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SWE Study guide 2013 > 85-00-110 > Flashcards

85-00-110 Flashcards

1
Q

Maintenance quality and reliability is the responsibility of?

A

All maintenance personnel.

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2
Q

Quality Assurance Inspectors shall be selected and designated in writing by?

A

EO.

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3
Q

A Primary QA Inspector is normally assigned to?

A

QA section

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4
Q

The Collateral Duty QA Inspector is assigned to?

A

Maintenance Shop

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5
Q

A Collateral QA may sign off grounding discrepancies and flight control work in individual cases when approved by?

A

supervisor possessing maintenance release authority

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6
Q

Most FOD can be attributed to three general causes?

A

poor housekeeping, poor maintenance practices, and carelessness.

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7
Q

Who shall promulgate local instructions stressing the need to reduce FOD?

A

EO

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8
Q

What monitors the condition of enclosed mechanical systems through determination of wear metal concentrations in the lubricating fluid?

A

JOAP

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9
Q

Who will ensure that maintenance personnel are thoroughly trained in JOAP sample taking and documentation procedures?

A

EO.

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10
Q

What manuals outline the procedures of JOAP?

A

NAVAIR 17-15-50.1 through 50.4

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11
Q

Questions regarding the JOAP should be directed to?

A

CG-41

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12
Q

Spectrometric Oil Analysis Program (SOAP) will be performed by?

A

Honeywell

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13
Q

What is the concept that reliability is designed into a component and cannot be improved with preventive maintenance called?

A

Reliability Centered Maintenance

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14
Q

In aircraft fuel systems what constitutes a hazard in any aircraft?

A

Free water and foreign contaminants

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15
Q

When shall all fuel tank drains, including auxiliary tanks and readily accessible fuel system strainers be drained?

A

Prior to the first scheduled flight of the day.

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16
Q

It is recommended that approximately ________ of fuel from each drain be inspected

A

1 pint

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17
Q

Fuel samples shall be kept for how long?

A

24 hours

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18
Q

What is used ensure that engines will not be susceptible to fuel starvation due to ice in the fuel system?

A

Fuel System Ice Inhibitor MIL-DTL-85470B

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19
Q

What is the normal level of fuel system icing inhibitor in turbine fuel?

A

0.08-0.20% by volume

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20
Q

Introduction of this additive will lower the flash point of JP-5 by?

A

4 degrees Fahrenheit

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21
Q

The Corrosion Control Program Process Guide?

A

85-00-60

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22
Q

Who shall ensure that an effective calibration program is implemented for assigned equipment and tooling?

A

CO

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23
Q

What is an unclassified short name referring to investigations and studies of compromising emanations?

A

TEMPEST.

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24
Q

Who will oversee the Coast Guard aviation TEMPEST program?

A

CG-41

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25
Q

What is required for each new or modified airborne COMSEC installation?

A

TEMPEST Certification

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26
Q

How many people are required to perform the TEMPEST installation inspection?

A

2

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27
Q

For COMSEC installation inspection at least one person should be certified as a __________?

A

FTA ( Field Technical Authority )

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28
Q

What form will be used by maintenance administrators for interpreting and/or amplifying technical directives and maintenance requirements received from higher authority and also to promulgate local instructions as necessary?

A

OPNAV 4790/35

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29
Q

The maintenance instruction is usually prepared by the QA subsection and signed by?

A

EO

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30
Q

What may be prepared when a directive or situation dictates that specific work must be performed on a one-time basis?

A

SAMI

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31
Q

What is a local directive providing instructions for the performance of work which is or may be of a continuing nature?

A

CAMI

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32
Q

What may be prepared when a directive or situation requires that technical information be promulgated within an activity. When it is necessary to disseminate information, such as techniques and local policy?

A

TIMI

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33
Q

Whenever any maintenance instruction has served its purpose, it should be canceled and filed for how long?

A

6 months

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34
Q

Who will manage the Coast Guard Aviation TEMPEST policy?

A

ALC

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35
Q

Aviation tools will be of such quality that they meet or exceed what standard?

A

SAE

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36
Q

No repairs shall be made to any primary structures without prior approval from?

A

ALC

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37
Q

PERSONNEL WORKING WITH COMPOSITE MATERIELS ARE REQUIRED TO BE ENROLLED IN WHAT?

A

OCCUPATIONAL MEDICAL SURVEILLANCE AND EVALUATION PROGRAM

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38
Q

Field unit repair of the four HH-65/MH-65 emergency flotation containers requires prior approval from?

A

ALC

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39
Q

Safety and Environmental Health Manual?

A

5100.47

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40
Q

AVGFE shall Maintain administrative requirements including reports and logbooks. All records shall be maintained for how long?

A

3 years

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41
Q

AVGFET certification is valid for how long?

A

1 year

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42
Q

What is defined as any assembly, or installation containing a Critical Characteristic whose failure, malfunction, or absence could cause an uncommanded engine shutdown, or a catastrophic failure resulting in loss or serious damage to the aircraft?

A

Aviation Critical Safety Items/Flight Safety Critical Aircraft Parts ( FSCAP )

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43
Q

Where can you find a complete list of chemicals (greases, oils, paints, sealants, etc.) used to complete MPCs necessary to maintain each aircraft type?

A

Authorized Chemical Use List.

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44
Q

What shall be used to request Authorized Chemical Use List changes?

A

CG-22

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45
Q

Air Station ___________ may authorize a one time purchase of chemicals not contained on the Authorized Chemical Use List to meet operational commitments

A

EO

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46
Q

Engineering Officers ___________independently authorize the purchase of chemicals for the purpose of testing or prototyping

A

shall not

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47
Q

Lathes, milling machines, and similar types of equipment that produce cuttings or flying particles should be set at?

A

15 degree angles from each other.

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48
Q

Metal hood type guards shall enclose ________ of the abrasive wheel.

A

3-Feb

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49
Q

Tool rests shall be adjusted to provide a minimum of _______ from abrasive wheel grinding surface.

A

1/8 inch

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50
Q

Nickel-cadmium battery shops will be mechanically ventilated to provide _________ air changes per hour

A

3 to 4

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51
Q

Vented nickel-cadmium batteries shall be _______ from vented lead-acid batteries.

A

isolated

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52
Q

How much clearance is needed when servicing sealed lead-acid batteries and sealed nickel-cadmium batteries?

A

5 feet.

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53
Q

HEAT IS GENERATED AND MAY RESULT IN BURNS

A

Water, Electrolyte

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54
Q

The electrolyte used in vented nickel-cadmium batteries is a strong solution of potassium hydroxide that is?

A

Alkaline and corrosive

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55
Q

Tools used for servicing nickel-cadmium batteries will be?

A

Insulated

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56
Q

If the battery case begins to heat excessively __________, it may be necessary to add water to the affected cells or discontinue charging until the battery cools

A

115 degrees F

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57
Q

The electrolyte level must not be adjusted until the battery has been charged and allowed to sit for how long?

A

2 hours

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58
Q

it is important that the battery be ________ before attempting to replace a defective cell.

A

discharged

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59
Q

What does a personnel ground device consists of?

A

conductive bracelet, a 200K ohm resistor, a length of #20 standard copper insulated wire.

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60
Q

In a Non-Dedicated Battery Servicing Facility what’s the workspace air temperature?

A

77.5 (+7.5 F)

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61
Q

How should Oxygen cylinder storage be separated from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials?

A

Distance of 20 feet or a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet high and have a fire-resistance rating of at least 1/2 hour.

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62
Q

Where water wash facilities are provided for small booths, they will have a minimum of _________ per minute linear air velocity across the face of the booth

A

200 feet

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63
Q

Containers of not more than ______ capacity will be used for storing paints and dopes

A

5 gallons

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64
Q

How will electric power tools, switches, junction boxes, and regulators be positioned in the hangar?

A

At least 18 inches above floor level

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65
Q

All portable electronic test equipment shall meet what grounding requirements?

A

National Electrical Safety Code.

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66
Q

What are the two kinds of solvent poisoning?

A

Acute and Chronic

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67
Q

What type of poisoning is a result from inhalation of an excessive concentration within a short time?

A

Acute

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68
Q

What type of poisoning is a result of repeated daily exposures for extended or prolonged periods of time?

A

Chronic

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69
Q

What chemicals will dissolve the natural protecting fats and oils from the skin?

A

Specific Skin Irritants

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70
Q

Hazardous Waste Management Manual?

A

M16478.1

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71
Q

Aircraft Maintenance Potential Hazardous Waste?

A

M16478.4

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72
Q

What fire extinguishers are most effective in putting out solvent fires?

A

CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)

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73
Q

Where can the The criteria for lighting minimums are found?

A

IESNA Lighting HandBook

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74
Q

What particles pose the greatest threat to the respiratory system?

A

Single-Fiber 3-4 microns diameter

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75
Q

Flight line fire extinguishers shall be _____ pound dry chemical type fire extinguishers

A

150

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76
Q

oil-soaked and paint-saturated clothing, rags, waste, excelsior, and combustible refuse shall be________

A

removed from the work areas daily

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77
Q

Combustible materiels shall not be stored within _______ of any stove, furnace or boiler.

A

10 feet

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78
Q

How often are existing static grounds tested?

A

Every 24 months

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79
Q

Flight line certified static grounds should be tested to the required standard of less than?

A

10,000 ohms

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80
Q

to the current standard of less than?

A

25ohms

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81
Q

Spills involving an area of _________ or less in any dimension (small priming spills) are normally of minor consequence. Ramp personnel shall stand by until the aircraft is dispatched

A

18 inches

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82
Q

Spills not over _________ in any dimension or not over ____________ in area and not of a continuing nature shall have a fire guard posted, up wind, with a foam-type or Halon-type fire extinguisher until the area is inert and purged.

A

10 feet, 50 square feet

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83
Q

Spills over _________ or of a ___________ shall be immediately reported to the supervisor in charge, who shall notify the airport or local fire department to inert the spill. Anyone in the spill area shall leave at once

A

50 square feet, continuing nature

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84
Q

The collet shall be kept within how many threads of all lower lift tube cylinders when lowering to prevent aircraft damage should the jack collapse?

A

2

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85
Q

When jacking an aircraft outside what is the max wind velocity allowed?

A

15 mph

86
Q

Facility weight lifting devices (e.g., overhead hoist, cranes) used at aviation units shall be tested IAW?

A

Civil Engineering Manual M11000.11

87
Q

Aeronautical equipment (e.g., engine, blade, and prop slings/lifting devices) shall be tested IAW?

A

NAVAIR 17-1-114

88
Q

Do not deplete oxygen bottle below ______ psi?

A

50

89
Q

Oxygen Servicing control valve shall not be opened more than ______-turn so it can be shut off quickly in an emergency

A

4-Mar

90
Q

Ensure a serviceable 125/150 lb wheeled PKP fire extinguisher or equivalent is placed within ______ feet of the LOX servicing operation.

A

50

91
Q

When pressure refueling is used, dipping shall be avoided for at least _________ after completion of the refueling operation

A

3 minutes

92
Q

The radar antenna should not be operated within how many feet of any fueling, defueling, or similar operation

A

300

93
Q

Electric Cargo Trucks shall not be operated within _______ of aircraft during fueling/defueling operations

A

50 feet.

94
Q

Who shall ensure the unit has a well defined towing plan?

A

CO

95
Q

When towing an aircraft who may double as either the vehicle driver or one of the wing walkers?

A

The supervisor

96
Q

For HC-130 towing operations, another qualified person shall be assigned to maintain what?

A

auxiliary hydraulic system pressure utilizing the hand pump

97
Q

What is the max towing speed?

A

speed shall not exceed that of the walking team members.

98
Q

Generally, the distance left between rows of parked aircraft shall be enough to allow what?

A

immediate access of emergency vehicles and free movement of equipment.

99
Q

Who should you contact prior to any movement of aircraft across runways or taxiways?

A

Airport control tower

100
Q

Who designates engine run up areas?

A

CO

101
Q

Only personnel qualified in aircraft type and designated in writing by __________ are authorized to start and run up aircraft engines.

A

CO

102
Q

When can Commanding Officers authorize taxiing without taxi signalman?

A

ramp has clearly defined taxi lines and parking spots.

103
Q

When an aircraft is being taxied within _______ of obstructions, a minimum of one wing walker for each wing tip shall be provided

A

25 feet

104
Q

Aircraft must not be taxied at anytime within _______ of obstructions.

A

5 feet

105
Q

What precautions shall be taken when taxiing aircrafts at night?

A

The taxi strip and parking area should be inspected for work stands and equipment.

106
Q

Hot fueling operations are not allowed within _______ of an occupied building

A

200 feet.

107
Q

What is the proper storage time in shops and supply of chemicals used for maintenance?

A

30 days for shops and 90 days for supply

108
Q

Where shall all publications referenced within CG aviation be contained?

A

TIMOS Master Publication Index (MPI)

109
Q

TIMOS (Technical Information Management and Ordering System ) process guide?

A

85-00-50

110
Q

When will all changes, supplements to technical manuals be incorporated into the applicable manuals?

A

Within 5 working days

111
Q

When are semiannual audits of technical publications conducted?

A

April conducted by QA and shops and October conducted by Shops

112
Q

When are Technical Orders normally revised?

A

When pages requiring changing total 50% or more of the technical order.

113
Q

When are supplements issued for Technical Orders?

A

To augment data in the basic TO

114
Q

ATA Air Conditioning

A

21

115
Q

ATA Auto Flight

A

22

116
Q

ATA Communications

A

23

117
Q

ATA Electrical Power

A

24

118
Q

ATA Equipment/Furnishing

A

25

119
Q

ATA Fire Protection

A

26

120
Q

ATA Flight Control

A

27

121
Q

ATA Fuel

A

28

122
Q

ATA Hydraulics

A

29

123
Q

ATA Ice and Rain Protection

A

30

124
Q

ATA Indicating/Recording Systems

A

31

125
Q

ATA Landing Gear

A

32

126
Q

ATA Lights

A

33

127
Q

ATA Navigation

A

34

128
Q

ATA Oxygen

A

35

129
Q

ATA General

A

5

130
Q

ATA Corrosion

A

14

131
Q

ATA Lifting, Jacking and Shoring

A

7

132
Q

ATA Airborne Power

A

49

133
Q

Who shall conduct monthly reviews of each aircraft logbook?

A

EO

134
Q

As a QA check for ACMS when shall logbook reviews be conducted?

A

Monthly

135
Q

How shall accumulation of flight hours be recorded on the CG-4377?

A

Rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour.

136
Q

How is an engine cycle defined for the ATF3 engine?

A

engine start, power level advanced to 80% N1 and engine shutdown.

137
Q

When shall a new MDL be printed?

A

Monthly

138
Q

A new MDL should project all scheduled maintenance for calendar and hourly tasks for _______ month operating period.

A

2

139
Q

What is required for all components listed on the aircraft configuration report?

A

Significant Component History Report ( SCHR )

140
Q

Where can you find the total hours available and total hours flown during the month by aircraft type?

A

Monthly Unit Operating Statistics ( MORPT )

141
Q

Before the installation of any Type 1 assembly, it is recommended that you do what?

A

Both a current MDL and configuration report be reviewed

142
Q

What happens to components with unknown or missing serial numbers?

A

They can’t be installed

143
Q

Who can assign serial numbers to components with missing or unknown serial numbers?

A

ALC Engineering or CG-41

144
Q

CG-22 Process Guide?

A

85-00-20

145
Q

CG-22 are kept on file for how long?

A

1 year

146
Q

What form shall be used for submitting changes to flight manuals?

A

AF-847

147
Q

What form is used for reporting quality deficiencies on components, engines and aircrafts?

A

Standard Form 368 (Quality Deficiency Report)

148
Q

Reports resulting from HC-130 PDM shall be prepared in message format by the receiving activity not later than ______ after receipt of the aircraft.

A

20 days

149
Q

What is a CG 1577-A?

A

Unsatisfactory Report (UR) Tag

150
Q

What is a DD 1577-2 (green)?

A

Unserviceable Tag, unit

151
Q

What shall be used to communicate information concerning failures of aeronautical components and equipment, including mission equipment, ground support equipment, and tools?

A

Product Quality Deficiency Report

152
Q

What is DD 1577-2 (blue)?

A

Unserviceable Tag, ALC

153
Q

On green and blue tags what is the preferred terms for conditions A, RFI and F, NON-RFI

A

Unserviceable or Serviceable

154
Q

What is DD-1574 (orange)?

A

Serviceable Tag

155
Q

What are the requirements for a Post PDM Memorandum?

A

Discrepancies found during the first 14 Calendar days, 10 sorties and 30 flight hours. All requirements must be met before submitting Memo.

156
Q

How are Failures or unsatisfactory conditions of aeronautical materiel affecting SAFETY OF FLIGHT shall also be reported?

A

By Message

157
Q

Where are Urgent Interim Message URs first entered?

A

AMMIS

158
Q

Who will review all URs?

A

ALC

159
Q

How many days do you have to submit a Post PDM Memorandum?

A

No more than 14 calendar days after “all” requirements have been met.

160
Q

This Post Delivery (TRISWAP )memorandum will include only those discrepancies encountered during the first _____ days of operational availability at the reporting unit

A

14

161
Q

In no case shall the Post Delivery (TRISWAP) Report be submitted later than ________ days after aircraft acceptance

A

30 Calendar

162
Q

A unit receiving an aircraft from a transferring unit shall submit a memorandum report to who?

A

Commanding Officer ALC and copy CG-41, transferring unit and Product Line Managers.

163
Q

As a precaution to EAL service interruptions and to ensure asset operations are not negatively affected, all maintenance records will be backed up a minimum of _____

A

Once a day

164
Q

What ink color is the only authorized for paper forms?

A

Black

165
Q

Selective use of individual forms is authorized for periods of EAL non-connectivity that do not exceed how many hours?

A

4

166
Q

All paper forms will be used if periods of EAL non-connectivity exceed ____ hours in duration.

A

4

167
Q

Dates and times shall be recorded in ZULU format on all forms except where?

A

Mission Schedule

168
Q

How long are EAL paper forms retained for?

A

90 days

169
Q

When corrective action on a BRAVO aircraft is delayed beyond 24 hours, what codes must be applied to the discrepancy?

A

CF, PP, SQ and CFD

170
Q

Who shall authorize all deferred maintenance?

A

EO

171
Q

For non deployed aircraft how long can deferred discrepancies remain open for?

A

No longer than 30 days

172
Q

no deferred discrepancies shall remain open for a period longer than 30 days without the approval of?

A

EO

173
Q

Aeronautical and avionics materiel managed by Aviation Inventory Control Point (AICP) Elizabeth City, is divided into how many types?

A

7

174
Q

Type 1 supply is?

A

(1) Aircraft engines

175
Q

Type 2 supply is?

A

Aeronautical materiel, less avionics

176
Q

Type 3 supply is?

A

Consumable aeronautical materiel, less avionics, with a unit price less than $250 and funded by AFC 30

177
Q

Type 4 supply is?

A

Avionics Materiel

178
Q

Type 5 supply is?

A

Consumable avionics materiel with a unit price less than $800 and funded by AFC 30

179
Q

Type 6 supply is?

A

Aeronautical Support Equipment (SE): For items costing more than $250 but less than $3000

180
Q

Type 7 supply is?

A

Materiel support the Turbomeca Arriel 2C2 CG engine

181
Q

Following the receipt of shipping orders, how soon shall Unserviceable Type 1 materiel be shipped to the designated overhaul/repair facility?

A

Not later than 15 days

182
Q

Who is the supply source for all Types 1, 2, 4, 6, and 7?

A

ALC

183
Q

How are Priority 5 requisitions will be filled?

A

if there are more than two parts on the ALC shelf

184
Q

How are Priority 12 requisitions will be filled?

A

if there are more than five parts on the ALC shelf

185
Q

How are Type 1, 2 4, 6, 7 and 8 requisitioned?

A

From ALC via AMMIS

186
Q

Who controls TCTO change kits?

A

ALC

187
Q

Kits requiring more than 4 labor-hours for incorporation will not normally be issued within ____ months of the scheduled aircraft PDM

A

4

188
Q

Kits requiring 4 or less labor-hours for incorporation will not be issued within ____ days of scheduled aircraft PDM

A

45

189
Q

After removal from service, when shall repairable materiel be returned to ALC?

A

within 15 days

190
Q

The standard allowance gives an air station a ____-day part supply based on _____ years of historical usage

A

90 days and 2 years

191
Q

When will a review of a units spare parts allowance list be conducted?

A

6 months prior to a LCI

192
Q

When will ALC publish a message with the proposed PDM and depot maintenance schedule for the next 6 months for the four main aircraft types?

A

Each quarter

193
Q

Contract Aviation Maintenance Program Process Guide?

A

85-00-140

194
Q

On paper forms blue ink is for?

A

Special Inspections

195
Q

On paper forms Green ink is for?

A

Logbook Reviews

196
Q

On paper forms Red ink is for?

A

Functional check and aircrew warning

197
Q

Parts Pending discrepancies must have a non-flight-essential part requisitioned, and a part requisition number must be provided within?

A

72 hours

198
Q

In preparation for flyaway operations and periods of non-connectivity, each unit shall maintain a sufficient number of printed forms onhand to enable normal asset flight and maintenance operations for a period of?

A

One week

199
Q

What color is the Preflight and Servicing Record?

A

Yellow

200
Q

What color is the Mission Record?

A

Blue

201
Q

What color is the Mission Generated Maint Record?

A

Pink

202
Q

What color is the Flight Safety Maint Document?

A

Pink

203
Q

All material request/issue forms that document a mechanic requesting a part form supply must be retained for how long?

A

3 years

204
Q

Where can you find an Authorized Chemical Use List for an aircraft?

A

Chapter 00 of the ACMS deck

205
Q

Who must approved the location of the Battery Shop?

A

Ground Safety Director, fire inspector and medical officer

206
Q

Temporary improvised scaffolds or stands must be approved by?

A

Safety Officer

207
Q

How are dates recorded in Aircraft Logbooks (Records)?

A

2 digits for month, 2 for day and 2 for year

208
Q

In what form do your record Airframe and Engine Operating Time and Cycle information?

A

AFTO 781J and is kept for one year

209
Q

What is the Aircraft Inventory Record Certification and Record of Transfer form?

A

OPNAV 4790/104

210
Q

What is the Aircraft Inventory Record form?

A

OPNAV 4790/110

211
Q

What is the Aircraft Inventory Record Shortages?

A

OPNAV 4790/112

212
Q

What is the Force Designator for airstations and USCG Headquartes?

A

ll

SWE Study guide 2013 (2 decks)

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