777 Flashcards
The minimum height for autopilot engagement after takeoff for the B777-200
A/B is _____ feet AGL.
200
The maximum headwind for an Autoland is _____ knots.
25
The maximum tailwind for an Autoland on the B777-200 A/B is _____ knots.
10
The maximum crosswind for a CAT l Autoland is _____ knots.
25
On a coupled approach with NO AUTOLAND annunciated, the autopilot must be
disengaged no lower than ____ feet AGL.
200
What is the maximum flaps/slats extended altitude?
20,000 feet
The crosswind guideline for landing on a dry runway with good braking
action is _____ knots.
45
The crosswind guideline for landing on a wet runway with good braking
action is _____ knots.
40
The maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is _____ knots.
15
The maximum crosswind, CAT II/III weather, for an Autoland is _____
knots.
15
The minimum height for autopilot disengagement for nonprecision approaches
is
50 feet below MDA/DA.
The minimum flightdeck oxygen pressure is _____ PSI.
1250
The lower crew rest compartment (if installed) may not be occupied, and
the main entry hatch must be closed,
during taxi, takoff, and landing.
The airplane maximum operating pressure altitude is _____ feet.
43,100
Icing conditions can exist on the ground and for takeoff when
the OAT is 10° C or below.
Icing conditions can exist in flight when
the TAT is 10° C or below.
Minimum oil quantity before engine start is _____ quarts.
18
When operating below .82 Mach in severe turbulence at and above 25,000
feet, maintain a minimum speed of _____ knots above the minimum
maneuvering speed.
15
Maximum recommended operating speed (VMO/MMO) in severe turbulence below
25,000 feet is _____ KIAS.
270
Maximum recommended operating speed (VMO/MMO) in severe turbulence at and
above 25,000 feet is _____ KIAS/.82 Mach (whichever is lower).
280
The cockpit voice recorder system simultaneously records four audio
channels on a _____ minute continuous loop tape.
120 mins
Which VHF radio is configured only for voice communications?
L
Which VHF radio(s) can be configured for voice or data communications?
R and C
Selecting the INT position of the Audio Control Panel MIC/INT switch
initiates a
transmission on the flight interphone system.
The two independent HF radios can receive
simultaneously.
What indication is seen on the Radio Tuning Panel if the selected radio
has failed or has been disconnected?
Dashes in the active and standby frequency windows
Which radio is dedicated solely to ACARS?
VHF C (center)
Which of the following procedures initiates an ALL CALL from the cockpit?
Pressing 55 on the interphone handset
When AC power is removed from the airplane, the PA system remains powered
in flight or on the ground.
The function of the Captain’s and First Officer’s CANC switch on the
glareshield is
the same as selecting CANCEL command key on the MFD.
Pushing the Audio Control Panel CAB transmitter select switch twice within
one second places a priority call to
the flight attendant station at Door 1L.
What does the Service Interphone (SERV INTPH) switch do in the ON
position?
Connects the Service and Flight Interphone systems.
What does a FAIL light on the Control Pedestal just forward of the handset
indicate?
The printer has failed.
ACARS is accessed by selecting _____ on the display select panel and
placing the
communications main menu on the appropriate display unit (DU).
COMM
What causes the IDG drive to automatically disconnect from the engine?
High generator drive temperature
If electrical loads exceed the power available (airplane or external),
ELMS automatically sheds the
C2 electric pump.
How does the APU generator compare to the IDGs?
It is electrically identical to the IDGs.
The entire airplane AC/DC electrical load is supplied by
any two main AC power sources.
What does the main DC electrical system use to produce DC power?
TRUs
The backup generator system automatically powers one or both transfer
busses when
approach mode (APP) is selected.
The ground handling bus powers the
forward and aft cargo doors.
Secondary external power can power the
left and right main busses.
Can you turn the battery off in flight?
No, the switch is inhibited.
When will the backup generators automatically operate?
When power to one or both main AC busses is lost
Once one engine is started, with no other electrical source providing
power and the BUS TIE switches are in AUTO, the _____ powers both main
busses.
IDG
If an IDG is manually disconnected in flight with the DRIVE DISC switch,
can you reconnect it?
No, maintenance action is required on the ground.
The _____ powers the AC standby bus if the left transfer bus is not
powered.
standby inverter
What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
43,100 feet
What happens to the APU and RAT when both transfer busses are lost in
flight?
The APU automatically starts and the RAT automatically deploys.
Each engine mounted backup generator contains _____ permanent magnet
generator(s) (PMG).
2
The primary power sources for the flight control system are the _____
backup generator PMGs.
left and right
If demand from the RAT exceeds capacity to provide hydraulic and
electrical power, which has priority?
Hydraulic power - electrical load is shed until satisfactory hydraulic
pressure can be maintained.
If the electrical loads exceed power available (airplane or external),
ELMS
automatically sheds nonessential systems.
The main battery provides standby power to the
hot battery bus, battery bus, and standby inverter.
What are the components of the standby electrical system?
The Main battery, Standby inverter, RAT generator, and the C1 and C2
TRUs.
The main battery charger, when powered, will power the
hot battery bus.
The ground service bus is normally powered by the right main bus. The
_____ and _____ are alternate sources of power.
APU generator, primary external power
Which of the following is NOT powered by the ground service bus?
Refueling panel
If primary external power is powering one or both main busses, and then
the APU is started, the APU automatically connects to _____ after reaching
operating speed.
the left main bus
The _____ normally supply power to the flight control DC electrical
system.
PMGs
During power source transfers (such as switching from the APU generator to
an engine generator) operating sources are momentarily paralleled to
prevent power interruption
on the ground.
While on the ground, normally the IDG can be electrically disconnected
from the main busses by selecting an external electric power source or
by selecting the GEN CTRL switch to OFF.
What does the illumination of a generator DRIVE light indicate?
Low IDG oil pressure
The primary external power AVAIL light illuminates when the
primary power source voltage and frequency are within limits.
The external AVAIL light means power is plugged in and
voltage and frequencies are within limits but not yet selected/connected.
When the GEN CTRL switches are ON, the generator breaker is armed to close
automatically when generator power is
available.
Inflight, when both BUS TIE switches are set to AUTO, the priority for
powering the left and right main busses is the
respective IDG, APU generator, opposite IDG.
Pushing the CABIN/UTILITY power switch to OFF removes power from the
ground service bus.
On the ground, power transfers are made without interruption, except when
switching between primary and secondary external power sources.
When closed, the cockpit door locks automatically if electrical power is
available and the Flight Deck Access System switch is powered. If pilots
are inadvertently locked out of the cockpit, the only means of entry is
to
use the emergency access code or depower the airplane.
The BACKUP GEN OFF Light illuminated indicates
a backup generator failure, a circuit fault, or the switch is off.
Pushing the IFE/PASS SEATS power switch to OFF removes power from what?
All inflight entertainment components
If the Emergency Lights are ARMED, they will automatically illuminate with
the
loss of DC power.
The emergency lighting system is powered by remote batteries that are
charged by the airplane electrical system. Fully charged, the batteries
can provide at least ____ minutes of operation.
15
A white sterile cockpit light is located in the hallway on the ceiling
panel above the cockpit door. The light automatically illuminates when
altitude is _____ feet MSL and below, and the parking brake is not set.
10,000
Emergency Lights that illuminate the cabin escape path and exits are
controlled by the guarded EMER LIGHTS switch on the cockpit overhead panel
and the guarded EMERG LIGHTS switch on the flight attendant panel at Door
1L. Which switch has priority?
When pushed ON, the flight attendant switch bypasses the cockpit switch
regardless of the cockpit switch position (OFF, ARMED, or ON).
Which EMER LIGHTS switch position(s) will allow the emergency lights
battery packs to be charged?
All three positions
The cabin FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate automatically when the SEAT
BELTS selector is set to AUTO and which of the following conditions
exist?
Landing gear not up and locked
The IND LTS switch, when held in the TEST position, illuminates all
annunciator lights to _____ brightness. After the switch has been held for
10 seconds, the lights _____ .
full, dim
What does the autostart system NOT monitor during engine start?
Oil pressure and oil temperature
The NORM mode of EECs operation provides
thrust limit and overspeed protection.
How does the EEC shift from NORM to the soft alternate mode of operation?
Automatically with a system malfunction
The EEC automatically selects approach idle when
flaps are commanded to 25 or greater for a two engine approach.
An autorelight is initiated anytime a flameout is detected. A flameout is
detected by the EEC when
N2 is less than idle RPM.
The autostart system will attempt a second start for all the following
conditions EXCEPT for
insufficient air pressure.
On the ground, the autostart system will attempt a maximum of _____
start(s).
- 200C……3
During inflight engine start, how does the EEC react with the igniters?
It selects both ignitors.
The ALTN mode of EEC operation provides
overspeed protection.
The autostart system will not attempt a second start on the ground if
there is no N1 rotation.
The deployment of thrust reversers is
prohibited in flight.
In the alternate mode, the EEC uses _____ as the controlling parameter.
N1
If the EGT limit is exceeded during an inflight engine restart,
the start is temporarily discontinued.
During a ground Autostart with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN, at the
appropriate _____ the engine valve opens and the ignitor(s) energize.
N2 RPM
Other than for engine start, oil quantity
has no certified low limit.
The normal power source for engine ignition is main AC power. The backup
source for ignition is
standby AC power.
During a ground engine start, what action does AUTOSTART perform?
It may abort, and then re-initiate the start.
The EEC provides overtemperature protection
during autostart on the ground and in flight.
During an inflight engine autostart, if the EGT limit is exceeded, the
start is temporarily discontinued to allow engine cooling; however, the
autostart is not aborted.
Forward throttle movement is mechanically restricted until
the reverse thrust lever is fully down.
Which of the following is an indication that the thrust reversers are
fully deployed?
REV above each digital EPR indication changes to green.
Engine anti-ice ON (automatically or manually selected) supplies bleed air
to the engine cowl and _____ for the associated engine.
continuous ignition
In the normal EEC mode, the EEC sets thrust by controlling
EPR. 200A/B
Oil pressure, temperature, and quantity are
displayed on the secondary engine display.
What is the certified low oil quantity limit?
There is no certified low oil quantity limit.
Regarding the Thrust Reverser System, the EECs provide overboost
protection in which mode?
Reverse
The EECs are powered by
dedicated engine-mounted permanent magnet alternators (PMAs).
The START/IGNITION selectors control the _____ and provide continuous
ignition capability.
starter air valves
When starting an engine in flight, the START/IGNITION switch in the NORM
position operates
both ignitors continuously with the flap lever out of the UP position.
With Autostart switch selected OFF, the spar and engine fuel valves open,
allowing fuel flow to the engine, when the
engine fire handle is in, and the FUEL CONTROL switch is in RUN.
During takeoff, the EGT indication is
often in the amber band.
How would you know that the EEC had switched to the soft alternate mode?
EPR indication is blank.
Secondary engine indications are automatically displayed when
the fuel control switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight.
Engine failure WARNINGs occur when the engine produces less than commanded
thrust
during takeoff below 400 feet radio altitude and between 65 knots and
slightly less than V1.
Secondary engine indications are automatically displayed when
a secondary engine parameter is exceeded.
The maximum altitude the APU can be used for Pack operation is
22,000 feet.
How many starters does the APU have?
Two, one electric and one air turbine
The main airplane battery powers the APU
inlet door, fuel valve, and fire detection system.
In flight, the APU will automatically shut down with no cool-down period
for
an overspeed.
On the ground with the engines not running, the APU shuts down with no
cool-down period if which of the following occurs:
APU controller failure
If AC power is not available, the DC pump in the _____ tank provides APU
fuel.
left main
If the APU starts automatically in flight, it
can be shut down by positioning the selector to ON, then OFF.
With AC power available, and the APU selector to ON, the _____ and cannot
be turned off on the ground.
left forward fuel pump operates automatically
What occurs when the APU selector is turned to OFF?
Initiates normal shutdown
In flight, the APU automatically starts, regardless of APU selector
position, under which of these conditions?
Loss of both AC transfer busses
APU fuel can be provided by
any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold.
The APU continues to operate in the attended mode and the EICAS message
APU LIMIT displays for the _____ fault.
high EGT
How can pilots be certain that the APU is operating normally?
The message APU RUNNING is displayed on EICAS.
What type of fire protection system do the main wheel wells have?
The main wheel wells have fire detection capability only.
Normally, _____ must sense a fire or overheat condition before the pilots
are alerted.
both fire detection loops
If a fault is detected in one of the engine’s fire detection loops,
the system automatically switches to single loop operation.
For fire detection, the forward and aft cargo compartments are each
equipped with
one smoke detector.
The fire and overheat detection system monitors the fire and overheat
detector loops for faults
continuously.
What level of fire detection does the nose wheel well have?
No fire detection capability
The APU fire protection system has _____ fire detector loop(s).
2
How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for discharge into the
cargo compartments?
5
Can you effectively fight a cargo fire by arming both compartments before
discharge is selected?
No, this results in insufficient extinguishing agent concentration in both
compartments.
How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are there?
1
An APU fire warning on the ground with both engines shut down causes
automatic extinguisher discharge.
The _____ have a fire detection system; however, there is no fire
extinguishing system installed.
main gear wheel wells
What occurs when a fire is detected in a main wheel well?
The fire bell sounds.
When the AFT CARGO FIRE - ARM switch is depressed,
all cargo fire extinguisher bottles are armed.
Pushing the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch causes the immediate discharge of how
many bottles into the selected cargo compartment?
2
Illumination of the ENG BTL 2 DISCH light on the engine fire panel indicates
low pressure in the number 2 extinguisher.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Aural Alerts?
A Bell is used for fire warnings.
Pushing the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch on the ground causes the immediate
full discharge of two extinguisher bottles into the selected compartment.
After a time delay,
one of the three remaining extinguisher bottles is discharged into the
selected compartment at a reduced rate of flow.
Aural alerts are provided to ensure pilots’ attention, recognition, and
response. What is a bell aural alert used for?
Fire warnings
How can the fire and overheat detection systems be manually tested?
By pushing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch
When pushed and held, the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch
sends fire and overheat test signals to the engine, APU, wheel well, and
cargo compartment fire detection systems.
If the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch is released with the FIRE TEST IN PROG
message displayed, the test
ends without completing.
What happens after the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed?
All extinguishers are committed to the selected compartment.
What occurs when an engine fire extinguisher is discharged?
The ENG BTL (1 or 2) DISCH light illuminates.
What occurs if an engine fire is detected?
The Engine FUEL CONTROL switch fire warning light illuminates.
How does the APU Fire Warning Horn sound?
Intermittently during ground operation to indicate an APU fire or fire
test
Which of the following occurs if an engine overheat is detected?
An EICAS caution message displays.
Which of the following is accomplished by pressing the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN
switch?
The APU generator field and breaker are tripped.
If a fault develops in both detector loops of an engine nacelle, there is
no fire or overheat detection and
an EICAS message is displayed.
During a manual fire and overheat detection system test,
FIRE TEST IN PROG appears on the EICAS.
If the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch is released with FIRE TEST IN PROG message
displayed
the test ends without completing.
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 1 speed is _____ knots.
240
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 5 speed is _____ knots.
220
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 15 speed is _____ knots.
200
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 20 speed is _____ knots.
190
The B777-200A Flaps 25 speed is _____ knots.
180
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 30 speed is _____ knots.
170
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 1 speed is _____ knots.
255
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 5 speed is _____ knots.
235
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 15 speed is _____ knots.
215
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 20 speed is _____ knots.
195
The B777-200B/C Flaps 25 speed is _____ knots.
185
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 30 speed is _____ knots.
170
The autoland capability may be used
with Flaps 20 or 30 with both engines operative or with one engine
inoperative.
To protect against inadvertent flap deployment during cruise, flap and
slat extension from the UP position is inhibited at altitudes above
approximately
20,000 feet.
The TAC will not normally compensate for
severe compressor stalls.
The TAC is available during all phases of flight
above 70 knots.
TAC can normally compensate for which of the following engine problems?
Flameout
What are the three primary flight control system modes?
Normal, Secondary, and Direct
Which flight control system function is not available when operating in
the secondary mode?
Autopilot
When the autopilot is engaged, it sends commands directly to the
PFCs.
Manual selection of the secondary flight control mode
is not possible.
The PFCs automatically control pitch to compensate for
flap changes.
The autoslat system, if armed, enhances airplane stall protection
characteristics
when approaching stick shaker.
The wheel-to-rudder cross-tie system provides
up to 8 degrees of rudder deflection using control wheel inputs.
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Normal flight control
process while hand flying?
Pilot Input -> ACEs -> PFCs -> ACEs-> Control Surfaces
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Direct flight control
process while hand flying?
Pilot Input > ACEs > Control Surfaces
Which of the following sequences illustrates the flight control process
when the autopilot is engaged?
Autopilot Inputs > PFCs > ACEs > Control Surfaces
If a single spoiler fails, the corresponding spoiler on the other wing
retracts.
What action may cause an automatic reversion to the secondary flight
control mode?
PFC or related airplane system faults
What malfunction would cause the ACEs to automatically transition to the
Direct flight control mode?
Failure of all PFCs
Autothrottle stall protection (commonly referred to as autothrottle
wakeup) is available
in all three flight control modes if valid air data information is
present.
Which of the following are functions of envelope protection with the PFCs
in the normal mode?
Bank angle protection, stall protection, and overspeed protection
PFCs change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot
commands and airspeed. In the normal mode, PFCs automatically compensate
for
thrust changes.
If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed, what happends to the hydraulic
power?
Hydraulic power to the Stabilizer Trim Control Module that caused the
motion is automatically shut off.
Bank angle protection starts providing opposing forces to the roll control
wheel inputs when the airplane bank angle exceeds approximately
35 degrees.
Roll control is provided by movement of the
flaperons, ailerons, and asymmetrical spoilers.
In the Direct flight control mode, which of the following is operative?
Pitch trim
Flap load relief limits flap retraction to Flaps
5.
The spoilers are powered by _____ hydraulic system(s).
all three
Autothrottle Wakeup stall protection is available in _____ flight control
mode(s) if valid air data information is present.
all three
The pitch envelope protection functions _____ the pilot’s control
authority.
do not reduce
On B777-200 airplanes, primary flap and slat extension from the UP
position is inhibited at speeds greater than _____ knots.
250
On B777-200B airplanes, primary flap and slat extension from the UP
position is inhibited at speeds greater than _____ knots.
265
When will the wheel-to-rudder cross-tie operate?
In flight below 210 knots
