A+ 1002 Flashcards

1
Q

Domain 1

What is the maximum amount of RAM a 32-bit installation of Windows will see?
Choices:
16GB
32GB
2GB
4GB
A

4GB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Domain 1

Which statement is true regarding compatibility between 32-bit and 64-bit operating systems?
Choices:
A. 32-bit apps are typically installed
in the Program Files folder on a
64-bit system
B. 32-bit apps can run on 64-bit
systems
C. 64-bit apps are typically installed
in the Program Files (x86) folder
on a 64-bit system
D. 64-bit apps can only un if a
system has 8GBofRAMor higher
A

B. 32-bit apps can run on 64-bit

systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Domain 1

Which is the most recent version of Windows?
Choices:
Windows 8.1
Windows 8
Windows 10
Windows 10.1
A

Windows 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Domain 1

Acustomer is looking for a desktop operating system. The customer specializes in graphic design and audio and video editing. Which operating system
should a technician recommend?
Choices:
Apple MacintoshOS
Windows
iOS
Linux
A

Apple MacintoshOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Domain 1

Which operating system is featured on both desktops and tablets?
Choices:
iOS
Linux
Android
Windows
A

Windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Domain 1

Which two operating systems are open source?
Choices:
iOS
Android
Linux
Windows
A

Android

Linux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Domain 1

Which mobile operating system is used on Apple devices?
Choices:
iOS
Windows
Android
Linux
A

iOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Domain 1

Which operating system is the Android equivalent on netbook devices?
Choices:
Pie
ChromeOS
Linux
iOS
A

ChromeOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Domain 1

What are the two main reasons to avoid running operating systems that have reached end-of-life status?
Choices:
The OS will be vulnerable to attack
The OS will no longer receive
updates
The OS will cease to function
Apps will no longer work on the
OS
A

TheOSwill be vulnerable to attack
TheOSwill no longer receive
updates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Domain 1

In order for files to be readable on both Windows and MacOS, the files need to be on a drive with which format?
Choices:
FAT32
NTFS
exFAT
ReFS
A

exFAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Domain 1

Which two editions of Windows 7 are not available for retail purchase?
Choices:
Professional
Enterprise
Home
Starter
A

Enterprise

Starter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Domain 1

Which is the first edition of Windows to have the Charms bar?
Choices:
Windows 8.1
Windows 8
Windows 7
Windows 10
A

Windows 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Domain 1

Which feature disappeared in Windows 8 but came back in Windows 8.1?
Choices:
Start button
Taskbar
Tiles
Charms bar
A

Start button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Domain 1

What is the name of the voice-based search feature in Windows 10?
Choices:
Siri
Cortana
Searcher
Alexa
A

Cortana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Domain 1

Which is the minimum edition of Windows eligible to join a network domain?
Choices:
Enterprise
Starter
Professional
Home
A

Professional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Domain 1

Which tool is used to encrypt entire hard drives?
Choices:
Digital Signatures
EFS
Disk Management
BitLocker
A

BitLocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Domain 1

Which two versions of Windows have Windows Media Center?
Choices:
Windows 8 Professional
Windows 7 Home
Windows 7 Home Premium
Windows 8 Home
A

Windows 8 Professional

Windows 7 Home Premium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Domain 1

Which is a bandwidth optimization feature that allows content to be cached on a local hard drive?
Choices:
DirectAccess
QoS
EFS
BranchCache
A

BranchCache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Domain 1

Which two editions of Windows have tiles for apps and no traditional Start menu?
Choices:
Windows 10
Windows 8.1
Windows 8
Windows 7
A

Windows 8.1

Windows 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Domain 1

Which medium is likely to be too small for holding operating system installation files?
Choices:
Internal drive
Flash drive
Network boot
CD
A

CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Domain 1

An administrator wants to use an external drive as a source for an operating system installation. What should be done first on the system about to receive the
install?
Choices:
A. Disable the old OS
B. Make sure the boot order in the
    BIOS is set properly
C. Uninstall the old OS
D. Delete the old OS
A

B. Make sure the boot order in the BIOS is set properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Domain 1

How do PXE boots take place for installing an operating system?
Choices:
A. Boot happens on an external drive
B. Boot takes placement over the
    network
C. Boot happens on a DVD
D. Boot happens on an internal 
     drive
A

B. Boot takes placement over the

network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Domain 1

Where should installation files be located on an internal hard drive for a clean install of Windows?
Choices:
A. In C:\Images
B. On C:
C. On a different partition
D. In C:\Windows
A

C. On a different partition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Domain 1

Which type of file is needed in order to perform an unattended installation of Windows?
Choices:
Answer
Unattended
Question
Attended
A

Answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Domain 1

A user has Windows 8.1 Home edition. Which version of Windows 10 can the user upgrade to?
Choices:
Windows 10 Enterprise
Windows 10 Home
Windows 10 Education
Windows 10 Professional
A

Windows 10 Home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Domain 1

For homes and small businesses, which two types of installations are the most common installations of Windows?
Choices:
Network boot
Unattended
In-place upgrade
Clean install
A

In-place upgrade

Clean install

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Domain 1

When doing a repair installation of Windows, what happens to a user's current Windows data?
Choices:
A. It is moved to a Windows.old
    folder
B. It is moved to a 
    Windows.backup
    folder
C. It stays in the same place
D. It is deleted
A

A. It is moved to a Windows.old

folder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Domain 1

Which is considered a best practice for multiboot installations?
Choices:
A. Install the oldest operating 
    system last
B. Install the Windows operating
    system last
C. Install the newest operating
    system last
D. Install the non-Windows 
    operating system last
A

C. Install the newest operating

system last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Domain 1

Which two statements are true regarding network installations of Windows?
Choices:
A. The system receiving the
     installation must have network
     boot enabled in the BIOS or UEFI
B. The server hosting the installation
     must have network boot enabled
     in the BIOS or UEFI
C. The installation media must be on
     a Windows server
D. A 10Gbps network connection is
     preferable
A

D. A 10Gbps network connection is preferable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Domain 1

For Windows installations, which deployment type is suitable for when installations need to include apps and settings to be deployed on multiple systems?
Choices:
Recovery partition
DVD
Image
Network
A

Image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Domain 1

Which best describes what a recovery partition on a computer typically stores?
Choices:
System files
Backup software
The original image deployed on
   the computer
OEM software
A

The original image deployed on

the computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Domain 1

Which reinstall method in Windows looks for and replaces corrupt system files?
Choices:
Restore
Reset
Upgrade
Refresh
A

Refresh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Domain 1

A user wants to resize a basic partition on a hard drive. What must be done to the drive first?
Choices:
It needs to be expanded
It needs to be converted to a
dynamic partition
It needs to be formatted
It needs to be shrunk
A

It needs to be converted to a

dynamic partition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Domain 1

How are primary partitions determined on a hard drive?
Choices:
They are the first partitions created
They are the first formatted
partitions created
They are the largest partitions
created
They are the partitions that hold
operating systems
A

They are the partitions that hold

operating systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Domain 1

Which type of partition is needed on a hard drive in order to have more than four logical drives, each with a drive letter on a single physical hard drive?
Choices:
Primary
Extended
Dynamic
Basic
A

Extended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Domain 1

How many GPT partitions can be on one disk?
Choices:
32
256
128
4
A

128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Domain 1

What is the maximum partition size on a disk using an exFAT format?
Choices:
32GB
2 TB
512 TB
256 TB
A

512 TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Domain 1

What is the maximum partition size on a disk using a FAT32 format?
Choices:
32GB
512 TB
2 TB
256 TB
A

2 TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Domain 1

Which partition format supports file and folder encryption?
Choices:
CDFS
exFAT
NTFS
FAT32
A

NTFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Domain 1

Which file system is commonly used on CDs?
Choices:
exFAT
FAT32
CDFS
NTFS
A

CDFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Domain 1

Which is a distributed file system that allows a client computer to access files over a network?
Choices:
CDFS
NFS
NTFS
ReFS
A

NFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Domain 1

Which operating system uses ext3 and ext4 for disk formats?
Choices:
Linux
Android
Windows
MacOS
A

Linux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Domain 1

Which Mac OS file system is used on Mac OS versions 10.12 and older?
Choices:
ext3
NTFS
HFS
NFS
A

HFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Domain 1

Which is the Linux equivalent of the page file in Windows?
Choices:
Page space
Page partition
VM file
Swap partition
A

Swap partition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Domain 1

Which best describes what actually happens when a a quick format is performed on a hard drive?
Choices:
Files on the drive have their
   access removed
The drive has zeros written on it
The drive is emptied
The drive has ones written on it
A

Files on the drive have their

access removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Domain 1

For loading third-party drivers during a Windows installation, on what media do the drivers need to be? Choose two answers.
Choices:
HDD
SSD
USB drive
Optical drive
A

USB drive

Optical drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Domain 1

Which type of network will most Windows devices be connected to in a home network?
Choices:
Workgroup
Internal
Domain
HomeGroup
A

Workgroup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Domain 1

Which is the first step in a Windows installation once the installation process starts?
Choices:
File system format choice
Partition to install
Entering a product key
Language and time format
A

Language and time format

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Domain 1

Which tool should be used to check to see if any peripherals need drivers right after a Windows installation?
Choices:
Device Manager
System Information
Computer Management
System Configuration
A

Device Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Domain 1

Besides a primary partition, which type of partition should be present on a computer right after a Windows installation?
Choices:
Extended
Basic
Logical
Recovery
A

Recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Domain 1

What is the recommended minimum amount of RAM for a 64-bit installation of Windows?
Choices:
2GB
1GB
4GB
3GB
A

2GB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Domain 1

A user has Windows 10 but needs to run an app that was built for Windows 7. How should the user run the app?
Choices:
Legacy Mode
Virtual Mode
Embedded Mode
Compatibility Mode
A

Compatibility Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Domain 1

Which versions of Windows can upgrade to Windows 10? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Windows 7
Windows 8.1
Windows 8
Windows Vista
A

Windows 7

Windows 8.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Domain 1

Which Windows command lists the files inside of a folder?
Choices:
ls
sd
show
dir
A

dir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Domain 1

Which Windows command takes a user up a level of folders in a folder structure?
Choices:
cd\
cd..
md\
md..
A

cd..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Domain 1

A user states that a frequent website the user visits cannot be reached. Which command should a technician run in order to test connectivity to the site?
Choices:
nslookup
ping
tracert
ipconfig
A

ping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Domain 1

A user states that there are intermittent connectivity problems to the Internet. Which command should a technician run in order to isolate where the connection
might be dropping?
Choices:
ping
tracert
ipconfig
nslookup
A

tracert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Domain 1

A technician wants to see established TCP connections on a device. Which command should the technician run to get this list?
Choices:
netstat -a tcp
netstat -c tcp
netstat -proto tcp
netstat -p tcp
A

netstat -p tcp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Domain 1

A technician wants to see the advertised DNS server address for google.com. Which command should the technician run?
Choices:
nslookup google.com
finddns google.com
lookup google.com
dns google.com
A

nslookup google.com

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Domain 1

A junior technician wants to add a command that will restart a device at the end of an installation. Which command should the technician add?
Choices:
restart -r
shutdown
restart
shutdown -r
A

shutdown -r

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Domain 1

Which are the two main uses for the Dism command?
Choices:
Deploy a system image
Prepare a system image for
deployment
Scan and repair a system image
Build a system image
A

Prepare a system image for
deployment
Scan and repair a system image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Domain 1

Which two commands can check for and attempt to fix errors on a system?
Choices:
fixdsk
scannow
sfc
chkdsk
A

sfc

chkdsk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Domain 1

Which command can list both disks and partitions on a device?
Choices:
dir
diskpart
disklookup
chkdsk
A

diskpart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Domain 1

A user was told an app was installable as a result of a policy change on a domain, but the user still cannot install the app. What can a technician run on the
device to force the policy change?
Choices:
gpchange
gpupdate
gpresult
gpforce
A

gpupdate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Domain 1

In an effort to troubleshoot rights on a device, a technician want to see which Group Policy settings apply to a user. Which command should the technician run?
Choices:
gpresult /R
gpresult
gpresult /U
gpresult /P
A

gpresult /R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Domain 1

When running the format command, what will be formatted?
Choices:
Folders
Hard drives
Accounts
Files
A

Hard drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Domain 1

A user runs this command: copytempalte.docxtemplate2.docx. What happens as a result of that command?
Choices:
A. template2.docxhas been copied to the template.docxfolder
B. template.docxhas been copied to
a file named template2.docx
C. template2.docxhas been copied
to a file named template.docx
D. template.docxhas been copied to
the template2.docxfolder
A

B. template.docxhas been copied to a file named template2.docx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Domain 1

A junior technician wants to make sure all subdirectories from the c:\u201 folder get copied to the c:\u202folder. Which command should the junior technician
run?
Choices:
xcopyc:\u201 c:\u202 /s
xcopyc:\u201 c:\u202 /sub
copyc:\u201 c:\u202 /sub
copyc:\u201 c:\u202 /s
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Domain 1

A user runs this command: robocopyc:\u202 c:\u203. What gets copied from u202 to u203?
Choices:
Files
Folders and subdirectories
Folders
The entire directory structure
A

The entire directory structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Domain 1

Which command would a technician need to run to map a user's P drive to the Techies folder on the 1002winserver server?
Choices:
A. net use p:
\\1002winserver\Techies
B. net user p:
\\1002winserver\Techies
C. map p: \\1002winserver\Techies
D. net map p: \\1002winserver\Techies
A

A. net use p:

\1002winserver\Techies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Domain 1

A technician needs to see when a user last logged on to a device. Which command can the technician run to accomplish this?
Choices:
use
net user
net use
user
A

net user

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Domain 1

Which switch, entered after a command, returns a list of switches the command uses?
Choices:
/switch
/man
/help
/?
A

/?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Domain 1

Which commands must be run with an elevated command prompt? Choose two answers.
Choices:
shutdown
sfc
dism
dir
A

sfc

dism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Domain 1

Which administrative tool is used to display other system tools?
Choices:
System Information
Computer Management
Device Manager
System Configuration
A

Computer Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Domain 1

A user claims a hardware device is not found. Upon looking at Device Manager, an administrator notices a black arrow next to the device in question. What does this indicate?
Choices:
The device is unplugged
The device has malfunctioned
The device is disabled
The device has the wrong driver
installed
A

The device is disabled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Domain 1

Which two local user accounts should be disabled by default?
Choices:
Administrator
User
Backup operator
Guest
A

Administrator

Guest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Domain 1

Which are the two main features of the Local Security Policy tool?
Choices:
Account policies
Administrative tasks
Security policies
User rights assignments
A

Account policies

User rights assignments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Domain 1

Which three areas of device performance are visible from the initial Performance Monitor screen?
Choices:
Memory
Tasks
Physical Disk
Network
Processor Information
A

Memory
Physical Disk
Processor Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Domain 1

What should one do with an unnecessary service?
Choices:
Set it to start up manually
Disable it
Remove it
Stop it
A

Disable it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Domain 1

Apps set to start up when a system is booted are contained in the System Configuration tool in which operating system?
Choices:
Windows 7
Windows 8
Windows 10
Windows 8.1
A

Windows 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Domain 1

A system administrator needs to run a scanning app daily. Where can this be set up?
Choices:
System Configuration
Services
System Information
Task Scheduler
A

Task Scheduler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Domain 1

Building blocks that work toward building object-oriented applications are managed in which administrative tool?
Choices:
Data Sources
Task Scheduler
Component Services
System Configuration
A

Component Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Domain 1

A user needs to set up a connection to SQL Server database. Which tool can the user use to accomplish this task?
Choices:
System Configuration
Data Sources
Task Scheduler
Component Services
A

Data Sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Domain 1

The Print Management tool can be used on which operating system?
Choices:
Windows
MacOS
Linux
Android
A

Windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Domain 1

Which app runs the Windows Memory Diagnostic tool?
Choices:
wmdiag
dxdiag
msdiag
mdsched
A

mdsched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Domain 1

Which are the main types of event logs in the Event Viewer? Choose three answers.
Choices:
System
Auditing
Application
Syslog
Security
A

System
Application
Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Domain 1

Which is the default setting for User Account Control?
Choices:
A. Notify only when apps try to make changes
B. Never notify
C. Notify when apps try to make
changes without dimming the desktop
D. Always notify

A

C. Notify only when apps try to make changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Domain 1

Which tab within Msconfig has startup selections?
Choices:
Startup
Boot
Services
General
A

Boot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Domain 1

In which mode should a system be booted into in order to run antimalware effectively?
Choices:
Safe Mode
Windows RE
VGAMode
Config Mode
A

Safe Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Domain 1

What can be done with a service inside of Msconfig?
Choices:
Started
Disabled
Stopped
Removed
A

Disabled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Domain 1

In which tool is the startup options located in Windows 10?
Choices:
Msconfig
Task Manager
System Information
Computer Management
A

Task Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Domain 1

Which type of tools are located on the Tools tab of the Msconfig window?
Choices:
Windows tools
Boot tools
Services
Startup options
A

Windows tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Domain 1

Which tab in Task Manager in Windows 10 allows one to see apps and the resources they have taken since the last time booting up?
Choices:
Processes
Performance history
Details
App history
A

App history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Domain 1

In which edition of Windows do apps running not show on the Processes tab?
Choices:
Windows 7
Windows 8
Windows 10
Windows 8.1
A

Windows 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Domain 1

On which Task Manager tab can one see a mini-snapshot of CPU, memory, disk, and network statistics?
Choices:
Applications
Performance
Resources
Processes
A

Performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Domain 1

In which edition of Windows does Networking appear on its own tab in Task Manager?
Choices:
Windows 10
Windows 7
Windows 8
Windows 8.1
A

Windows 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Domain 1

Which best describes the list of users on the Users tab in Task Manager?
Choices:
Users who are logged on to the
device
Administrative users on the device
Users who have an account on
the device
Standard users on the device
A

Users who are logged on to the

device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Domain 1

What is the drive status one hopes to see when looking at drives using the Disk Management tool?
Choices:
Running
Basic
Primary
Healthy
A

Healthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Domain 1

What is needed in order to mount a drive? Choose two answers.
Choices:
An empty NTFS-formatted folder
A virtual hard drive
A partition that is not assigned a
drive letter
An empty hard drive partition
A

An empty NTFS-formatted folder
A partition that is not assigned a
drive letter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Domain 1

A new disk has been installed and is showing in the Disk Management tool. In order for the drive to be put to use, what is the first step an administrator needs
to take?
Choices:
Format the drive
Initialize the drive
Create a partition
Extend the drive
A

Initialize the drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Domain 1

Before a disk partition can be split, what must be done to it?
Choices:
It must have been extended
It must be shrunk
It must be emptied
It must be formatted
A

It must be shrunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Domain 1

A drive is added to a device. It is not recognized right away. Which option in Disk Management could one run to have the device try to find the drive?
Choices:
Add Disks
Device Manager
Refresh Disks
Rescan Disks
A

Rescan Disks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Domain 1

How are most RAIDs set up on a computer?
Choices:
As a hardware RAID through Disk
Management
As a software RAID in the system
BIOS
As a software RAID through Disk
Management
As a hardware RAID in the system
BIOS
A

As a hardware RAID in the system

BIOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Domain 1

When creating a storage pool with two different-sized disks in Windows, what will be the size of the storage pool?
Choices:
The sum of the disks
The size of the larger disk
The difference between the two
disks
The size of the smaller disk
A

The size of the smaller disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Domain 1

Which registry hive stores file associations?
Choices:
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
HKEY_CURRENT_USER
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
A

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Domain 1

What happens when a user without administrative privileges tries to run a command prompt in elevated mode?
Choices:
The UAC window pops up to
confirm the opening
The command prompt opens
The user is asked to provide
administrative credentials
The user is denied access to the
command prompt
A

The user is asked to provide

administrative credentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Domain 1

What is the name of the Services tool?
Choices:
services.msi
services
services.exe
services.msc
A

services.msc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Domain 1

Which tool allows one to set up custom consoles to manage tools and utilities?
Choices:
System Management Console
Microsoft Management Console
Disk Management Console
Computer Management Console
A

Microsoft Management Console

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Domain 1

What information on a device can be used to connect to the device via MSTSC? Choose two answers.
Choices:
IP address
Device name
Port
Username
A

Device name

Username

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Domain 1

A user wants a text editing tool that will put absolutely no formatting onto the text. Which tool should a technician recommend to the user?
Choices:
Pages
Word
WordPad
Notepad
A

Notepad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Domain 1

In which tool can a user control whether to view extensions on files?
Choices:
Explorer
This PC
Finder
Msconfig
A

Explorer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Domain 1

A technician needs to knowhow much RAM a system has. Which tool can the technician use to find this out?
Choices:
MSC
MSRAM
Msconfig
Msinfo32
A

Msinfo32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Domain 1

Which tool shows the version of DirectX on a Windows device?
Choices:
Directxshow
Directxdiag
Dxshow
Dxdiag
A

Dxdiag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Domain 1

Which types of disks do not need disk defragmenter run on them?
Choices:
Internal drives
SSDs
HDDs
External drives
A

SSDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Domain 1

What can be controlled within Windows Update settings? Choose three answers.
Choices:
Which specific apps are updated
The update history
When updates are installed
The hours in which updates occur
What downloads during an update
A

The update history
When updates are installed
The hours in which updates occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Domain 1

In which tab in Internet Options would one set a proxy server?
Choices:
General
Privacy
Security
Connections
A

Connections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Domain 1

Which types of websites are most commonly found in the Trusted Sites area of the Internet Options window?
Choices:
External
Public
Internal
Private
A

Internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Domain 1

A user wants to delete browsing history for Microsoft Edge. Which Internet Options tab should an administrator use to make this happen?
Choices:
Programs
Privacy
Security
General
A

General

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Domain 1

What can be controlled on the Privacy tab within Internet Options?
Choices:
Temporary Internet files
Cookies
Browsing history
Accessibility
A

Cookies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Domain 1

In which version of Windows can the default web browser be set in the Settings area rather than in the Control Panel?
Choices:
Windows 10
Windows 8
Windows 7
Windows 8.1
A

Windows 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Domain 1

In which tab in Internet Options would one restore Internet Explorer or Microsoft Edge to its default settings?
Choices:
Security
General
Programs
Advanced
A

Advanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Domain 1

Which screen resolution in Windows offers the best quality picture on a screen?
Choices:
1280 x720
1024 x768
The monitor recommendation
1920 x1080
A

The monitor recommendation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Domain 1

How many colors are supported in a 32-bit color depth setting?
Choices:
32 to the 2nd power
2 * 32
32
2 to the 32nd power
A

2 to the 32nd power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Domain 1

A user set the refresh rate on a monitor to higher than the monitor supports and the monitor now displays nothing. Which two tasks could a technician do to fix
the problem?
Choices:
Reboot into Safe Mode
Plug in a different monitor
Reboot into Windows RE
Reboot into VGAMode
A

Reboot into Safe Mode

Reboot into VGAMode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Domain 1

Which two account types are the two main account types on a Windows device?
Choices:
Standard
Administrator
Guest
Power User
A

Standard

Administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Domain 1

Within File Explorer, In which tab under Folder Options can one control how an item is clicked when one wants to open an item?
Choices:
Search
View
Navigate
General
A

General

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Domain 1

When is virtual memory used on a PC?
Choices:
When a machine is running a
virtual reality app
When a machine is out of hard
disk space
When a machine is out of RAM
When a virtual machine is running
A

When a machine is out of RAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Domain 1

What must be configured within Remote Desktop settings before one can remote into a machine?
Choices:
When Remote Desktop is
enabled
The port on which Remote
Desktop will run
The IP address of the machine
Who can connect to the machine
A

Who can connect to the machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Domain 1

In this Control Panel window, where does one click to start the process of creating a restore point?
Choices:
System protection
Device manager
Remote settings
Advanced system settings
A

System protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Domain 1

How many firewalls should be turned on per host machine on a network?
Choices:
2
1
0 if the network firewall is on
3
A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Domain 1

Which are available power options on a Windows device? Choose three answers.
Choices:
Balanced
Sleep
Power saver
Low performance
High performance
A

Balanced
Power saver
High performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Domain 1

In which power state is a laptop in when it is shut down in a way to where a snapshot of the RAM is taken and then stored on the hard drive?
Choices:
Standby
Sleep
Hibernate
Suspend
A

Hibernate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Domain 1

In which three power modes is a laptop off but RAM is not transferred to hard drive and the laptop can be woken up through tapping the mouse or trackpad?
Choices:
Suspend
Standby
Sleep
Hibernate
Shutdown
A

Suspend
Standby
Sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Domain 1

Which two main types of credentials are managed through Credential Manager?
Choices:
Token
App
Web
Windows
A

Web

Windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Domain 1

In which version of Windows was HomeGroups removed?
Choices:
Windows 8.1
Windows 10
Windows 7
Windows 8
A

Windows 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Domain 1

Which categories are accessible for troubleshooting through the Control Panel? Choose four answers.
Choices:
IP Addressing
Network and Internet
Programs
Hardware and Sound
Device Installation
System and Security
A

Network and Internet
Programs
Hardware and Sound
System and Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Domain 1

Which Control Panel tool allows for checking network connections and IP address information and allows for diagnosing network connections that are not
working?
Choices:
IP Addressing
Network and Internet
Network and Sharing Center
Network Properties
A

Network and Sharing Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Domain 1

A user looks in Device Manager and notices that a network card has a black arrow next to it. What does the black arrow signify?
Choices:
The network card just had drivers
downloaded
The network card was just
uninstalled
The network card has incorrect
drivers
The network card is disabled
A

The network card is disabled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Domain 1

What does BitLocker encrypt?
Choices:
Files
Hard drives
Folders
CPU
A

Hard drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Domain 1

Which best describes the role of Sync Center on a Windows device?
Choices:
Synchronize settings with a
network drive
Synchronize settings across
devices
Synchronize files with a network
drive
Synchronize files across devices
A

Synchronize files with a network

drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Domain 1

Which are considered the three most important factors for application installations on a device?
Choices:
Drive space
RAM
Screen size
Operating system compatibility
Available peripherals
A

Drive space
RAM
Operating system compatibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Domain 1

Besides downloading software, what are common sources used for software installations? Choose three answers.
Choices:
USB drive
CD
Network location
Floppy disk
Virtual drive
A

USB drive
CD
Network location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Domain 1

Which folder is typically used for installations of 32-bit apps on a 64-bit operating system?
Choices:
C:\Program Files (x32)
C:\Program Files
C:\Program Files (32-bit)
C:\Program Files (x86)
A

C:\Program Files (x86)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Domain 1

Which is true about steps to take to make sure an app does not have a negative impact on a device when installed? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Apps should be made to not move
malware onto a system
Apps should come from a trusted
publisher
Automatic updates should never
be allowed
Apps should not open a hole in
the firewall
A

Apps should come from a trusted
publisher
Automatic updates should never
be allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Domain 1

An administrator wants to make sure a new app which requires network resources, takes a low amount of network resources. What can be set in order to
ensure that an app does not take much bandwidth?
Choices:
Routing protocol
Resource optimization
Port settings
QoS

A

QoS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Domain 1

Which type of network allows for all devices on the network to share a common password?
Choices:
Peer-to-peer
Workgroup
Domain
HomeGroup
A

HomeGroup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Domain 1

Which type of network requires a separate username and password for each device on the network?
Choices:
HomeGroup
Client
Domain
Workgroup
A

Workgroup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Domain 1

Which type of network is considered a client/server network?
Choices:
HomeGroup
Domain
Workgroup
Peer-to-peer
A

Domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Domain 1

Which is an example of an administrative share?
Choices:
\\winserver\c$
\\winserver
\\winserver\admin
\\winserver\c
A

\winserver\c$

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Domain 1

Which specific permissions does a user or group need on a printer, in its printer properties, in order to print to that printer?
Choices:
Print permission on the Sharing
tab
Access permission on the
Security tab
Print permission on the Security
tab
Access permission on the
Sharing tab
A

Print permission on the Sharing

tab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Domain 1

Which version of Windows allows one to set up a VPN without having to go through the Network and Sharing Center?
Choices:
Windows 8
Windows 8.1
Windows 7
Windows 10
A

Windows 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Domain 1

Besides a modem and a phone line, what else is needed to establish a dial-up connection with a network?
Choices:
An ISDN line
A phone number from a provider
A coaxial cable
A T1 line
A

A phone number from a provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Domain 1

Which is true about wireless network connections? Choose two answers.
Choices:
The network can be forgotten
The network connection always
uses DHCP to get an IP address
The network connection always
requires a password
The network can be set to connect automatically to it
A

The network connection always
requires a password
The network can be set to connect automatically to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Domain 1

A user wants to know how much configuration will be needed for establishing a wired network connection after plugging a laptop into a router. The router is
giving out IP addresses via DHCP. What should the user have to configure?
Choices:
The DNS server address
The default gateway
Nothing
The DHCP server address

A

Nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Domain 1

Which type of network connects devices to the Internet through mobile hotspots?
Choices:
WWAN
LAN
WAN
WLAN
A

WWAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Domain 1

Which are the two main roles of proxy servers?
Choices:
Cache content
Content filtering
Handle Internet requests
Perform NAT translations
A

Cache content

Handle Internet requests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Domain 1

Which run command opens Remote Desktop Connection?
Choices:
RDC
MSTSC
RD
REMOTE
A

MSTSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Domain 1

In Windows, which type of remote connection allows one to see what the other is doing on a screen?
Choices:
Remote Assistance
VNC
Screen Share
Remote Desktop
A

Remote Assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Domain 1

A user joins a network in an airport. Which choice should a user make when presented with a list of choices in order to best secure the device from the other
devices on the network?
Choices:
Visiting
Work
Private
Public
A

Public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Domain 1

Which are known as firewall exceptions? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Blocking specific ports
Allowing specific ports
Blocking outbound traffic
Allowing inbound traffic
A

Blocking outbound traffic

Allowing inbound traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Domain 1

On a domain, what is used to set the same firewall policy for every device in the domain?
Choices:
Windows Defender Firewall
Windows Firewall with Advanced
Security
Local Security Policy
Group Policy
A

Group Policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Domain 1

Which three types of networks can have separate on and off settings for firewalls in Windows Firewall?
Choices:
Home
Domain
Public
Private
Work
A

Domain
Public
Private

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Domain 1

In these properties for a Wi-Fi adapter, where would one click to start the process of configuring an alternate IP address, subnet mask, DNS address, and
default gateway for the adapter?
Choices:
Client for Microsoft Networks
Configure
Microsoft Network Adapter
Multiplexor Protocol
Internet Protocol Version 4
A

Internet Protocol Version 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Domain 1

What are speed and duplex settings usually set to on a gigabit network card?
Choices:
Auto Negotiation
1 GB Half Duplex
100 MB Half Duplex
1 GB Full Duplex
A

Auto Negotiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Domain 1

Which network card setting must be enabled in order for an administrator to boot a device remotely?
Choices:
Power on LAN
PXE
Wake on LAN
Sleep
A

Wake on LAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Domain 1

What is the primary use for QoS?
Choices:
Prioritizing network cards
Prioritizing network traffic
Prioritizing network services
Prioritizing network devices
A

Prioritizing network traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Domain 1

A junior technician installed a network card onto a PC that already had an on-board network card. The second network card is causing memory conflicts for
both network cards. What is the best way to solve this problem?
Choices:
Disable the on-board network
card in the BIOS
Disable the on-board network
card in Device Manager
Remove the on-board network
card
Change memory settings on both
network cards
A

Disable the on-board network

card in the BIOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Domain 1

Which two tools are used to facilitate backups on a Mac?
Choices:
Time Machine
System Preferences
iTunes
iCloud
A

Time Machine

iCloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Domain 1

Which tool can help create a RAID on a Mac?
Choices:
Disk Management
RAID Maker
System Preferences
Disk Utility
A

Disk Utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Domain 1

Through which app are system updates obtained for a Mac?
Choices:
App Store
Mac Updates
System Preferences
Disk Utility
A

App Store

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Domain 1

Which types of updates are usually obtained automatically on a Mac? Choose two options.
Choices:
System
Patches
Hardware
Firmware
A

System

Patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Domain 1

For antimalware on a Mac, what is the most important task to do with the antimalware?
Choices:
Make sure it can run scans
remotely
Run the app on a weekly basis
Keep the app version updated
Keep the definitions updated
A

Keep the definitions updated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Domain 1

Which Mac tool is used to back up entire hard drives?
Choices:
Time Machine
Backup Pro
iCloud
iTunes
A

Time Machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Domain 1

Which are two ways in which a Mac OS can be restored?
Choices:
iCloud
First Aid
Internet drive
Time Machine
A

Internet drive

Time Machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Domain 1

Which tool performs disk maintenance tasks on a Mac?
Choices:
Disk Management
System Preferences
Disk Utility
First Aid
A

Disk Utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Domain 1

Which is the Mac equivalent of a Windows command prompt?
Choices:
Terminal
Vim
Bash
Grep
A

Terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Domain 1

Which types of devices can a Mac user share a screen with using Screen Sharing?
Choices:
Macs and Windows devices
Macs, Linux, and Windows
devices
Macs
Macs and Linux devices
A

Macs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Domain 1

Which is the Mac equivalent of the End Task feature in Windows?
Choices:
Kill
Force Quit
Task End
Task Kill
A

Force Quit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Domain 1

Which Mac tool is used to support multiple desktops?
Choices:
Screen Sharing
Spotlight
Mission Control
Keychain
A

Mission Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Domain 1

Which Mac tool is used to store passwords and certificates?
Choices:
Spotlight
Password manager
Keylogger
Keychain
A

Keychain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Domain 1

Which Mac tool is used to conduct searches across files, apps, and websites?
Choices:
Finder
Mission Control
Spotlight
Keychain
A

Spotlight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Domain 1

Which app uses an Apple ID to back up and sync files across a user's Mac and Windows devices?
Choices:
Finder
iCloud
Keychain
iTunes
A

iCloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Domain 1

Match the Mac gesture with its action.
Gesture:
Pinch trackpad
Three-finger swipe
Two-finger double tap
Spread three fingers and thumb
Action:
Zoom
Show Desktop
Magnifies text
Swipes between full screen apps
A

Pinch trackpad = Zoom
Three-finger swipe = Swipes between full screen apps
Two-finger double tap = Magnifies text
Spread three fingers and thumb = Show Desktop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Domain 1

Which tool on a Mac helps users to organize files and folders?
Choices:
Finder
File Finder
Explorer
File Explorer
A

Finder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Domain 1

Which would best describe when one needs to use the Remote Disk feature on a Mac?
Choices:
To use someone else's DVD drive
to perform an installation
To access files via iCloud
To restore a Mac OS installation
over the Internet
To access files on a network
share
A

To use someone else’s DVD drive

to perform an installation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Domain 1

On a Mac, which side of the Dock holds open and commonly used apps?
Choices:
Left
Right
Top
Bottom
A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Domain 1

Which app allows for setting up a Mac device to run Windows?
Choices:
Dual Boot
Boot Camp
Virtual PC
Virtual Windows
A

Boot Camp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Domain 1

Which Linux command will list files and folders within a location on a Linux drive?
Choices:
list
dir
show
ls
A

ls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Domain 1

A user runs this command on a Linux device: grep "U*" test.odt. What is the user looking to see as a result?
Choices:
Any file that contains U* in the
test.odt folder
Any word that contains U* in the
test.odt file
Any word that starts with U in the
test.odt file
Any file that starts with U in the
test.odt folder
A

Any word that starts with U in the

test.odt file

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Domain 1

What does the cd command in Linux do when run?
Choices:
Cascade directory
Copy directory
Change directory
Create directory
A

Change directory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Domain 1

Which command turns off a system in Linux?
Choices:
shutdown -R
shutdown -T
shutdown -S
shutdown -P
A

shutdown -P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Domain 1

Which Linux command allows a user to change a password?
Choices:
password
pwd
passwd
set
A

passwd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Domain 1

Which Linux command moves a file from one folder to another?
Choices:
mov
mv
md
move
A

mv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Domain 1

A Linux user wants to copy the test2 file to the testing folder. What should the user type to accomplish this?
Choices:
copytest2 testing
cp test2 testing
cp testing test2
copy testing test2
A

cp test2 testing

195
Q
A Linux user wants to delete the test3 file from the current folder. What should the user type to accomplish this?
Choices:
delete test3
remove test3
rm test3
del test3
A

rm test3

196
Q
A Linux administrator runs the following command: chmod u+rwtest2.odt. What did the administrator accomplish with this command?
Choices:
Set the owner of the test2.odt to
the users group
Set users to have read and write
permissions on the test2.odt file
Set users not to have read and
write permissions on the test2.odt
file
Set users to be able to give read
and write permissions on the
test2.odt file to others
A

Set users to have read and write

permissions on the test2.odt file

197
Q
A Linux administrator wants to make a different administrator an owner of a file. Which command should the administrator run?
Choices:
chmod
chown
owner
sudo
A

chown

198
Q
Which Linux command obtains IP address information for wired NICs on a device?
Choices:
iwconfig
ipconfig
ifconfig
inconfig
A

ifconfig

199
Q
A technician wants to see a list of running processes in the Linux terminal. Which command should the technician run?
Choices:
tasklist
ps
ts
ls
A

ps

200
Q
A user is trying to install a package and getting a message that the installation requires administrative privileges. What should the user add to the command to
be able to run the install package?
Choices:
sudo
elevate
su
admin
A

sudo

201
Q
Which command is used to install packages in Linux?
Choices:
su
install
sudo
apt-get
A

apt-get

202
Q
Which command launches a text editor within Linux?
Choices:
vi
apt-get
notes
notepad
A

vi

203
Q
Which Linux command copies system files and images from one location to another?
Choices:
copy
cp
cd
dd
A

dd

204
Q
In Linux, which command is used to terminate a process?
Choices:
taskkill
kill
end
taskend
A

kill

205
Q

Which type of physical security measure involves a room between two security doors, with the intent of a person who enters the first door in an unauthorized
manner being prevented from going through the second door?
Choices:
Bollard
Mantrap
Faradaycage
Tempest

A

Mantrap

206
Q
Which describes the best place to place a badge reader?
Choices:
Next to a door
Within the view of a physical
security control
Several feet from a door
Within the view of a security guard
A

Within the view of a physical

security control

207
Q
Which best describes what is stored on a chip inside of a smart card?
Choices:
Device information
User information
Authentication information
Authorization information
A

Authentication information

208
Q
Which are roles of security guards? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Serve as an internal deterrent
Act as an external deterrent
Get users escorts if needed
Ensure users provide proper
identification
A

Get users escorts if needed
Ensure users provide proper
identification

209
Q
Which type of lock requires a key combination to be entered in order to be unlocked?
Choices:
Combo lock
Deadbolt lock
Cipher lock
Simple lock
A

Cipher lock

210
Q
What can unlock a biometric lock? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Key
Fingerprint
Combination
Retina
A

Fingerprint

Retina

211
Q
A one-time password token requires one to use what kind of information besides a username and password to log on to a specific location?
Choices:
Key
Fingerprint
Retina
Numeric code
A

Numeric code

212
Q
Which type of equipment is often locked using a cable lock?
Choices:
Servers
Laptops
Ethernet cables
Desktops
A

Laptops

213
Q
Server locks are not just locks but in fact they are mini-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Choices:
racks
closets
cabinets
keychains
A

cabinets

214
Q
Which two purposes do USB locks have?
Choices:
Lock a specific USB device out of
a port
Lock a specific port
Lock all USB ports on a device
Lock a specific USB device in a
port
A

Lock a specific port
Lock a specific USB device in a
port

215
Q
Which infiltration mechanism is effectively blocked through the use of privacy screens?
Choices:
Man-in-the-middle attack
Shoulder surfing
Eavesdropping
Social engineering
A

Shoulder surfing

216
Q
Which type of device is primarily used to access parking garages?
Choices:
Smart card
Key fob
Hardware token
One-time password key
A

Key fob

217
Q
A security guard needs a list of who is allowed to access an area. What is this list called?
Choices:
AUP
ACL
Entry control roster
Authorized personnel
A

Entry control roster

218
Q
Which type of file specifies a map of network drives a user gets when logging on to a domain?
Choices:
Map file
Batch file
Login script
Network mapping file
A

Login script

219
Q
A client/server network which is a set of users, computers, security settings, and policies for an entire group within a company is known as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Choices:
HomeGroup
domain
private network
workgroup
A

domain

220
Q
Which tool is used to control rights and permissions throughout a domain?
Choices:
Administrative Tools
Security Tools
Windows Settings
Group Policy
A

Group Policy

221
Q
What best describes the main benefit of redirecting one's home folder in Active Directory?
Choices:
Save hard disk space on the
server
Setting up folders to be available
offline
Take control of storage and
security of one's files on a network
BranchCaching
A

Take control of storage and

security of one’s files on a network

222
Q
Which best describes a software token?
Choices:
A code sent to a mobile device
that is then needed for
authentication
The ability to visit multiple apps
with a single sign-on
A device with a numeric code that
changes every60 seconds
A certificate
A

A code sent to a mobile device
that is then needed for
authentication

223
Q
Which MDM policy allows for users to use their personal mobile devices on a company network, subject to the company's approval?
Choices:
UYOD
COPE
BYOD
CYOD
A

BYOD

224
Q
Bydefault,which type of traffic should be blocked on a firewall?
Choices:
Inbound
External
Outbound
Internal
A

Inbound

225
Q
When is MAC filtering best used on a wireless network?
Choices:
To allow or deny specific devices
on a network
To limit the number of protocols
which can conduct traffic
To allow or deny specific protocols
on a network
To limit the number of devices on
a network
A

To allow or deny specific devices

on a network

226
Q
What stores keys that encrypt data so that two parties can have a secure exchange of data?
Choices:
CRL
Certificates
RootCAs
Keyescrows
A

Certificates

227
Q
Which is considered to be the most important maintenance task in antimalware software?
Choices:
Running a constant scan on data
Running a scan on a regular
basis
Updating the software on a
regular basis
Updating the definitions on a
regular basis
A

Updating the definitions on a

regular basis

228
Q
Which are the two main ways in which a firewall controls traffic on a network?
Choices:
Ports
Apps
Users
Protocols
A

Ports

Protocols

229
Q
What is the minimum number of characters a password needs in order to be considered a strong password?
Choices:
10
8
7
12
A

8

230
Q
Which is not considered to be multifactor authentication?
Choices:
Password and smart card
Username and smart card
Username and password
Password and biometrics
A

Username and password

231
Q
A user needs to connect to a corporate network from a remote location. The connection needs to be secure. What kind of connection should be set up?
Choices:
RDP
VPN
SSL
SSH
A

VPN

232
Q
What should be set up on a network to prevent confidential data from leaking beyond a network?
Choices:
DLP
Firewall
IPS
IDS
A

DLP

233
Q
A permission list on a device, such as a router, is known as a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Choices:
Rights List
ACL
Entry Control Roster
Exceptions List
A

ACL

234
Q
Which type of security device has a chip that stores user information for proper authentication to a physical area or device?
Choices:
Smart card
Badge
Key fob
Fingerprint reader
A

Smart card

235
Q
For the most efficient email filtering setup in a corporate environment, where should email filters be placed?
Choices:
On email servers
On firewalls
On client machines and email
servers
On client machines
A

On email servers

236
Q
On a Windows device, what does Microsoft consider a trusted source for app installation?
Choices:
PlayStore
Store
Microsoft Store
App Store
A

Microsoft Store

237
Q
Which best describes the principle of least privilege?
Choices:
Users have write permissions on
resources unless otherwise
specified
Users have no permissions on
resources unless otherwise
specified
Users have permissions they
need to perform their job tasks
and no more
Users have read-only
permissions on resources unless
otherwise specified
A

Users have permissions they
need to perform their job tasks
and no more

238
Q
Which wireless encryption protocol should never be used to secure a wireless network?
Choices:
WPA2
WPA
WEP
WPS
A

WEP

239
Q
Which wireless specification does not support TKIP?
Choices:
802.11n
802.11ac
802.11g
802.11a
A

802.11n

240
Q
Which is the most common use of single factor authentication used on wireless networks?
Choices:
None
SSID and password
SSID and username
Username and password
A

SSID and password

241
Q
What is usually needed for multifactor authentication on a wireless network?
Choices:
Biometrics
Hardware token
Authentication server
One-time password key
A

Authentication server

242
Q
A business wants to use the WPA2 Enterprise wireless protocol. In addition to a wireless access point, which type of server can help the business accomplish
this goal? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Authorization server
RADIUS
Network policy server
TACACS+
A

RADIUS

TACACS+

243
Q
Which type of malware steals data and then demands money in order for the data to be returned?
Choices:
Keylogger
Spyware
Trojan
Ransomware
A

Ransomware

244
Q
A user downloaded an app that claimed to be a virus cleaner but in fact renamed a bunch of the user's system files. Which type of malware did the user
obtain?
Choices:
Trojan
Spyware
Worm
Virus
A

Trojan

245
Q
A user claims a machine will not fully boot up. Upon troubleshooting, an administrator discovers that the master boot record has been infected. Which type of
malware hit the machine?
Choices:
Virus
Worm
Trojan
Rootkit
A

Rootkit

246
Q
Which type of attack is common after an attacker steals data using a keylogger?
Choices:
Replay
DoS
Spyware
Man-in-the-middle
A

Replay

247
Q
Which legitimate data sources for websites can be used as spyware?
Choices:
Temp files
Cookies
Local storage
JSON pairs
A

Cookies

248
Q
Which is true about a virus?
Choices:
It can serve as an imposter app
It self-replicates
It often attacks the root of a system
It needs a carrier in order to
propagate
A

It needs a carrier in order to

propagate

249
Q
Which type of malware does not need a carrier in order to propagate through a system?
Choices:
Trojan
Worm
Spyware
Virus
A

Worm

250
Q
A network of zombies carrying out a DDoS attack is known as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Choices:
gremlin
bot herder
botnet
vector
A

botnet

251
Q
In which version of Windows is Windows Defender strictly an antispyware app and not a full-fledged antivirus/antimalware app?
Choices:
Windows 7
Windows 8
Windows 8.1
Windows 10
A

Windows 7

252
Q
Which mode is the best mode to be in to run an antimalware scan if malware is suspected on a device?
Choices:
Windows RE
VGA Mode
Safe Mode
Command prompt
A

Safe Mode

253
Q
In which edition of Windows did File History become the prominent backup and restore tool?
Choices:
Windows 7
Windows 8.1
Windows 8
Windows 10
A

Windows 10

254
Q
Which method of mitigating malware risk is often overlooked but should not be overlooked?
Choices:
IDS
End-user training
IPS
Firewalls
A

End-user training

255
Q
Windows Firewall is known as a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ firewall.
Choices:
host-based
IDS-based
IPS-based
network-based
A

host-based

256
Q
Which DNS feature, when enabled, helps to protect against redirection attacks?
Choices:
Secure DNS
DNSSEC
Zone Protection
DMZ
A

DNSSEC

257
Q
A user shows an administrator an email that attempts to obtain the user's bank account information. Which type of social engineering has taken place?
Choices:
Impersonation
Spear phishing
Phishing
Whaling
A

Phishing

258
Q

The company CEO calls the help desk to explain that an email came through asking for the user’s Social Security number in order to take advantage of an
incredible financing offer. Which type of social engineering has taken place?
Choices:
Phishing
Spear phishing
Impersonation
Whaling

A

Spear phishing

259
Q
Which is the best approach to take to avoid an impersonator entering a secure area of a building?
Choices:
Pretext the visitor
Pair the visitor with an escort
Ask for an ID from the visitor
Have the visitor pre-register
credentials
A

Ask for an ID from the visitor

260
Q
A network attacker is hiding in an air duct and is able to see what an administrator is typing into a server. What form of social engineering is this?
Choices:
Shoulder surfing
Keylogging
Pretexting
Phishing
A

Shoulder surfing

261
Q

At the entrance to a building, an employee swipes a badge and then walks into the building. Before the door can close, another person sneaks into the
building behind the first person. What has taken place?
Choices:
Shoulder surfing
Piggybacking
Mantrapping
Tailgating

A

Tailgating

262
Q
A potential attacker goes into a trash bin looking for confidential information. This act is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Choices:
dumpster searching
dumpster finding
dumpster surfing
dumpster diving
A

dumpster diving

263
Q
Which two types of attacks flood a network with useless data packets, which in effect shut down a network as legitimate traffic cannot get through?
Choices:
Botnet
DoS
DDoS
Zombie
A

DoS

DDoS

264
Q

A user suspects a virus on the network. An administrator discovers that not only is a virus present but the antimalware software being used does not yet have a
fix for that virus. Which type of attack is taking place?
Choices:
DoS
Botnet
DDoS
Zero day

A

Zero day

265
Q
Which type of attack involves intercepting data as it transmits between two parties?
Choices:
Man-in-the-middle
Brute force
DoS
DDoS
A

Man-in-the-middle

266
Q
Which are types of password attacks? Choose two answers.
Choices:
DDoS
Brute force
Rainbowtable
Dictionary
A

Brute force

Dictionary

267
Q

An attacker for a network has a table full of hashes. These hashes are being used to attempt to find matches in a network database in order to crack
passwords. Which type of table is the attacker using?
Choices:
MD5 table
SHAtable
Dictionarytable
Rainbowtable

A

Rainbowtable

268
Q
A user notices a suspicious email from a coworker. Upon further investigation, the email administrator determines that the email did not come from the
coworker. What has taken place?
Choices:
Phishing
Spamming
Impersonation
Spoofing
A

Spoofing

269
Q
Which two aspects of a system are often tested for compliance before being allowed on a network?
Choices:
Apps installed
Antimalware app and definitions
Desktop background
Operating system installed
A

Antimalware app and definitions

Operating system installed

270
Q
A computer has taken over several other computers in a network. These computers are now going to help carryout a DDoS attack. What are these computers
known as during the attack?
Choices:
Botnets
Zombies
Accomplices
Impersonators
A

Zombies

271
Q
On a Windows device, which group of users have complete control over the device?
Choices:
Domain users
Power users
Administrators
Super users
A

Administrators

272
Q
Which best describes permissions power users possess on a Windows device?
Choices:
Permissions granted by
administrators
The ability to control other users'
permissions
Permissions to change other
users' settings
A specific set of permissions
higher than standard users
A

A specific set of permissions

higher than standard users

273
Q
Which is true regarding guest accounts on a Windows device?
Choices:
They can create files in other
users' folders
They can run software that is
already installed
They cannot access the Internet
They can install software
A

They can run software that is

already installed

274
Q
Which is true regarding standard accounts on a Windows device?
Choices:
They can change other users'
usernames
They can change other users'
passwords
They can install software for other
users
They can install software for
themselves
A

They can install software for

themselves

275
Q
The permission principle in which users and groups only receive permissions on resources when permissions are granted is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Choices:
implicit allow
implicit deny
explicit allow
explicit deny
A

implicit deny

276
Q
A user copies a folder called Cases from the C: drive to the D: drive. The default permissions on the C: drive for the Users' group is Read and Write. The
default permissions on the D: drive for the Users' group is Read. Users have Modify permission on the C:\Cases folder. What permission will the users have
on D:\Cases?
Choices:
Read
None
Read and Write
Modify
A

Read

277
Q
Which file attribute sets a file to not be readable by others logging on to the same device?
Choices:
Hidden
Compressed
Archive
Encrypted
A

Encrypted

278
Q
By default, when permissions are set on a drive or folder, what happens to the permissions in any subfolders under that drive or folder?
Choices:
Permissions are reset to empty
Permissions propagate down to
the subfolders
Permissions change back to the
original permissions set on a
system
Permissions stay the same in the
subfolders
A

Permissions propagate down to

the subfolders

279
Q
Take a look at the permissions list on the Tech Notes folder. What is the significance of the gray check mark?
Choices:
Permissions will propagate down
to any subfolders
Permissions are inherited from
the parent folder
Permissions have been explicitly
allowed
Permissions have been explicitly
denied
A

Permissions are inherited from

the parent folder

280
Q
Where are system files and folders kept on a Windows device?
Choices:
C:\system32
C:\windows\system
C:\system
C:\windows\system32
A

C:\windows\system32

281
Q
The help desk is getting an enormous amount of calls of users forgetting their passwords across multiple apps. What can be implemented to help stop this
problem?
Choices:
Weaker passwords
Smart cards
Single sign-on
One-time passwords
A

Single sign-on

282
Q
A junior administrator is trying to run the sfc command via a command prompt but is getting a message indicating that an elevated command prompt is
required. What should the junior administrator do?
Choices:
Run the command prompt as an
administrator
Run the command prompt with
different credentials
Run the command prompt with a
sudo switch
Log on as an administrator and
run the command prompt
A

Run the command prompt as an

administrator

283
Q
A user wants an entire hard drive encrypted on a laptop. Which Windows tool should be used to fulfill this request?
Choices:
EFSToGo
BitLocker
EFS
BitLocker ToGo
A

BitLocker

284
Q
A user wants an external hard drive encrypted. Which Windows tool should be used to fulfill this request?
Choices:
EFS To Go
BitLocker
BitLocker To Go
EFS
A

BitLocker To Go

285
Q
A user wants to make sure no one else logged on to a system can see the data in a specific folder. What can be added to the folder to make this happen?
Choices:
BitLocker To Go
EFS To Go
BitLocker
EFS
A

EFS

286
Q
An administrator wants to force users to log back on after a screen has been idle for a few minutes. What can the administrator set in order to enforce this
wish?
Choices:
Screen saver password
Time out password
Sleep password
Power on password
A

Screen saver password

287
Q
Which two types of passwords are common BIOS passwords?
Choices:
Drive password
Supervisor password
Device password
User password
A

Supervisor password

User password

288
Q
What is required on a device in order for it to receive Remote Desktop connections?
Choices:
A VPN
An open port 80
A password
An IP address on the same
subnet as the connecting device
A

A password

289
Q
Which command is used to set the time ranges a user can log on to a device?
Choices:
net time
net user
net clock
net logon
A

net user

290
Q
Which built-in account should always be disabled unless it is absolutely needed?
Choices:
User
Guest
Power User
Standard
A

Guest

291
Q
Which account policy should be configured if an administrator wants to disable a user account after three consecutive failed logon attempts?
Choices:
Password Policy
Group Policy
Account Lockout Policy
Local Security Policy
A

Account Lockout Policy

292
Q

An administrator notices multiple users are forgetting to lock their screens when walking away from their computers. Which two areas of a device can an
administrator use to set a screen to lock after a certain amount of time?
Choices:
Lockout Policy
Group Policy
Screen Saver
Power Options

A

Screen Saver

Power Options

293
Q
Configuring Administrator Accounts
What should be changed on an administrator account in order to make the account more secure?
Choices:
Username
Grouping
Enabling
Password
A

Password

294
Q
When setting up accounts in Active Directory,which types of accounts are safe to set for a password never expiring?
Choices:
Administrator accounts
User accounts
Service accounts
Guest accounts
A

Administrator accounts

Service accounts

295
Q
When is it safe to delete a user account from Active Directory?
Choices:
Never
When a user leaves a company
When the account needs its
permissions changed
When data is no longer needed
from that account
A

When data is no longer needed

from that account

296
Q
When a user leaves a company,what is the best practice to followwith the user's account?
Choices:
Delete it
Transfer it to someone else
Disable it
Archive it
A

Disable it

297
Q
An administrator wants to lower the risk of having a CD or DVD spread malware within a network. Which two features can an administrator turn off to
accomplish this wish?
Choices:
Autoinstall
Autostart
Autoplay
Autorun
A

Autoplay

298
Q
Which form of encryption is used to encrypt files and folders within Windows?
Choices:
EFS To Go
BitLocker To Go
BitLocker
EFS
A

EFS

299
Q
Which two statements best describe patches?
Choices:
A patch is a feature enhancement
A patch is a feature update
A patch is a fix to a feature that is
notworking
A patch is a fix to a security hole
A

A patch is a fix to a feature that is
notworking
A patch is a fix to a security hole

300
Q
Which mobile device lock is considered to be the least secure lock?
Choices:
Swipe lock
Fingerprint lock
Passcode lock
Face lock
A

Swipe lock

301
Q
Which mobile device lock has security but no biometrics?
Choices:
Fingerprint lock
Swipe lock
Face lock
Passcode lock
A

Passcode lock

302
Q
A user loses a mobile device. Fortunately, the device is tracked and has been found. For security purposes, what should be done with the device next?
Choices:
It should be shut down
It should be disabled
It should be erased
It should be restarted
A

It should be erased

303
Q
What should be installed and enabled on a mobile device in order for the device to be found in case a user loses the device?
Choices:
Locator app
Wipe software
MDM
GPS
A

Locator app

304
Q
Which is the primary backup application used on iOS devices?
Choices:
iTunes
iCloud
iBackup
Time Machine
A

iCloud

305
Q
What is the default setting on many mobile devices after too many consecutive failed logon attempts?
Choices:
The device is disabled
The device shuts down
The device prompts the user for a
new password
The device is wiped
A

The device is wiped

306
Q
Why are Android devices more prone to malware than that of iOS devices?
Choices:
Android is an open source
operating system
Android is a closed operating
system
Android has more app sources
than does iOS
Android has more apps than does
iOS
A

Android is an open source

operating system

307
Q
Which mobile device locks are biometric locks? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Fingerprint lock
Face lock
Passcode lock
Swipe lock
A

Fingerprint lock

Face lock

308
Q
When does full device encryption occur on an iOS device?
Choices:
When the full device encryption
feature is enabled
When a passcode is created
When the Find my iPhone feature
is enabled
When a biometric lock is created
A

When a passcode is created

309
Q
Which is an example of multifactor authentication on a mobile device?
Choices:
Username, password, and
fingerprint
Username and password
Username and PIN
Fingerprint and face reader
A

Username, password, and

fingerprint

310
Q
Which type of applications provide temporary logon codes?
Choices:
Accounting apps
Authenticator apps
Key fob apps
Authorization apps
A

Authenticator apps

311
Q
Which mobile operating system must one jailbreak in order to install apps from untrusted sources?
Choices:
iOS
Android
Chrome OS
Linux
A

iOS

312
Q

A user has obtained an app that allows for controlling which apps move data in and out of a mobile device depending upon the type of connection a device
has. What type of program has the user obtained?
Choices:
IDS
Firewall
Port forwarder
IPS

A

Firewall

313
Q
Which Microsoft tool is used to set and enforce requirements for a BYOD mobile device policy?
Choices:
MDM
SCCM
Azure
Intune
A

Intune

314
Q
Which two tools are effective in destroying a hard drive?
Choices:
Screwdriver
Hammer
Wrench
Drill
A

Hammer

Drill

315
Q
Which best describes the purpose of degaussing a hard drive?
Choices:
Destroys cylinders
Destroys platters
Destroys magnetic data
Destroys the connectors
A

Destroys magnetic data

316
Q
Which are two common methods of destroying paper data?
Choices:
Shredding
Drilling
Incineration
Degaussing
A

Shredding

Incineration

317
Q
What, in theory, proves that data has been destroyed properly?
Choices:
Broken hard drives
Certificate of disposal
Certificate of destruction
Paper shreds
A

Certificate of destruction

318
Q
When is low-level formatting typically done on a hard drive?
Choices:
When the drive needs to be filled
with ones and zeros
When the drive needs to be
degaussed
When the drive is manufactured
When the drive needs to be
erased
A

When the drive is manufactured

319
Q
Which process rids a disk of any remnants of data?
Choices:
Low-level formatting
Degaussing
Overwriting
Shredding
A

Overwriting

320
Q
The process of drive wiping consists of performing multiple \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ on a drive.
Choices:
low-level formats
shreds
standard formats
overwrites
A

overwrites

321
Q
Which part of a wireless access point uniquely identifies a wireless network?
Choices:
Broadcast name
WPS
Serial number
SSID
A

SSID

322
Q
Which is considered to be the strongest encryption one can use to secure a wireless network?
Choices:
TKIP
WPA
WPA2
AES
A

AES

323
Q
What can be done with an SSID to make a wireless network more secure?
Choices:
Disable the broadcast of it
Hide it
Change it
Encrypt it
A

Disable the broadcast of it

324
Q
A technician has a wireless access point to place in a small office in a single-story building. Where should the wireless access point be placed and how
should the antennas be placed?
Choices:
Center of the room with the
antennas set vertically
Near the entrance with the
antennas set horizontally
Center of the room with the
antennas set horizontally
Near the entrance with the
antennas set vertically
A

Center of the room with the

antennas set vertically

325
Q

A single wireless access point is in a building. The owner wants to make sure the signal does not penetrate through to the outside of the building. What can a
technician do to keep the signal with the building?
Choices:
Lower the radio power level of the access point
Point the antennas horizontally
Move the access point to near an
entrance door
Use a 5GHzsignal

A

Lower the radio power level of the access point

326
Q
Which type of attack is possible as a result of using WPS?
Choices:
Rainbow
Man-in-the-middle
Brute force
Dictionary
A

Brute force

327
Q
What information on a wireless access point is easilyobtained through an online search?
Choices:
Default WPSPIN
Default encryption
Default username and password
Default SSID
A

Default username and password

328
Q
A business owner wants to be very precise about which devices are allowed on a SOHO wireless network. Which method of security best fits this request?
Choices:
Lower the radio signal
Disable SSID broadcast
Enable MAC filtering
Only run on the 2.4GHzfrequency
A

Enable MAC filtering

329
Q
Which types of devices should get static IPaddresses on a network? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Client devices
Printers
Servers
Mobile devices
A

Printers

Servers

330
Q
Which type of firewall is sometimes present on wireless access points?
Choices:
IDS-based
IPS-based
Network-based
Host-based
A

Network-based

331
Q

A user wants to use a remote desktop connection to reach a specific device on a company network. If the user is to use the public IP address of the wireless
access point to connect, n so that the connection routes directly to the device?
Choices:
Port triggering
NAT
PAT
Port forwarding

A

Port forwarding

332
Q
On a wireless access point, what should be done with ports that have no specific purpose for traffic?
Choices:
Reassign them
Remove them
Block them
Disable them
A

Disable them

333
Q
What is an administrator most likely to use to filter out websites that should be off-limits to company users?
Choices:
Domains
Keywords
URLs
Proxy servers
A

Keywords

334
Q
What should be checked on a wireless access point occasionally for possible upgrades?
Choices:
Software
Firmware
Encryption
Speeds
A

Firmware

335
Q
Which is the most ideal location for a wireless access point if the wireless signal is to cover an entire room?
Choices:
In the center of the room, near the
ground
On top of a cabinet
In the center of the room, above
the ground
On top of a doorway
A

In the center of the room, above

the ground

336
Q
A user is reporting slow performance on a desktop computer. Where should a technician check first to start to diagnose the problem?
Choices:
Performance Monitor
Task Manager
Windows Memory Diagnostics
Resource Monitor
A

Task Manager

337
Q
Which command should a technician run to attempt to diagnose an intermittent connectivity problem a user is reporting?
Choices:
nslookup
tracert
ping
netstat
A

netstat

338
Q
A user cannot complete a boot to Windows and a technician has ruled out a hardware failure. The technician gets a message that the BOOTMGR is missing.
Which command should the technician run?
Choices:
bootrec /fixmbr
bootrec /fixmgr
bootrec /rebuildcd
bootrec /fixboot
A

bootrec /rebuildcd

339
Q
Upon attempting to boot a Windows device, a user is reporting that a message appears stating that the operating system is missing. What are the two most
likely causes of this problem?
Choices:
A bad Master Boot Record
A missing boot sector
The hard drive has failed
An incomplete Windows
installation
A

A missing boot sector

A bad Master Boot Record

340
Q
A user reports an application keeps crashing. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem?
Choices:
Upgrade the app
Uninstall and reinstall the app
Repair the app installation
Look at the Event Viewer for errors
A

Look at the Event Viewer for errors

341
Q
What do stop errors start with when a BSoD appears?
Choices:
3x
2x
1x
0x
A

0x

342
Q
A user reports a black screen when starting up a computer. A technician has ruled out a hardware issue. What should the technician do next?
Choices:
Reset the monitor resolution
Plug in a different monitor
Change the video card
Reboot into VGA mode or Safe
Mode
A

Reboot into VGA mode or Safe

Mode

343
Q
What type of IP address should printers have?
Choices:
Private
Dynamic
APIPA
Static
A

Static

344
Q
While troubleshooting, a technician notices a service has failed to start. The service is set to start automatically. What should the technician next check for
while in the Services window?
Choices:
If the service is disabled
If there are error messages
present
If a dependency failed to start
If the startup options changed
A

If a dependency failed to start

345
Q
A user claims a device takes forever to boot up. What should the technician look to do first to try to speed up the boot process?
Choices:
Uninstall unnecessary apps
Clear disk space
Reduce the number of apps that
start up
Add RAM
A

Reduce the number of apps that

start up

346
Q
Several users are reporting that a profile is taking too long to load. What can be done on their local devices to attempt to solve this problem? Choose two
answers.
Choices:
Clean out the Cookies folder
Clean out the Startup folder
Point the WAN link at a different
server
Clean out the Temporary Internet
Files folder
A

Clean out the Cookies folder

Clean out the Startup folder

347
Q
A technician had to reboot a frozen system. After the reboot, where should the technician look to try to figure out what caused the system to lock up in the first
place?
Choices:
System log in System Information
Applications log in Event Viewer
Applications log in System
Information
System log in Event Viewer
A

System log in Event Viewer

348
Q
A technician suspects a task is taking up all of a device's CPU. What should the technician use to end the task?
Choices:
Explorer
Task Manager
Resource Monitor
Event Viewer
A

Task Manager

349
Q
ADHCP server is up and running and the IP address pool has plenty of addresses remaining, but users who recently logged on to the network are
complaining about not getting assigned an IP address. What should the technician do first to try to solve the problem?
Choices:
Have the users reboot their
machines
End all current IP address leases
Restart the DHCP server
Restart the DHCP service
A

Restart the DHCP service

350
Q
A technician needs to reinstall Windows on a device but wants to keep a user's personal files on the device. The technician will be using a previously saved
image as a source for the new installation. What should the technician do with the user's files?
Choices:
Run the install and just fix the bad
system files
Back them up
Run the install and choose the
upgrade option
Leave them and use the Reset
option when reinstalling Windows
A

Back them up

351
Q
A user is reporting that the latest Windows Update on a device is causing instability on the device. What should a technician do first to attempt to solve the
problem?
Choices:
Uninstall the latest update
Reinstall Windows
Look for another update
Reset Windows
A

Uninstall the latest update

352
Q
A user is reporting that a driver update to a video card is causing display problems on a device. Where can a technician go to roll back a driver update?
Choices:
Programs and Features
Computer Management
Device Manager
System Information
A

Device Manager

353
Q
Which updates are considered to be the most important updates to apply on a device?
Choices:
Firmware updates
Security updates
Driver updates
Feature updates
A

Security updates

354
Q
Where in the Control Panel can one go to attempt to repair an app installation?
Choices:
Programs and Features
Apps
Default Apps
Settings
A

Programs and Features

355
Q
Where on a system should a technician go in order to change the boot order on a device?
Choices:
Safe Mode
Task Manager
Msconfig
BIOS
A

BIOS

356
Q
In Windows 10, which tool is used to disable an application from starting up?
Choices:
Programs and Features
Msconfig
Services
Task Manager
A

Task Manager

357
Q
A technician needs to reboot a device into Safe Mode in order to run a malware scan. Which tool can the technician use to set this while Windows is running?
Choices:
Windows RE
Msconfig
Windows PE
Task Manager
A

Msconfig

358
Q
A user reports that a message indicating a user profile cannot be loaded when a system starts up. What should a technician do to solve this problem?
Choices:
Restore a backup of the user
profile
Rebuild the user account
Reset Windows
Rebuild the user profile
A

Rebuild the user profile

359
Q
Where can a technician ensure, in Internet Options, that pop-ups are being blocked?
Choices:
Security tab
Connections tab
Advanced tab
Privacy tab
A

Privacy tab

360
Q
Users are complaining that when attempting to navigate to one website, they get redirected to another website. What has most likely been compromised?
Choices:
A DNS server
The users' homepage settings
The default gateway
A DHCP server
A

A DNS server

361
Q
A user is claiming that an antimalware app is frequently popping up with security alerts. Where should a technician look to see if these alerts are legitimate?
Choices:
Event Viewer
The antimalware app's log
The antimalware app's website
The antimalware app's history
A

Event Viewer

362
Q
A user is reporting that the user's PC performance is suffering a significant slowdown. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem?
Choices:
Look at System Configuration
Run the antimalware app on the
user's PC
Look at Task Manager
Boot into Safe Mode
A

Look at Task Manager

363
Q
Which command can check a network card for any abnormalities in network connections?
Choices:
route
ipconfig /all
tracert
ping
A

ipconfig /all

364
Q
A user reports that a PC keeps locking up. The Event Viewer is not presenting any consistent reasons for the lockups. What should an administrator start
monitoring?
Choices:
Resource manager
PC temperature
Apps running
Device manager
A

PC temperature

365
Q
A user reports that an app keeps crashing. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem?
Choices:
Upgrade the app
Reinstall the app
Check the log in the app folder
Check the Event Viewer
A

Check the Event Viewer

366
Q
A Windows Update has failed multiple times on a device. What should a technician do next to try to get the update to work?
Choices:
Run the update manually
Run the update troubleshooter
Delete the update and download it
again
Wait for the next update to come
out
A

Run the update troubleshooter

367
Q
A rogue antivirus app is technically which form of malware?
Choices:
Trojan horse
Spyware
Virus
Worm
A

Trojan horse

368
Q
Which best defines spam?
Choices:
Unwanted email
Unwanted IM messages
Unwanted voicemail
Unwanted SMS messages
A

Unwanted email

369
Q
Which three events on a system indicate probable malware and a need to rerun the Windows installation process?
Choices:
File permission changes
Spam
Disappearing files
Pop-up ads
Renamed system files
A

Disappearing files
Pop-up ads
Renamed system files

370
Q
A user is getting a Run DLL Access Denied error message randomly on a device. What is likely happening on the device?
Choices:
Permissions are being denied for
an app action
The UAC is notworking on the
device
Malware is trying to install
something on the device
An app needs to be reinstalled
A

Malware is trying to install

something on the device

371
Q
A user is being informed that a certificate used for conducting transactions has expired. What should be done to rectify the problem?
Choices:
The user should renew the current
certificate
The user should obtain a new
certificate
The user should generate a new
certificate
The user should extend the
current certificate
A
372
Q
Where are system and application logs kept on a Windows device?
Choices:
System Information
Event Viewer
Computer Management
Device Manager
A

Event Viewer

373
Q
Place the steps for malware removal in the proper order.
Choices:
Remediate the infected systems
Quarantine the infected systems
Disable System Restore
Enable System Restore and
create a restore point
Educate the end user
Schedule scans and run updates
Identify and research malware
symptoms
A
1. Identify and research malware
symptoms
2. Quarantine the infected systems
3. Disable System Restore
4. Remediate the infected systems
5. Schedule scans and run updates
6. Enable System Restore and
create a restore point
7. Educate the end user
374
Q
A technician has determined that malware is present on a device. What should the technician do next?
Choices:
Disable System Restore
Remediate the infected system
Update the antimalware software
Quarantine the infected system
A

Quarantine the infected system

375
Q
Why is it important to disable System Restore before remediating a system from malware?
Choices:
This quarantines the system
This prevents the system from
rolling back to a point where
malware maybe present
System Restore needs a network
connection
This speeds up the remediation
process
A

This prevents the system from
rolling back to a point where
malware maybe present

376
Q
A system has had System Restore disabled and a technician is ready to begin the process of remediation from malware. What should the technician do first?
Choices:
Update the antimalware software
Upgrade the antimalware
software
Boot into Safe Mode
Boot into Windows PE
A

Update the antimalware software

377
Q
What is the recommended state of Windows for running an antimalware scan if a system has been found to have malware?
Choices:
Windows PE
Windows RE
Safe Mode
Normal Mode
A

Safe Mode

378
Q
What should be done in System Restore after a device has been remediated from malware? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Create a restore point
Enable System Restore
Clear all restore points
Disable System Restore
A
379
Q
A user brings a technician a tablet that has a very dim display. What should the technician do first to troubleshoot the problem?
Choices:
Restart the tablet
Increase the display contrast
Increase the display brightness
Move the tablet to a brighter area
A

Increase the display brightness

380
Q
A user is complaining about a wireless connection that keeps going in and out. What is the most likely cause of this?
Choices:
Oversaturation of bandwidth
Being on an incorrect wireless
frequency
Interference from other devices
Being too far from a warless
access point
A

Interference from other devices

381
Q
A user is stating that a device cannot get a wireless connection. What should a technician do first to diagnose the problem?
Choices:
Reboot the user's device
See if others can connect to the
wireless access point
Try to connect to the wireless
access point
Reboot the default gateway
A

See if others can connect to the

wireless access point

382
Q
A user cannot pair two devices that have previously been paired using Bluetooth. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem?
Choices:
Restart both of the devices
Ensure that the two devices are
within 30 feet of each other
Ensure Bluetooth is running on
both devices
Re-pair the devices
A

Ensure Bluetooth is running on

both devices

383
Q
A user has a Windows laptop that is not projecting to an external monitor. Which two possible solutions can a technician try first to solve the problem?
Choices:
Plug in a different monitor
Replace the video card on the
laptop
Use the Windows logo + Pkey
combination to cycle through the
different display combinations
Use the toggle button on the
laptop keyboard to toggle through the different display combinations
A
Use the Windows logo + Pkey
combination to cycle through the
different display combinations
Use the toggle button on the
laptop keyboard to toggle through the different display combinations
384
Q
A user is stating that a touch screen on a tablet has become unresponsive. What should a technician do first to try to solve the problem?
Choices:
Calibrate the screen
Force a restart on the tablet
Reset the tablet
If a covering is on the screen,
remove it
A

If a covering is on the screen,

remove it

385
Q
A user is claiming that an app on a mobile device is not loading properly. What should a technician do first to try to rectify the issue?
Choices:
Update the app
Clear the app cache
Do a force stop on the app
Uninstall and reinstall the app
A

Do a force stop on the app

386
Q
A user is reporting that a mobile device that usually runs quickly is now running slowly. What should a technician do first to try to get the device to run at a faster
speed?
Choices:
Switch to Wi-Fi only
Switch to cellular data
Uninstall unnecessary apps
Close unnecessary apps
A

Close unnecessary apps

387
Q
What is needed on a mobile device in order to decrypt encrypted email?
Choices:
A signature
A passcode
A certificate
A PIN
A

A certificate

388
Q
Which are two ways to preserve battery life on a mobile device?
Choices:
Set the brightness to use
automatic brightness
Make sure the device is holding a
charge
Use cellular data as much as
possible
Use location services only on
apps that need to use the feature
A
389
Q
A user's mobile device is overheating. What should be done with the device to cool it off? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Put the device in a fridge
Replace the battery
Turn off the automatic brightness
setting
Remove the protective case
temporarily
A

Turn off the automatic brightness
setting
Remove the protective case
temporarily

390
Q
A user brings a technician a mobile device that is frozen. Which two steps should a technician try first to attempt to fix the problem?
Choices:
Pull the battery out and then put it
back in
Perform a soft reset
Replace the battery
Perform a hard reset
A

Pull the battery out and then put it
back in
Perform a soft reset

391
Q
A user is claiming that a mobile device has no sound going through its speakers. What should a technician check first?
Choices:
Bluetooth volume
Ringer settings
Speaker volume
App settings
A

Speaker volume

392
Q
A user is claiming that the touch screen on a mobile device is inaccurate to the touch. What should be done first on the device in order to attempt to fix the
issue?
Choices:
Plug in a mouse
Install a calibration app
Reset the device
Perform a soft reset
A

Install a calibration app

393
Q
A user reports that a system lockout has occurred on the user's mobile device. What is the most likely cause of the system lockout?
Choices:
User tried to do a hard reset
The device was reported as
missing
User forgot a passcode too many
times
User tried to do a soft reset
A

User forgot a passcode too many

times

394
Q
What is typically needed to view app log errors from an iOS or Android device?
Choices:
A log cloud service
A rooted device
A mobile app that reads logs
A desktop or laptop
A

A desktop or laptop

395
Q
Which device can a business obtain if thick walls in a building are causing cellular signals to be weak?
Choices:
Switch
Bridge
Router
Repeater
A

Repeater

396
Q
Which are two ways in which a user can avoid a fast drain of power on a mobile device?
Choices:
Use cellular data as much as
possible
Put the device in airplane mode
when possible
Use Wi-Fi as much as possible
Close apps that are not needed
A

Use Wi-Fi as much as possible

Close apps that are not needed

397
Q
A user is experiencing a slowdown of speed on a mobile device's cellular connection in an area in which speeds are usually fast. The Wi-Fi connection
speeds are fine. What can cause this problem?
Choices:
The wireless connection is taking
up the overall bandwidth
A nearby tower is down
The user exceeded the data plan
for the device
The user is in a heavy traffic area
A

The user exceeded the data plan

for the device

398
Q
On this iPad, which setting controls whether or not this device will have unintended Wi-Fi connections?
Choices:
The info icon next to LearnKey5
Control Center
Ask to Join Networks
General
A

Ask to Join Networks

399
Q
Which is the best way to avoid unintended Bluetooth pairings?
Choices:
Put Bluetooth in private mode
Change the discoverable setting
to off
Change the name of the device
Turn Bluetooth off if not using it
A

Turn Bluetooth off if not using it

400
Q
What can a user on a mobile device do to protect data being sent to and from the cloud?
Choices:
Use encryption
Add a hash to the data
Use a VPN
Add a digital signature to the data
A

Use encryption

401
Q
What usually happens when a user exceeds a monthly data plan on a mobile device?
Choices:
Cellular data service is turned off
Personal hotspots are turned off
Data is throttled for the remainder
of the billing period
Extra charges are incurred
A

Data is throttled for the remainder

of the billing period

402
Q
If a user suspects that someone has gotten ahold of the account used on a mobile device, what should the user do right away?
Choices:
Change the account being used
on the mobile device
Enable multifactor authentication
on the mobile device
Wipe the device
Change the password for the
account being used on the mobile
device
A

Change the password for the
account being used on the mobile
device

403
Q
Which is an efficient way of avoiding unauthorized location tracking on a mobile device?
Choices:
Enable location tracking only while
the device is moving
Enable location tracking only
when the device is away from the
home location
Turn off location tracking
Turn off location tracking for apps
to where one does not need
location tracking
A

Turn off location tracking for apps
to where one does not need
location tracking

404
Q
Which is the best way to avoid unauthorized camera and microphone use on a mobile device?
Choices:
Turn off the two features for apps
that do not need them
Turn the mic volume all the way
down
Turn off the two features unless
they are absolutely needed
Turn the camera brightness all the
way off
A

Turn off the two features for apps

that do not need them

405
Q
On an iPad, what cannot be checked for usage without a third-party app?
Choices:
Apps that use cellular data
RAM usage
Running apps
Storage usage
A

RAM usage

406
Q
Which two types of network diagrams are best suited for explaining the overall infrastructure of a network?
Choices:
Public
Private
Logical
Physical
A

Logical

Physical

407
Q
What should businesses build up to use to help solve end-user problems?
Choices:
Compliance documentation
Knowledge base
Incident documentation
Network topology
A

Knowledge base

408
Q
Which best describes incident documentation?
Choices:
Documenting help desk tickets
Documenting security breaches
Documenting customer
interactions
Documenting knowledge base
entries
A
409
Q
Which best describes the difference between a regulatory policy and a compliance policy?
Choices:
A compliance policy follows
recommended courses of action
A regulatory policy is more specific
and a compliance policy is more
comprehensive
A regulatory policy is more
comprehensive and a compliance
policy is more specific
A compliance policy follows official
legal standards
A

A regulatory policy is more specific
and a compliance policy is more
comprehensive

410
Q
Which document governs the use of the devices within a company?
Choices:
PII
MSDS
GDPR
AUP
A

AUP

411
Q
Which items should be included in a password policy? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Password length rules
Password hash techniques
Password attack prevention
techniques
Password complexity rules
A

Password length rules

Password complexity rules

412
Q
Which are the two most common methods used on devices to manage a company's IT inventory?
Choices:
Excel documents
Asset tags
Lease tags
Barcodes
A

Asset tags

Barcodes

413
Q
Which document is needed throughout the process of managing change in an IT infrastructure?
Choices:
Change management form
Change control form
Change approval form
Change request form
A

Change control form

414
Q
Which part of the change management process is absolutely vital to seeing if a change is worth making?
Choices:
Risk analysis
Purpose
Process
Scope
A

Purpose

415
Q
Which best defines scope creep on a project?
Choices:
Unauthorized deletions from the
scope
Unauthorized budgeting for the
scope
Unauthorized additions to the
scope
Unauthorized changes to the
scope
A

Unauthorized changes to the

scope

416
Q
Which type of risk analysis establishes an amount of lost time or lost money should a risk become reality?
Choices:
Monetary risk analysis
Value risk analysis
Qualitative risk analysis
Quantitative risk analysis
A

Quantitative risk analysis

417
Q
What do end users need to know in a change management plan?
Choices:
The time it will take to plan the
change
The effect the change will have on
them
The amount a project will cost
The time it will take to design the
change
A

The effect the change will have on them

418
Q
From which group of people must a project manager get acceptance as part of change management?
Choices:
Management
End users
Owners
Stakeholders
A

End users

419
Q
Which group of people evaluate a change request, weigh its merits, help with risk analysis, and ultimately decide whether a change goes forward?
Choices:
Upper management
Change control board
End-users
Project managers
A

Change control board

420
Q
What is needed as part of a change control process to address the possible failure of a change?
Choices:
A backout plan
A contingency plan
A contingency budget
A scope change request process
A

A backout plan

421
Q
Which types of software are usually used to document changes as they are taking place in the context of a project? Choose two answers.
Choices:
OneNote files
Databases
Project management software
Word documents
A

Databases

Project management software

422
Q
Which tool is used on a Windows 10 device to create a system image for backup purposes?
Choices:
Backup and Restore
File History
System Restore
Image Backup
A

Backup and Restore

423
Q
Where is the best place to have backups of critical applications in case they are needed for disaster recovery?
Choices:
On a system image
In the cloud
On an external drive
On a network share
A
424
Q
Which is the most efficient way to test a backup to make sure it is working?
Choices:
Delete a file and then perform a
restore
Check the date of the last backup
Attempt to restore files from the
backup
Write files directly to the backup
drive
A
425
Q
Which best describes the use of a UPS?
Choices:
A short-term solution for a power
outage
A protector against brownouts
A protector against surges and
spikes
A long-term solution for a power
outage
A

A short-term solution for a power

outage

426
Q
What do surge protectors protect against besides surges?
Choices:
Brownouts
Spikes
Grounding issues
Blackouts
A

Spikes

427
Q
Which are options for both local and cloud storage? Choose two answers.
Choices:
BranchCache
OneDrive
SyncCenter
Dropbox
A

OneDrive

Dropbox

428
Q
A domain administrator needs to recover data from a deleted account, which has been backed up in Active Directory. Which tool should the administrator use
to restore the account data?
Choices:
The ntdsutil command
File History
Backup and Restore
The adbackup command
A

The ntdsutil command

429
Q
Which type of equipment should one never attempt to repair?
Choices:
Hard drive
DC jack
Power supply
Motherboard
A

Power supply

430
Q
What should a video card be stored in if it is not in a machine?
Choices:
ESD bag
Styrofoam case
Antistatic bag
Faraday bag
A

Antistatic bag

431
Q
Which two devices can help a technician avoid electrostatic discharge while working on a device?
Choices:
ESD strap
ESD foam
ESD mat
ESD bag
A

ESD strap

ESD mat

432
Q
Which best describes the act of self-grounding while working on the inside of a computer?
Choices:
Stand on an ESD mat
Touch metal in the case
occasionally
Sit on an ESD mat
Touch the outside of the case
occasionally
A

Touch metal in the case

occasionally

433
Q
Which three objects should never be thrown away as they have dangerous chemicals in them?
Choices:
CRTs
Toner
Paper
Batteries
Trash cans
A

CRTs
Toner
Batteries

434
Q

An administrator is going to take old cell phones and tablets to a company’s cell phone carrier for the purpose of recycling the devices. What should be done
with the devices before the yare brought back for recycling?
Choices:
Destroy them
Restore these to factory settings
Remove the batteries
Remove the SIM cards

A

Restore these to factory settings

435
Q
What should absolutely be done with a PC before attempting to repair it?
Choices:
Ground the case
Unplug it
Power it off
Remove the power supply
A

Unplug it

436
Q
What should not be worn while working on a PC? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Rings
Neckties
Dangling jewelry
Flannel shirts
A
437
Q
Which statements regarding lifting heavy objects are true? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Lift with your legs
Lift with your arms
Use a cart when needed
It is okay to lift something very
heavy if lifting properly
A

Lift with your legs

Use a cart when needed

438
Q
Which label should be on a fire extinguisher in order for it to be used on electrical fires?
Choices:
A
B
D
C
A

C

439
Q
How many power strips are acceptable for use for daisy chaining?
Choices:
0
4
2
3
A

0

440
Q
Which two devices should be used for working with either sharp objects or objects that emit an odor?
Choices:
Gloves
Air filter mask
Safety goggles
Earplugs
A

Air filter mask

Safety goggles

441
Q
Which document should be provided for every potentially hazardous material on company premises?
Choices:
MSDS
PSDS
MUP
AUP
A

MSDS

442
Q
What is the ideal humidity percentage in a server room?
Choices:
20%
35%
50%
65%
A

50%

443
Q
Which device is a short-term power solution in case of a blackout?
Choices:
Generator
Surge suppressor
UPS
Surge protector
A

UPS

444
Q
What is the main role of a surge suppressor?
Choices:
Protect against sags
Protect against short-term power
bursts
Protect against sharp increases in
voltage
Protect against brownouts
A
445
Q
Which two items, when placed in working areas, can help protect the areas from airborne particles?
Choices:
Air filters
Cooling fans
Air masks
Enclosures
A

Air filters

Enclosures

446
Q
Which two items can help keep computers and other equipment free from dust and debris?
Choices:
Cleaning solvents
Compressed air cans
ESD vacuums
Cloths
A

Compressed air cans

ESD vacuums

447
Q
What is the most important aspect of safety procedures to follow when working with equipment and disposing of toxic material?
Choices:
Compliance with OSHA
Compliance with government
regulations
Compliance with MSDS sheets
Compliance with manufacturer
standards
A

Compliance with government

regulations

448
Q
Which is the first step in an incident response process?
Choices:
Start a chain of custody
Send a report to the CIO
Identify whether an incident took
place
Preserve data related to the
incident
A

Identify whether an incident took

place

449
Q
An incident response specialist has determined that a security breach has taken place. Which are the next two steps in the incident response process?
Choices:
Call law enforcement
Start a chain of custody
Report the incident to the proper
authorities
Preserve data related to the
incident
A
450
Q
Which document proves that evidence has been properly monitored during an incident response process?
Choices:
Chain of custody
Evidential gathering
Certificate of custody
AUP
A

Chain of custody

451
Q
Which statements are true regarding open source and commercial licenses? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Open source licenses are
common in Linux
Open source licenses are always
enterprise licenses
Commercial licenses are always
personal licenses
Commercial licenses have strict
rules as to how the licenses can
be used
A
Commercial licenses have strict
rules as to how the licenses can
be used
Open source licenses are
common in Linux
452
Q
Which is true regarding personal and enterprise licenses? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Personal licenses are always
limited to a set number of
installations
Enterprise licenses often have
more features than that of
personal licenses
Personal licenses are always
limited to a single device per
person
Enterprise licenses always have a
limit as to how many devices are
included in the license
A
453
Q
A person's address, vehicle information, and Social Security number are all examples of which type of information?
Choices:
PHI
PEI
PCI
SPI
A

SPI

454
Q
Which standards apply to businesses that accept debit cards, credit cards, and ATM cards for payments?
Choices:
PCIDSS
GDPR
PII
GLB
A

PCIDSS

455
Q
From where does GDPR originate?
Choices:
Asia
North America
EU
Africa
A

EU

456
Q
Which act does PHI apply to?
Choices:
Sarbanes-Oxley
GLB
GDPR
HIPAA
A

HIPAA

457
Q
Who is ultimately responsible for security within a corporate infrastructure?
Choices:
IT
Everyone
Upper management
CTO
A

Everyone

458
Q
A technician is going to increase the RAM from 4GBto 8GBin a customer's system. What is the best statement a technician could use to explain this to a
customer?
Choices:
I'm going to double the memory in
your computer
Your computer will be able to
process instructions twice as fast
as before
I'm going to install 8GBof
PC12800 triple-channel memory
I'm going to fill your empty RAM
slot with 4GBofRAM
A

I’m going to double the memory in your computer

459
Q
A customer brings in a Mac and wants a Blu-ray drive installed. A technician is not familiar with how this is done on a Mac, but another technician is. What
should the technician tell the customer?
Choices:
Come back when the Mac tech is
here
There is a Mac store down the
street
I don't really work on Macs
I don't work on Macs much, but I
know someone who does and
between the two of us, we will get
this done
A

I don’t work on Macs much, but I
know someone who does and
between the two of us, we will get
this done

460
Q
Which best describes active listening?
Choices:
Getting closer to the person so
that one can hear the person
Interrupting someone for
clarification
Asking a lot of questions
Letting someone finish a thought
A

Letting someone finish a thought

461
Q
A technician is working on a computer for a doctor. How should the technician address the doctor when talking to the doctor?
Choices:
Dr. and the last name
Mr., Ms., Miss, or Mrs. and the
name
Using a nickname
On a first-name basis
A

Dr. and the last name

462
Q
A technician is stuck on a house call and is going to be late for the next appointment, a small business. What should the technician do?
Choices:
Call the small business to let
them know the technician will be
late
Nothing. Business as usual
Leave the house call, take care of
the small business, and come
back to the house call
Apologize to the small business
when the technician gets there
A

Call the small business to let
them know the technician will be
late

463
Q
Which are types of distractions that should be avoided while dealing with customers? Choose three answers.
Choices:
Looking for parts for a customer
Texting
Personal calls and interruptions
Talking to coworkers
Looking up solutions online
A

Texting
Personal calls and interruptions
Talking to coworkers

464
Q
Which is the best technique to use when dealing with an argumentative customer?
Choices:
Point out where the customer is
wrong
Use a soft voice
Argue back
Be firm but point out facts
A

Use a soft voice

465
Q
What two aspects of conversation should a technician avoid when dealing with customer problems?
Choices:
Drawing information out from the
customer
Dismissing the customer
problems
Being judgmental
Setting customer expectations
A
466
Q
Which types of questions are the best types of questions to ask customers when trying to ascertain a problem?
Choices:
Closed-ended questions
Open-ended questions
Yes/no questions
Multiple choice questions
A

Open-ended questions

467
Q
Where should one never disclose experiences with customers?
Choices:
To social media
To other coworkers
To an internal website
To an internal tracking app
A

To social media

468
Q
A technician tells a customer that 16 GB of RAM will be added to a device. Then, the technician realizes that only 8 GB of RAM is possible as the device is older.
What should the technician tell the customer?
Choices:
Apologize but explain the the
device can only hold 8 GB more of RAM and add a complimentary
extra service
The customer should get a new
device
The technician can only put an
additional 8 GB of RAM in the
device
Apologize but explain that no RAM
can be added to the device
A

Apologize but explain the the
device can only hold 8 GB more of RAM and add a complimentary
extra service

469
Q
Which are considered best practices for customer service at the end of a transaction and after the transaction? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Ask the customer to post an
online review
Follow up with the customer's
supervisor a few days later
Follow up with the customer a few
days later
Provide detailed documentation
for services provided
A

Provide detailed documentation
for services provided
Follow up with the customer a few
days later

470
Q
What should a technician do with confidential data at a client site if the data is easy to see?
Choices:
Avoid looking at the data
Let the client know the data was
seen
Ask the client to move the data
Report to a supervisor that the
data was seen
A

Ask the client to move the data

471
Q
Which type of script file is used in command prompts and for logon scripts and is built in Notepad?
Choices:
.vbs
.ps1
.sh
.bat
A

.bat

472
Q
Which type of script perform actions through distinct verb-noun commands?
Choices:
.bat
.ps1
.sh
.vbs
A

.ps1

473
Q
Which type of script file is often used to run Windows processes?
Choices:
.vbs
.sh
.bat
.ps1
A

.vbs

474
Q
Which type of script file is the Linux equivalent of a batch file in Windows?
Choices:
.py
.bash
.sh
.vim
A

.sh

475
Q
Which type of script file is used in conjunction with a multipurpose object-oriented programming language?
Choices:
.py
.bat
.js
.ps1
A

.py

476
Q
Which type of script file represents an object-oriented programming language used mainly on webpages?
Choices:
.bash
.py
.js
.ps1
A

.js

477
Q

What are the two main purposes for comments in code?
Choices:
To help explain code
To help test code
To indicate what language code is
in
To tell a server-side engine how to process code

A

To help explain code

To help test code

478
Q
Which best describes, in programming terms, a loop?
Choices:
A set of instructions that repeats
once
A conditional statement
A test of code, followed byrunning
code in production
A block of code runs a set number of times
A

A block of code runs a set number of times

479
Q
Programming statements such as x= 5 and y= 7 are examples of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Choices:
strings
variables
integers
Booleans
A

variables

480
Q
Which is true about integers and strings in programming? Choose two answers.
Choices:
Integers are set inside of
quotation marks
Integers are whole numbers
Numbers in strings can be used
in calculations
Strings can be whole numbers
A

Strings can be whole numbers

Integers are whole numbers

481
Q
On which port does RDP run?
Choices:
3389
636
389
1024
A

3389

482
Q
Which port uses SSH to connect one device to another?
Choices:
21
22
23
20
A

22

483
Q
Which is an example of an app that does both screen sharing and file sharing?
Choices:
Skype for Business
Remote Desktop
SSH
PuTTY
A

Skype for Business

484
Q
Why should Telnet not be used to connect one device to another?
Choices:
It is not secure
It sends data in plaintext
It only works in half duplex
It is an outdated connection
method
A

It is not secure