9) Metabolic Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Essential elements of communication in medical encounters: the Kalamazoo Consensus statement

A

(1) Build the doctor-patient relationship
(2) Open the discussion
(3) Gather information
(4) Understand the patient’s perspective
(5) Share information
(6) Reach agreement on problems and plans
(7) Provide closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Metabolic diseases

A
  • Fibromyalgia
  • Paget’s disease
  • Osteoporosis
  • Osteomalacia and Rickets
  • Hyperparathyroidism and renal osteodystrophy
  • Acromegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fibromyalgia high-yield facts

A
  • Etiology unknown
  • Fatigue likely from sleep disturbance
  • 90% female, 20 to 60 years
  • Diagnosis with clinical examination
  • Currently no specific diagnostic laboratory test or biomarker available for diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fibromyalgia treatment

A
  • Patient education
  • Antidepressants
  • Sleep modification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fibromyalgia host factors

A
  • Female predominance 9:1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fibromyalgia disease process

A
  • Poorly understood

- Not inflammatory in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fibromyalgia symptoms

A
  • Widespread pain above and below the waist on both sides of the body
  • Associated with stiffness, fatigue, and sleep disturbance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fibromyalgia physical exam

A
  • Presence of 11 or more of 18 tender point sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fibromyalgia associated features

A
  • Irritable bowel syndrome
  • Tension headaches
  • Paresthesias
  • Sensation of swollen hands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fibromyalgia laboratory tests

A
  • Normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
  • Complete blood count (CBC)
  • Chemistries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fibromyalgia tender point sites (bilateral)

A
  • Occiput (suboccipital muscle insertion)
  • Low cervical (anterior intertransverse spaces C5-7)
  • Trapezius (midpoint of upper border)
  • Supraspinatus (midpoint of upper border)
  • Second rib (2nd costochondral jxn, just lateral to jxns on upper surfaces)
  • Lateral epicondyle (2cm distal to epicondyles)
  • Gluteal (upper outer quadrants in anterior fold os muscle)
  • Greater trochanter (posterior to trochanteric prominence)
  • Knee (medial fat pas proximal to joint line)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Digital palpation for tender points in fibromyalgia should be performed with an approximate force of

A
  • Four kilograms

- Patient must state palpation was painful to a tender point to be considered “positive”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of fibromyalgia

A
  • Patient education
  • Psychosocial support
  • ID and minimize stress factors
  • Moderate exercise (avoid overexertion)
  • Relaxation techniques to avoid muscle tension
  • Avoid long-term analgesics
  • Enhance restorative sleep (low-dose antidepressants)
  • Increase general fitness and health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Examples of antidepressants that cant be used in fibromyalgia management

A
  • Tricyclics (such as Amitriptyline)

- Pregabalin (Lyrica)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sleep management in rheumatic disease

A
  • Sleep hygiene
  • Behavior therapy
  • Pharmacotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Paget’s Disease high-yield facts

A
  • Etiology unknown
  • 15-30% have family history of the disease
  • Prevalence is high in the United States, Australia, and New Zealand, but the disease is rare in Asia
  • Occurs in 1-3% of patients over the age of 45
  • Abnormal bone resorption and new bone formation (pain and fractures; misshapen bones)
  • Have elevated alkaline phosphatase blood levels
  • Most patients require no treatment; clinical therapeutics depends on symptomotology
  • Typically localized (effects one or a few bones) versus osteoporosis which is usually generalized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Treatment for Paget’s Disease

A
  • No cure
  • Symptoms are treated with bisphosphonates (i.e. Fosamax)
    and calcitonin
    (a hormone that lowers calcium and phosphate concentrations in plasma and inhibits bone resorption)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tumor-like conditions of bone

A
  • Paget’s disease – a lytic lesion of bone; a condition probably of viral origin
  • The pseudocyst is accentuated by the increased density of the trabeculae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • Decreased bone mass (brittle bone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Osteomalacia

A
  • Decreased bone mineralization (soft bone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Osteopetrosis

A
  • Hard bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Osteopenia

A
  • Radiographic term that describes decreased bone density
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Causes of generalized osteoporosis

A
  • Aging (accelerated in women because decreased estrogen production following menopause)
  • Steroids
  • Heparin (i.e. osteonecrosis)
  • Malnutrition
  • Hyperparathyroidism and other endocrine abnormalities
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta (congenital; “brittle bone disease”; Blue sclerae)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Causes of focal osteoporosis

A
  • Disuse (e.g. after trauma or due to paralysis)
  • Osteomyelitis
  • RSD
  • Tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Management of osteoporosis (physical therapy)

A
  • Brace for acute pain management
  • Elevate gait and balance, provide assistive devices if necessary
  • Weight-bearing exercise, fall techniques
  • Back protection, lifting restrictions
  • Improve balance, muscle strength, and tone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Muscles to focus on strengthening in osteoporosis

A
  • Paraspinal muscle stretching and strengthening

- Pelvic girdle and abdominal muscle strengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Current treatments for osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates

  • Alendronate (Fosamax), a weekly pill
  • Risedronate (Actonel), a weekly or monthly pill
  • Ibandronate (Boniva), a monthly pill or quarterly intravenous (IV) infusion
  • Zoledronic acid (Reclast), an annualIVinfusion
  • Denosumab (Prolia, Xgeva): Shallow injection q 6 month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Causes of secondary osteoporosis

A
  • Endocrine disorders
  • Malabsorption, malnutrition
  • Hepatic or renal dysfunction
  • Genetic disorders
  • Systemic inflammatory diseases
  • Psychiatric disorders
  • Malignancies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Endocrine disorders that may cause secondary osteoporosis

A
  • Cushing’s Disease
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Prolactinoma
  • Hypogonadism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Genetic disorders that may cause secondary osteoporosis

A
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Systemic inflammatory diseases that may cause secondary osteoporosis

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Psychiatric disorders that may cause secondary osteoporosis

A
  • Anorexia

- Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Malignancies that may cause secondary osteoporosis

A
  • Multiple myeloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Drugs that may cause secondary osteoporosis

A
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Excess thyroid replacement
  • Heparin
  • Methotrexate?
  • Cyclosporin A?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Potential utility of bone density measurement

A
  • Assess future fracture risk
  • Confirm diagnosis of osteoporosis
  • Monitor effects of treatment
  • Assess rate of bone loss
  • Enhance patient acceptance of and compliance with treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Peak bone mineral density (BMD) is usually achieved by

A
  • The middle of the third decade of life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bone mineral density z-score represents

A
  • # SD above/below the mean compared with age/sex-matched population
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Bone mineral density t-score represents

A
  • # SD above or below the mean BMD in sex matched normal population
  • Better predictor of fracture risk than the z-score
39
Q

The criteria for osteoporosis established by the World Health Organization in 1993

A
  • Developed as operational definitions to distinguish between normal and abnormal bone mineral density
  • Useful in identifying patients with low bone mass and osteoporosis
  • NOT intended to be used as criteria for pharmacologic intervention
40
Q

Normal BMD t-score

A
  • Greater than/equal to -1.0 SD
41
Q

Osteopenia BMD t-score

A
  • (-)1 to (-)2.5 SD
42
Q

Osteoporosis BMD t-score

A
  • Less than/equal to (-)2.5 SD
43
Q

Severe osteoporosis BMD t-score

A
  • Less than/equal to (-)2.5 with fragility fractures
44
Q

Calcium supplements/requirements

A
  • Supplements should be taken with meals since gastric acid enhances absorption
  • Requirements are lower for women receiving estrogen replacement therapy (due to enhanced absorption of calcium
45
Q

Elemental calcium requirement (mg/day)

A
  • F <65 taking estrogen = 1,000
  • F <65 not taking estrogen = 1,500
  • M 25-65 = 1,000
  • F/M >65 = 1,500
46
Q

Osteoporosis imaging

A
  • Plain radiographs not sensitive to detect osteoporosis (since loss of 30-50% of density is needed to be evident)
47
Q

When osteoporosis is radiographically evident

A
  • The differentiation between acute and chronic can be made
48
Q

Acute osteoporosis imaging shows

A
  • Patchy “moth eaten appearance of bone

- Intracortical tunneling

49
Q

Chronic osteoporosis imaging

A
  • Shows thinning of the bony cortex

- Decrease in the trabeculae will give an overall decrease in bone density

50
Q

Osteomalacia resulting from dietary vitamin D deficiency

A
  • Rare in adults
  • Rickets in children
  • Results in severe abnormalities centered around the growth plates
51
Q

Osteomalacia imaging findings

A
  • Blurring of the bone trabeculae

- Loss of distiction between the bony medulla and cortex

52
Q

Rickets

A
  • Weakening and softening of the bone brought on by extreme calcium loss
53
Q

Rickets imaging in children

A
  • Fraying of the metaphysis
  • Cortical margins of the epiphysis are indistinct
  • Characteristic “paint brush” appearance of the metaphyseal region (cupping)
54
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A
  • Result of increased levels of parathyroid hormone

- Characteristic feature is subperiosteal bone resorption

55
Q

Findings seen in both primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism

A
  • Resorption of subperiosteal cortical bone and subligamentous bone
  • Generalized osteoporosis
  • Soft tissue calcifications can also occur
  • “Calciphylaxis” and secondary hyperparathyroidism
56
Q

Patients with chronic renal failure demonstrate

A
  • Bony abnormalities known as renal osteodystrophy
57
Q

Radiographic features of renal osteodystorphy

A
  • May parallel those seen in hyperparathyroidism, osteoporosis, and osteomalacia (or Rickets if a child)
  • Calcification of vessels and soft tissues is a frequent finding
58
Q

Acromegaly is caused by

A
  • Hypersecretion of growth hormone from the pituitary gland in adult patients
59
Q

Acromegaly results in

A
  • Periosteal and endosteal bone formation
  • Thickening and ossification of cartilage
  • Thickening of soft tissues
  • Organomegaly
60
Q

Radiographic findings of acromegaly hands and feet

A
  • Widened joint spaces
  • Overgrowth of the terminal tufts
  • Enlargement of the sesamoids
  • Soft tissue thickening
61
Q

Types of infectious arthritis

A
  • Septic arthritis
  • Lyme disease
  • Viral arthritis
62
Q

Septic arthritis etiology

A
  • Puncture wound
  • Hematogenous seeding
  • Spread from cellulitis
63
Q

Septic arthritis frequently coexists with

A
  • Psteomyelitis

- Almost always monoarticular

64
Q

Characteristics of septic arthritis in the feet

A
  • 2nd, 3rd, and 4th metatarso-phalangeal joints lie in the middle soft tissue compartment
  • In severe cases, may involve these three met heads as well
65
Q

Septic arthritis on plain film imaging

A
  • Usually the only imaging studies needed
  • Joint effusion may be the earliest sign
  • Followed by joint space narrowing and bony erosions
  • The periarticular bone becomes osteoporotic
66
Q

CT and MRI scans with septic arthritis can be used to determine the extent of any associated

A
  • Osteomyelitis

- Deep soft tissue abscesses

67
Q

Septic arthritis differential diagnosis/treatment

A
  • Charcot joint
  • Noninfectious inflammatory arthritis
  • Antibiotics 2-6 weeks given at two to three times the usual dose
68
Q

Rheumatic fever high-yield facts (1)

A
  • Consequence of pharyngeal infection with group A, ß-hemolytic streptococci
  • Multiple episodes can cause rheumatic heart disease
  • Treat with penicillin, erthromycin
69
Q

Erythema marginatum

A
  • Presence of pink rings on the trunk and inner surfaces of the limbs
  • Come and go for as long as several months
  • Primarily on extensor surfaces
70
Q

Chorea

A
  • “grotesque dance”

- Movements look purposeful but are actually involuntary

71
Q

Rheumatic fever symptoms

A
  • Polyarthritis
  • Erythema marginatum
  • Carditis
  • Chorea
  • Subcutaneous nodules

note the difference between erythema migrans and erythema marginatum

72
Q

Gonococcal arthritis/synovitis-high-yield facts

A
  • Systemic gonococcal infection
  • Gram negative intracellular and extracellular diplococcus
  • Produces a septic arthritis to hands, wrists, elbows, ankles, and rarely the axial skeleton
73
Q

Gonococcal arthritis/synovitis has the highest incidence in

A
  • Sexually active women between the ages of 16 and 35

- Palmar pustules may be the most important clue

74
Q

Diagnosis and confirmation of gonococcal arthritis/synovitis

A
  • History and physical make the diagnosis

- Confirmed by aspiration and culture of pustule or effused joint

75
Q

Treatment of gonococcal arthritis/synovitis

A
  • Penicillin, Spectinomycin, Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
  • PLUS Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose (CDC 2015 Guidelines)
76
Q

Classic symptom of Lyme Disease

A
  • Erythema chronicum migrans, an expanding “bull’s eye” red rash with central clearing
  • Also affects joints, CNS, and heart

note the difference between erythema migrans and erythema marginatum

77
Q

Lyme disease is caused by

A
  • Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted by a tick
  • Mice are important reservoirs
  • Deer required for tick life cycle
  • Named after Lyme, Connecticut (common in northeastern US)
78
Q

Lyme Disease treatment

A
  • Tetracycline
79
Q

3 stages of Lyme Disease

A
  • Erythema chronicum migrans, flu like symptoms
  • Neurologic and cardiac manifestations
  • Autoimmune migratory polyarthritis
80
Q

Erythema chronicum migrans (also known as erythema migrans)

A
  • Rash often (though not always) seen in the early stage of Lyme disease
  • Can appear anywhere from one day to one month after a tick bite
  • Does not represent an allergic reaction to the bite, but rather an actual skin infection with the Lyme bacteria
  • “Bulls-eye” erythematous rash
81
Q

Normal synovial fluid classification

A
  • Clear, colorless, viscous

- Leukocytes <200 (<25% PMNs)

82
Q

Noninflammatory synovial fluid classification

A
  • Clear, yellow, viscous

- Leukocytes 200-2,000 (<25% PMNs)

83
Q

Inflammatory synovial fluid classification

A
  • Cloudy, yellow, watery
  • Glucose may be low
  • Leukocytes 2,000-100,000 (>50% PMNs)
84
Q

Septic synovial fluid classification

A
  • Purulent
  • glucose very low
  • Leukocytes >80,000 (>75% PMNs)
85
Q

Viral arthritis

A
  • No specific test for any type
  • Diagnosis based on other symptoms
  • Usually blood work and X-rays don’t help
  • In many cases, diagnosis after a search for other causes turns up negative and symptoms or history suggest a virus as the cause
86
Q

In most cases, viral arthritis runs its course fairly quickly, treating with

A
  • OTC meds (acetaminophen, NSAIDs)
  • Hot or cold packs on the inflamed joints
  • Rest
87
Q

Fibromyalgia summary

A
  • Non-inflammatory syndrome characterized by widespread pain
  • 90% female, 20 to 60 years
  • Clinical examination makes the diagnosis (no exclusion lab tests)
88
Q

Paget’s Disease summary

A
  • Unknown etiology
  • Results in abnormal bone resorption and new bone formation
  • Gives bone a “salt and pepper” appearance radiographically
89
Q

Osteoporosis summary

A
  • Decreased bone mass (quantity)

- Defined by the WHO as a T-score of < -2.5 SD when measuring bone mineral density

90
Q

Osteopenia summary

A
  • T-score of -1.0 to -2.5 when measuring bone mineral density
91
Q

Osteomalacia and Rickets summary

A
  • Result from dietary vitamin D deficiency
92
Q

Resorption of subperiosteal cortical bone and subligamentous bone, generalized osteoporosis, and soft tissue calcifications may be seen in

A
  • Hyperparathyroidism

- Renal osteodystrophy

93
Q

Systemic infections may lead to arthritic conditions as seen in

A
  • Septic arthritis
  • Lyme disease
  • Viral arthritis