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801 Flashcards

1
Q

Software that temporarily stores print jobs on the computer hard disk or in memory until the printer is ready to print them is called:

Print Spooler
Task Manager
Feed Assembly
Task Scheduler

A

Print Spooler

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2
Q

In impact printing, calibration helps to ensure that the colours and layout represented on the monitor display match the colours and layout of the printed image.
(True or False)

A

False

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3
Q

Which of the following printer types use inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper?

A

Dot matrix and Daisy wheel

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4
Q

Parallel printer cable connectors include:

USB Type A connector
DB-25 connector
IEEE 1394
RJ-45
Centronics connector
A

Centronics connector

DB-25 connector

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5
Q

List the correct order of the laser printing process?

Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

Developing, cleaning, exposing, transferring, charging, fusing, processing

Processing, exposing, charging, transferring, developing, fusing, cleaning

Cleaning, fusing, exposing, developing, transferring, processing, charging

A

Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

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6
Q

Installing a third-party printer driver in Windows requires administrative access.
(True or False)

A

True

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7
Q

Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve ordinary solid combustibles, such as paper and wood?

A

Class A

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8
Q

Print device sharing through a wired connection can be implemented with the use of which of the following interfaces?

Parallel
USB
Bluetooth
Serial 
802.11x
Ethernet
A

Parallel, USB, Serial, and Ethernet

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9
Q

Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve ordinary flammable liquids and gases?

A

Class B

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10
Q

Software that cannot be clearly classified as malware is known as:

A

Grayware

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11
Q

The quality of output produced by 9-pin dot-matrix printers is referred to as:

A

Draft Quality

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12
Q

Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve energized electrical equipment?

A

Class C

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13
Q

Which of the following answers lists an example of a connectionless protocol?

A

User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

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14
Q

Which of the following answers list the characteristics of Microdrive (MD): (Select 2 answers)

Solid-State Drive (SSD)
USB thumb drive
Fits into CF II slot
Fits into CF I slot
Small form factor HDD
A

Fits into CF II slot and Small form factor HDD

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15
Q

ExpressCard /34 and ExpressCard /54 are two form factors specified by the ExpressCard standard. Numbers after slash in these two form factors refer to the card’s:

A

Width

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16
Q

Every computer on a single LAN must have the same host ID and unique network ID. True or False

A

False

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17
Q

Flash memory card formats include: (Select all that apply)

xD-Picture Card
CompactFlash (CF)
Secure Digital (SD)
eSATA
SmartMedia
Memory Stick
A

xD-Picture Card
CompactFlash (CF)
Secure Digital (SD)
SmartMedia

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18
Q

Which of the following tools would be the best for verifying the correct electrical connections of wires in a cable?

A

Cable tester

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19
Q

The two most common form factors used in modern HDDs include: (Select 2 answers)

5.25-inch
3.5-inch
2.5-inch
ATX
1.8-inch

A
  1. 5-inch

2. 5-inch

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20
Q

Inverter: (Select 2 answers)

Inverter: (Select 2 answers) Converts AC power into DC power
Supplies voltage to backlights of an LCD panel
Converts DC power into AC power
Supplies voltage to backlights of an OLED display

A

Supplies voltage to backlights of an LCD panel

Converts DC power into AC power

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21
Q

Which of the following answers lists an HDD form factor used in laptops?

A

2.5-inch



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22
Q

Which of the following answers lists an HDD form factor used in desktops?

A

3.5-inch

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23
Q

A dedicated computer appliance designed for storing and serving files on a network is known as:

A

NAS

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24
Q

The term “brownout” refers to what kind of situation?

A

Temporary drop in voltage

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25
Q

A network protocol that allows multiple devices on a private LAN to connect to a public network with the use of the same public IPv4 address is called:

A

NAT

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26
Q

Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network?

A

WPS

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27
Q

Which of the following wireless standards allows for the highest data transfer rate?

A

IEEE 802.11n

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28
Q

Which of the following offers the highest level of security?

A

802.11i

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29
Q

IEEE 802.11g offers backward compatibility with which of the following wireless standards?

A

802.11b

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30
Q

802.11a devices operate in the frequency range of:

A

5 GHz

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31
Q

Which of the following standards allows for achieving the highest distance between Wireless Access Point (WAP) and connecting wireless devices?

A

IEEE 802.11n

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32
Q

802.11a devices support data transfer rates of up to:

A

54 Mbps

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33
Q

802.11b devices operate in the frequency range of:

A

2.4 GHz

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34
Q

UTP cabling falls into the category of:

A

Twisted-pair cabling

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35
Q

802.11b devices support data transfer rates of up to:

A

11 Mbps

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36
Q

802.11g devices operate in the frequency range of:

A

2.4 GHz

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37
Q

Which of the following hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?

A

NAT

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38
Q

IEEE 802.11n offers backward compatibility with which of the following standards? (Select all that apply)

  1. 11g
  2. 11a
  3. 3
  4. 11b
A
  1. 11g
  2. 11a
  3. 11b
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39
Q

In structured cabling, the interference between signals sent over adjacent wires is commonly referred to as:

A

Crosstalk (XT)

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40
Q

802.11g devices support data transfer rates of up to:

A

54 Mbps

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41
Q

A type of network topology where each node has a connection to every other node in the network is known as:

A

Mesh

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42
Q

802.11n devices operate in the frequency range of: (Select all that apply)

A

2.4 GHz

5 GHz

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43
Q

In UTP and STP cabling wires in wire pairs are twisted around one another in order to minimize signal interference.

A

True

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44
Q

802.11n devices support data transfer rates of up to:

A

100+ Mbps

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45
Q

Fast Ethernet is a collective term for a number of Ethernet standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of:

A

100 Mbps

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46
Q

802.11n improves upon the previous IEEE 802.11 standards by offering which of the following features?

A

MIMO

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47
Q

Which of the following uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?

A

WPA2

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48
Q

TCP port 143 is used by:

A

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

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49
Q

Which of the following port numbers is used by Telnet?

A

23

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50
Q

An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses is called:

A

DNS

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51
Q

File Transfer Protocol (FTP) runs by default on TCP ports: (Select 2 answers)

A

20 and 21

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52
Q

A security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network is called:

A

MAC filtering

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53
Q

LDAP is an example of:

A

Directory access protocol

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54
Q

Which of the following TCP port numbers is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)?

A

25

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55
Q

An IPv4 address consists of:

A

32 bits

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56
Q

Which of the following port numbers is used by DNS?

A

53

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57
Q

Server Message Block (SMB) is an example of:

A

Network file sharing protocol

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58
Q

TCP port 80 is used by:

A

HTTP

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59
Q

Which of the following network protocols provides secure alternative to FTP?

A

SFTP

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60
Q

TCP port 443 is used by:

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)

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61
Q

A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company’s firewall consisting of publicly available servers is commonly referred to as:

A

DMZ

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62
Q

An IPv6 address consists of:

A

128 bits

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63
Q

IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing:

A

WLANs

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64
Q

Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on TCP port:

A

110

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65
Q

IEEE 802.16 is a series of standards defining high-speed, long-distance wireless communication, also known as:

A

WiMAX

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66
Q

Which of the following default port numbers is not used by a remote administration tool?

A

25

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67
Q

A computer network consisting of interconnected PDA devices is known as:

A

PAN

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68
Q

Which of the following port numbers is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)?

A

3389

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69
Q

The SATA standard defines data cable connector consisting of:

A

7 pins

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70
Q

Which of the following acronyms refers to a technology enabling more efficient use of electric power in a PSU?

A

PFC

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71
Q

The colored stripe on one of the edges of a floppy drive ribbon cable is used to indicate the proper alignment between the cable connector and the motherboard socket.

A

True

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72
Q

Which of the following connectors increases the power consumption limit for advanced graphics cards?

A

PCIe 6/8-pin

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73
Q

Main motherboard power connectors typically consist of: (Select 2 answers)

A

20 pins and 24 pins

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74
Q

The floppy drive ribbon cable connector consists of:

A

34 pins

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75
Q

Which of the following auxiliary connectors is used to supply dedicated power for a high-end CPU?

A

4/8-pin 12v

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76
Q

The SATA standard specifies power connector consisting of:

A

15 pins

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77
Q

Which of the following connectors are used with optical fiber cabling? (Select all that apply)

A

ST, SC, and LC

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78
Q

An Ethernet crossover cable uses:

A

T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on the opposite end

79
Q

Optional 8-pin PCIe power connector increases the power consumption limit for connected device to:

A

150 W

80
Q

The FTP protocol is designed for:

A

File exchange

81
Q

Which of the following connector types can be used for connecting keyboards and mice to a PC? (Select all that apply)

A

PS/2
6-pin Mini-DIN
USB

82
Q

Which of the following connector types are used with twisted-pair cabling? (Select 2 answers)

A

RJ-45

RJ-11

83
Q

What is the function of IMAP and POP?

A

Retrieval of email messages from servers

Serving of web pages

84
Q

Which of the following acronyms refers to a Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection?

A

RDP

85
Q

Optional 6-pin PCIe power connector increases the power consumption limit for connected device to:

A

75 W

86
Q

Which of the following answers refer to specifications used for coaxial cabling? (Select all that apply)

A

RG-6

RG-59

87
Q

Which of the following protocols was designed as a secure replacement for Telnet?

A

SSH

88
Q

A twist in the floppy ribbon cable wiring is used to identify drives on the cable.

A

True

89
Q

Which of the following acronyms refers to a protocol used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices?

A

SNMP

90
Q

Which of the following connectors are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers)

A

F-connector

BNC

91
Q

Which of the following answers describe the features of tape drives? (Select 3 answers)

A

Magnetic media
Slow seek times
High capacity

92
Q

A smaller, faster memory type for storing copies of the data from frequently used main memory locations used by the central processing unit of a computer to reduce the average time to access memory is called:

A

CPU cache

93
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to the Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector?

A

Three-row 15-pin connector

94
Q

A computer on a network where most functions are carried out on a central server or a software application that uses the client-server model where the server performs all the processing is called:

A

Thin client

95
Q

What unit is used for measuring clock speed in modern CPUs?

A

GHz (gigahertz)

96
Q

List storage media types arranged from lowest to highest capacity?

A

Floppy disk, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray), Tape

97
Q

Which two hardware components would have the highest priority while building a custom workstation designed to run virtual machines?

A

CPU

RAM

98
Q

What is the name of a microprocessor component that performs all comparisons and calculations?

A

ALU

99
Q

Which terms refer to CPU technologies designed to minimize the CPU’s power consumption and heat generation? ( 2 answers)

A

CPU throttling

SpeedStep

100
Q

Brightness of an LCD monitor (the level of light emitted by an LCD display) is measured in:

A

Candelas per square metre (cd/m2)

101
Q

A component of computer graphics display adapters which converts digitally encoded images into analog signals that can be displayed by a monitor is called:

A

RAMDAC

102
Q

Name two display standards that use 4:3 aspect ratio?

A

UXGA

SVGA

103
Q

In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a CRT monitor it is usually recommended setting the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the CRT’s native resolution). (true or false)

A

False

104
Q

What terms refers to a monitor filter used to reduce reflection from the surface of a CRT or LCD display?

A

Antiglare

105
Q

Describe the disadvantages of virtualization?

A

Multiple virtual machines run on a single host share hardware resources which has a degrading effect on performance
Hardware used for hosting virtual machines becomes a single point of failure

106
Q

In personal computer microprocessor architecture, a computer bus used to connect the CPU to CPU cache memory is called:

A

Back-side bus (FSB)

107
Q

Which interface is used for digital audio?

A

S/PDIF

108
Q

In virtualization technology, a software program that manages multiple operating systems (or multiple instances of the same operating system) on a single computer system is called:

A

Hypervisor

109
Q

Give a physical security measures can be applied to a computer screen?

A

Privacy filter

110
Q

Which of the following statements apply to the USB 3.0 standard?

A

Speed of up to 5 Gbps
Backward compatibility with USB 2.0
USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as SuperSpeed USB

111
Q

Which of the following ATA versions allows for attaching devices other than hard drives?

A

ATAPI

112
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 3.0 standard?

A

6 Gbps

113
Q

IEEE 1394 standard specifies the maximum cable length of:

A

4.5 meters

114
Q

The SATA standard specifies a power connector consisting of:

A

15 pins

115
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 2.0 standard?

A

3 Gbps

116
Q

A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket with:

A

Only 1 device

117
Q

Which of the following statements list(s) data transfer rates of the USB 1.1 standard?

A

12 Mbps

1.5 Mbps

118
Q

Parallel ATA (PATA) cables have a maximum allowable length of:

A

18 inches

119
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Hi-Speed USB?

A

480 Mbps

120
Q

Which type of standard FireWire connector has the capability of supplying voltage to a device?

A

6-pin connector

121
Q

Serial ATA (SATA) cables have a maximum allowable length of:

A

1 meter

122
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by SuperSpeed USB?

A

5 Gbps

123
Q

Which of the following are parallel communication interfaces?

A

AGP
PCI
IEEE 1284

124
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Low-Speed USB?

A

1.5 Mbps

125
Q

Which of the following statements apply to the IEEE 1394a standard?

A

FireWire 400

Data transfer rate of up to 400 Mbps

126
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 1.0 standard?

A

1.5 Gbps

127
Q

Which of the following interfaces is used for digital audio?

A

S/PDIF

128
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Full-Speed USB?

A

12 Mbps

129
Q

A feature that can be found in some types of PC Power Supply Units that allows a PSU to automatically adapt to the AC voltage supplied from the power socket is called:

A

Auto-switching

130
Q

A single IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to:

A

63 devices

131
Q

Which of the following statements apply to the IEEE 1394b standard?

A

FireWire 800

Data transfer rate of up to 800 Mbps

132
Q

What is the maximum length for external SATA (eSATA) cable?

A

2 meters

133
Q

SCSI ID:

A

Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain

134
Q

Platters of a magnetic hard drive spin at a rate measured in:

A

Revolutions per minute (rpm)

135
Q

Which of the following characteristics apply to tape drives? (Select 3 answers)

A

High capacity
Magnetic media
Slow seek times

136
Q

What is the capacity of a standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc?

A

25 GB

137
Q

RAID Level 10 requires a minimum of:

A

4 drives

138
Q

A single-sided, single-layer DVD disc can store up to:

A

4.7 GB of data

139
Q

What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller?

A

127

140
Q

Red stripe on the edge of the floppy disk ribbon cable is used for:

A

Marking the connection with PIN 1 on the motherboard

141
Q

What is the maximum cable length for USB devices?

A

5 meters

142
Q

What is the capacity of a dual-layer mini Blu-ray disc?

A

15.6 GB

143
Q

What is the maximum speed supported by the USB 1.1 standard?

A

12 Mbps

144
Q

Which of the following terms refer to RAID Level 1? (Select two answers)

A

Disk duplexing

Disk mirroring

145
Q

A memory cache on the microprocessor chip is known as:

A

Level 1 (L1) cache

146
Q

What is the maximum allowable cable length defined in the Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard?

A

18 inches

147
Q

Which of the following values refers to the number of pinouts that can be found on a floppy disk cable?

A

34

148
Q

Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to:

A

4.5 meters

149
Q

Which of the following is the maximum speed supported by the IEEE 1394b interface?

A

800 Mbps

150
Q

A 3½-inch floppy disk can store up to:

A

1.44 MB

151
Q

Which of the following are the two main CPU manufacturers for personal computers? (Select 2 answers)

A

AMD

Intel

152
Q

A single-sided, double-layer DVD disc can store up to:

A

8.5 GB of data

153
Q

Which of the following is an example of a serial expansion bus?

A

PCIe

154
Q

For CPUs without integrated memory controller, which part of chipset manages communication between the CPU and memory?

A

Northbridge

155
Q

Which of the following slots on the motherboard allow for attaching a dedicated video card? (Select 2 answers)

A

PCIe

AGP

156
Q

CNR slot:

A

Is used for specialized networking, audio, and telephony equipment

157
Q

Which of the following devices can be installed in an AMR slot?

A

Modem

158
Q

ECC type RAM:

A

Can detect and correct errors

159
Q

Certain types of RAM take advantage of an additional bit in order to detect whether a data error has occurred. An extra bit is used to store information about the number of bits set to the value of one in a given string of data (typically one byte) and by examining that information at different stages of processing it is possible to detect whether the data has been corrupted or not. What is the name of that extra bit? (Select best answer)

A

Parity bit

160
Q

Compared to a non-ECC type of memory, the ECC RAM is a less expensive option and will always perform faster.

A

False

161
Q

Which of the following sockets is designed to work with CPUs manufactured by AMD?

Socket AM3
Socket T
LGA 1366
Socket B

A

Socket AM3

162
Q

A type of PCI slot designed for expansion cards installed in laptops characterized by a much smaller form factor when compared to its desktop version is called:

A

miniPCI

163
Q

Each switch and LED on the front panel of a computer case has a connector attached to it that must be attached to the appropriate pins on the:

A

Motherboard

164
Q

The most notable difference between pin grid array (PGA) and land grid array (LGA) packaging relates to the placement of contact pins, which in case of PGA can be found on the socket, and in case of LGA on the CPU.

A

False

165
Q

Rambus DRAM design requires memory modules to be installed in sets of two. Any remaining open memory slots must be filled with:

A

Continuity modules (CRIMMs)

166
Q

An expansion card equipped with slots for additional adapter cards is called: (Select best answer)

A

Riser Card

167
Q

Which of the following configuration settings can be applied to Parallel ATA (PATA) drives to set their priority when multiple drives are attached to the same cable? (Select all that apply)

A

Cable select
Master
Slave

168
Q

Which of the following CPU socket types is compatible with an AMD microprocessor?

A

Socket FM1

169
Q

A storage technology that combines multiple disk drive components into a single logical unit to increase logical volume size, improve performance, or reliability is known as:

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

170
Q

Hardware-based RAID Level 0: (Select 3 answers)

Is also known as disk striping

Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array destroys the entire array)

Is also referred to as disk mirroring

Offers less volume capacity in comparison to RAID 1

Requires at least 3 drives to implement

Is suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance

A

Is also known as disk striping
Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array destroys the entire array)
Is suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance

171
Q

Hardware-based RAID Level 1: (Select 3 answers)

Requires at least 2 drives to implement

Is also known as disk striping

Offers improved performance in comparison to RAID 0

Offers improved reliability by creating identical data sets on each drive (failure of one drive does not destroy the array as each drive contains identical copy of the data)

Is also referred to as disk mirroring

A

Requires at least 2 drives to implement

Offers improved reliability by creating identical data sets on each drive (failure of one drive does not destroy the array as each drive contains identical copy of the data)

Is also referred to as disk mirroring

172
Q

Hardware-based RAID Level 5: (Select 2 answers)

Continues to operate in case of failure of more than 1 drive

Requires at least 3 drives to implement

Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (single drive failure does not destroy the array and lost data can be re-created by the remaining drives)

Requires at least 5 drives to implement

A

Requires at least 3 drives to implement

Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (single drive failure does not destroy the array and lost data can be re-created by the remaining drives)

173
Q

Which of the following socket types are designed for Intel CPUs? (Select 3 answers)

Socket 940
Socket FM1
LGA 1366 / Socket B
Socket AM3
LGA 775 / Socket T
LGA 1156 / Socket H
A

LGA 1366 / Socket B
LGA 775 / Socket T
LGA 1156 / Socket H

174
Q

After completing the initial diagnostics and assigning system resources, the startup BIOS program checks for information about secondary storage devices that might contain the OS. The list of devices and the order in which they should be checked can be found and arranged in the CMOS setup utility, and this option is commonly referred to as:

A

Boot sequence

175
Q

After a normal system shutdown, when the computer is turned off, contents of the memory used to store BIOS settings are:

A

Retained

176
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a technology that allows for storing passwords, certificates, or encryption keys in a hardware chip?

A

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

177
Q

Which of the following are power management specifications? (Select two answers)

A

ACPI

APM

178
Q

What kind of security features can be set in BIOS? (Select all that apply)

A

User password required to proceed when the computer is powered on
Group Policy settings

Password-restricted access to the BIOS setup utility

179
Q

A computer supporting LoJack technology has two main components installed: an Application Agent residing in the operating system which sends tracking signals to the monitoring center allowing the law enforcement to locate and recover stolen device, and Persistence Module which restores the Application Agent and allows it to survive operating system re-installation or hard drive format. The highest level of security offered by LoJack can be achieved when Persistence Module resides in:

A

Computer’s BIOS

180
Q

Which of the following is an example of firmware?

A

Basic Input / Output System (BIOS)

181
Q

Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled / disabled in the BIOS setup utility (if a BIOS comes equipped with this feature). Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside the computer case, this option can be used to check if the case was opened and display a notification alert during next boot.

A

True

182
Q

Which of the following resources can be used by an operating system to communicate with hardware? (Select two answers)

A

System BIOS

Device drivers

183
Q

After replacing a modular hardware component inside computer case, the updated information about specific parameters of the new device is stored in:

A

CMOS RAM

184
Q

A BIOS might be reflashed in order to: (Select all that apply)

A

Fix known programming errors discovered in the current BIOS version

Repair damaged BIOS

Provide support for new types of attached hardware

185
Q

The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing: (Select best answer)

A

The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing CMOS setup utility during boot

186
Q

A software embedded into a hardware chip is also referred to as:

A

Firmware

187
Q

After launching Windows Virtual PC application technician receives error message stating that the hardware-assisted virtualization (HAV) feature is not enabled on the computer. Which of the following steps might help in fixing this problem? (Select best answer)

A

Getting into the CMOS setup utility and enabling the virtualization technology setting

188
Q

Which Windows OS utility can be used to view basic information about computer’s BIOS?

A

MSINFO32.EXE

189
Q

CMOS settings can be set to factory defaults by: (Select all that apply)

Using a jumper that can be found on the motherboard
Changing settings in Windows Device Manager
Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard
Choosing the default configuration option in the CMOS setup utility


A

Using a jumper that can be found on the motherboard

Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard

Choosing the default configuration option in the CMOS setup utility

190
Q

Which of the following terms refer to BIOS types that can be updated without removing the BIOS chip from a motherboard? (Select two answers)

A

EEPROM

Flash Memory

191
Q

While trying to enable the entire drive encryption feature in Windows technician receives the following error message: “A compatible Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Security Device must be present on this computer, but a TPM was not found”. Knowing that the system has a TPM chip installed, which of the following steps might help in solving this problem?

A

Enabling the TPM security feature in CMOS setup menu

192
Q

Which of the following acronyms refers to an integrated circuit that keeps track of the current time in a PC?

A

RTC

193
Q

Which of the following are the features offered by LoJack? (Select all that apply)

Remote installation of LoJack’s BIOS component
Remote sanitation (removal of data)
Remote device lock to deny access to any unauthorized users
Ability to track down the physical location of a stolen device

A

Remote sanitation (removal of data)

Remote device lock to deny access to any unauthorized users

Ability to track down the physical location of a stolen device

194
Q

The term “BIOS extension” refers to a situation where peripheral cards such as hard-drive controllers or video display adapters come equipped with their own BIOS chips to provide additional functionality or to replace the motherboard BIOS services with their own versions of those services. BIOS found on extension cards is also referred to as:

A

Option ROM

A+ (7 decks)

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