787 Flashcards
1
Q
During an approach in VNAV with VNAV PATH annunciated and at command speed, when does the reference thrust limit change from CRZ to GA?
A - 1500’ RA
B - Extending the flaps from Up to Flaps 1
C - Selecting flaps 20
D - Extending the Landing Gear
A
B - Extending the flaps from Up to Flaps 1
2
Q
Which of the following is correct concerning the landing gear and brakes?
A - The alternate brake system is powered by the backup electrical power source
B - The aft axle of each main gear pivot in order to improve turning radius
C - The normal nose wheel hydraulic system is powered by the right hydraulic system
D - The brake system is powered by four electrical brake supply units
A
D - The brake system is powered by four electrical brake supply units
3
Q
At what IAS does the auto-throttle annunciation change to HOLD during takeoff? A - 64 Kts B - 100 Kts C - V1 D - 80 Kts
A
D - 80 Kts
4
Q
Where is the APU Ground Control Fire Protection Panel located
A - In the main gear well left hand side looking forward
B - Inside the left forward fuselage external power receptacles
C - In the nose wheel well
D - In the right main gear well
A
C - In the nose wheel well
5
Q
The stabiliser takeoff trim greenband indicates the allowable takeoff trim limits based on data from the FMC. What other source provides sets o
validation limits to confirm that the computed green band is correct?
A - Main gear truck tilt sensor data
B - Information from two nose gear pressure transducers
C - Main and nose gear pressure data
D - Information from main gear and nose gear oleo proximity switches
A
B - Information from two nose gear pressure transducers
6
Q
Which electrical mode (bus) if any , is energized when a single forward external power source is illuminates an AVAIL light? A - Ground Service B - Ground Handling C - Towing Power D - Standby Power
A
B - Ground Handling
7
Q
The weather radar should not be operated in a hangar or within what distance of any fuel spill? A - 125 feet B - 100 metres C - 15.25 metres D - 75 feet
A
C - 15.25 metres
8
Q
How many electric cabin air compressors (CACs) supply and regulate outside air to the aeroplane? A - 8 B - 2 C - 6 D - 4
A
D - 4
9
Q
What is the BARO minimums indicator in the HUD?
A - It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale always on view
B - It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when RA Minimums are displayed
C - Its is a green pointer line, left of the altitude scale, when BARO minimums are displayed
D - It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when BARO minimums are displayed
A
D - It is a green triangular pointer and line on the altitude scale when BARO minimums are displayed
10
Q
What is the first memory item of the ‘Airspeed Unreliable’ non-normal checklist?
A - A/P Disconnect Switch….Push
B - F/D Switches (both)…..OFF
C - Check pitch attitude and thrust for phase of flight
D - Disconnect Autothrottle switch
A
A - A/P Disconnect Switch….Push
11
Q
What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing tailwind component limitation for the aeroplane? A - 25 Kts B - 10 Kts C - 15 Kts D - 20 Kts
A
C - 15 Kts
12
Q
What is the correct indication of a properly entered emergency access code in the flight deck access keypad?
A - Entry produces an EICAS caution message and illuminates a red light on keypad
B - Entry sound a flight deck chime
C - Entry initiates an EICAS warning message and illuminates the amber light on the keypad
D - The entry produces an EICAS advisory message and illuminates a green light on the keypad
A
C - Entry initiates an EICAS warning message and illuminates the amber light on the keypad
13
Q
When using the oxygen mask and goggles in a non normal situation, which of the following is a correct statement?
A - 100% oxygen is used when positive pressure is not needed
B - EMERGENCY position is selected when positive pressure is not needed
C - 100%oxygen will provide a positive pressure in the mask and goggles to remove contaminates
D - Normal position is sufficient to keep flight deck air concentrates out of the mask and goggles
A
A - 100% oxygen is used when positive pressure is not needed
14
Q
The EFIS control panel traffic (TFC) switch is on. What does the following solid round symbol (display in Amber) indicate- O +02 ↓
A - Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 200 feet below descending >_500fpm
B - Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >500fpm
C - Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending > 500fpm
D - Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm
A
C - Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm
15
Q
From which source does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) receive its attitude information? A - Standby ADRS B - Left IRS C - Right IRS D - Internal Inertial sensors
A
D - Internal Inertial sensors
16
Q
Which of the following best describes the probe heats?
A - Three TAT (Total Air Temperature) probes are electrically heated for ice protection
B - Three probes are electrically heated when either engine is operated
C - The angle of attack probe will operate once both engines have been started
D - Wing mounted pitot probes are heated in flight to protect against ice accretion
A
B - Three probes are electrically heated when either engine is operated
17
Q
The engine auto-relight function is activated on the ground and in-flight under which of the following circumstances?
A - For in-flight starts, auto-relight makes continuous start attempts until either the engine either starts or the pilot aborts the start attempt.
B - Whenever an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN
C - Both systems are activated for in-flight starts
D - Operates continuously whenever flaps are out of up and when engine anti-icing is ON or AUTO
A
B - Whenever an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN
18
Q
On which Display Units (DU’s) can the Control Display Unit (CDU) be displayed?
A - The Captains Left inboard DU and the Lower Center DU
B - Only the Lower MFD
C - The F/O’s Right inboard DU and the lower Centre DU
D - Any of the MFDs
A
D - Any of the MFDs
19
Q
With the APU providing electrical power on the ground and both pack switches in Auto, how many Cabin Air Compressors (CACs) will be operating? A - 3 B - 2 C - 1 D - 4
A
B - 2
20
Q
The MENU key on the tuning control panel (TCP) shows that a SYS POWER selection key is available. Pressing this key shows a SYS POWER page for which system?
A - For the L, R and Center TCPs
B - For the Transponder and Weather Radars
C - For the L and R HF radios
D - For the GPWS
A
B - For the Transponder and Weather Radars
21
Q
How does the EXIT HOLD facility direct the aircraft to leave the hold when executed?
A - Via the fix on the inbound course, providing exit course is closely aligned
B - On the current aircraft heading
C - On selected aircraft heading
D - Direct to the next waypoint
A
A - Via the fix on the inbound course, providing exit course is closely aligned
22
Q
When will Fuel Balance operations be inhibited?
A - When the centre tanks are empty
B - When the aircraft is on the ground with the APU running
C - When both centre pumps are OFF
D - When one or both centre pumps are ON
A
D - When one or both centre pumps are ON
23
Q
The density of the fuel being loaded must be between 0.7549 KG/L (6.3LB/GAL) and 0.8507 KG/L (7.1LB/GAL) Why?
A - It affects the weight in the wings to relieve high wing loads
B - It could cause the fuel scavenge system to operate improperly
C - It will be outside the limits for the loadsheet calculation
D - It affects the maximum permitted main tanks lateral fuel imbalance of 680KG (1500LB)
A
A - It affects the weight in the wings to relieve high wing loads
24
Q
Where can the Flight Crew oxygen pressure be checked? A - Bottom of the left EICAS display B - Displayed vis the DSP / SYS / STAT C - EICAS maintenance page D - Accessory panel
A
B - Displayed vis the DSP / SYS / STAT
25
In case of a minor fuel imbalance, how may manual fuel cross-feed be initiated?
A - Switch OFF pumps on the low quantity side and open the both cross-valve
B - Open the cross-feed valve and switch OFF the pumps on the low quantity side
C - Open the cross-feed valve switch OFF the pumps on the high quantity side
D - Switch OFF the pumps on the high quantity side and open the cross-feed valve
B - Open the cross-feed valve and switch OFF the pumps on the low quantity side
26
On a 900 mile route, which page is displayed if the DEP/ARR key is pressed in flight at less than 400 miles from the ORIGIN airfield ?
A - DEPARTURES for the origin airfield
B - DEP/ARR INDEX
C - ARRIVALS for the destination airfield
D - ARRIVALS for the origin airport
D - ARRIVALS for the origin airport
27
```
What is the minimum height for engaging the autopilot after takeoff?
A - 200 feet AGL
B - 100 feet AGL
C - 400 feet AGL
D - 50 feet AGL
```
A - 200 feet AGL
28
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Navigation Performance scale (NPS) Indicators are displayed on the PFD. Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning when the NPS is displayed?
A - When VNAV is ACTIVE
B - When TO/GA Roll Mode is ACTIVE
C - When LNAV is armed or ACTIVE
D - All of the above
```
D - All of the above
29
```
What flap settings can be used for automatic landings with one engine inoperative?
A - Flaps 25 or 30 Only
B - Flaps 15,20 or 30
C - Flaps 20 or 25 Only
D - Flaps 20, 25 or 30
```
D - Flaps 20, 25 or 30
30
What is the memory item of the 'Aborted Engine Start' non-normal checklist?
A - Engine fire switch (affected side) ----------Override and Pull
B - FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ---------CUTOFF
C - FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ----------RUN
D - ENG START Lever (affected side) ----------------OFF
B - FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ---------CUTOFF
31
On a go around when a valid missed approach path exists, and with Autopilot Engaged when does LNAV activate?
A - LNAV automatically activates at 400 feet radio altitude
B - LNAV activates automatically at 200 feet radio altitude
C - LNAV activates at 200 feet barometric altitude.
D - It does not engage until ARMEd and above 50 feet radio altitude
B - LNAV activates automatically at 200 feet radio altitude
32
The Hydraulic Centre Demand Pump will operate under which one of the following conditions?
A - In the descent below 2,000 feet until gear is locked down, trucks tilted and gear doors closed
B - On the ground for five minutes after an engine has been started
C - From commencing the take off run until the gear is up and the gear doors closed
D - When flaps or slats are in motion
D - When flaps or slats are in motion
33
```
What are the maximum Headwind Tailwind and Crosswind component speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?
A - 20, 15 and 20 knots respectively
B - 20, 20 and 25 knots respectively
C - 25, 15 and 25 knots respectively
D - 15, 15 and 25 knots respectively
```
C - 25, 15 and 25 knots respectively
34
```
What is the primary source of power for the Flight Control Electronic’s?
A - The Main 235v AC System
B - Directly from the Mains Battery
C - 28v DC distribution system
D - Three PMGs
```
D - Three PMGs
35
The Left and Right hydraulic systems are virtually identical. What does the Left system power?
A - Left Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right Wing Spoiler
B - Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right and Left Wing Spoilers
C - Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Left Wing Spoiler
D - Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Landing Gear Actuation
B - Flight Controls, Left Thrust Reverser, Right and Left Wing Spoilers
36
Which statement about the APU fire extinguishing system is correct?
A - The only APU fire bottle discharge mechanism available for in flight and ground use is located on the cockpit overhead panel
B - In normal operation on the ground with both engines off, an APU overheat signal from either APU detection loop causes an automatic APU shutdown
C - There are two APU fire extinguisher bottles. When APU fire switch is pulled rotating the switch in either direction discharges one of the bottles
D - On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge
D - On the ground with both engines off an APU fire signal from either APU fire detector loop causes APU shutdown and extinguisher bottle discharge
37
Which of the following represents the aeroplane performance in a VNAV descent, after the top of descent?
A - The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV SPD through out the descent. The thrust controls speed in `VNAV SPD and pitch controls speed in VNAV PTH
B - The FMC creates the descent path with a deceleration at the sped transition altitude VNAV plans a speed target 10 knots below the transition speed to allow for the unknown headwinds
C - Above the deceleration point if the speed falls more than 15knots below target speed the FMC changes the pitch mode annunciation from VNAV SPD to VNAV PTH and the FMC message THRUST REQUIRED displays
D - The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV PTH through out the descent as long as the speed remains within the speed band on the PFD
D - The pitch mode does not change with speed intervention and remains in VNAV PTH through out the descent as long as the speed remains within the speed band on the PFD
38
```
Whilst on the ground during the take off run an RTO is initiated. Above what groundspeed will the RTO auto braking setting command maximum braking pressure?
A - 80 Kts
B - 75 Kts
C - 90 Kts
D - 85 Kts
```
D - 85 Kts
39
The Ground handling Mode is already active with the aeroplane parked. The Ground Service mode is then activated. What additional significant electrical loads become available?
A - Flight Deck equipment, controls and indications
B - Limited cabin systems and lighting
C - PECs (both loops)
D - Cargo heat and limited hydraulics
B - Limited cabin systems and lighting
40
Which of the following will cause the speed brake lever to be driven aft from the ARMED position and spoiler extension to occur on landing?
A - On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take-off range
B - On the ground and both thrust levers at idle regardless of main gear truck position
C - Both thrust levers are not in the take-off range regardless of main gear position
D - On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are in reverse
A - On the ground when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take-off range
41
How is the TCAS airspace display mode selected?
A - To set airspace above, normal or below, press the Transponder (XPDR) on the TCP, then press the desired line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW
B - Airspace above, normal or below is selected with the TCAS rotary selector on the transponder panel
C - To set airspace above , normal or below press menu on the TCP, then select TCAS, then press the line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW
D - To set airspace above, normal or below press the systems(SYS) display switch on the DSP, select TCAS, then choose the desired setting from menu
A - To set airspace above, normal or below, press the Transponder (XPDR) on the TCP, then press the desired line select key for ABOVE, NORMAL or BELOW
42
```
In which lateral mode(s) of the AFDS does the BANK LIMIT selector on the mode control panel (MCP) operate?
A - LNAV
B - HDG HOLD
C - All modes
D - HDG SEL or TRK SEL
```
D - HDG SEL or TRK SEL
43
What is the function of the Flight Deck Overhead Door Vent?
A - It opens to protect the fuselage against an excessive positive differential
B - It opens to protect the fuselage against excessive negative pressure differential
C - It allows ventilation of the flight deck in non normal conditions
D - Its is used for the emergency egress when the aircraft is on the ground
C - It allows ventilation of the flight deck in non normal conditions
44
Before engine start, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action could be taken to check if pump is being load-shed?
A - No action required, it is always load-shed prior to start
B - Observe the EICAS a message will be displayed after a short sensing delay
C - Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED
D - Switch the Pump OFF then back on to see if it clears
C - Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED
45
The approach Reference and Navigation sources annunciation in the top left hand corner of the PFD consists of 3 lines of data. It displays approach data on the first two lines What information is displayed on the third line?
A - Identifies the source used for LNAV
B - Identifies the source that is programmed into the FMC
C - Identifies the source of navigation performance for the deviation scale
D - Is used only for instrument lading system (ILS) approaches
C - Identifies the source of navigation performance for the deviation scale
46
The EFIS control panel traffic (TFC) switch is on. What does the following square symbol (displayed in RED) indicate? [] -03 ↑
A - Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 300 feet below climbing >_500fpm
B - Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 200 feet above descending >_ 500fpm
C - Traffic advisory (TA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm
D - Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 2000 feet above descending >_500fpm
A - Resolution advisory(RA) traffic 300 feet below climbing >_500fpm
47
Which of the following messages in a particular non-normal checklist, indicates that additional, related checklist items requiring completion will be found elsewhere?
A - CHECKLIST COMPLETE
B - CHECKLIST INCOMPLETE
C - CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN
D - CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS
D - CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS
48
The AFDS provides autopilot guidance using Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) which statement about IAN procedures is true?
A - IAN supports automatic approaches and landings to CAT11 approach minimums for approaches with FMC generated glide path
B - Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path to a runway using an ILS locator beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC
C - The LOC or the FAC mode cannot capture selected lateral flight path if the intercept angle exceeds 60 degrees
D - IAN approaches can be used only in GP and LOC modes
B - Pushing the LOC/FAC switch arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path to a runway using an ILS locator beam or a lateral path provided by the FMC
49
A list of equipment faults that require Minimum Equipment List (MEL) reference for dispatch can be displayed how?
A - Select STATUS message page in an MFD
B - Check the CDU datalink status display
C - Select the SYSTEMS page of the EFB to view the equipment faults
D - Check the Ground database via the EFB
A - Select STATUS message page in an MFD
50
During ground starts the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start when?
A - Loss of both starters, compressor stall, or no N1 rotation
B - Loss of one starter, or no oil pressure rise
C - Loss of both starters or no N1 rotation
D - Hung start, no EGT rise or no oil pressure rise
C - Loss of both starters or no N1 rotation
51
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Which of the following GPWS voice annunciations indicate an atltitude loss with flaps and /or gear UP, after Take off or go around?
A - TOO LOW, FLAPS
B - DON'T SINK
C - TOO LOW, GEAR
D - SINK RATE
```
B - DON'T SINK
52
Upon completion of a non normal checklist, certain items have been removed to a later referenced normal checklist. How is this illustrated on the non-normal check list?
A - CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR TRANSFERRED ITEMS
B - CHECKLIST ITEMS HAVE BEEN DEFERRED
C - CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS
D - CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN
C - CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT FOR DEFERRED ITEMS
53
Following the removal of a flight crew mask , how can the headset boom microphone system be reselected?
A - Close the right hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the emergency/test selector
B - Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch
C - Close the right hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch
D - Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the emergency/test selector
B - Close the left hand door of the oxygen mask stowage box and select the reset/test switch
54
Inflight, the FMC gives priority to which of these systems to determine present position?
A - ADIRU and the co-located VOR/DME
B - Global Positioning System, navigation radios and ADIRU
C - Global Positioning System and Inerial Reference System
D - Hybrid Global Positioning System- Inertial Data
D - Hybrid Global Positioning System- Inertial Data
55
What are the memory items of the 'Dual Eng Fail/Stall' non-normal checklist?
A - Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH AIRSPEED…..Above 280 knots
B - RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then Run AIRSPEED…..Above 270 knots
C - RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then Run
D - Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH and hold for 1 second
D - Fuel control switch…..CUTOFF then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch…..PUSH and hold for 1 second
56
Which of the following is a correct statement about alternate pitch trim switches?
A - They are linked to the stabilizer trim control modules (STOM) via control cables and then mechanically to the stabilizer
B - They do not disconnect the autopilot when the levers are moved with the autopilot engaged, but do move the horizontal stabilizer
C - They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator and then mechanically to the stabilizer
D - They should not be used with the autopilot engaged or during stall or overspeed protection maneuvers
C - They are linked electrically to the horizontal stabilizer trim actuator and then mechanically to the stabilizer
57
```
What is the electrical backup power source with loss of all electrical power to the captain’s and first officers flight instruments in flight?
A - Ram Air Turbine(RAT)
B - Emergency bus (Direct service)
C - RPDUs
D - Hot Battery Bus
```
A - Ram Air Turbine(RAT)
58
Which of the following is a true statement when the PFD is operating in Reversion Mode?
A - The flight Mode Annunciators and Navigation Source References are inhibited
B - VNAV speed band and minimum maneuvering speed indications fail
C - Instrument approaches with FMC computed glide path paths are not displayed
D - The PFD with mini map is cropped to fit within a Multi function Display window
D - The PFD with mini map is cropped to fit within a Multi function Display window
59
How are the Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS) indications selected?
A - Push the STATUS display switch on the display select panel, then select the PECS synoptic key from the menu page
B - Push the SYS display switch on the display select panel, then select the status synoptic key
C - Push the INFO display switch on the display select panel then select the PECS synoptic key from the menu page
D - Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the AIR synoptic key from the menu page
B - Push the SYS display switch on the display select panel, then select the status synoptic key
60
How are the cabin air compressors (CACs) regulated during normal engine start?
A - Only one CAC runs for an engine start using three external power sources in order to maximize the power available to start the first engine
B - All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence . Packs do not restart until at least 2 minutes after the start sequence initiated.
C - During start using the APU, only one CAC on each side runs to maximize the system efficiency during the start cycle
D - CAC operation is inhibited initial two minutes after the first engine is running using the APU and 3 minutes after when using external power for engine start
B - All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence . Packs do not restart until at least 2 minutes after the start sequence initiated.
61
What does moving the control wheel pitch trim switch do in normal mode when airborne?
A - Changes the trim reference airspeed
B - Resets the stabilizer to cruise speed
C - Directly move the stabilizer
D - Resets the elevators to relieve any control loads
A - Changes the trim reference airspeed
62
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What is the nose wheel steering range (in either direction from neutral) when using the tiller?
A - 70 degrees
B - 80 degrees
C - 90 degrees
D - 40 degrees
```
A - 70 degrees
63
What does the EICAS annunciation D-TO 2 +36C displayed in green as a thrust reference mode indicate?
A - Assumed temperature derated take off thrust
B - Derate two take off thrust, derate climb thrust mode
C - Derate two, assumed temperature derated take off thrust
D - Derate take off thrust, derate 2 climb thrust selected
C - Derate two, assumed temperature derated take off thrust
64
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Name a method that uses beams under dense cargo in order to provide a larger effective cargo foot print?
A - Shoring
B - Load support and restrain
C - Palletising
D - Linear loading
```
A - Shoring
65
```
During takeoff with VNAV armed, when will VNAV activate?
A - At acceleration height
B - 200 feet AFE
C - 400 feet AGL
D - 50 feet RA
```
C - 400 feet AGL
66
Thrust control malfunction Accommodation is an EEC function that provides thrust asymmetry protection under what circumstances?
A - At any time a thrust asymmetry is detected by the EEC
B - During a go-around at light weights and aft center of gravity
C - In the event of of an engine failure on take off below 1000 feet AGL
D - Against idle thrust asymmetry condition on the ground
D - Against idle thrust asymmetry condition on the ground
67
```
What is the turbulent air penetration speed (Severe Turbulence) below 25,000' feet?
A - 260 Kts
B - 300 Kts
C - 280 Kts
D - 290 Kts
```
D - 290 Kts
68
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The ram air turbine (RAT), when deployed, provides hydraulic power to the primary fight controls connected to which of the hydraulic system(s)?
A - Left, centre and right
B - Centre
C - Left
D - Right
```
B - Centre
69
With the Cargo Fire Arm switch selected to ARM during a non normal procedure where are the outflow positioned?
A - Forward Valve opens, Aft motors Closed to vent smoke via forward valve
B - Out flow valves move to 50/50 flow split for air stability
C - Both valves Close to reduce through flow of air
D - Forward Valve Closes, Aft motors Open to vent smoke via the rear valve
B - Out flow valves move to 50/50 flow split for air stability
70
What happens when the Alternate Gear switch is selected to Down?
A - Electric motors mechanically release the doors, the gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.
B - C1 demand pump is used to release the doors and gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.
C - C2 demand pump is used to release the doors and gear uplocks and the gear free falls to down.
D - A dedicated DC pump using Centre System fluid is used to release the doors and the gear uplocks
D - A dedicated DC pump using Centre System fluid is used to release the doors and the gear uplocks
71
```
How many attempts will the auto-start system make for an in-flight start?
A - Continuous start attempts
B - 2 Full cycles
C - Maximum allowed by the Duty Cycle
D - 3 Attempts, 30 secs apart
```
A - Continuous start attempts
72
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Audio control Panel ACP?
A - The minimum number of audio receiver switches in use at one time on any single ACP is limited to 3
B - The BOOM only switch selects either the oxygen mask or headset boom mike
C - Pushing the CAB transmitter selects switch twice within one second places a priority call to all cabins stations
D - The MIC/Interphone switch is spring loaded to the centre position
D - The MIC/Interphone switch is spring loaded to the centre position
73
Which statement is correct concerning ATC route modification clearances received via datalink?
A - Uplink messages which contain route modifications are loaded into the FMC using the LOAD FMC function on the MFD ATC page
B - When a clearance is of type that can be loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window
C - ATC datalink logon is automatic to participating ATC facilities, as is the transfer to adjacent ATC facilities
D - The FMC receives route modification clearances which can be transferred to the EFB for the confirmation and return to the FMC for acceptance
B - When a clearance is of type that can be loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window
74
What is indicated by the ALIGN HUD message in Head Up Display?
A - The pilot must adjust his,her seat to ensure correct eye position relative to the display
B - The system is awaiting ADRS alignment to supply data to the HUD
C - The system is awaiting IRS alignment to supply data to the HUD
D - The Combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector
D - The Combiner screen is not properly aligned with the projector
75
Which hydraulic system(s) provides power to the main landing gear actuation and nose gear steering?
A - Either Left or Right via Nose Gear and Steering Isolation valves
B - Left
C - Centre
D - Right
C - Centre
76
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What is the stated maximum glide-slope angle limitation for an automatic landing?
A - 3.0 Degrees
B - 2.5 Degrees
C - 3.25 Degrees
D - 2.75 Degrees
```
C - 3.25 Degrees
77
```
During the exterior inspection, what is the maximum permitted light coating of frost on the lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel?
A - 0 mm
B - 3 mm
C - 1 mm
D - 2 mm
```
B - 3 mm
78
Anytime the passenger oxygen deploys. Which one of the following actions also occurs automatically?
A - The aircraft transmits emergency squawk
B - The non smoking signs are illuminated regardless of switch position
C - The passenger seatbelt signs illuminate regardless of switch position
D - The passenger seatbelts signs are Armed regardless of switch position.
C - The passenger seatbelt signs illuminate regardless of switch position
79
What is the action required following an alert by cabin staff of smoke forming in the rear cabin?
A - Confirm by EICAS message Smokes Fire or Fumes Open ECL
B - Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist, select Smoke Fire or Fumes removal
C - Immediately don oxygen masks, IFE/PASS SEATS power switch to OFF
D - Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist select Smoke, Fire or Fumes
D - Open ECL, select Unannunciated Checklist select Smoke, Fire or Fumes
80
How is an item identified as an open loop item on the electronic checklist (ECL)?
A - Black square box to the left of the item
B - Green tick in the box to the left of item
C - Gray box to the left of the item
D - Item appears in green text
C - Gray box to the left of the item
81
How is the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) TOO LOW GEAR alert inhibited?
A - Press the gear override (GEAR OVRD) switch on the landing gear panel
B - Press the gear override (GEAR OVRD) switch on the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel
C - Press the GPWS switch on the TCP then toggle the gear override (GEAR OVRD) line select key to OVRD
D - Press the system (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the GPWS key from the menu, then select gear override (GEAR OVRD)
C - Press the GPWS switch on the TCP then toggle the gear override (GEAR OVRD) line select key to OVRD
82
During an external inspection a warning horn is heard from the nose wheel well area. What does this indicate?
A - The IRS have been left ON with the aeroplane unmanned for more than 30 minutes
B - The FIRE/OVERHEAT detection system is being tested internally
C - It is a low battery aural warning for ground crew
D - The APU fire waring has been set off
B - The FIRE/OVERHEAT detection system is being tested internally
83
Which of the following is correct regarding the automatic ice detection system?
A - It causes bleed air to be directed to the engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems
B - It consists of two electrically heated engine inlet mounted ice detectors
C - It provides signals to engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems
D - It is never inhibited at any time
C - It provides signals to engine, wing and pack inlet anti-ice systems
84
```
In normal mode, during high speed flight which control surfaces provide roll control?
A - Some spoilers
B - Flaperons and Ailerons
C - Ailerons
D - Flaperons and Spoilers
```
D - Flaperons and Spoilers
85
```
Which of the following braking actions provide the greatest aircraft deceleration rate on a dry runway in the landing mode?
A - Auto brakes selection 1
B - Auto brakes selection MAX AUTO
C - Auto brakes selection 4
D - Full pedal braking
```
D - Full pedal braking
86
Which statement correctly describes a function of the VHF Communication System?
A - Only two VHF radios can operate in the DATA mode at one time
B - When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5 all flight crews automatically monitor the radio
C - Each VHF radio is controlled only through its respective TCP
D - In the event of an electrical power loss, the right VHF radio and the left TCP continue to operate on standby power
B - When a VHF radio is tuned to frequency 121.5 all flight crews automatically monitor the radio
87
In a VNAV descent the vertical path to the first altitude constrain is based on off idle thrust , speedbrake retracted and what else?
A - Economy descent target speed, distance to the first constraint, no anti ice
B - FMC wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed
C - FMC cruise wind, the predicted use of anti-ice, and economy target speed of VMO/MMo-16knots
D - FMC cruise wind applicable target speed wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page and the predicted use of anti-ice
D - FMC cruise wind applicable target speed wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page and the predicted use of anti-ice
88
How is low engine oil quantity displayed on the secondary engine display?
A - OIL LO displayed in Amber
B - Quantity displayed in white, LO shown in black on a white background
C - LO displayed in amber, quantity shown in amber inside amber box
D - LO displayed in white , low quantity - black numbers on white back ground
D - LO displayed in white , low quantity - black numbers on white back ground
89
How is a closed loop item identified on the electronic checklist (ECL)?
A - When the control is in the required position, the line item displays a green 'complete' indicator left of the line item.
B - When the control is in the required position, the line item text colour changes from white to green. In addition, a complete indicator is displayed left of the line item.
C - Closed loop line items can be distinguished from open loop line items by display of the closed loop indicator, a grey box located to the left of the line item.
D - Closed loop conditional line items are followed by selections labelled YES and NO. The cursor is placed adjacent to the YES - NO line, requiring the pilot to use the cursor to select the appropriate answer.
B - When the control is in the required position, the line item text colour changes from white to green. In addition, a complete indicator is displayed left of the line item.
90
Where is the list of aircraft systems which are affected by load shedding shown?
A - The ECL Non Normal CL
B - The Electric synoptic
C - Individual equipment Caution messages
D - Individual “Load Shed” EICAS Message
B - The Electric synoptic
91
```
What are the maximum Headwind, Tailwind and Crosswind component speeds when takeoff weather minima are predicated on HUD takeoff operations?
A - 20, 20 and 25 knots respectively
B - 15, 15 and 20 knots respectively
C - 25, 15 and 20 knots respectively
D - 20, 15 and 25 knots respectively
```
C - 25, 15 and 20 knots respectively
92
```
The APU can be started on the ground with no fuel pumps operating, and in flight up to what altitude?
A - 22000 feet
B - 10000 feet
C - 14000 feet
D - 12000 feet
```
C - 14000 feet
93
```
How is the landing gear held in the UP position after retraction?
A - Over-centre struts
B - Hydraulic pressure
C - A locked door structure
D - Uplocks
```
D - Uplocks
94
```
Which EICAS annunciation indicates that the engine anti-ice system is powered (ON)?
A - EAI displayed in green
B - WAI displayed in green
C - TAI displayed in green
D - TAI displayed in amber (orange)
```
A - EAI displayed in green
95
```
On a 3 degree approach, WITHOUT LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below what height?
A - 50 feet AGL
B - 15 feet AGL
C - 200 feet AGL
D - 100 feet AGL
```
D - 100 feet AGL
96
```
With heading reference switch in NORM when the aircraft enters the polar regions True North is automatically referenced for which of the following?
A - HDG HOLD and TRACK HOLD Only
B - LNAV Only
C - HDG HOLD, HDG SEL, TRK HOLD, TRK SEL
D - All AFDS cruise roll modes
```
D - All AFDS cruise roll modes
97
```
How is the top-of-climb identified on the navigation display (ND)?
A - Cyan (blue) Circle labeled TOC
B - Green circle labeled T/C
C - Green circle labeled TOC
D - Cyan (blue) Circle labeled T/C
```
B - Green circle labeled T/C
98
```
With out LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated and a glide path angle of 2.5 degree, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below what height?
A - 200 feet agl
B - 50 feet agl
C - 100 feet agl
D - 15 feet agl
```
C - 100 feet agl
99
What are the memory items of the 'Engine Severe Damage/Sep L,R' non-normal check list?
A - A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL and rotate
B - A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL
C - Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF
D - A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
B - A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL
100
Which of the following is a characteristic of an Alternate Action switch?
A - When pushed in and flush with the panel it is ON
B - A flow bar will be visible when ON
C - It is spring loaded to the extend position
D - It may have a number of alternate positions - ON; AUTO; OFF
A - When pushed in and flush with the panel it is ON
101
```
What is the maximum duration for which a fully charged remote battery will provide power to emergency lighting system?
A - 10 minutes
B - 15 minutes
C - 30 minutes
D - 20 minutes
```
A - 10 minutes
102
When will the PITCH LIMIT INDICATION be displayed on the PFD?
A - Below 20,000'
B - Below 1500”RA and the gear is down
C - When the flaps are not UP, or at slow airspeeds with flaps up
D - Only when the gear is down
C - When the flaps are not UP, or at slow airspeeds with flaps up
103
How is the hydraulic system synoptic display selected?
A - Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page
B - Push the hydraulic synoptic display switch on the display panel
C - Push the INFO display switch on the display select panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page
D - Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display select panel, then select the INFO synoptic key from the menu page
A - Push the system (SYS) display switch on the display panel, then select the hydraulic (HYD) synoptic key from the menu page
104
On the PFD, what condition is indicated by an amber line through a FMA mode annunciator and a flight director bar removed? Is the Autopilot still engaged?
A - Autopilot disengages.
B - The applicable mode has reverted to CWS and autopilot remains engaged
C - The applicable mode is degraded but autopilot remains engaged in an altitude stabilising mode based on inertial data
D - Applicable mode has disengaged, but the autopilot remains engaged.
C - The applicable mode is degraded but autopilot remains engaged in an altitude stabilising mode based on inertial data
105
Which of the following is correct concerning the use of MEL performance penalty data?
A - Added MEL items are automatically applied to enroute landing performance selections
B - Performance penalty data can only be added by reference to MEL handbook
C - There is no indication of confirming MEL performance adjustments have been made
D - Select the MEL key on the take off or Landing page of the OPT to see data
D - Select the MEL key on the take off or Landing page of the OPT to see data
106
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Momentary Action switch?
A - When pushed in flush with the panel it is ON
B - Bottom half of the switch may indicate systems state PRESS FAIL OFF
C - It is sprung-loaded to the extend position
D - A flow bar may be visible when ON
C - It is sprung-loaded to the extend position
107
```
Following an engine fire, the first extinguisher bottle has been discharged. This did not extinguish the fire. When should the second bottle be discharged?
A - After 20 seconds
B - After 10 seconds
C - After 30 seconds
D - Immediately
```
C - After 30 seconds
108
Engine anti ice must be ON during all ground operations, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated. What is the exception to this limitation?
A - When temperature is below -40degC
B - When aircraft de-icing is immediately planned or has recently taken place
C - When engine anti-icing has been set to AUTO
D - When engine run up is carried out at 15 minute intervals
A - When temperature is below -40degC
109
Which statement about the wing anti-ice system is true?
A - Wing anti -ice is inhibited when the aeroplane is on the ground by ground/air logic
B - Automatic wing anti-ice operation is available on the ground above 60knots and in flight
C - If one wing anti-ice thermal fails, the wing anti system automatically de-powers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing
D - In flight, when the WING ANTI ICE selector is in Auto the wing anti ice system on each wing is powered any time TAT is below 10C
C - If one wing anti-ice thermal fails, the wing anti system automatically de-powers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing
110
What is the procedure for the use of the Flight Deck Overhead Door as an emergency exit?
A - Remove protective cover, pull vent handle down, open panel inwards, throw rope out
B - Remove cover, push vent handle up, push panel outwards, through descent devise
C - Remove protective cover, rotated door handle, open door inwards, access and exit with descent devise
D - Remove protective cover, rotate door handle, push door outwards, access and deploy descent devise
C - Remove protective cover, rotated door handle, open door inwards, access and exit with descent devise
111
```
How many temperature zones is the aeroplane divided into?
A - 7, Flight Deck and 6 passenger zones
B - 4, Flight deck and 3 passenger zones
C - 3, Flight Deck and 2 passenger zones
D - 2 Flight Deck and Passenger
```
A - 7, Flight Deck and 6 passenger zones
112
```
During a ground start, which one of the following malfunctions will cause the autostart to abort the start?
A - The Loss of both starters
B - No EGT rise
C - Hot Start
D - Hung Start
```
A - The Loss of both starters
113
What is 'shoring' when used in relation to cargo loading?
A - Using a cargo net to restrain miscellaneous cargo items
B - Method of providing a larger effective cargo footprint under a dense load
C - Method of restraining cargo in Forward, Aft, Vertical and Lateral directions
D - Locking containers together in a hold so that they fill the space available and support each other
B - Method of providing a larger effective cargo footprint under a dense load
114
```
What is the stated maximum allowable runway slope limitation?
A - +/- 3 deg
B - +/- 1.5 deg
C - +/- 2%
D - +/- 1.5%
```
C - +/- 2%
115
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding requirement for Route Mode to be automatically selected on the VSD whist on the ground?
A - An active flight plan has been entered
B - VNAV armed
C - A departure runway has been selected
D - LNAV is armed
B - VNAV armed
116
What are the first three memory items of the 'CABIN ALTITUDE' non-normal checklist?
A - Don oxygen masks Establish crew communications On passenger oxygen
B - Don the oxygen masks Establish crew communications Check the cabin altitude and rate
C - Don oxygen masks Check cabin altitude and rate Accomplish descent
D - Establish crew communications Check cabin altitude and rate Accomplish descent
B - Don the oxygen masks Establish crew communications Check the cabin altitude and rate
117
What precautions should be observed by the crew members if a halon fire extinguisher is to be discharged in the flight deck area?
A - No precautions necessary - its and inert gas
B - Wear oxygen mask set to 100%
C - Wear smoke goggles to prevent any liquefied spray entering the eyes
D - Wear oxygen masks and use 100% oxygen with Emergency selected
D - Wear oxygen masks and use 100% oxygen with Emergency selected
118
What pressurises the centre hydraulic system?
A - Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) C1 and C2
B - Two electrically driven primary pumps and two air-driven demand pumps (AMPs)
C - Two engine driven primary pumps and two electrically driven demand pumps
D - Two air driven primary pumps and two electrically driven demand pumps
A - Two electric motor-driven pumps (EMPs) C1 and C2
119
Before engine start, the right centre tank pump PRESS light is illuminated. What action could be taken to check if pump is being load-shed?
A - Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED
B - No action required, it is always load-shed prior to start
C - Switch the Pump OFF then back on to see if it clears
D - Observe the EICAS a message will be displayed after a short sensing delay
A - Check the fuel synoptic to see if it is labelled as LOAD SHED
120
During Take Off with LNAV armed when will it activate?
A - Above 50 feet radio altitude and with in 2.5nm of the active route
B - Above 400 feet radio altitude and at course intercept
C - LNAV engages immediately on lift off
D - Above 400 feet barometric altitude and with 2.5 nm of an active leg
A - Above 50 feet radio altitude and with in 2.5nm of the active route
121
With WINDOW HEAT switches ON, what surface protection is provided to the forward flight deck window?
A - Both interior and exterior surface anti- icing.
B - Interior surface anti fogging and exterior surface anti icing
C - Interior surface anti icing, exterior surface anti fogging
D - Both interior and exterior surface anti fogging
B - Interior surface anti fogging and exterior surface anti icing
122
```
What is the minimum permitted oil temperature for engine start?
A - -40 degC
B - -25 degC
C - -10 degC
D - -30 degC
```
A - -40 degC
123
Listed below are failures or abnormal situations which will cause the flaps and slats to automatically operate in the secondary mode. Identify the one that is INCORRECT
A - Flap or slat disagree
B - Flap or slat primary control failure has occurred
C - Flap or slat load relief has occurred
D - Flap or slat primary control failure has occurred
C - Flap or slat load relief has occurred
124
MFD communications functions are used to control datalink features. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding a datalink feature?
A - The MFD L or R button on the Glareshield panel and the MCP controls the COMM display
B - Incoming ATC and FIS message traffic is annunciated by EICAS ATC
C - Datalink messages not used by the FMC can be displayed on the MFDs but not printed
D - A digital departure ATIS request can be made by selecting MANAGER, confirm the Airport code, select DEPARTURE, Then select SEND
B - Incoming ATC and FIS message traffic is annunciated by EICAS ATC
125
Identify the limitations that applies to the use of VNAV and/ or LNAV?
A - Do not use VNAV/LNAV below transition altitude with QFE selected
B - When operating the autopilot in the polar region in LNAV the TRUE position on the heading reference switch must be used
C - VNAV use prohibited with MAG heading selected North or South of 70 degrees Latitude
D - LNAV will not sequence waypoints if more than 18nm off the active route and not on an offset route
A - Do not use VNAV/LNAV below transition altitude with QFE selected
126
```
With AC power available and the APU selector in the ON position, which fuel pump is commanded on regardless of flight deck switch position?
A - Left Aft Fuel Pump
B - Right Aft Fuel Pump
C - Left center fuel pump
D - Left forward Fuel pump
```
A - Left Aft Fuel Pump
127
```
Above approximately what altitude are the flap maneuvering speeds (for flap retraction or extension) not displayed?
A - 15000 feet
B - 10000 feet
C - 20000 feet
D - 8000 feet
```
C - 20000 feet
128
What are the first three memory items of the FIRE ENG L,R non-normal checklist?
A - Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF
B - A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF ThrustLever…..Confirm…..IDLE Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL
C - Fuel control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..PULL Engine Fire switch…..Confirm…..ROTATE
D - A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
D - A/T ARM switch…..Confirm…..OFF Thrust Lever…..Confirm…..IDLE Fuel Control switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
129
What is the function of the Nitrogen Generation system on board?
A - To maintain stable fuel temperatures to avoid ice crystals forming or fuel overheating
B - To slightly pressurize the main, surge and centre fuel tanks to add fuel feed
C - To overpressure the centre fuel tanks to empty first and also assist any fuel jettison rate
D - To displace fuel vapours and reduce flammability
D - To displace fuel vapours and reduce flammability
130
Upon activating the CHKL OVRD key with a checklist displayed on the ECL, what happens?
A - All checklist items turn cyan, CHECKLIST RESET indicator appears
B - All checklist items turn cyan, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears
C - All checklist items turn green, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears
D - A YES NO indication appears to confirm that the checklist is to be overridden
B - All checklist items turn cyan, the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN indicator appears
131
Whats does the TAMS display on the PFD indicate?
A - The Auto Throttle has reverted to Thrust Alternate Mode due to asymmetry
B - The Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed system is controlling thrust
C - The Thrust Asymmetry Monitoring System has failed (Red)
D - The minimum control speed for operating with a large thrust asymmetry
D - The minimum control speed for operating with a large thrust asymmetry
132
```
What is the correct method for entering an along track waypoint 25 miles before MWH on the present route?
A - MWH-25
B - MWH/-25
C - MWH/25
D - MWH25
```
B - MWH/-25
133
```
Which colour is used to display the most intense weather radar returns?
A - Red
B - Magenta
C - Green
D - White
```
A - Red
134
```
What EICAS annunciation indicates that a thrust reverser is in transit?
A - RVSR display in green
B - RVSR displayed in amber (orange)
C - REV display in green
D - REV displayed in amber (orange)
```
D - REV displayed in amber (orange)
135
What cools the large motor power distribution?
A - The Miscellaneous Cooling System
B - The Integrated Cooling System (ICS)
C - The Power Electronic Cooling System (PECS)
D - Conditioned air ducted from the passenger cabin
C - The Power Electronic Cooling System (PECS)
136
What is the first memory item of the Engine Limit Exceed L or R non normal checklist?
A - Autothrottle Arm switch (affected side)…..Confirm…..OFF
B - Thrust-levers (affected side)…..Confirm…..RETARD
C - Thrust-levers (affected side)…..Confirm…..IDLE
D - Fuel control switch affected side…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
A - Autothrottle Arm switch (affected side)…..Confirm…..OFF
137
Icing idle is selected when engine anti-ice is ON. Why does the EEC select approach idle when flaps are commanded to 25 or greater, OR the landing gear is selected DOWN?
A - To prevent idle thrust asymmetry
B - So the engines will produce maximum anti-icing bleed air
C - To decrease acceleration time for go-around
D - To prevent the engine Thrust Ramping
C - To decrease acceleration time for go-around
138
```
During a cruise descent, the auto-throttle sets a calculated thrust value to achieve approximately what rate of descent?
A - 1500 fpm
B - 750 fpm
C - 1250 fpm
D - 1000 fpm
```
C - 1250 fpm
139
On the ground with both engines shutdown, what will cause the APU to shutdown and the extinguisher bottle to discharge?
A - Can only be manually shutdown from the flight deck or nose wheel well
B - An overheat detected in both loops
C - A fire detected in either loop
D - A fire detected in both loops
C - A fire detected in either loop
140
```
What is the maximum time that Wing Anti-ice may be load shed during high electrical loads?
A - It is never load shed at any time
B - Ninety Seconds
C - Thirty Seconds
D - One Minute
```
C - Thirty Seconds
141
Following the initial memory items of the CABIN ALTITUDE non normal checklist What is the correct sequence of actions to commence the descent?
A - Disengage the autopilot Move thrust levers to idle Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO
B - Move thrust levers to idle Disengage the autopilot Extend speedbrakes Descend at VMO/MMO
C - Move thrust levers to idle Extend speedbrakes Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO
D - Extend speedbrakes Move thrust levers to idle Descend at VMO/MMO Accomplish Rapid Descent checklist
C - Move thrust levers to idle Extend speedbrakes Limit airspeed if structural integrity in doubt Descend at VMO/MMO
142
There are a number of situations that will cause the speed brake lever to be automatically operated regardless of its initial position. Identify the one which is INCORRECTLY described
A - Driven UP on landing when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the take off range
B - Driven to the DOWN position when in the air when eith thrust lever is beyond 90% full travel
C - Driven to the DOWN position when on the ground and either thrust lever is moved to the take off range
D - Driven UP on take off with ground speed above 60 kts when either thrust lever is retarded to idle
D - Driven UP on take off with ground speed above 60 kts when either thrust lever is retarded to idle
143
The VSD can display a FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line for approaches that have a designated approach angle. Choose the relevant correct answer?
A - It indicates current flight path angle as a function of vertical speed and ground speed
B - It has a dashed line that extends 10nm for situational awareness. It is anchored to the missed approach point
C - It has a solid magenta line that extends 10nm for situational awareness that is anchored to the runway threshold
D - It has a 3 degree green reference during the final approach that extends to 15nm
B - It has a dashed line that extends 10nm for situational awareness. It is anchored to the missed approach point
144
How can the status of the aircraft doors be illustrated?
A - Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the Display select panel and the select the Door synoptic key from the menu page
B - Push the info display switch on the Display select panel and select the Door synoptic
C - Use the display select switch to transfer to the synoptic from lower display unit to either outboard display unit
D - Push door synoptic display switch on the display select panel
A - Push the systems (SYS) display switch on the Display select panel and the select the Door synoptic key from the menu page
145
```
What is the stated minimum glide-slope angle limitation for an automatic landing?
A - 2.75 degrees
B - 3.0 degrees
C - 2.5 degrees
D - 3.25 degrees
```
C - 2.5 degrees
146
```
With WX-T selected, the weather radar will detect turbulence within precipitation at all ND display ranges. Within what range of the aeroplane will it display such turbulence?
A - 100 NM
B - 40 NM
C - 20 NM
D - 60 NM
```
B - 40 NM
147
The fuel balance system is used to correct a lateral fuel imbalance between main fuel tanks. Which of the following best describes its operation?
A - It utilizes defuel/jettison valves and inboard refuel valves to transfer fuel between main tanks
B - It makes use of the higher pressure generated by the centre tank fuel pump to transfer between the main tanks
C - It automatically operates the fuel crossfeed valve to transfer fuel between the main tanks
D - Operation is automatic and requires no pilot imput
A - It utilizes defuel/jettison valves and inboard refuel valves to transfer fuel between main tanks
148
```
Following a complete loss of FMC electrical power, what information requires re-entry?
A - PERF INIT DATA
B - DEPARTURE
C - RTE
D - POS INIT.
```
A - PERF INIT DATA
149
Which of the following is a correct statement concerning weather radar operation?
A - The system begins scanning for windshear below 2300 ft radio altitude
B - Weather radar returns on the ND and mini map will show out to 640 nm range
C - Turbulence due precipitation and Clear Air turbulence are both sensed by the weather radar
D - The system self tests only on initial start up
A - The system begins scanning for windshear below 2300 ft radio altitude
150
What does placing the BATTERY switch to the ON position in an unpowered aeroplane do?
A - Initiates the right (R) CCR start up sequence and after the R CCR start up is complete, energizes the Ground Handling Mode
B - Initiates the left (L) CCR start up sequence and after the L CCR start up is complete, energises the ON- Ground Battery Only mode
C - Initiates the start up sequence for both CCRs and after the start up sequence is complete, energizes the On Ground Mode
D - Allows the APU to be started and some annunciator lights are illuminated
B - Initiates the left (L) CCR start up sequence and after the L CCR start up is complete, energises the ON- Ground Battery Only mode
151
```
Below what airspeed is wing anti-ice inhibited on the ground?
A - Vr
B - 75 Kts
C - 60 Kts
D - 100 Kts
```
B - 75 Kts
152
What is the primary and backup power source for the brakes?
A - Large Motor Controller and APU Battery
B - 28V DC bus system and main battery
C - The 115V AC System and Standby Battery
D - Primary 235V AC System and Emergency Battery
B - 28V DC bus system and main battery
153
What determines the pack outlet temperature?
A - The master cabin temperature controller
B - The average demand of all temperature zones
C - The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature
D - The temperature zone requiring the warmest temperature
C - The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature
154
Which statement about Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) is true?
A - TAP continuously monitors engine data to determine the thrust level from each engine
B - TAP automatically adds rudder to minimize yaw associated with an engine failure at high thrust settings
C - TAP is only available in the normal and secondary flight control modes
D - TAP provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine
D - TAP provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine
155
Which of the following is the correct answer regarding the EEC Alternate mode?
A - The Auto throttles disconnect whenever the EEC automatically switches to the alternate mode
B - The alternate mode schedule (N1 schedule ) provides somewhat less thrust than the normal mode for the same thrust lever position.
C - Automatic reversion or manual selection to the alternate mode is indicated by the EICAS advisory message ENG LIMIT PROT (L, R)
D - Thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode and the maximum rated thrust is reached at thrust lever position less than full forward
D - Thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode and the maximum rated thrust is reached at thrust lever position less than full forward
156
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Ground service personnel are unfamiliar with the aircraft and require the aeroplane to be powered to enable operation of the wing fueling panel. Which minimum level electrical mode will be necessary?
A - Ground handling mode
B - On-ground battery only mode
C - Towing mode
D - Ground Service mode
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B - On-ground battery only mode
157
The engines can only be started by the auto-start system. Under what circumstance does load shed occur during engine start?
A - Load shed always occurs during start
B - Load shed may occur with low output from the APU generator
C - Load shed only occurs if the AC Packs are left on
D - Load shed occurs with only two GPUs available for starting. (Ground Power Units)
A - Load shed always occurs during start
158
Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the Alternate Navigation Page?
A - It is access through the CDU and is used as an alternate navigation system operatng with the alternate navigation radio pages
B - It provides a stand alone single waypoint navigation capability
C - It is where navigation radios are tuned and related parameters display when utilizing the alternate navigation system
D - It displays data about each leg of the entered route when using alternate navigation
B - It provides a stand alone single waypoint navigation capability
159
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How is low hydraulic reservoir quantity shown on the status display?
A - LO is displayed in amber (orange)
B - LO is displayed in white
C - QTY is displayed in white
D - QTY is displayed in amber (orange)
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A - LO is displayed in amber (orange)
160
Which statement is true about the VHF page display function?
A - New frequencies are entered into scratchpad. the decimal and or following zeros for this frequency are required
B - Scratchpad frequencies, can only be entered into the standby windows. The previously active frequency is deleted from the page display
C - VHF pages 2,3 and 4 can contain up to 4 stored frequencies for each radio
D - For the selected radio, the frequency transfer switch moves the pre-tuned, standby frequency to become the active, tuned frequency
D - For the selected radio, the frequency transfer switch moves the pre-tuned, standby frequency to become the active, tuned frequency
161
How many smoke detection zones exist in each cargo compartment and what level of smoke detection is required to initiate a fire warning on the flight deck?
A - 4 detection zones, smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning
B - 4 detection zones, smoke in two or more zones will initiate a fire warning
C - 3 detection zones, smoke in two or more zones will initiate a fire warning
D - 3 detection zones smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning
D - 3 detection zones smoke in any zone will initiate a fire warning
162
Which is the most applicable limitation that applies to the aircraft altimeters?
A - The standby altimeter meets the accuracy requirement for RVSM
B - Capt and F/Os altimeter must agree within 50 feet with Standard pressure set, at all stages of flight
C - Prior to take off the maximum allowable difference between Capt or F/Os altitude displayed and field elevation is 75 feet
D - Altimeter are subject to position error
C - Prior to take off the maximum allowable difference between Capt or F/Os altitude displayed and field elevation is 75 feet
