9 - Flight Operations and Technique

Question 1

Flight Operations

What are NOTAMs, and how are they distributed?

Answer 1

NOTAMs are NOTices to AirMen.

They contain information on any aeronautical facilities, services, procedures, or hazards and timely
knowledge required by people concerned with flight operations.

They may be given as either

1. A class 1 NOTAM, distributed by teleprinter for urgent matters
2. A class 2 NOTAM, distributed through the post for less urgent matters

Question 2

Flight Operations

What are AICs?

Answer 2

Aeronautical Information Circulars (AlCs) are published monthly and concern administrative matters and advance warnings of operational changes.

They draw attention to and advise on matters of
operational importance.

Question 3

Flight Operations

When must you file a flight plan?

Answer 3

You must file a flight plan for flights…

1. Within controlled airspace notified as instrument flight rules (lFR) only, irrespective of whether instrument meteorologic conditions (IMC) or visual meteorologic conditions (VMC) exist.
2. Within other controlled airspace in IMC or at night, excluding special visual flight rules (SVFR).
3. Within certain special rules airspace, irrespective of weather conditions.
4. Within upper information regions (UIRs), i.e., above FL245.
5. When the destination is more than a certain distance and the maximum total weight authorized exceeds 5700 kg.
6. When you cross-flight information regions (FIR) boundaries in most parts of the world.
7. When you intend to use the air traffic advisory service on an advisory route (ADR).

Question 4

Flight Operations

What is ETOPS?

Answer 4

Extended twin operations.

An operator is granted permission to operate a twin-engined aircraft type on flights in which the aircraft is more than 60 minutes away from a suitable alternative aerodrome in the event that the aircraft suffers an engine failure en route.

(See Q: What is an adequate/suitable aerodrome, especially with regard to ETOPS diversion/alternate aerodromes? page 274.)

ETOPS approval of up to 180 minutes allows twin engined aircraft to cross most of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.

Note: Recently, some airlines have applied for 207 and 240 minute
of ETOPS to allow better trans-Pacific routings.

Question 5

Flight Operations

What is an adequate/suitable aerodrome, especially with regard to ETOPS diversion/alternate aerodromes?

Answer 5

An adequate/suitable aerodrome for ETOPS diversions is one in which

1. Aircraft performance is suitable for the airfield
2. Adequate emergency facilities are available at the aerodrome
3. Adequate aerodrome lighting facilities are available for night flights

4. A basic instrument approach is available for any expected instrument
meteorologic conditions (IMC)

5. The aerodrome is open

Question 6

Flight Operations

What are the various ETOPS categories?

Answer 6

Normal extended twin operations (ETOPS) categories, vary between 60 and 180 minutes.

However, in recent years (from 1999 onward), applications have been made for up to 207 and 240 minute of ETOPS by trans-Pacific airlines.

Question 7

Flight Operations

What is OCH(A)?

Answer 7

OCH is the obstacle clearance height above the aerodrome level (and so has relevance when using QFE).

OCA is the obstacle clearance altitude above mean sea level (and so has relevance when using QNH).

Question 8

Flight Operations

What is the minimum-height/altitude rule?

Answer 8

In order to comply with the instrument flight rules (IFR) both inside and outside controlled airspace, and without prejudice to the usual low-flying rules, the minimum height rule dictates that an aircraft should not fly at a height of less than a 1000 ft above the highest
obstacle within a distance of 5 nautical miles of the aircraft unless…

1. It is necessary for the aircraft to do so in order to land
2. The aircraft is flying on a route notified (NOTAM, AlP) for the purpose of this rule (this may include controlled airspace such as terminal control areas and airways)
3. The aircraft has been otherwise authorized by the competent authority
4. The aircraft is flying at an altitude not exceeding 3000 ft above mean sea level (MSL) and remains clear of clouds and in sight of the surface.

An additional International Civil Aviation Organization (lCAO) height rule increases this height to 2000 ft above the highest point in mountainous
terrain.

Question 9

Flight Operations

What lighting designations are on air navigation (i.e., man-made) obstacles?

Answer 9

Obstacles greater than 492 ft (150 m) are lit by high-intensity flashing white lights by day and night.

Any failed lights are NOTAMed.

Obstacles less than 492 ft (150 m) but higher than 300 ft, are lit when the obstacle is considered significant with medium-intensity flashing red lights at night.

These lights are not NOTAMed when they fail.

Question 10

Flight Operations

What is MSA?

Answer 10

Minimum sector altitudes (MSAs) are published on

1. Instrument approach charts.
   They provide at least 300 m (1000 ft) vertical clearance within 25 nautical miles of the homing facility for the particular instrument approach. If the aircraft remains at or above the relevant MSA, then it should remain clear of terrain and obstacles as it tracks toward the aerodrome prior to commencing the approach.

Some aerodromes have MSAs that apply to all sectors;
however, most aerodromes have different MSAs for different sectors depending on the direction from which the aircraft is arriving and the terrain over which it must cross.

2. En route charts.
   These show gTid moras (or minimum sector safe
   altitudes).

When determining your current MSA or grid mora altitude
from an en route chart, you should take the most restrictive
MSA of all the adjacent grid moras to your present position.

Question 11

Flight Operations

What is MEA?

Answer 11

Minimum en route altitude (MEA) is the safe altitude within the airway, i.e., 5 nautical miles either side of the airway centerline, and a minimum altitude at which radio reception is guaranteed.

Question 12

Flight Operations

What are the IFR flight levels?

Answer 12

The instrument flight rule (IFR) flight levels are based on the quadrantal and semicircle rule whenever an aircraft is more than 3000 ft
above mean sea level or above the appropriate transition level,
whichever is the higher, and the aircraft is in level flight.

The following
levels flown are based on the aircraft’s magnetic track:
Flights at levels below 24,500 ft (quadrantal rule)

Mag Track  -  Crusing Lvl (ft)
000* - 089*  =  Odd Thousand
090* - 179*  =  Odd Thousand + 500ft
180* - 269*  =  Even Thousand
270* - 359* =  Even Thousand + 500ft

Therefore, vertical separation is only 500 ft. However, usually only thousand-feet levels are used.

Flights at levels above 24,500 ft (semicircular rule) is vertical separation is

# 2000 ft above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace 
# 1000 ft in RVSM airspace at all levels.

Question 13

Flight Operations

What pressure settings are flight levels based on?

Answer 13

Flight levels are based on the standard altimeter setting of 29.92 inches of mercury (inHg) or 1013.2 millibars (hPa)

Question 14

Flight Operations

Why are flight level intervals increased to 2000 ft above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace?

Answer 14

Vertical separation is increased to 2000 ft above FL290 in non-RVSM
airspace because of increased altimeter errors due to the lower air density
experienced at these higher levels.

Note: Reduced vertical separation minimum (RSVM) to 1000 ft
separation above FL290 is granted to aircraft with advanced and
more accurate altimeters, especially on crowded routes, e.g., transAtlantic
routes.

Question 15

Flight Operations

What is the lowest usable flight level (FL)?

Answer 15

The lowest usable en route flight level must be at least 500 ft above the absolute minimum altitude.

Note: Minimum altitude on an airway is at least 1000 ft above the
highest obstacle within 15 nautical miles of the airway centerline (hence you comply with the minimum height rule).

(See Q: What is the minimum height rule? page 275.)
Therefore, terrain/obstacle clearance is at least 1500 ft at the lowest
usable flight level.

Question 16

Flight Operations

What are the two quantities known as weather minima?

Answer 16

1. Decision height (DH) or minimum decision altitude (MDA) (See Q:
   What is decision height/minimum decision altitude? page 277.)
2. Runway visual range (RVR) or visibility

(See Qs: How is visibility reported? page 265; What is RVR? page 278.)

Question 17

Flight Operations

What is decision height (DH)/minimum decision altitude (MDA)?

Answer 17

DH is the wheel height above the runway elevation at which a goaround
must be initiated by a pilot unless adequate visual reference
has been established and the position and approach path of the aircraft
have been assessed visually as satisfactory to safely continue the
approach and landing.

DH is the height above the ground; i.e., it is measured off the radio
altimeter or with the local QFE pressure setting off the barometric
altimeter.

MDA is the altitude measured using the local QNR pressure setting;
i.e., it is the height above sea level, or MDA = airport elevation + height above the ground.

Question 18

Flight Operations

How is a decision height (DH) or minimum decision altitude (MDA) calculated for a precision approach?

Answer 18

Step 1. Take the higher of

(a) obstacle clearance height (OCR) for the aid and aircraft category. [see Q: What is OCH(A)? page 274] or
(b) precision approach system minimum, i.e., ILS (CAT 1),200 ft; PAR, 200 ft; and MLS, 200 ft.

Step 2. Then add 50 ft for altimeter position error correction (PEC), especially for light aircraft.

Note: Many operators of advanced aircraft do not add 50 ft for PEC
because their altimeter systems are extremely accurate and therefore
do not suffer from PEC.

Question 19

Flight Operations

How is a minimum decision altitude (MDA) calculated for a non-precision approach?

Answer 19

Take the higher of

(a) obstacle clearance height (OCR) for the aid and aircraft category [See Q: What is
OCH(A)? page 274] or

(b) nonprecision approach system minimum, i.e.,
localizer only, 250 ft; SRA terminates at ½ nautical mile, 250 ft; SRA
terminates at 1 nautical mile, 300 ft; SRA terminates at 2 nautical miles, 350 ft; VOR, 300 ft; and NDB, 300 ft.

Note: Many operators add a further 50 ft, to the MDA, especially for
large aircraft.

Question 20

Flight Operations

What is RVR?

Answer 20

Runway visual range (RVR) is a highly accurate instrument-derived
visibility measurement that represents the range at which the runway’s
high-intensity lights can be seen in the direction of landing along the runway.

Its readings are transmitted to the air traffic
controller, who informs the pilot. RVR is used, when available, as a
visibility minimum for low-visibility precision approach landings in
preference to the general visibility measurement, which also may be
reported.

RVR values are measured at three points along the runway:

1. Touchdown point
2. Midpoint
3. Endpoint

Question 21

Flight Operations

How is RVR reported?

Answer 21

Runway visual range (RVR) is reported at up to three points on the runway:

1. At the touchdown zone
2. At the midpoint
3. At the stop end

whenever it is detected as being less than 1500 m.
Midpoint and stop-end values are only reported if they are less than the touchdown zone and less than 800 m or if they are less 400 m.

When all three values are given, the names are omitted.

RVR is measured

in steps of 25 m up to 200 m,

in steps of 50 m up to 800 m, and

thereafter in steps of 100 m.

Note: The runway designator may follow the quoted

RVR 300/25 = RVR 300 m on runway 25.

(See Q: What RVR limits
are required for LVP instrument approaches and takeoffs? pages 289
and 299.)

Question 22

Flight Operations

Give the definitions of radar control, radar advisory, and radar information
services.

Answer 22

1. Radar control service.
   Is available wherever radar coverage exists in controlled airspace, i.e., airways, terminal control zones, aerodrome
   traffic zones, and control areas, whereby air traffic control (ATC) is responsible for
   a. Monitoring and separation from other aircraft
   b. Radar vectoring
   c. Controlled airspace crossing
   d. Navigation assistance
   e. Weather information
   f. Hazard warnings
   g. Emergency assistance

Note: Instructions from ATC under a radar control service have to
be adhered to.

However, it remains the responsibility of the aircraft
commander, not ATC, to maintain terrain clearance even when under
radar control.

2. Radar advisory service.
   The radar controller will use radio communications
   to provide
   a Traffic information
   b. Advisory avoiding action necessary to maintain separation from other aircraft.
3. Radar information service.
   The radar controller will use radio communications
   to provide traffic information only (no avoiding action
   will be offered).

Question 23

Flight Operations

What is radar vectoring, and what is required for radar vectoring to be
carried out?

Answer 23

Radar vectoring occurs when a radar controller passes to an aircraft a heading to steer; e.g., Delta 204 steer heading two seven zero.

Note: Bear in mind that the radar controller is trying to get you to achieve a particular track over the ground.

However, because the controller does not know precisely what the wind drift is, he or she
occasionally will request a modification to your heading to achieve and/or maintain the desired track.

Question 24

Flight Operations

What is the standard circuit direction?

Answer 24

Left-hand direction.

Note: However, some runways might have a nonstandard righthand
circuit pattern.

This is typical for aerodromes with neighboring
noise-sensitive areas, high ground, or other restrictive airspace that precludes the use of a left-hand circuit.

Question 25

Flight Operations

What does HST mean on an airfield runway chart?

Answer 25

High-speed turn off a runway.

Question 26

Flight Operations

What is a rate 1, 2, and 3 turn?

Answer 26

Rate 1
Is a 3 degree per second or 180 degree per minute turn.

Rate 2
is a 6 degree per second or 360 degree per minute turn.

Rate 3 is a 9
degree per second or 540 degree per minute turn.

Question 27

Flight Operations

What is the altitude effect on wind direction and speed?

Answer 27

The wind normally backs in direction (veers in direction in the southern hemisphere) and decreases in speed during a descent as you get near to the ground.

(See Q: Describe the characteristics of a surface
wind, page 238.)

Question 28

Flight Operations

What does it mean if you have a port wind in the northern hemisphere?

Answer 28

This means that you are flying toward a low-pressure system, resulting in a descending flight path for a constant altimeter pressure setting,
e.g., 1013 millibars / 29.92 inHg.

Question 29

Flight Operations

Why is the correct rotation rate important, especially on large jet aircraft?

Answer 29

On modern aircraft, the importance of the correct rotation rate at the correct speed (V1) ensures that the aircraft leaves the ground within the correct distance (runway performance) and achieves the correct
initial climb speed (V2).

Note: The correct pitch attitude after lift off also has to be achieved to maintain the V2 speed.

There is a natural rotation rate appropriate
for each aircraft type. However, under high-performance conditions (low weight, low altitude, and low temperature, etc.), the aircraft will
have a high rate of acceleration, and the rotation rate will need to be
that much faster.

However, under these conditions, it is easy to over rotate
and tail strike the aircraft, so beware. Similarly, under a lowperformance
condition (maximum weight, high altitude, and high
temperature, etc.), a lower rate of rotation will be required, reflecting
the slower acceleration of the aircraft.

Question 30

Flight Operations

What causes the noise from a jet aircraft?

Answer 30

The noise from a jet aircraft is caused by the shear effect at the boundary of the jet exhaust .

The higher the power, the faster is the speed of the
jet exhaust, the greater is the shear effect, and the greater is the noise.

Note: The development of bypass engines has reduced the speed of
the jet exhaust and therefore the noise considerably. (See Q: What is the principle of a bypass engine? page 65.)

Question 31

Flight Operations

Describe a typical noise abatement technique.

Answer 31

There are two main parameters affecting noise, which in practice can be handled to achieve a noise abatement profile:

1. Noise is proportional to the power being developed by the engines.
2. Noise is inversely proportional to the distance between the noise source and the listener.

Therefore, to reduce noise, we must reduce power and get as far away from noise-sensitive areas as quickly as possible.

The following basic technique is the only one that could be used if the airfield is completely
surrounded by noise-sensitive areas. After leaving the runway, the technique is split into two separate parts.

1. The noise abatement first segment adopts a steep climb at full power to gain as much height as possible before the listening posts short of the noise-sensitive areas.

Then the flight path changes to

2. The noise abatement second segment, where the engines are throttled back to climb power while the aircraft maintains its initial high attitude.

This profile continues until either a declared height has
been reached or the noise-sensitive area has been cleared, when a lower climb attitude is adopted.

This leads into the departure profile’s third phase, acceleration and cleanup, followed by the fourth phase, en route climb.

(See Q: Describe departure profile segments 1 to 4, page 204.)

Question 32

Flight Operations

Why on a short sector would you climb to FL330?

Answer 32

To gain a better specific fuel consumption (SFC), which improves the higher the altitude.

Additionally, you gain a higher true airspeed (TAS) but not necessarily a higher ground speed.

(See Q: What
advantages does a jet engine gain from. (lying at a high altitude?
page 71.)

Question 33

Flight Operations

What is the glide distance for an aircraft at 30,000 ft?

Answer 33

Determine the best glide speed (minimum drag speed) and its rate of descent; altitude divided by rate of descent (ROD),

e.g., 30,000/1000 ft/min = 30 minutes

Distance = Time X speed per minute,
e.g., 30 X 5 nautical miles/min = 150 nautical miles.

Question 34

Flight Operations

Why does an aircraft descend quicker when it is lighter?

Answer 34

Because an aircraft is restricted to a maximum speed during a descent, the heavier aircraft has to maintain a lower rate of descent than a lighter aircraft; otherwise, it would overs peed.

Remember, heavier aircraft
have a greater momentum, and this weight-driven momentum will produce a greater speed in a vertical dive.

Therefore, a heavier aircraft has to start its descent earlier than a lighter aircraft because it has to
maintain a shallower descent.

(See Q: How does weight affect an aircraft’s
flight profile descent point? page 18.)

In other words, a lighter aircraft can descend later and quicker than a heavier aircraft because it can maintain a greater vertical descent profile without overspeeding.

Question 35

Flight Operations

What visual clues on landing should you look for?

Answer 35

The main visual clue during a landing is the pilot’s judgment of a 3-degree glide slope;

i.e., # flat-looking runway means that you are Low;
      # steep-looking runway means that you are High. 

This judgment only comes with experience.

Initial judgment of an appropriate glide slope
may be facilitated by aids such as VASIs and PAPIs or by positioning
the aircraft at predetermined heights above known ground features or
distance from touchdown points.

During the final approach stages, the extended sides of the runway intersect at the horizon, and texture gradients in the surrounding terrain also indicate horizon location.

However, these cues are only accurate when the terrain and runway are level. Sloping runways and terrain may produce incorrect estimates of horizon location by the pilot and result in an inaccurate judgment of the approach slope.

To prevent the final approach angle from varying, the pilot should aim at his or her projected impact point because this is the point on the ground away from which visual texture flows.

As long as the visual texture flows away from this point, and as long as the visual angle between this point and the horizon remains constant, the approach is progressing normally

Question 36

Flight Operations

How do you calculate headwind, tailwind, and crosswind component?

Answer 36

To calculate headwinds, tailwinds, and crosswinds, you should use a chart.

But a good rule of Thumb is as bellow…

Max's X-Wind Quickie Law ;) 
  XWind speed (%) = Δ Wind Vector +20

Question 37

Flight Operations

How do you fly a crosswind approach and landing, yaw, or wing down?

Answer 37

Whatever the company policy is.

Question 38

Flight Operations

Which is the more difficult landing, a left or right crosswind?

Answer 38

A crosswind from the left of the aircraft’s nose in the northern hemisphere is more difficult for the following reason:

The wind backs in direction during a descent in the northern hemisphere.

In the southern hemisphere, a crosswind from the right creates the
more difficult crosswind landing because the wind veers in direction
during a descent in the southern hemisphere.

Question 39

Flight Operations

How do you correct for a high sink rate on approach?

Answer 39

If you need extra lift to correct for the unique problem of a high sink rate on approach, you can create the extra lift required in one of two
ways:

1. By increasing AOA (Angle of Attack).

In this case, you must then increase thrust
to counter the extra drag from the higher incidence, or the resulting sink rate will be higher.

This is true except when you are trading
an excess of airspeed for height, but then be careful to monitor your speed in case it decreases below your approach speed.

2. By increasing airspeed.
   This is obtained by increasing thrust while
   keeping all other parameters substantially constant.

A heavy aircraft takes a lot of accelerating, so if this option is exercised, a lot of thrust will be needed.

Note: If you see the need for more thrust for any reason, then apply
enough of it early enough, especially for jet engines.

This is so because
of the poor response from a low rpm setting and the comparatively
small amounts ofthrust produced for a given power lever movement in
the lower ranges of power settings.

Question 40

Flight Operations

What are the wind gust corrections applied to the approach speed?

Answer 40

½ X stable wind (minimum of 5 knots) + full gust value up to a predetermined,
type-specific limit of approximately 20 to 25 knots.

For example, basic approach speed of 120 knots, headwind component 20 knots gusting to 28 knots:

Question 41

Flight Operations

Why is it important not to lose speed on the approach?

Answer 41

It is important not to lose speed on the approach, especially in jet swept-wing aircraft, because the approach speed is only just above minimum
drag speed (VIMD), and because of the relative flatness of the drag curve, especially around VIMD, the jet aircraft does not produce any noticeable changes in flying qualities. 

Speed is unstable below VIMD, where an increase in thrust has a greater drag penalty for speed
gained, with a net result of losing speed for a given increase in thrust.

Therefore, if you lose speed below your approach speed, you could fall into this situation, which results in a decreasing speed and altitude.

Note: VIMD is a higher speed on a jet aircraft because the swept wing is more efficient against profile drag, and therefore, the minimum drag speed is typically a higher value. (See Q: Describe the drag
curve on a jet aircraft, page 8.)

Recovery from this situation is further compounded because of the jet
engine’s slow response from idle, and if you have slipped up the back of the drag curve, you need a lot of thrust to counter its effect, and you
need it quickly.

This all makes a recovery rather marginal when close
to the ground, and therefore, it is doubly important not to lose speed
on the approach.

For a propeller-driven aircraft with a well-defmed VIMD point on its
drag curve (which is due to the marked increase in profile and induced
drag either side ofVIMD), any deviation of airspeed below VIMD on the
approach is very well defined by the steep increase in the drag curve.
(See Q: Describe the drag curve on a propeller-driven aircraft, page 7.)

In addition, the slipstream effect from the propeller also makes recovery from a falling airspeed on the approach much better.

Therefore, although it is always important to maintain a stable speed on the approach, it is not as marginal on a propeller-driven aircraft as it is on a jet.

Question 42

Flight Operations

What is ground effect, and how is it caused?

Answer 42

Ground effect is the cushioning of the aircraft on the air between it and the ground when the aircraft is close to the ground, such as in the flare to land.

Note: In effect, the cushioning effect produces more lift.

Ground effect is caused by rising warm air off the ground, by a reduction in the amount of downwash behind the wings, and by the tendency
of the aircraft not to slow (decreased drag) resulting from the reduction of wing-tip vortices.

Question 43

Flight Operations

How does ground effect influence landing distance?

Answer 43

Ground effect will, if allowed to, cause the aircraft to float along the runway past its touchdown point.

This results in an increased landing distance.
(See Q: What is ground effect, and how is it caused, page 286.)

Question 44

Flight Operations

What is the most efficient system for stopping at high speed?

Answer 44

Reverse thrust.

Heavy jet aircraft have a high kinetic energy (momentum) during a landing roll or an aborted takeoff, and the most efficient method of stopping that maintains the initial deceleration rate when the aircraft
is at a high speed is best achieved by reverse thrust for two reasons:

1. The net amount of reverse thrust increases with speed because the acceleration imposed on the constant mass flow is greater.

This is so because the aircraft’s forward speed is additional when using reverse thrust as opposed to subtracting when in forward thrust.

2. The power produced is greater at high speeds because of the
   increased rate of work done. This means that the kinetic energy of
   the aircraft is being destroyed at a greater rate at higher speeds.

Question 45

Flight Operations

Why should you not use reverse thrust at low speeds?

Answer 45

The reason to cancel reverse thrust before you reach low speeds, i.e., approximately below 70 knots, is for the following engine-handling
considerations:

1. On a four-engined or greater aircraft, the reversed flow of the inner engines, being ahead of the outer engines, tend to upset the intake flow of the outer engines if reverse thrust is left engaged at low speeds.
2. Any engine in isolation will tend to breathe its own reversed exhaust at low speeds, which may blow surface contamination into the engine.

In addition, if reverse thrust is maintained at a low speed on a contaminated surface,

e.g., snow, dust, etc., then forward visibility is
compromised because a cloud is blown forward by the reverse thrust.

Question 46

Flight Operations

Can you use reverse thrust in flight?

Answer 46

No.

Reverse thrust is not certified for in-flight deployment on most aircraft types, except for a very few exceptions, which use it as an air brake.

Question 47

Flight Operations

What selection will give you TOGA?

Answer 47

Takeoff/go-around (TOGA) selection depends on the aircraft type.

The two common systems that will give TOGA thrust and flight director pitch commands are

1. Moving the thrust levers into a forward TOGA gate, as on the
   Airbus 320.
2. Pressing the TOGA switches on the thrust levers, as on the Boeing 737.

Question 48

Flight Operations

What is a typical engine fire drill?

Answer 48

A typical engine fire drill is as follows:
Thrust lever - Close

Auto throttle (if engaged) - Disengage

Start lever/switch - Off or cut out

Engine fire warning switch - Engage

If the fire or overheat warning light remains illuminated:
Extinguisher number 1 - Discharge

If the fire or overheat warning light still remains illuminated:
Extinguisher number 2 Discharge

If the fire or overheat warning light still remains illuminated:
land at the nearest airport.

Note: Various type-specific system paper checks would follow.

For a multicrew cockpit, the drills, both memory and paper checks, would be carried out on a challenge and response basis

Question 49

Flight Operations

What are the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) aircraft
category weight definitions?

Answer 49

Heavy (H) - 136,000 kg

Medium (M) - 136,000 kg and 7000 kg

Light (L) - 7000 kg or less

Note: These weights refer to an aircraft’s maximum takeoff weight.

Aircraft greater than 136,000 kg, i.e., heavy, are required to be announced as heavy on initial contact with an air traffic control (ATC) unit.

Question 50

Flight Operations

Why should you maintain the minimum approach separation?

Answer 50

To avoid the wake vortex/turbulence from the preceding aircraft.

Note: Wake turbulence can be a serious hazard to lighter aircraft following heavier aircraft.

Question 51

Flight Operations

What are the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) final approach separation minima?

Answer 51

Aircraft Separation
Landing Following NM Min
Heavy Heavy 4 -
Heavy Medium 5 2
Heavy Light 6 3
Medium Heavy 3 -
Medium Medium 3 -
Medium Light 5 3
Light Heavy 3 -
Light Medium 3 -
Light Light 3 -

Many of the very busy commercial airfields may space aircraft closer than these separation limits; therefore, you need to be aware of the
increased possibility of encountering wake vortex/turbulence.

The separation minima stated cannot entirely remove the possibility of a wake turbulence encounter.

The objectives of the minima are to reduce the probability of a vortex wake encounter to an acceptable low level and to minimize the magnitude of the upset if an encounter does occur.

Care should be taken when following any substantially heavier aircraft, especially in conditions of light winds.

The majority of serious incidents occur close to the ground, especially when the winds are light.

Question 52

Flight Operations

What are the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) minimum departure separation criteria?

Answer 52

The lCAO departure spacing minima are as follows:

      Aircraft                              Separation Leading     Following                        Min  Heavy         Medium                          2 Medium       Light                               2

          Aircraft                           Separation Leading              Following               Min Full RWY       Dif Position RWY

Heavy Medium 3
Medium Light 3

Question 53

Flight Operations

How do you avoid wake turbulence?

Answer 53

The main aim of wake turbulence avoidance is to avoid passing through it at all.

There are two methods of avoiding wake turbulence:

1. Separation minima (time)
2. Alteration to the flight path

Note: A crosswind will cause the vortices to drift downwind of the preceding aircraft.

A headwind or tailwind will carry the vortices in
the direction of the wind.

A nil, light, or variable wind condition will
make the vortices just hang around.

This condition can be very dangerous, and it is worth considering delaying your takeoff or approach or even changing runway.

Question 54

Instrument Flight Rules
(Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique)

Instrument flight rule (IFR) theory questions are likely to be asked of pilots looking for their first-ever position.

This is so because an airline employer has to teach you to fly its aircraft type and operating procedures,
not IFR.

If you are currently flying, then the following questions probably
will be somewhat basic and insulting to your professional standing.

However, if you have been out of regular flying for some time, then this section might be a worthwhile review.

Many of the answers in this section are given as possible answers.

This is so because there can be several different techniques (which are all correct) that can accomplish the procedure relating to the question.

The answers are offered to the reader as suggestions only, and if the suggested technique is different from the reader’s own training and knowledge of a particular procedure, then the reader would be wise to
keep with the technique with which he or she is conversant.

Answer 54

ARE YOU READY?

Click 5 unless you wanna read this again…

Question 55

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What are SIDs?

Answer 55

Standard instrument departures (SIDs).

A SID details a specific initial route or track from a particular aerodrome runway, often with altitude and, occasionally, speed constraints at specific points along
the track.

Question 56

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What are STARs?

Answer 56

Standard instrument arrivals (STARs). A STAR details a specific final route or track onto a particular runway approach, often with altitude and, occasionally, speed constraints at specific points along the track.

Question 57

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What is a holding procedure?

Answer 57

A holding procedure is a predetermined maneuver that keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance.

A holding procedure/pattern generally is a racetrack shape.

Question 58

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What is the standard holding pattern direction?

Answer 58

The standard holding pattern direction is right-hand turns.

Therefore, the nonstandard holding pattern direction is left-hand turns.

Question 59

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What are the three entry procedures into a holding pattern?

Answer 59

The three entry procedures into a holding pattern are based on the sector of entry.

Sector 1 procedure: Parallel entry

Sector 2 procedure: Teardrop entry

Sector 3 procedure: Direct entry

The three sector regions have been devised based on
the direction of the inbound holding track and an imaginary line angled at 70 degrees to the inbound holding track through the fix.

If, however, the turn onto the outbound heading is close to 180 degrees, then you are already very close to or on the inbound track of the holding pattern.

That is, your joining track is close to the hold’s
inbound track.

Therefore, simply turn onto a normal outbound track
from over the fix, with only small finesse adjustments, as if you are already in the holding pattern.

Question 60

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What rate of turn should you use in a holding pattern?

Answer 60

All turns in a holding pattern should be standard rate 1 turn, i.e., 3 degrees per second

Question 61

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

How do you time a holding pattern?

Answer 61

The timing in a hold should be commenced from abeam the fix at the start of the outbound leg or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.

The outbound timing should be 1 minute for a standard holding pattern up to and including 14,000 ft and 1½ minutes above 14,000 ft.

Note: The pilot should make corrections to the timings (and headings) to correct for the effects of the known winds during the entry and the when flying the holding pattern.

For tailwind or headwind components, a reasonable correction is to reduce the outbound leg by 1 second per knot of tailwind and to increase the outbound leg by 1 second per knot of headwind.

With distance-measuring equipment (DME) available, the outbound leg may be expressed in terms of distance.

Where this is done, care should be taken that at least 30 seconds should be available on the inbound leg after completion of the inbound turn and that the slant
range is taken into account.

Note: When a clearance is received specifying a departure time from the holding fix, then the pilot should adjust his or her pattern within the limits of the established holding procedure in order to leave the holding fix at the time specified.

Question 62

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What does it mean to be cleared for the approach?

Answer 62

If you are cleared by air traffic control (ATC) for an approach, this means that you have been cleared for the complete procedure in terms of lateral navigation as well as vertically to any altitude/height constraints
in the procedure from your present altitude/height and then onto the approach descent to the runway.

It does not mean that you have been cleared to land.

Landing permission is a distinct and separate clearance.

Question 63

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

When can you descend during an non directional beacon (NDB) non-precision procedure?

Answer 63

After you have been cleared for the procedure by air traffic control (ATC), there are two further requirements that need to be meet before you descend during an NDB procedure:

1. You must be at the descent point as defined on the procedure.

This may be expressed as a fix, distance, or time.

2. You must be within ±5 degrees of the automatic direction finder (ADF) final approach track.

These requirements relate to any point on the procedure, i.e., the outbound procedure, and not just the inbound track.

Question 64

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

How is the MAP defined on an non-directional beacon (NDB) approach?

Answer 64

The missed approach point (MAP) for a nonprecision approach is defined by a fix, either a facility, a distance from a fix, or a time from a fix, or the start of the inbound descent (MAPt).

You cannot descend below the calculated minimum descent altitude (height) MDA(H) unless you become visual; however, you can level off and maintain the
MDA and track into the MAP in the hope of becoming visual. If not
visual at the MAP, a missed approach should be initiated.

Note: Most commercial operators would carry out a descent that mirrored a constant glide slope that reached the MDA at the MAP.

Thus the missed approach is initiated at the MDA.

However, if a turn is specified in the missed approach procedure, then it should not be initiated until the aircraft has passed the MAP and is established in the climb.

Question 65

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

On an instrument landing system (ILS) approach, when can you descend on the glide path?

Answer 65

You can descend on the glide path when
1. You have been cleared for the ILS procedure.

2. You have captured the localizer, within ±5°C.

Question 66

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What are the visual and aural indications of instrument landing system (ILS) marker beacons?

Answer 66

Outer marker - Blue light - Low Pitch (_ _ _)

Middle marker - Amber light - Medium Pitch (_ . _ .)

Inner marker - White light - (. .)

Question 67

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

How can you calculate the distance from the threshold at which you would intercept the glide slope?

Answer 67

If you divide the height by the glide slope angle times 100, you should get the distance from the threshold in nautical miles at which you should intercept the glide slope.

For example:
3000 ft/(3 X 100) = 10 nautical miles (approximately)

If you divide the height by the glide slope angle times 100, you should get the distance from the threshold in nautical miles at which you should intercept the glide slope.

For example:
3000 ft/(3 X 100) = 10 nautical miles (approximately)

Question 68

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

How do you calculate glide slope angle if an approach is only given as a gradient?

Answer 68

Glide slope angle = gradient % X 0.57

Question 69

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

How can you calculate the approximate rate of descent for a 3-degree glide slope?

Answer 69

5 X ground speed = ROD (feet per minute) required for a 3-degree glide slope.

For example:
5 X 140 = 700 ft per minute ROD

Question 70

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What are the Cat I, II, and III ILS International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) approach limits?

Answer 70

DH RVR VIS
CAT I >200ft 550m 800m

CATII 200ft 300m @ Touchdown
100ft 150m @ Mid RWY

CAT IIIA 100ft 200m @ Touchdown
50ft 150m @ Mid RWY

CAT IIIB <50ft 50m @ Touchdown & Midpoint

CAT IIIC 0ft 0m @ Touchdown

Note: CAT IIIC has never been in commercial operation because it would require an automatic taxiing guidance system. CAT IIIB, however, is used widely.

Question 71

Instrument Procedures and Flight Technique

What are the runway visual range (RVR) minima for a low-visibility takeoff?

Answer 71

With high-intensity runway center lights available, the RVR minimum for takeoff is 150 m RVR at the 
touchdown point (or 125 m under some authorities), and the midpoint RVR must be at least equal to the
touchdown RVR. 

The reported stop-end RVR can be less than the takeoff minimum.

With no high-intensity runway center lights available, the RVR minimum for takeoff is 200m RVR at the touchdown point, and the midpoint RVR must be at least equal to the touchdown RVR.

The reported stopend
RVR can be less than the takeoff minimum.