Balanced
Power saver
High performance
132
Q
Domain 1
In which power state is a laptop in when it is shut down in a way to where a snapshot of the RAM is taken and then stored on the hard drive? Choices: Standby Sleep Hibernate Suspend
A
Hibernate
133
Q
Domain 1
In which three power modes is a laptop off but RAM is not transferred to hard drive and the laptop can be woken up through tapping the mouse or trackpad? Choices: Suspend Standby Sleep Hibernate Shutdown
A
Suspend
Standby
Sleep
134
Q
Domain 1
Which two main types of credentials are managed through Credential Manager? Choices: Token App Web Windows
A
Web
Windows
135
Q
Domain 1
In which version of Windows was HomeGroups removed? Choices: Windows 8.1 Windows 10 Windows 7 Windows 8
A
Windows 10
136
Q
Domain 1
Which categories are accessible for troubleshooting through the Control Panel? Choose four answers. Choices: IP Addressing Network and Internet Programs Hardware and Sound Device Installation System and Security
A
Network and Internet
Programs
Hardware and Sound
System and Security
137
Q
Domain 1
Which Control Panel tool allows for checking network connections and IP address information and allows for diagnosing network connections that are not working? Choices: IP Addressing Network and Internet Network and Sharing Center Network Properties
A
Network and Sharing Center
138
Q
Domain 1
A user looks in Device Manager and notices that a network card has a black arrow next to it. What does the black arrow signify? Choices: The network card just had drivers downloaded The network card was just uninstalled The network card has incorrect drivers The network card is disabled
A
The network card is disabled
139
Q
Domain 1
What does BitLocker encrypt? Choices: Files Hard drives Folders CPU
A
Hard drives
140
Q
Domain 1
Which best describes the role of Sync Center on a Windows device? Choices: Synchronize settings with a network drive Synchronize settings across devices Synchronize files with a network drive Synchronize files across devices
A
Synchronize files with a network
drive
141
Q
Domain 1
Which are considered the three most important factors for application installations on a device? Choices: Drive space RAM Screen size Operating system compatibility Available peripherals
A
Drive space
RAM
Operating system compatibility
142
Q
Domain 1
Besides downloading software, what are common sources used for software installations? Choose three answers. Choices: USB drive CD Network location Floppy disk Virtual drive
A
USB drive
CD
Network location
143
Q
Domain 1
Which folder is typically used for installations of 32-bit apps on a 64-bit operating system? Choices: C:\Program Files (x32) C:\Program Files C:\Program Files (32-bit) C:\Program Files (x86)
A
C:\Program Files (x86)
144
Q
Domain 1
Which is true about steps to take to make sure an app does not have a negative impact on a device when installed? Choose two answers. Choices: Apps should be made to not move malware onto a system Apps should come from a trusted publisher Automatic updates should never be allowed Apps should not open a hole in the firewall
A
Apps should come from a trusted
publisher
Automatic updates should never
be allowed
145
Q
Domain 1
An administrator wants to make sure a new app which requires network resources, takes a low amount of network resources. What can be set in order to
ensure that an app does not take much bandwidth?
Choices:
Routing protocol
Resource optimization
Port settings
QoS
A
QoS
146
Q
Domain 1
Which type of network allows for all devices on the network to share a common password? Choices: Peer-to-peer Workgroup Domain HomeGroup
A
HomeGroup
147
Q
Domain 1
Which type of network requires a separate username and password for each device on the network? Choices: HomeGroup Client Domain Workgroup
A
Workgroup
148
Q
Domain 1
Which type of network is considered a client/server network? Choices: HomeGroup Domain Workgroup Peer-to-peer
A
Domain
149
Q
Domain 1
Which is an example of an administrative share? Choices: \\winserver\c$ \\winserver \\winserver\admin \\winserver\c
A
\winserver\c$
150
Q
Domain 1
Which specific permissions does a user or group need on a printer, in its printer properties, in order to print to that printer? Choices: Print permission on the Sharing tab Access permission on the Security tab Print permission on the Security tab Access permission on the Sharing tab
A
Print permission on the Sharing
tab
151
Q
Domain 1
Which version of Windows allows one to set up a VPN without having to go through the Network and Sharing Center? Choices: Windows 8 Windows 8.1 Windows 7 Windows 10
A
Windows 10
152
Q
Domain 1
Besides a modem and a phone line, what else is needed to establish a dial-up connection with a network? Choices: An ISDN line A phone number from a provider A coaxial cable A T1 line
A
A phone number from a provider
153
Q
Domain 1
Which is true about wireless network connections? Choose two answers. Choices: The network can be forgotten The network connection always uses DHCP to get an IP address The network connection always requires a password The network can be set to connect automatically to it
A
The network connection always
requires a password
The network can be set to connect automatically to it
154
Q
Domain 1
A user wants to know how much configuration will be needed for establishing a wired network connection after plugging a laptop into a router. The router is
giving out IP addresses via DHCP. What should the user have to configure?
Choices:
The DNS server address
The default gateway
Nothing
The DHCP server address
A
Nothing
155
Q
Domain 1
Which type of network connects devices to the Internet through mobile hotspots? Choices: WWAN LAN WAN WLAN
A
WWAN
156
Q
Domain 1
Which are the two main roles of proxy servers? Choices: Cache content Content filtering Handle Internet requests Perform NAT translations
A
Cache content
Handle Internet requests
157
Q
Domain 1
Which run command opens Remote Desktop Connection? Choices: RDC MSTSC RD REMOTE
A
MSTSC
158
Q
Domain 1
In Windows, which type of remote connection allows one to see what the other is doing on a screen? Choices: Remote Assistance VNC Screen Share Remote Desktop
A
Remote Assistance
159
Q
Domain 1
A user joins a network in an airport. Which choice should a user make when presented with a list of choices in order to best secure the device from the other devices on the network? Choices: Visiting Work Private Public
A
Public
160
Q
Domain 1
Which are known as firewall exceptions? Choose two answers. Choices: Blocking specific ports Allowing specific ports Blocking outbound traffic Allowing inbound traffic
A
Blocking outbound traffic
Allowing inbound traffic
161
Q
Domain 1
On a domain, what is used to set the same firewall policy for every device in the domain? Choices: Windows Defender Firewall Windows Firewall with Advanced Security Local Security Policy Group Policy
A
Group Policy
162
Q
Domain 1
Which three types of networks can have separate on and off settings for firewalls in Windows Firewall? Choices: Home Domain Public Private Work
A
Domain
Public
Private
163
Q
Domain 1
In these properties for a Wi-Fi adapter, where would one click to start the process of configuring an alternate IP address, subnet mask, DNS address, and default gateway for the adapter? Choices: Client for Microsoft Networks Configure Microsoft Network Adapter Multiplexor Protocol Internet Protocol Version 4
A
Internet Protocol Version 4
164
Q
Domain 1
What are speed and duplex settings usually set to on a gigabit network card? Choices: Auto Negotiation 1 GB Half Duplex 100 MB Half Duplex 1 GB Full Duplex
A
Auto Negotiation
165
Q
Domain 1
Which network card setting must be enabled in order for an administrator to boot a device remotely? Choices: Power on LAN PXE Wake on LAN Sleep
A
Wake on LAN
166
Q
Domain 1
What is the primary use for QoS? Choices: Prioritizing network cards Prioritizing network traffic Prioritizing network services Prioritizing network devices
A
Prioritizing network traffic
167
Q
Domain 1
A junior technician installed a network card onto a PC that already had an on-board network card. The second network card is causing memory conflicts for both network cards. What is the best way to solve this problem? Choices: Disable the on-board network card in the BIOS Disable the on-board network card in Device Manager Remove the on-board network card Change memory settings on both network cards
A
Disable the on-board network
card in the BIOS
168
Q
Domain 1
Which two tools are used to facilitate backups on a Mac? Choices: Time Machine System Preferences iTunes iCloud
A
Time Machine
iCloud
169
Q
Domain 1
Which tool can help create a RAID on a Mac? Choices: Disk Management RAID Maker System Preferences Disk Utility
A
Disk Utility
170
Q
Domain 1
Through which app are system updates obtained for a Mac? Choices: App Store Mac Updates System Preferences Disk Utility
A
App Store
171
Q
Domain 1
Which types of updates are usually obtained automatically on a Mac? Choose two options. Choices: System Patches Hardware Firmware
A
System
Patches
172
Q
Domain 1
For antimalware on a Mac, what is the most important task to do with the antimalware? Choices: Make sure it can run scans remotely Run the app on a weekly basis Keep the app version updated Keep the definitions updated
A
Keep the definitions updated
173
Q
Domain 1
Which Mac tool is used to back up entire hard drives? Choices: Time Machine Backup Pro iCloud iTunes
A
Time Machine
174
Q
Domain 1
Which are two ways in which a Mac OS can be restored? Choices: iCloud First Aid Internet drive Time Machine
A
Internet drive
Time Machine
175
Q
Domain 1
Which tool performs disk maintenance tasks on a Mac? Choices: Disk Management System Preferences Disk Utility First Aid
A
Disk Utility
176
Q
Domain 1
Which is the Mac equivalent of a Windows command prompt? Choices: Terminal Vim Bash Grep
A
Terminal
177
Q
Domain 1
Which types of devices can a Mac user share a screen with using Screen Sharing? Choices: Macs and Windows devices Macs, Linux, and Windows devices Macs Macs and Linux devices
A
Macs
178
Q
Domain 1
Which is the Mac equivalent of the End Task feature in Windows? Choices: Kill Force Quit Task End Task Kill
A
Force Quit
179
Q
Domain 1
Which Mac tool is used to support multiple desktops? Choices: Screen Sharing Spotlight Mission Control Keychain
A
Mission Control
180
Q
Domain 1
Which Mac tool is used to store passwords and certificates? Choices: Spotlight Password manager Keylogger Keychain
A
Keychain
181
Q
Domain 1
Which Mac tool is used to conduct searches across files, apps, and websites? Choices: Finder Mission Control Spotlight Keychain
A
Spotlight
182
Q
Domain 1
Which app uses an Apple ID to back up and sync files across a user's Mac and Windows devices? Choices: Finder iCloud Keychain iTunes
A
iCloud
183
Q
Domain 1
Match the Mac gesture with its action. Gesture: Pinch trackpad Three-finger swipe Two-finger double tap Spread three fingers and thumb
Action: Zoom Show Desktop Magnifies text Swipes between full screen apps
A
Pinch trackpad = Zoom
Three-finger swipe = Swipes between full screen apps
Two-finger double tap = Magnifies text
Spread three fingers and thumb = Show Desktop
184
Q
Domain 1
Which tool on a Mac helps users to organize files and folders? Choices: Finder File Finder Explorer File Explorer
A
Finder
185
Q
Domain 1
Which would best describe when one needs to use the Remote Disk feature on a Mac? Choices: To use someone else's DVD drive to perform an installation To access files via iCloud To restore a Mac OS installation over the Internet To access files on a network share
A
To use someone else’s DVD drive
to perform an installation
186
Q
Domain 1
On a Mac, which side of the Dock holds open and commonly used apps? Choices: Left Right Top Bottom
A
Left
187
Q
Domain 1
Which app allows for setting up a Mac device to run Windows? Choices: Dual Boot Boot Camp Virtual PC Virtual Windows
A
Boot Camp
188
Q
Domain 1
Which Linux command will list files and folders within a location on a Linux drive? Choices: list dir show ls
A
ls
189
Q
Domain 1
A user runs this command on a Linux device: grep "U*" test.odt. What is the user looking to see as a result? Choices: Any file that contains U* in the test.odt folder Any word that contains U* in the test.odt file Any word that starts with U in the test.odt file Any file that starts with U in the test.odt folder
A
Any word that starts with U in the
test.odt file
190
Q
Domain 1
What does the cd command in Linux do when run? Choices: Cascade directory Copy directory Change directory Create directory
A
Change directory
191
Q
Domain 1
Which command turns off a system in Linux? Choices: shutdown -R shutdown -T shutdown -S shutdown -P
A
shutdown -P
192
Q
Domain 1
Which Linux command allows a user to change a password? Choices: password pwd passwd set
A
passwd
193
Q
Domain 1
Which Linux command moves a file from one folder to another? Choices: mov mv md move
A
mv
194
Q
Domain 1
A Linux user wants to copy the test2 file to the testing folder. What should the user type to accomplish this? Choices: copytest2 testing cp test2 testing cp testing test2 copy testing test2
A
cp test2 testing
195
Q
A Linux user wants to delete the test3 file from the current folder. What should the user type to accomplish this? Choices: delete test3 remove test3 rm test3 del test3
A
rm test3
196
Q
A Linux administrator runs the following command: chmod u+rwtest2.odt. What did the administrator accomplish with this command? Choices: Set the owner of the test2.odt to the users group Set users to have read and write permissions on the test2.odt file Set users not to have read and write permissions on the test2.odt file Set users to be able to give read and write permissions on the test2.odt file to others
A
Set users to have read and write
permissions on the test2.odt file
197
Q
A Linux administrator wants to make a different administrator an owner of a file. Which command should the administrator run? Choices: chmod chown owner sudo
A
chown
198
Q
Which Linux command obtains IP address information for wired NICs on a device? Choices: iwconfig ipconfig ifconfig inconfig
A
ifconfig
199
Q
A technician wants to see a list of running processes in the Linux terminal. Which command should the technician run? Choices: tasklist ps ts ls
A
ps
200
Q
A user is trying to install a package and getting a message that the installation requires administrative privileges. What should the user add to the command to be able to run the install package? Choices: sudo elevate su admin
A
sudo
201
Q
Which command is used to install packages in Linux? Choices: su install sudo apt-get
A
apt-get
202
Q
Which command launches a text editor within Linux? Choices: vi apt-get notes notepad
A
vi
203
Q
Which Linux command copies system files and images from one location to another? Choices: copy cp cd dd
A
dd
204
Q
In Linux, which command is used to terminate a process? Choices: taskkill kill end taskend
A
kill
205
Q
Which type of physical security measure involves a room between two security doors, with the intent of a person who enters the first door in an unauthorized
manner being prevented from going through the second door?
Choices:
Bollard
Mantrap
Faradaycage
Tempest
A
Mantrap
206
Q
Which describes the best place to place a badge reader? Choices: Next to a door Within the view of a physical security control Several feet from a door Within the view of a security guard
A
Within the view of a physical
security control
207
Q
Which best describes what is stored on a chip inside of a smart card? Choices: Device information User information Authentication information Authorization information
A
Authentication information
208
Q
Which are roles of security guards? Choose two answers. Choices: Serve as an internal deterrent Act as an external deterrent Get users escorts if needed Ensure users provide proper identification
A
Get users escorts if needed
Ensure users provide proper
identification
209
Q
Which type of lock requires a key combination to be entered in order to be unlocked? Choices: Combo lock Deadbolt lock Cipher lock Simple lock
A
Cipher lock
210
Q
What can unlock a biometric lock? Choose two answers. Choices: Key Fingerprint Combination Retina
A
Fingerprint
Retina
211
Q
A one-time password token requires one to use what kind of information besides a username and password to log on to a specific location? Choices: Key Fingerprint Retina Numeric code
A
Numeric code
212
Q
Which type of equipment is often locked using a cable lock? Choices: Servers Laptops Ethernet cables Desktops
A
Laptops
213
Q
Server locks are not just locks but in fact they are mini-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Choices: racks closets cabinets keychains
A
cabinets
214
Q
Which two purposes do USB locks have? Choices: Lock a specific USB device out of a port Lock a specific port Lock all USB ports on a device Lock a specific USB device in a port
A
Lock a specific port
Lock a specific USB device in a
port
215
Q
Which infiltration mechanism is effectively blocked through the use of privacy screens? Choices: Man-in-the-middle attack Shoulder surfing Eavesdropping Social engineering
A
Shoulder surfing
216
Q
Which type of device is primarily used to access parking garages? Choices: Smart card Key fob Hardware token One-time password key
A
Key fob
217
Q
A security guard needs a list of who is allowed to access an area. What is this list called? Choices: AUP ACL Entry control roster Authorized personnel
A
Entry control roster
218
Q
Which type of file specifies a map of network drives a user gets when logging on to a domain? Choices: Map file Batch file Login script Network mapping file
A
Login script
219
Q
A client/server network which is a set of users, computers, security settings, and policies for an entire group within a company is known as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Choices: HomeGroup domain private network workgroup
A
domain
220
Q
Which tool is used to control rights and permissions throughout a domain? Choices: Administrative Tools Security Tools Windows Settings Group Policy
A
Group Policy
221
Q
What best describes the main benefit of redirecting one's home folder in Active Directory? Choices: Save hard disk space on the server Setting up folders to be available offline Take control of storage and security of one's files on a network BranchCaching
A
Take control of storage and
security of one’s files on a network
222
Q
Which best describes a software token? Choices: A code sent to a mobile device that is then needed for authentication The ability to visit multiple apps with a single sign-on A device with a numeric code that changes every60 seconds A certificate
A
A code sent to a mobile device
that is then needed for
authentication
223
Q
Which MDM policy allows for users to use their personal mobile devices on a company network, subject to the company's approval? Choices: UYOD COPE BYOD CYOD
A
BYOD
224
Q
Bydefault,which type of traffic should be blocked on a firewall? Choices: Inbound External Outbound Internal
A
Inbound
225
Q
When is MAC filtering best used on a wireless network? Choices: To allow or deny specific devices on a network To limit the number of protocols which can conduct traffic To allow or deny specific protocols on a network To limit the number of devices on a network
A
To allow or deny specific devices
on a network
226
Q
What stores keys that encrypt data so that two parties can have a secure exchange of data? Choices: CRL Certificates RootCAs Keyescrows
A
Certificates
227
Q
Which is considered to be the most important maintenance task in antimalware software? Choices: Running a constant scan on data Running a scan on a regular basis Updating the software on a regular basis Updating the definitions on a regular basis
A
Updating the definitions on a
regular basis
228
Q
Which are the two main ways in which a firewall controls traffic on a network? Choices: Ports Apps Users Protocols
A
Ports
Protocols
229
Q
What is the minimum number of characters a password needs in order to be considered a strong password? Choices: 10 8 7 12
A
8
230
Q
Which is not considered to be multifactor authentication? Choices: Password and smart card Username and smart card Username and password Password and biometrics
A
Username and password
231
Q
A user needs to connect to a corporate network from a remote location. The connection needs to be secure. What kind of connection should be set up? Choices: RDP VPN SSL SSH
A
VPN
232
Q
What should be set up on a network to prevent confidential data from leaking beyond a network? Choices: DLP Firewall IPS IDS
A
DLP
233
Q
A permission list on a device, such as a router, is known as a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Choices: Rights List ACL Entry Control Roster Exceptions List
A
ACL
234
Q
Which type of security device has a chip that stores user information for proper authentication to a physical area or device? Choices: Smart card Badge Key fob Fingerprint reader
A
Smart card
235
Q
For the most efficient email filtering setup in a corporate environment, where should email filters be placed? Choices: On email servers On firewalls On client machines and email servers On client machines
A
On email servers
236
Q
On a Windows device, what does Microsoft consider a trusted source for app installation? Choices: PlayStore Store Microsoft Store App Store
A
Microsoft Store
237
Q
Which best describes the principle of least privilege? Choices: Users have write permissions on resources unless otherwise specified Users have no permissions on resources unless otherwise specified Users have permissions they need to perform their job tasks and no more Users have read-only permissions on resources unless otherwise specified
A
Users have permissions they
need to perform their job tasks
and no more
238
Q
Which wireless encryption protocol should never be used to secure a wireless network? Choices: WPA2 WPA WEP WPS
A
WEP
239
Q
Which wireless specification does not support TKIP? Choices: 802.11n 802.11ac 802.11g 802.11a
A
802.11n
240
Q
Which is the most common use of single factor authentication used on wireless networks? Choices: None SSID and password SSID and username Username and password
A
SSID and password
241
Q
What is usually needed for multifactor authentication on a wireless network? Choices: Biometrics Hardware token Authentication server One-time password key
A
Authentication server
242
Q
A business wants to use the WPA2 Enterprise wireless protocol. In addition to a wireless access point, which type of server can help the business accomplish this goal? Choose two answers. Choices: Authorization server RADIUS Network policy server TACACS+
A
RADIUS
TACACS+
243
Q
Which type of malware steals data and then demands money in order for the data to be returned? Choices: Keylogger Spyware Trojan Ransomware
A
Ransomware
244
Q
A user downloaded an app that claimed to be a virus cleaner but in fact renamed a bunch of the user's system files. Which type of malware did the user obtain? Choices: Trojan Spyware Worm Virus
A
Trojan
245
Q
A user claims a machine will not fully boot up. Upon troubleshooting, an administrator discovers that the master boot record has been infected. Which type of malware hit the machine? Choices: Virus Worm Trojan Rootkit
A
Rootkit
246
Q
Which type of attack is common after an attacker steals data using a keylogger? Choices: Replay DoS Spyware Man-in-the-middle
A
Replay
247
Q
Which legitimate data sources for websites can be used as spyware? Choices: Temp files Cookies Local storage JSON pairs
A
Cookies
248
Q
Which is true about a virus? Choices: It can serve as an imposter app It self-replicates It often attacks the root of a system It needs a carrier in order to propagate
A
It needs a carrier in order to
propagate
249
Q
Which type of malware does not need a carrier in order to propagate through a system? Choices: Trojan Worm Spyware Virus
A
Worm
250
Q
A network of zombies carrying out a DDoS attack is known as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Choices: gremlin bot herder botnet vector
A
botnet
251
Q
In which version of Windows is Windows Defender strictly an antispyware app and not a full-fledged antivirus/antimalware app? Choices: Windows 7 Windows 8 Windows 8.1 Windows 10
A
Windows 7
252
Q
Which mode is the best mode to be in to run an antimalware scan if malware is suspected on a device? Choices: Windows RE VGA Mode Safe Mode Command prompt
A
Safe Mode
253
Q
In which edition of Windows did File History become the prominent backup and restore tool? Choices: Windows 7 Windows 8.1 Windows 8 Windows 10
A
Windows 10
254
Q
Which method of mitigating malware risk is often overlooked but should not be overlooked? Choices: IDS End-user training IPS Firewalls
A
End-user training
255
Q
Windows Firewall is known as a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ firewall. Choices: host-based IDS-based IPS-based network-based
A
host-based
256
Q
Which DNS feature, when enabled, helps to protect against redirection attacks? Choices: Secure DNS DNSSEC Zone Protection DMZ
A
DNSSEC
257
Q
A user shows an administrator an email that attempts to obtain the user's bank account information. Which type of social engineering has taken place? Choices: Impersonation Spear phishing Phishing Whaling
A
Phishing
258
Q
The company CEO calls the help desk to explain that an email came through asking for the user’s Social Security number in order to take advantage of an
incredible financing offer. Which type of social engineering has taken place?
Choices:
Phishing
Spear phishing
Impersonation
Whaling
A
Spear phishing
259
Q
Which is the best approach to take to avoid an impersonator entering a secure area of a building? Choices: Pretext the visitor Pair the visitor with an escort Ask for an ID from the visitor Have the visitor pre-register credentials
A
Ask for an ID from the visitor
260
Q
A network attacker is hiding in an air duct and is able to see what an administrator is typing into a server. What form of social engineering is this? Choices: Shoulder surfing Keylogging Pretexting Phishing
A
Shoulder surfing
261
Q
At the entrance to a building, an employee swipes a badge and then walks into the building. Before the door can close, another person sneaks into the
building behind the first person. What has taken place?
Choices:
Shoulder surfing
Piggybacking
Mantrapping
Tailgating
A
Tailgating
262
Q
A potential attacker goes into a trash bin looking for confidential information. This act is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Choices: dumpster searching dumpster finding dumpster surfing dumpster diving
A
dumpster diving
263
Q
Which two types of attacks flood a network with useless data packets, which in effect shut down a network as legitimate traffic cannot get through? Choices: Botnet DoS DDoS Zombie
A
DoS
DDoS
264
Q
A user suspects a virus on the network. An administrator discovers that not only is a virus present but the antimalware software being used does not yet have a
fix for that virus. Which type of attack is taking place?
Choices:
DoS
Botnet
DDoS
Zero day
A
Zero day
265
Q
Which type of attack involves intercepting data as it transmits between two parties? Choices: Man-in-the-middle Brute force DoS DDoS
A
Man-in-the-middle
266
Q
Which are types of password attacks? Choose two answers. Choices: DDoS Brute force Rainbowtable Dictionary
A
Brute force
Dictionary
267
Q
An attacker for a network has a table full of hashes. These hashes are being used to attempt to find matches in a network database in order to crack
passwords. Which type of table is the attacker using?
Choices:
MD5 table
SHAtable
Dictionarytable
Rainbowtable
A
Rainbowtable
268
Q
A user notices a suspicious email from a coworker. Upon further investigation, the email administrator determines that the email did not come from the coworker. What has taken place? Choices: Phishing Spamming Impersonation Spoofing
A
Spoofing
269
Q
Which two aspects of a system are often tested for compliance before being allowed on a network? Choices: Apps installed Antimalware app and definitions Desktop background Operating system installed
A
Antimalware app and definitions
Operating system installed
270
Q
A computer has taken over several other computers in a network. These computers are now going to help carryout a DDoS attack. What are these computers known as during the attack? Choices: Botnets Zombies Accomplices Impersonators
A
Zombies
271
Q
On a Windows device, which group of users have complete control over the device? Choices: Domain users Power users Administrators Super users
A
Administrators
272
Q
Which best describes permissions power users possess on a Windows device? Choices: Permissions granted by administrators The ability to control other users' permissions Permissions to change other users' settings A specific set of permissions higher than standard users
A
A specific set of permissions
higher than standard users
273
Q
Which is true regarding guest accounts on a Windows device? Choices: They can create files in other users' folders They can run software that is already installed They cannot access the Internet They can install software
A
They can run software that is
already installed
274
Q
Which is true regarding standard accounts on a Windows device? Choices: They can change other users' usernames They can change other users' passwords They can install software for other users They can install software for themselves
A
They can install software for
themselves
275
Q
The permission principle in which users and groups only receive permissions on resources when permissions are granted is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Choices: implicit allow implicit deny explicit allow explicit deny
A
implicit deny
276
Q
A user copies a folder called Cases from the C: drive to the D: drive. The default permissions on the C: drive for the Users' group is Read and Write. The default permissions on the D: drive for the Users' group is Read. Users have Modify permission on the C:\Cases folder. What permission will the users have on D:\Cases? Choices: Read None Read and Write Modify
A
Read
277
Q
Which file attribute sets a file to not be readable by others logging on to the same device? Choices: Hidden Compressed Archive Encrypted
A
Encrypted
278
Q
By default, when permissions are set on a drive or folder, what happens to the permissions in any subfolders under that drive or folder? Choices: Permissions are reset to empty Permissions propagate down to the subfolders Permissions change back to the original permissions set on a system Permissions stay the same in the subfolders
A
Permissions propagate down to
the subfolders
279
Q
Take a look at the permissions list on the Tech Notes folder. What is the significance of the gray check mark? Choices: Permissions will propagate down to any subfolders Permissions are inherited from the parent folder Permissions have been explicitly allowed Permissions have been explicitly denied
A
Permissions are inherited from
the parent folder
280
Q
Where are system files and folders kept on a Windows device? Choices: C:\system32 C:\windows\system C:\system C:\windows\system32
A
C:\windows\system32
281
Q
The help desk is getting an enormous amount of calls of users forgetting their passwords across multiple apps. What can be implemented to help stop this problem? Choices: Weaker passwords Smart cards Single sign-on One-time passwords
A
Single sign-on
282
Q
A junior administrator is trying to run the sfc command via a command prompt but is getting a message indicating that an elevated command prompt is required. What should the junior administrator do? Choices: Run the command prompt as an administrator Run the command prompt with different credentials Run the command prompt with a sudo switch Log on as an administrator and run the command prompt
A
Run the command prompt as an
administrator
283
Q
A user wants an entire hard drive encrypted on a laptop. Which Windows tool should be used to fulfill this request? Choices: EFSToGo BitLocker EFS BitLocker ToGo
A
BitLocker
284
Q
A user wants an external hard drive encrypted. Which Windows tool should be used to fulfill this request? Choices: EFS To Go BitLocker BitLocker To Go EFS
A
BitLocker To Go
285
Q
A user wants to make sure no one else logged on to a system can see the data in a specific folder. What can be added to the folder to make this happen? Choices: BitLocker To Go EFS To Go BitLocker EFS
A
EFS
286
Q
An administrator wants to force users to log back on after a screen has been idle for a few minutes. What can the administrator set in order to enforce this wish? Choices: Screen saver password Time out password Sleep password Power on password
A
Screen saver password
287
Q
Which two types of passwords are common BIOS passwords? Choices: Drive password Supervisor password Device password User password
A
Supervisor password
User password
288
Q
What is required on a device in order for it to receive Remote Desktop connections? Choices: A VPN An open port 80 A password An IP address on the same subnet as the connecting device
A
A password
289
Q
Which command is used to set the time ranges a user can log on to a device? Choices: net time net user net clock net logon
A
net user
290
Q
Which built-in account should always be disabled unless it is absolutely needed? Choices: User Guest Power User Standard
A
Guest
291
Q
Which account policy should be configured if an administrator wants to disable a user account after three consecutive failed logon attempts? Choices: Password Policy Group Policy Account Lockout Policy Local Security Policy
A
Account Lockout Policy
292
Q
An administrator notices multiple users are forgetting to lock their screens when walking away from their computers. Which two areas of a device can an
administrator use to set a screen to lock after a certain amount of time?
Choices:
Lockout Policy
Group Policy
Screen Saver
Power Options
A
Screen Saver
Power Options
293
Q
Configuring Administrator Accounts What should be changed on an administrator account in order to make the account more secure? Choices: Username Grouping Enabling Password
A
Password
294
Q
When setting up accounts in Active Directory,which types of accounts are safe to set for a password never expiring? Choices: Administrator accounts User accounts Service accounts Guest accounts
A
Administrator accounts
Service accounts
295
Q
When is it safe to delete a user account from Active Directory? Choices: Never When a user leaves a company When the account needs its permissions changed When data is no longer needed from that account
A
When data is no longer needed
from that account
296
Q
When a user leaves a company,what is the best practice to followwith the user's account? Choices: Delete it Transfer it to someone else Disable it Archive it
A
Disable it
297
Q
An administrator wants to lower the risk of having a CD or DVD spread malware within a network. Which two features can an administrator turn off to accomplish this wish? Choices: Autoinstall Autostart Autoplay Autorun
A
Autoplay
298
Q
Which form of encryption is used to encrypt files and folders within Windows? Choices: EFS To Go BitLocker To Go BitLocker EFS
A
EFS
299
Q
Which two statements best describe patches? Choices: A patch is a feature enhancement A patch is a feature update A patch is a fix to a feature that is notworking A patch is a fix to a security hole
A
A patch is a fix to a feature that is
notworking
A patch is a fix to a security hole
300
Q
Which mobile device lock is considered to be the least secure lock? Choices: Swipe lock Fingerprint lock Passcode lock Face lock
A
Swipe lock
301
Q
Which mobile device lock has security but no biometrics? Choices: Fingerprint lock Swipe lock Face lock Passcode lock
A
Passcode lock
302
Q
A user loses a mobile device. Fortunately, the device is tracked and has been found. For security purposes, what should be done with the device next? Choices: It should be shut down It should be disabled It should be erased It should be restarted
A
It should be erased
303
Q
What should be installed and enabled on a mobile device in order for the device to be found in case a user loses the device? Choices: Locator app Wipe software MDM GPS
A
Locator app
304
Q
Which is the primary backup application used on iOS devices? Choices: iTunes iCloud iBackup Time Machine
A
iCloud
305
Q
What is the default setting on many mobile devices after too many consecutive failed logon attempts? Choices: The device is disabled The device shuts down The device prompts the user for a new password The device is wiped
A
The device is wiped
306
Q
Why are Android devices more prone to malware than that of iOS devices? Choices: Android is an open source operating system Android is a closed operating system Android has more app sources than does iOS Android has more apps than does iOS
A
Android is an open source
operating system
307
Q
Which mobile device locks are biometric locks? Choose two answers. Choices: Fingerprint lock Face lock Passcode lock Swipe lock
A
Fingerprint lock
Face lock
308
Q
When does full device encryption occur on an iOS device? Choices: When the full device encryption feature is enabled When a passcode is created When the Find my iPhone feature is enabled When a biometric lock is created
A
When a passcode is created
309
Q
Which is an example of multifactor authentication on a mobile device? Choices: Username, password, and fingerprint Username and password Username and PIN Fingerprint and face reader
A
Username, password, and
fingerprint
310
Q
Which type of applications provide temporary logon codes? Choices: Accounting apps Authenticator apps Key fob apps Authorization apps
A
Authenticator apps
311
Q
Which mobile operating system must one jailbreak in order to install apps from untrusted sources? Choices: iOS Android Chrome OS Linux
A
iOS
312
Q
A user has obtained an app that allows for controlling which apps move data in and out of a mobile device depending upon the type of connection a device
has. What type of program has the user obtained?
Choices:
IDS
Firewall
Port forwarder
IPS
A
Firewall
313
Q
Which Microsoft tool is used to set and enforce requirements for a BYOD mobile device policy? Choices: MDM SCCM Azure Intune
A
Intune
314
Q
Which two tools are effective in destroying a hard drive? Choices: Screwdriver Hammer Wrench Drill
A
Hammer
Drill
315
Q
Which best describes the purpose of degaussing a hard drive? Choices: Destroys cylinders Destroys platters Destroys magnetic data Destroys the connectors
A
Destroys magnetic data
316
Q
Which are two common methods of destroying paper data? Choices: Shredding Drilling Incineration Degaussing
A
Shredding
Incineration
317
Q
What, in theory, proves that data has been destroyed properly? Choices: Broken hard drives Certificate of disposal Certificate of destruction Paper shreds
A
Certificate of destruction
318
Q
When is low-level formatting typically done on a hard drive? Choices: When the drive needs to be filled with ones and zeros When the drive needs to be degaussed When the drive is manufactured When the drive needs to be erased
A
When the drive is manufactured
319
Q
Which process rids a disk of any remnants of data? Choices: Low-level formatting Degaussing Overwriting Shredding
A
Overwriting
320
Q
The process of drive wiping consists of performing multiple \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ on a drive. Choices: low-level formats shreds standard formats overwrites
A
overwrites
321
Q
Which part of a wireless access point uniquely identifies a wireless network? Choices: Broadcast name WPS Serial number SSID
A
SSID
322
Q
Which is considered to be the strongest encryption one can use to secure a wireless network? Choices: TKIP WPA WPA2 AES
A
AES
323
Q
What can be done with an SSID to make a wireless network more secure? Choices: Disable the broadcast of it Hide it Change it Encrypt it
A
Disable the broadcast of it
324
Q
A technician has a wireless access point to place in a small office in a single-story building. Where should the wireless access point be placed and how should the antennas be placed? Choices: Center of the room with the antennas set vertically Near the entrance with the antennas set horizontally Center of the room with the antennas set horizontally Near the entrance with the antennas set vertically
A
Center of the room with the
antennas set vertically
325
Q
A single wireless access point is in a building. The owner wants to make sure the signal does not penetrate through to the outside of the building. What can a
technician do to keep the signal with the building?
Choices:
Lower the radio power level of the access point
Point the antennas horizontally
Move the access point to near an
entrance door
Use a 5GHzsignal
A
Lower the radio power level of the access point
326
Q
Which type of attack is possible as a result of using WPS? Choices: Rainbow Man-in-the-middle Brute force Dictionary
A
Brute force
327
Q
What information on a wireless access point is easilyobtained through an online search? Choices: Default WPSPIN Default encryption Default username and password Default SSID
A
Default username and password
328
Q
A business owner wants to be very precise about which devices are allowed on a SOHO wireless network. Which method of security best fits this request? Choices: Lower the radio signal Disable SSID broadcast Enable MAC filtering Only run on the 2.4GHzfrequency
A
Enable MAC filtering
329
Q
Which types of devices should get static IPaddresses on a network? Choose two answers. Choices: Client devices Printers Servers Mobile devices
A
Printers
Servers
330
Q
Which type of firewall is sometimes present on wireless access points? Choices: IDS-based IPS-based Network-based Host-based
A
Network-based
331
Q
A user wants to use a remote desktop connection to reach a specific device on a company network. If the user is to use the public IP address of the wireless
access point to connect, n so that the connection routes directly to the device?
Choices:
Port triggering
NAT
PAT
Port forwarding
A
Port forwarding
332
Q
On a wireless access point, what should be done with ports that have no specific purpose for traffic? Choices: Reassign them Remove them Block them Disable them
A
Disable them
333
Q
What is an administrator most likely to use to filter out websites that should be off-limits to company users? Choices: Domains Keywords URLs Proxy servers
A
Keywords
334
Q
What should be checked on a wireless access point occasionally for possible upgrades? Choices: Software Firmware Encryption Speeds
A
Firmware
335
Q
Which is the most ideal location for a wireless access point if the wireless signal is to cover an entire room? Choices: In the center of the room, near the ground On top of a cabinet In the center of the room, above the ground On top of a doorway
A
In the center of the room, above
the ground
336
Q
A user is reporting slow performance on a desktop computer. Where should a technician check first to start to diagnose the problem? Choices: Performance Monitor Task Manager Windows Memory Diagnostics Resource Monitor
A
Task Manager
337
Q
Which command should a technician run to attempt to diagnose an intermittent connectivity problem a user is reporting? Choices: nslookup tracert ping netstat
A
netstat
338
Q
A user cannot complete a boot to Windows and a technician has ruled out a hardware failure. The technician gets a message that the BOOTMGR is missing. Which command should the technician run? Choices: bootrec /fixmbr bootrec /fixmgr bootrec /rebuildcd bootrec /fixboot
A
bootrec /rebuildcd
339
Q
Upon attempting to boot a Windows device, a user is reporting that a message appears stating that the operating system is missing. What are the two most likely causes of this problem? Choices: A bad Master Boot Record A missing boot sector The hard drive has failed An incomplete Windows installation
A
A missing boot sector
A bad Master Boot Record
340
Q
A user reports an application keeps crashing. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem? Choices: Upgrade the app Uninstall and reinstall the app Repair the app installation Look at the Event Viewer for errors
A
Look at the Event Viewer for errors
341
Q
What do stop errors start with when a BSoD appears? Choices: 3x 2x 1x 0x
A
0x
342
Q
A user reports a black screen when starting up a computer. A technician has ruled out a hardware issue. What should the technician do next? Choices: Reset the monitor resolution Plug in a different monitor Change the video card Reboot into VGA mode or Safe Mode
A
Reboot into VGA mode or Safe
Mode
343
Q
What type of IP address should printers have? Choices: Private Dynamic APIPA Static
A
Static
344
Q
While troubleshooting, a technician notices a service has failed to start. The service is set to start automatically. What should the technician next check for while in the Services window? Choices: If the service is disabled If there are error messages present If a dependency failed to start If the startup options changed
A
If a dependency failed to start
345
Q
A user claims a device takes forever to boot up. What should the technician look to do first to try to speed up the boot process? Choices: Uninstall unnecessary apps Clear disk space Reduce the number of apps that start up Add RAM
A
Reduce the number of apps that
start up
346
Q
Several users are reporting that a profile is taking too long to load. What can be done on their local devices to attempt to solve this problem? Choose two answers. Choices: Clean out the Cookies folder Clean out the Startup folder Point the WAN link at a different server Clean out the Temporary Internet Files folder
A
Clean out the Cookies folder
Clean out the Startup folder
347
Q
A technician had to reboot a frozen system. After the reboot, where should the technician look to try to figure out what caused the system to lock up in the first place? Choices: System log in System Information Applications log in Event Viewer Applications log in System Information System log in Event Viewer
A
System log in Event Viewer
348
Q
A technician suspects a task is taking up all of a device's CPU. What should the technician use to end the task? Choices: Explorer Task Manager Resource Monitor Event Viewer
A
Task Manager
349
Q
ADHCP server is up and running and the IP address pool has plenty of addresses remaining, but users who recently logged on to the network are complaining about not getting assigned an IP address. What should the technician do first to try to solve the problem? Choices: Have the users reboot their machines End all current IP address leases Restart the DHCP server Restart the DHCP service
A
Restart the DHCP service
350
Q
A technician needs to reinstall Windows on a device but wants to keep a user's personal files on the device. The technician will be using a previously saved image as a source for the new installation. What should the technician do with the user's files? Choices: Run the install and just fix the bad system files Back them up Run the install and choose the upgrade option Leave them and use the Reset option when reinstalling Windows
A
Back them up
351
Q
A user is reporting that the latest Windows Update on a device is causing instability on the device. What should a technician do first to attempt to solve the problem? Choices: Uninstall the latest update Reinstall Windows Look for another update Reset Windows
A
Uninstall the latest update
352
Q
A user is reporting that a driver update to a video card is causing display problems on a device. Where can a technician go to roll back a driver update? Choices: Programs and Features Computer Management Device Manager System Information
A
Device Manager
353
Q
Which updates are considered to be the most important updates to apply on a device? Choices: Firmware updates Security updates Driver updates Feature updates
A
Security updates
354
Q
Where in the Control Panel can one go to attempt to repair an app installation? Choices: Programs and Features Apps Default Apps Settings
A
Programs and Features
355
Q
Where on a system should a technician go in order to change the boot order on a device? Choices: Safe Mode Task Manager Msconfig BIOS
A
BIOS
356
Q
In Windows 10, which tool is used to disable an application from starting up? Choices: Programs and Features Msconfig Services Task Manager
A
Task Manager
357
Q
A technician needs to reboot a device into Safe Mode in order to run a malware scan. Which tool can the technician use to set this while Windows is running? Choices: Windows RE Msconfig Windows PE Task Manager
A
Msconfig
358
Q
A user reports that a message indicating a user profile cannot be loaded when a system starts up. What should a technician do to solve this problem? Choices: Restore a backup of the user profile Rebuild the user account Reset Windows Rebuild the user profile
A
Rebuild the user profile
359
Q
Where can a technician ensure, in Internet Options, that pop-ups are being blocked? Choices: Security tab Connections tab Advanced tab Privacy tab
A
Privacy tab
360
Q
Users are complaining that when attempting to navigate to one website, they get redirected to another website. What has most likely been compromised? Choices: A DNS server The users' homepage settings The default gateway A DHCP server
A
A DNS server
361
Q
A user is claiming that an antimalware app is frequently popping up with security alerts. Where should a technician look to see if these alerts are legitimate? Choices: Event Viewer The antimalware app's log The antimalware app's website The antimalware app's history
A
Event Viewer
362
Q
A user is reporting that the user's PC performance is suffering a significant slowdown. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem? Choices: Look at System Configuration Run the antimalware app on the user's PC Look at Task Manager Boot into Safe Mode
A
Look at Task Manager
363
Q
Which command can check a network card for any abnormalities in network connections? Choices: route ipconfig /all tracert ping
A
ipconfig /all
364
Q
A user reports that a PC keeps locking up. The Event Viewer is not presenting any consistent reasons for the lockups. What should an administrator start monitoring? Choices: Resource manager PC temperature Apps running Device manager
A
PC temperature
365
Q
A user reports that an app keeps crashing. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem? Choices: Upgrade the app Reinstall the app Check the log in the app folder Check the Event Viewer
A
Check the Event Viewer
366
Q
A Windows Update has failed multiple times on a device. What should a technician do next to try to get the update to work? Choices: Run the update manually Run the update troubleshooter Delete the update and download it again Wait for the next update to come out
A
Run the update troubleshooter
367
Q
A rogue antivirus app is technically which form of malware? Choices: Trojan horse Spyware Virus Worm
A
Trojan horse
368
Q
Which best defines spam? Choices: Unwanted email Unwanted IM messages Unwanted voicemail Unwanted SMS messages
A
Unwanted email
369
Q
Which three events on a system indicate probable malware and a need to rerun the Windows installation process? Choices: File permission changes Spam Disappearing files Pop-up ads Renamed system files
A
Disappearing files
Pop-up ads
Renamed system files
370
Q
A user is getting a Run DLL Access Denied error message randomly on a device. What is likely happening on the device? Choices: Permissions are being denied for an app action The UAC is notworking on the device Malware is trying to install something on the device An app needs to be reinstalled
A
Malware is trying to install
something on the device
371
Q
A user is being informed that a certificate used for conducting transactions has expired. What should be done to rectify the problem? Choices: The user should renew the current certificate The user should obtain a new certificate The user should generate a new certificate The user should extend the current certificate
A
372
Q
Where are system and application logs kept on a Windows device? Choices: System Information Event Viewer Computer Management Device Manager
A
Event Viewer
373
Q
Place the steps for malware removal in the proper order. Choices: Remediate the infected systems Quarantine the infected systems Disable System Restore Enable System Restore and create a restore point Educate the end user Schedule scans and run updates Identify and research malware symptoms
A
1. Identify and research malware symptoms 2. Quarantine the infected systems 3. Disable System Restore 4. Remediate the infected systems 5. Schedule scans and run updates 6. Enable System Restore and create a restore point 7. Educate the end user
374
Q
A technician has determined that malware is present on a device. What should the technician do next? Choices: Disable System Restore Remediate the infected system Update the antimalware software Quarantine the infected system
A
Quarantine the infected system
375
Q
Why is it important to disable System Restore before remediating a system from malware? Choices: This quarantines the system This prevents the system from rolling back to a point where malware maybe present System Restore needs a network connection This speeds up the remediation process
A
This prevents the system from
rolling back to a point where
malware maybe present
376
Q
A system has had System Restore disabled and a technician is ready to begin the process of remediation from malware. What should the technician do first? Choices: Update the antimalware software Upgrade the antimalware software Boot into Safe Mode Boot into Windows PE
A
Update the antimalware software
377
Q
What is the recommended state of Windows for running an antimalware scan if a system has been found to have malware? Choices: Windows PE Windows RE Safe Mode Normal Mode
A
Safe Mode
378
Q
What should be done in System Restore after a device has been remediated from malware? Choose two answers. Choices: Create a restore point Enable System Restore Clear all restore points Disable System Restore
A
379
Q
A user brings a technician a tablet that has a very dim display. What should the technician do first to troubleshoot the problem? Choices: Restart the tablet Increase the display contrast Increase the display brightness Move the tablet to a brighter area
A
Increase the display brightness
380
Q
A user is complaining about a wireless connection that keeps going in and out. What is the most likely cause of this? Choices: Oversaturation of bandwidth Being on an incorrect wireless frequency Interference from other devices Being too far from a warless access point
A
Interference from other devices
381
Q
A user is stating that a device cannot get a wireless connection. What should a technician do first to diagnose the problem? Choices: Reboot the user's device See if others can connect to the wireless access point Try to connect to the wireless access point Reboot the default gateway
A
See if others can connect to the
wireless access point
382
Q
A user cannot pair two devices that have previously been paired using Bluetooth. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem? Choices: Restart both of the devices Ensure that the two devices are within 30 feet of each other Ensure Bluetooth is running on both devices Re-pair the devices
A
Ensure Bluetooth is running on
both devices
383
Q
A user has a Windows laptop that is not projecting to an external monitor. Which two possible solutions can a technician try first to solve the problem? Choices: Plug in a different monitor Replace the video card on the laptop Use the Windows logo + Pkey combination to cycle through the different display combinations Use the toggle button on the laptop keyboard to toggle through the different display combinations
A
Use the Windows logo + Pkey combination to cycle through the different display combinations Use the toggle button on the laptop keyboard to toggle through the different display combinations
384
Q
A user is stating that a touch screen on a tablet has become unresponsive. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem? Choices: Calibrate the screen Force a restart on the tablet Reset the tablet If a covering is on the screen, remove it
A
If a covering is on the screen,
remove it
385
Q
A user is claiming that an app on a mobile device is not loading properly. What should a technician do first to try to rectify the issue? Choices: Update the app Clear the app cache Do a force stop on the app Uninstall and reinstall the app
A
Do a force stop on the app
386
Q
A user is reporting that a mobile device that usually runs quickly is now running slowly. What should a technician do first to try to get the device to run at a faster speed? Choices: Switch to Wi-Fi only Switch to cellular data Uninstall unnecessary apps Close unnecessary apps
A
Close unnecessary apps
387
Q
What is needed on a mobile device in order to decrypt encrypted email? Choices: A signature A passcode A certificate A PIN
A
A certificate
388
Q
Which are two ways to preserve battery life on a mobile device? Choices: Set the brightness to use automatic brightness Make sure the device is holding a charge Use cellular data as much as possible Use location services only on apps that need to use the feature
A
389
Q
A user's mobile device is overheating. What should be done with the device to cool it off? Choose two answers. Choices: Put the device in a fridge Replace the battery Turn off the automatic brightness setting Remove the protective case temporarily
A
Turn off the automatic brightness
setting
Remove the protective case
temporarily
390
Q
A user brings a technician a mobile device that is frozen. Which two steps should a technician try first to attempt to fix the problem? Choices: Pull the battery out and then put it back in Perform a soft reset Replace the battery Perform a hard reset
A
Pull the battery out and then put it
back in
Perform a soft reset
391
Q
A user is claiming that a mobile device has no sound going through its speakers. What should a technician check first? Choices: Bluetooth volume Ringer settings Speaker volume App settings
A
Speaker volume
392
Q
A user is claiming that the touch screen on a mobile device is inaccurate to the touch. What should be done first on the device in order to attempt to fix the issue? Choices: Plug in a mouse Install a calibration app Reset the device Perform a soft reset
A
Install a calibration app
393
Q
A user reports that a system lockout has occurred on the user's mobile device. What is the most likely cause of the system lockout? Choices: User tried to do a hard reset The device was reported as missing User forgot a passcode too many times User tried to do a soft reset
A
User forgot a passcode too many
times
394
Q
What is typically needed to view app log errors from an iOS or Android device? Choices: A log cloud service A rooted device A mobile app that reads logs A desktop or laptop
A
A desktop or laptop
395
Q
Which device can a business obtain if thick walls in a building are causing cellular signals to be weak? Choices: Switch Bridge Router Repeater
A
Repeater
396
Q
Which are two ways in which a user can avoid a fast drain of power on a mobile device? Choices: Use cellular data as much as possible Put the device in airplane mode when possible Use Wi-Fi as much as possible Close apps that are not needed
A
Use Wi-Fi as much as possible
Close apps that are not needed
397
Q
A user is experiencing a slowdown of speed on a mobile device's cellular connection in an area in which speeds are usually fast. The Wi-Fi connection speeds are fine. What can cause this problem? Choices: The wireless connection is taking up the overall bandwidth A nearby tower is down The user exceeded the data plan for the device The user is in a heavy traffic area
A
The user exceeded the data plan
for the device
398
Q
On this iPad, which setting controls whether or not this device will have unintended Wi-Fi connections? Choices: The info icon next to LearnKey5 Control Center Ask to Join Networks General
A
Ask to Join Networks
399
Q
Which is the best way to avoid unintended Bluetooth pairings? Choices: Put Bluetooth in private mode Change the discoverable setting to off Change the name of the device Turn Bluetooth off if not using it
A
Turn Bluetooth off if not using it
400
Q
What can a user on a mobile device do to protect data being sent to and from the cloud? Choices: Use encryption Add a hash to the data Use a VPN Add a digital signature to the data
A
Use encryption
401
Q
What usually happens when a user exceeds a monthly data plan on a mobile device? Choices: Cellular data service is turned off Personal hotspots are turned off Data is throttled for the remainder of the billing period Extra charges are incurred
A
Data is throttled for the remainder
of the billing period
402
Q
If a user suspects that someone has gotten ahold of the account used on a mobile device, what should the user do right away? Choices: Change the account being used on the mobile device Enable multifactor authentication on the mobile device Wipe the device Change the password for the account being used on the mobile device
A
Change the password for the
account being used on the mobile
device
403
Q
Which is an efficient way of avoiding unauthorized location tracking on a mobile device? Choices: Enable location tracking only while the device is moving Enable location tracking only when the device is away from the home location Turn off location tracking Turn off location tracking for apps to where one does not need location tracking
A
Turn off location tracking for apps
to where one does not need
location tracking
404
Q
Which is the best way to avoid unauthorized camera and microphone use on a mobile device? Choices: Turn off the two features for apps that do not need them Turn the mic volume all the way down Turn off the two features unless they are absolutely needed Turn the camera brightness all the way off
A
Turn off the two features for apps
that do not need them
405
Q
On an iPad, what cannot be checked for usage without a third-party app? Choices: Apps that use cellular data RAM usage Running apps Storage usage
A
RAM usage
406
Q
Which two types of network diagrams are best suited for explaining the overall infrastructure of a network? Choices: Public Private Logical Physical
A
Logical
Physical
407
Q
What should businesses build up to use to help solve end-user problems? Choices: Compliance documentation Knowledge base Incident documentation Network topology
A
Knowledge base
408
Q
Which best describes incident documentation? Choices: Documenting help desk tickets Documenting security breaches Documenting customer interactions Documenting knowledge base entries
A
409
Q
Which best describes the difference between a regulatory policy and a compliance policy? Choices: A compliance policy follows recommended courses of action A regulatory policy is more specific and a compliance policy is more comprehensive A regulatory policy is more comprehensive and a compliance policy is more specific A compliance policy follows official legal standards
A
A regulatory policy is more specific
and a compliance policy is more
comprehensive
410
Q
Which document governs the use of the devices within a company? Choices: PII MSDS GDPR AUP
A
AUP
411
Q
Which items should be included in a password policy? Choose two answers. Choices: Password length rules Password hash techniques Password attack prevention techniques Password complexity rules
A
Password length rules
Password complexity rules
412
Q
Which are the two most common methods used on devices to manage a company's IT inventory? Choices: Excel documents Asset tags Lease tags Barcodes
A
Asset tags
Barcodes
413
Q
Which document is needed throughout the process of managing change in an IT infrastructure? Choices: Change management form Change control form Change approval form Change request form
A
Change control form
414
Q
Which part of the change management process is absolutely vital to seeing if a change is worth making? Choices: Risk analysis Purpose Process Scope
A
Purpose
415
Q
Which best defines scope creep on a project? Choices: Unauthorized deletions from the scope Unauthorized budgeting for the scope Unauthorized additions to the scope Unauthorized changes to the scope
A
Unauthorized changes to the
scope
416
Q
Which type of risk analysis establishes an amount of lost time or lost money should a risk become reality? Choices: Monetary risk analysis Value risk analysis Qualitative risk analysis Quantitative risk analysis
A
Quantitative risk analysis
417
Q
What do end users need to know in a change management plan? Choices: The time it will take to plan the change The effect the change will have on them The amount a project will cost The time it will take to design the change
A
The effect the change will have on them
418
Q
From which group of people must a project manager get acceptance as part of change management? Choices: Management End users Owners Stakeholders
A
End users
419
Q
Which group of people evaluate a change request, weigh its merits, help with risk analysis, and ultimately decide whether a change goes forward? Choices: Upper management Change control board End-users Project managers
A
Change control board
420
Q
What is needed as part of a change control process to address the possible failure of a change? Choices: A backout plan A contingency plan A contingency budget A scope change request process
A
A backout plan
421
Q
Which types of software are usually used to document changes as they are taking place in the context of a project? Choose two answers. Choices: OneNote files Databases Project management software Word documents
A
Databases
Project management software
422
Q
Which tool is used on a Windows 10 device to create a system image for backup purposes? Choices: Backup and Restore File History System Restore Image Backup
A
Backup and Restore
423
Q
Where is the best place to have backups of critical applications in case they are needed for disaster recovery? Choices: On a system image In the cloud On an external drive On a network share
A
424
Q
Which is the most efficient way to test a backup to make sure it is working? Choices: Delete a file and then perform a restore Check the date of the last backup Attempt to restore files from the backup Write files directly to the backup drive
A
425
Q
Which best describes the use of a UPS? Choices: A short-term solution for a power outage A protector against brownouts A protector against surges and spikes A long-term solution for a power outage
A
A short-term solution for a power
outage
426
Q
What do surge protectors protect against besides surges? Choices: Brownouts Spikes Grounding issues Blackouts
A
Spikes
427
Q
Which are options for both local and cloud storage? Choose two answers. Choices: BranchCache OneDrive SyncCenter Dropbox
A
OneDrive
Dropbox
428
Q
A domain administrator needs to recover data from a deleted account, which has been backed up in Active Directory. Which tool should the administrator use to restore the account data? Choices: The ntdsutil command File History Backup and Restore The adbackup command
A
The ntdsutil command
429
Q
Which type of equipment should one never attempt to repair? Choices: Hard drive DC jack Power supply Motherboard
A
Power supply
430
Q
What should a video card be stored in if it is not in a machine? Choices: ESD bag Styrofoam case Antistatic bag Faraday bag
A
Antistatic bag
431
Q
Which two devices can help a technician avoid electrostatic discharge while working on a device? Choices: ESD strap ESD foam ESD mat ESD bag
A
ESD strap
ESD mat
432
Q
Which best describes the act of self-grounding while working on the inside of a computer? Choices: Stand on an ESD mat Touch metal in the case occasionally Sit on an ESD mat Touch the outside of the case occasionally
A
Touch metal in the case
occasionally
433
Q
Which three objects should never be thrown away as they have dangerous chemicals in them? Choices: CRTs Toner Paper Batteries Trash cans
A
CRTs
Toner
Batteries
434
Q
An administrator is going to take old cell phones and tablets to a company’s cell phone carrier for the purpose of recycling the devices. What should be done
with the devices before the yare brought back for recycling?
Choices:
Destroy them
Restore these to factory settings
Remove the batteries
Remove the SIM cards
A
Restore these to factory settings
435
Q
What should absolutely be done with a PC before attempting to repair it? Choices: Ground the case Unplug it Power it off Remove the power supply
A
Unplug it
436
Q
What should not be worn while working on a PC? Choose two answers. Choices: Rings Neckties Dangling jewelry Flannel shirts
A
437
Q
Which statements regarding lifting heavy objects are true? Choose two answers. Choices: Lift with your legs Lift with your arms Use a cart when needed It is okay to lift something very heavy if lifting properly
A
Lift with your legs
Use a cart when needed
438
Q
Which label should be on a fire extinguisher in order for it to be used on electrical fires? Choices: A B D C
A
C
439
Q
How many power strips are acceptable for use for daisy chaining? Choices: 0 4 2 3
A
0
440
Q
Which two devices should be used for working with either sharp objects or objects that emit an odor? Choices: Gloves Air filter mask Safety goggles Earplugs
A
Air filter mask
Safety goggles
441
Q
Which document should be provided for every potentially hazardous material on company premises? Choices: MSDS PSDS MUP AUP
A
MSDS
442
Q
What is the ideal humidity percentage in a server room? Choices: 20% 35% 50% 65%
A
50%
443
Q
Which device is a short-term power solution in case of a blackout? Choices: Generator Surge suppressor UPS Surge protector
A
UPS
444
Q
What is the main role of a surge suppressor? Choices: Protect against sags Protect against short-term power bursts Protect against sharp increases in voltage Protect against brownouts
A
445
Q
Which two items, when placed in working areas, can help protect the areas from airborne particles? Choices: Air filters Cooling fans Air masks Enclosures
A
Air filters
Enclosures
446
Q
Which two items can help keep computers and other equipment free from dust and debris? Choices: Cleaning solvents Compressed air cans ESD vacuums Cloths
A
Compressed air cans
ESD vacuums
447
Q
What is the most important aspect of safety procedures to follow when working with equipment and disposing of toxic material? Choices: Compliance with OSHA Compliance with government regulations Compliance with MSDS sheets Compliance with manufacturer standards
A
Compliance with government
regulations
448
Q
Which is the first step in an incident response process? Choices: Start a chain of custody Send a report to the CIO Identify whether an incident took place Preserve data related to the incident
A
Identify whether an incident took
place
449
Q
An incident response specialist has determined that a security breach has taken place. Which are the next two steps in the incident response process? Choices: Call law enforcement Start a chain of custody Report the incident to the proper authorities Preserve data related to the incident
A
450
Q
Which document proves that evidence has been properly monitored during an incident response process? Choices: Chain of custody Evidential gathering Certificate of custody AUP
A
Chain of custody
451
Q
Which statements are true regarding open source and commercial licenses? Choose two answers. Choices: Open source licenses are common in Linux Open source licenses are always enterprise licenses Commercial licenses are always personal licenses Commercial licenses have strict rules as to how the licenses can be used
A
Commercial licenses have strict rules as to how the licenses can be used Open source licenses are common in Linux
452
Q
Which is true regarding personal and enterprise licenses? Choose two answers. Choices: Personal licenses are always limited to a set number of installations Enterprise licenses often have more features than that of personal licenses Personal licenses are always limited to a single device per person Enterprise licenses always have a limit as to how many devices are included in the license
A
453
Q
A person's address, vehicle information, and Social Security number are all examples of which type of information? Choices: PHI PEI PCI SPI
A
SPI
454
Q
Which standards apply to businesses that accept debit cards, credit cards, and ATM cards for payments? Choices: PCIDSS GDPR PII GLB
A
PCIDSS
455
Q
From where does GDPR originate? Choices: Asia North America EU Africa
A
EU
456
Q
Which act does PHI apply to? Choices: Sarbanes-Oxley GLB GDPR HIPAA
A
HIPAA
457
Q
Who is ultimately responsible for security within a corporate infrastructure? Choices: IT Everyone Upper management CTO
A
Everyone
458
Q
A technician is going to increase the RAM from 4GBto 8GBin a customer's system. What is the best statement a technician could use to explain this to a customer? Choices: I'm going to double the memory in your computer Your computer will be able to process instructions twice as fast as before I'm going to install 8GBof PC12800 triple-channel memory I'm going to fill your empty RAM slot with 4GBofRAM
A
I’m going to double the memory in your computer
459
Q
A customer brings in a Mac and wants a Blu-ray drive installed. A technician is not familiar with how this is done on a Mac, but another technician is. What should the technician tell the customer? Choices: Come back when the Mac tech is here There is a Mac store down the street I don't really work on Macs I don't work on Macs much, but I know someone who does and between the two of us, we will get this done
A
I don’t work on Macs much, but I
know someone who does and
between the two of us, we will get
this done
460
Q
Which best describes active listening? Choices: Getting closer to the person so that one can hear the person Interrupting someone for clarification Asking a lot of questions Letting someone finish a thought
A
Letting someone finish a thought
461
Q
A technician is working on a computer for a doctor. How should the technician address the doctor when talking to the doctor? Choices: Dr. and the last name Mr., Ms., Miss, or Mrs. and the name Using a nickname On a first-name basis
A
Dr. and the last name
462
Q
A technician is stuck on a house call and is going to be late for the next appointment, a small business. What should the technician do? Choices: Call the small business to let them know the technician will be late Nothing. Business as usual Leave the house call, take care of the small business, and come back to the house call Apologize to the small business when the technician gets there
A
Call the small business to let
them know the technician will be
late
463
Q
Which are types of distractions that should be avoided while dealing with customers? Choose three answers. Choices: Looking for parts for a customer Texting Personal calls and interruptions Talking to coworkers Looking up solutions online
A
Texting
Personal calls and interruptions
Talking to coworkers
464
Q
Which is the best technique to use when dealing with an argumentative customer? Choices: Point out where the customer is wrong Use a soft voice Argue back Be firm but point out facts
A
Use a soft voice
465
Q
What two aspects of conversation should a technician avoid when dealing with customer problems? Choices: Drawing information out from the customer Dismissing the customer problems Being judgmental Setting customer expectations
A
466
Q
Which types of questions are the best types of questions to ask customers when trying to ascertain a problem? Choices: Closed-ended questions Open-ended questions Yes/no questions Multiple choice questions
A
Open-ended questions
467
Q
Where should one never disclose experiences with customers? Choices: To social media To other coworkers To an internal website To an internal tracking app
A
To social media
468
Q
A technician tells a customer that 16 GB of RAM will be added to a device. Then, the technician realizes that only 8 GB of RAM is possible as the device is older. What should the technician tell the customer? Choices: Apologize but explain the the device can only hold 8 GB more of RAM and add a complimentary extra service The customer should get a new device The technician can only put an additional 8 GB of RAM in the device Apologize but explain that no RAM can be added to the device
A
Apologize but explain the the
device can only hold 8 GB more of RAM and add a complimentary
extra service
469
Q
Which are considered best practices for customer service at the end of a transaction and after the transaction? Choose two answers. Choices: Ask the customer to post an online review Follow up with the customer's supervisor a few days later Follow up with the customer a few days later Provide detailed documentation for services provided
A
Provide detailed documentation
for services provided
Follow up with the customer a few
days later
470
Q
What should a technician do with confidential data at a client site if the data is easy to see? Choices: Avoid looking at the data Let the client know the data was seen Ask the client to move the data Report to a supervisor that the data was seen
A
Ask the client to move the data
471
Q
Which type of script file is used in command prompts and for logon scripts and is built in Notepad? Choices: .vbs .ps1 .sh .bat
A
.bat
472
Q
Which type of script perform actions through distinct verb-noun commands? Choices: .bat .ps1 .sh .vbs
A
.ps1
473
Q
Which type of script file is often used to run Windows processes? Choices: .vbs .sh .bat .ps1
A
.vbs
474
Q
Which type of script file is the Linux equivalent of a batch file in Windows? Choices: .py .bash .sh .vim
A
.sh
475
Q
Which type of script file is used in conjunction with a multipurpose object-oriented programming language? Choices: .py .bat .js .ps1
A
.py
476
Q
Which type of script file represents an object-oriented programming language used mainly on webpages? Choices: .bash .py .js .ps1
A
.js
477
Q
What are the two main purposes for comments in code?
Choices:
To help explain code
To help test code
To indicate what language code is
in
To tell a server-side engine how to process code
A
To help explain code
To help test code
478
Q
Which best describes, in programming terms, a loop? Choices: A set of instructions that repeats once A conditional statement A test of code, followed byrunning code in production A block of code runs a set number of times
A
A block of code runs a set number of times
479
Q
Programming statements such as x= 5 and y= 7 are examples of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Choices: strings variables integers Booleans
A
variables
480
Q
Which is true about integers and strings in programming? Choose two answers. Choices: Integers are set inside of quotation marks Integers are whole numbers Numbers in strings can be used in calculations Strings can be whole numbers
A
Strings can be whole numbers
Integers are whole numbers
481
Q
On which port does RDP run? Choices: 3389 636 389 1024
A
3389
482
Q
Which port uses SSH to connect one device to another? Choices: 21 22 23 20
A
22
483
Q
Which is an example of an app that does both screen sharing and file sharing? Choices: Skype for Business Remote Desktop SSH PuTTY
A
Skype for Business
484
Q
Why should Telnet not be used to connect one device to another? Choices: It is not secure It sends data in plaintext It only works in half duplex It is an outdated connection method
A
It is not secure
