76T Systems Val A--Inspection, Elec, Emer Equip, Eng/APU Flashcards
Inspecting nose gear doors on B767 check for:
Damage, a slight droop is normal.
Steering and centering cables should be checked for:
Proper security & tension
Runway turnoff lights on the B757 are located:
Above the nose gear landing lights
The nose gear landing lights should be checked for damage and:
If visible, check filaments are intact
B767 runway turnoff lights are mounted in the:
Wing roots
Checking the nose gear tires & wheels for condition, also check:
Tie bolts are securely installed
Pitot probes should be:
Uncovered, undamaged, & free from obstruction
B767 Pitot-Static probes are integrated, check they are:
Uncovered, undamaged, & free from obstruction
When visually checking the integrated Pitot-Static probes on the B767, also check the:
RVSM critical areas for surface damage or contamination
TAT PROBES on B767 are located:
Below the Captain’s windshield
B757 the TAT PROBE is located:
Just aft of door 1R
B757 negative pressure relief valves are:
Located aft of door 1R
Pack inlet and exit doors should be:
Open and free from obstruction
Leading edge slats should be:
Fully retracted and free of contamination
Unless a reverser is locked by an MEL requirement the pins should be:
Flush with the cowl
(Slide) The probe displayed is the:
EEC
Visible repair to acoustical material is allowed if it is:
Intact and secure
Inspecting wing tip lights it is good technique to check static wicks are intact, a missing or broken wick:
Must be reported to maintenance for repair or possible deferral
Inboard ailerons on B767 may droop:
Without hydraulic power
When should main gear safety pins be installed?
While maintenance action is being conducted
Inspecting hydraulic lines on main gear, visible fluid on ground may indicate:
Damage and leaking fluid
Some portion of the landing gear strut should be visible, a good technique is to:
Note whether similar strut extension exists between the two main landing gear
B757 static ports are:
Located on each side of the aft fuselage
B757-200 inspections for tail strike damage, a good indicator is:
Damage to the water drain mast
B767 tail skid– visually inspect:
The low pressure indicator is not extended
(Slide) The valves pictured are:
Positive pressure relief
(Slide) This is the ____ on a B767.
ADP exhaust
Equipment cooling exhaust valve should be:
Open and free from obstruction
When an aircraft if scheduled for flight with system components inop, the aircraft must be operated in accordance with limitations stated in the FM. As amended by the:
MEL
Aircraft scheduled for flight certain secondary airframe or engine parts or components missing, the aircraft must be operated with the limitations stated in the FM. As amended by the:
CDL
Before maintenance can DF or CF a dispatch item, they must coordinate with Dispatch to ensure a joint decision:
TRUE
FAR 121.701 requires each certificate holder to have an approved procedure for keeping adequate copies of the aircraft’s logbook in a place readily accessible:
TRUE
FAR 121.709 requires that after maintenance is performed on an aircraft:
An airworthiness release must be provided
7.40.1 A new MRD is required prior to initial taxi if:
All of the above.
Any items were fixed
An autoland was accomplished (SAT or UNSAT)
Any new defects or service requests were reported
7.40.4 All pertinent MEL requirement for a deferral are included on the MRD in the:
OPS PLACARD for the deferral
Controlling Maintenance authorities:
All the above:
- Station maintenance when in the blocks at a —United Maintenance station
- TOMC when out of the block, in flight or at a contract maintenance station
- The Captain if a PDL item is transmitted prior to takeoff
Pilot-Performed engine runs above idle power:
All the above:
- Pilots are sitting in Primary flight deck pilot seats
- Written procedures from TOMC are received and used
- Pilots accomplish all normal applicable checklists
ACARS uses the ___ VHF radio to exchange data with ground stations. FM 17.10
Center
ACARS data is entered and transmitted manually or automatically. When the parking brake is first related after all cabin doors are closed, the ___ report is automatically transmitted.
OUT
Airborne telephone system (AIRFONE) is powered from the ___ bus.
Ground service
A cockpit voice recorder digitally records cockpit audio inputs for ___ minutes
30
When the OBS AUDIO ENT switch is positioned ON, passengers can select channel 9 at their seat and monitor ___
All channels selected on the first observers audio panel
The flight recorder starts automatically when ___ or ____. Fm 17.10
Either engine is running, the aircraft is in flight
With an AC electrical power failure, which VHF radio remains powered to allow communication?
Left
Left CHF communications radio is powered by the ___ bus?
Standby DC
Cabin inter phone systems permits communication between the cockpit and various flight attendant stations in the cabin. To contact and speak to all flight attendants at once elected the ___ on the cabin call panel
ALERT switch
The CALSEL alert at the LDOC facility is activated when the appropriate digit on the DTMF microphone is pushed for a minimum of ____seconds while the LDOC operator re-tunes the transmitter.
60
(B757 ER, B767) The HF coupler requires tuning whenever a new HF frequency is selected. Accomplished by momentarily keying the microphone & waiting until the 100 HZ coupler tone ceases before transmitting. Coupler tuning can take up to ____ seconds
15
(B767 56K) A wider ACARS printer is installed which incorporates a full page format.
TRUE
Center autopilot receives power from center busses & are normally powered from the ____
Left main AC & DC busses
With at least two generators operating and three autopilots armed for an autoland approach, the center busses transfer from the left main busses directly to the ___ and ___.
Static inverter, hot battery bus
Between arming of the three autopilots and 200 feet RA, loss of a generators causes the electrical system to___
Revert to its normal configuration
Three autopilots are engaged for an auto land approach, the airplane is above 200 feet RA, and the APU is not available. With the loss of a generator, which of the following would the ASA indicate?
NO LAND 3
If a generator is lost below 200 feet RA with three autopilots engaged and the APU not available, the electrical system____
Remains in the triple channel configuration
AC bus tie breakers are locked open below___ feet RA during auto land (triple channel configuration) to prevent the remaining generator from powering both main AC busses
200
APU operating, either AC bus tie breaker can close below 200 ft RA to allow APU gen to power one main AC bus, but both bus tie breakers cannot close to allow the APU to power both main busses
TRUE
A generator is lost below 200 feet RA with three autopilots engaged, and the APU not available. Which of the following would the ASA indicate?
LAND 3
Is it possible for the APU to power both main AC busses during a triple channel approach when below 200 feet?
NO
Electrical system reverts to normal, non-isolated operation when the autopilots are disengaged, or during an autopilot go-around when ____
Either go-around switch is pushed
Normal sources of power are lost, which busses are powered by the battery?
Hot battery bus, battery bus, and standby AC & DC busses
Normal power source for the battery bus is the __
Left Main DC bus
Both batteries are connected to their own battery charger. The battery chargers operate whenever there is AC power on the ___ bus.
Ground service
Standby busses ar enormally powered from the left main AC and DC busses, but can be powered from the main aircraft battery by automatic or manual switching if the normal sources fail.
TRUE
Two main DC channels are interconnected through a tie bus. In order for the DC bus tie breaker to operate, at least on e of the BUS TIE switches must be in AUTO.
FALSE
Each flight instrument transfer bus is normally powered from its associated main AC bus, but can automatically transfer to the opposite AC bus in the event of failure of the associated AC bus. In order for this automatic transfer to occur ____
The associated bus tie switch must be in AUTO
Ground handling bus is powered automatically anytime ____ or ___ electrical power is available on the ground only
External power, APU
Ground service bus is normally powered by the:
Right AC bus
Protect essential equipment during engine stet, with the APU supplying electrical and pneumatic power, why load sheds occur? First engine? Second engine?
First engine? Sheds both utility and galley busses.
Second engine? Sheds associated utility and galley busses.
Heavy electrical load shed may occur prior to engine start with the APU generator or external power supplying power to the electrical system. Heavy load shed is caused by what?
Turning ON the left and center electric hydraulic pumps
On the ground, generator loss load shed is armed by advancing both throttles into the takeoff range. Advancing throttles on the ground prior to engine start can cause load shedding.
TRUE
Power to the utility busses is controlled by the utility bus switches. These switches also energize the utility bus galley relays, supplying main AC bus power to the galley busses
TRUE
Associated AC bus tie breaker is armed for automatic operation, the AC busses are powered according to which of the following system priorities?
Associated engine generator, APU generator, opposite engine generator
IDG incorporates a generator, a constant speed drive, and the drive oil system cooled by ____
A fuel/oil heat exchanger which in turn helps heat the fuel
Bus tie switches in AUTO arm what four automatic features?
Arms associated AC BTB for automatic operation to power the AC busses; allows automatic transfer of associated flight instrument transfer bus; with both switches in AUTO activates the automatic DC bus tie system; allows the breaker to lock open for a fault trip
When an AC bus tie switch is manually isolated (switch in AUTO) the breaker is locked open and prevents the DC bus tie breaker from closing?
TRUE
With external power available and both engines operating, what is accomplished by pushing the EXT PWR switch to ON?
Closes the external power contractor (EPC) overriding the normal bus power priorities to trip off the APU and/or engine generators and power the AC tie bus
The STBY POWER OFF light is illuminated not he battery and standby power control panel. What does this indicate?
Indicates one or both standby busses are unpowered
What is indicated when the DISCH light is illuminated on the battery and standby power control pose?
Indicates the battery is supplying a load and is discharging
What is accomplished by pushing a GEN DRIVE DISC switch when a GEN DRIVE light is illuminated?
Activates a circuit to disconnect the associated generator drive from the engine
The left DRIVE light, on the engine generator and utility bus control panel, is illuminated. This indicates the associated generator drive oil pressure is too ___ for continued operation or oil temperature is too ____
Low, High
Regardless of switch position, the passenger signs illuminate automatically if cabin altitude exceeds _____ feet
10,000
Two runway turnoff lights are mounted on the fixed portion of the nose gear.
TRUE
(B757 ER) HMG automatically starts and supplies AC and DC power to designated busses when _____
Primary AC power is lost on both main AC busses
There is no time limit for HMG operation, and the HMG automatically shuts down when _____
AC power is re-established from either engine or APU generator
(B757 ER) During HMG operation, battery power is removed from the ____ IRU(s) after 5 minutes to conserve battery power.
Right
(B767 60K) The cabin signs do not illuminate automatically when passenger oxygen is activated.
TRUE
The HMG is powered from the ____ hydraulic system.
Center
(B767) Both left and right recirculation fans are powered through the respective utility bus.
TRUE
The runway turnoff lights are in the same location as the B757.
FALSE
(B767 56K) What signs are illuminated, continuously, regardless of switch position?
No smoking
(B767 56K) Regardless of switch position, the FASTEN SEATBELT signs illuminate when passenger oxygen is activated
TRUE
Flight deck oxygen bottle is located in the forward cargo compartment. How can you monitor bottle pressure?
By selecting the EICAS STATUS page
Passenger oxygen masks can be manually deployed from the cockpit with the PASS OXY switch on the overhead panel. Masks automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin altitudes exceeds____ feet.
14,000
Once activated, the passenger oxygen generator continues to generate oxygen for approximately ____ minutes and cannot be shut off.
12
The PASS OCY light is illuminated on the overhead panel. This indicates what?
The circuit to open he cabin oxygen module doors has been activated.
A second bulb in the aft flight deck dome light is powered by the emergency lighting system to provide for flight deck evacuation.
TRUE
Emergency lighting is powered by battery packs located in several zones in the cabin. The emergency lighting batteries are kept charged from the ____ bus.
Right main DC
The EMER LIGHTS can be activated manually or automatically. Manual activation can be from the cockpit EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel or by an EMER LIGHTS switch located _____, regardless of the position on the flight deck switch.
On the aft flight attendant panel.
All interior and exterior emergency light is illuminate automatically when armed, and the charging power supply is lost or turned off. The exterior lights on the associated side illuminate automatically when and entry/service door or overawing exit on that side is opened with the slide armed.
TRUE
When the EMER LIGHTS switch is placed in the ON position, emergency lights are turned on and are powered by what?
Associated battery packs
There are _____ overawing exits, ___ on each side of the fuselage.
4,2
An evacuation signal system provides an aural and visual means of alerting the crew members that an evacuation is initiated. The home can be silenced individually at each panel, however, the system remains active until ____
All command switches are turned off
EMER ESCAPE squib test lights on the auxiliary panel indicate the associated overwing escape slide squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 1 switch is pushed, and associated overwing escape slide inflation bottle pressure is satisfactory when the TEST 2 switch is pushed.
TRUE
Emergency flashlights are installed throughout the cabin and at each flight attendant jumpseat. Is the Emergency flashlight battery rechargeable?
NO
One halon extinguisher is located in the cockpit. Halon extinguishers are effective on all types of fires, but are used primarily on electrical, fuel, and grease fires.
TRUE
A Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) unit provides approximately ____ minutes of oxygen.
15
(B757 ER) There are ____ portable water-activated VHF/UHF radio beacons and ___ portable water-activated VHF/UHF transceivers installed in the cabin.
4, 2
(B767 60K) There are 12 supplemental oxygen packs located throughout the cabin. Supplemental oxygen can supply 10 percent of the cabin occupants for ___ minutes.
40
(B767) A single portable exit light mounted over the flight deck door provides flight deck emergency lighting. The light is powered by self-contained batteries which are kept charged from the ___ bus.
Standby DC
(B767) The EMER ESCAPE lights on the auxiliary panel indicate associated overwing escape slide squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 1 switch is pushed, and the associated wing spoiler squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 2 switch is pushed
TRUE
What is the electrical power source for the engines EEC?
PMA (Permanent magnet alternator)
Each EEC consists of a ____ and ___ channel
Primary, secondary
One EEC chanel must be operating for the engine to run, therefore, the EECs cannot be turned off.
TRUE
Although capable of supplying EPR information to the primary channel, the secondary channel cannot use that information to directly control )))
Thrust
Is manual EEC channel or EEC control mode selection available to the pilots?
NO
Automatic EEC channel switching occurs when:
An engine is shut down in flight only
If both channels in an EEC fail, the associated engine decelerates to and remains at ____
Minimum fuel flow
The ENG LIM PROT EICAS message and ENG LIM PROT light are illuminated. In this condition, the EEC control mode is?
N2
The EEC provides N1 and N2 red-line overspeed protection in all modes except for the reverse thrust in the N2 mode. Automatic thrust limit protection is provided only in EPR and N1 modes.
TRUE
If the EEC fails to limit the N1 and N2 to their respective red lines, there is a fail-safe backup to prevent uncontrolled acceleration to the point where catastrophic rotor-burst could occur. If N2 RPM reaches ____ percent, the fuel control unit reduces N2 RPM to ____ percent and mechanically locks the engine at that speed.
105, 85
There are ___ engine idle speeds
3
Approach idle is activated when ______ is on, or when the trailing edge flaps are extended beyond position ____
Engine anti-ice, 20
A significant drop in indicated oil quantity occurs after engine start and during ground operations (as much as 14 quarts). In flight, oil quantity may read as low as____, if oil pressure remains above the redline limit.
Zero
Engine Oil pump is driven directly by the _____, so oil pressure varies directly with the engine RPM.
N2 Rotor
EICAS displays L ENG OIL PRESS and ENG OIL PRESS light is illuminated. This indicates the engine oil pressure has dropped below ____ PSI
70
Continuous ignition is automatically provided when the ___ of ____.
Slats are extended, engines anti-ice is on
A REV ISLN VAL EICAS advisory message appears (on the ground only) when a fault is detected in the thrust reverser system. The message is inhibited above___ knots during takeoff and in flight until landing.
80
When utilizing reverse thrust, the REV annunciation on EICAS is ____ during transit and __ when fully deployed.
Yellow, green
The EICAS N1 speed is not displayed until the associated engine reaches approximately 3 percent N1 (______%N2)
28-30
EGT start limit radial indicates in red the maximum starting EGT. It is visible during engine start with the fuel control switch in RUN until the _____
Engine is running and EGT decays below the hot start limit
The Fuel On Command Bug is displayed when the engine is shut down on the ground, or in flight when _____ is displayed.
X-BLD
The most accurate engine oil quantity readings are obtained within ______ hour(s) after engine shutdown or after motoring the engine.
2
With the standby engine indicator selector in AUTO, what indications to be automatically displayed?
AC power is lost, EICAS fails, both CRTs fail, or either CRT fails on the ground and STATUS mode is selected
Climb thrust derate switches located not he thrust mode select panel either of two derate values for climb thrust computation. Climb 1 selects approximately ____ percent of CLB thrust, and Climb 2 selects approximately ___ percent of CLB thrust.
92, 85
The Thrust Mode Select Panel (TMSP) switches communicate with the Thrust Management Computer (TMC) for reference EPR computation and indicate in ____ the EPR reference and value for the thrust mode.
Green
Assumed temperature takeoff thrust is limited to a ____ percent reduction of maximum takeoff thrust or selected climb thrust, whichever is greater thrust value. When the limit is reached, further clockwise knob rotation does not change the displayed temperature or reference thrust value.
25
APU starting is completely automatic once initiated, APU starts may be attempted at any altitude, but the APU may not always start above ____ feet.
35,000
Fuel for he APU is normally supplied from the ____, but can be supplied from any tank _____.
Left main fuel tank, through the crossfeed system
APU time delay for shutdown is variable from 0 to 120 seconds. If the APU bleed valve has been closed for more than ____ seconds when the APU selector is moved to OFF, the APU shuts down without delay.
60
The APU has its own battery and charger. The aircraft battery is also required for ground operation to supply power for _____.
APU fire protection, the APU fuel valve, and the DC fuel pump
If the APU FAULT light remains illuminated after placing the APU selector to ON, this would indicate____
APU fuel valve is not in the proper position
(B767) There is/are ____ engine idle speed(s)
2
(B767) Each engine EEC consists of two channels designated ____ and ____.
A and B
(B767) The ENG EEC MODE EICAS message is displayed and ALTN light is illuminated. This indicates the associated engine EEC is operating in the ____ mode.
N1
(B767) Overspeed protection includes a fail-safe backup. If N1 exceeds 117 percent or N2 exceeds 110.3 percent, field flow is reduced to the minimum flow setting and locked. Flameout is likely at low altitude.
TRUE
(B767) Engine EGT is displayed on EICAS until the EEC is powered during initial engine rotation.
FALSE
(B767) Reduced climb thrust is automatically terminated when the airplane reaches
12,500 feet
(B767 56K) In addition to engine anti-ice selected ON or trailing edge flaps selected beyond position Flaps 20, approach idle is also automatically provided whenever the start selectors are placed to CONT
TRUE
On initial aircraft power-up, an automatic test system tests the engine fire and overheat detectors, the APU fire detectors, and the cargo compartment smoke detectors. If a fault is detected in one of the loops, the affected system reconfigures itself to a single loop operation.
TRUE
The FWD and AFT Cargo Compartments each have two smoke detectors. Both detectors in a compartment must sense smoke particles to activate the cargo fire warning. EICAS monitors each detector for faults. An EICAS status message CARGO DET 1 or CARGO DET 2 indicates one detector has either failed open, (not allowing the detector to sense smoke) or failed closed, (incorrectly detecting smoke). In either case, the other associated detector is unaffected by the condition causing the fault. What must be accomplished to reconfigure the system to a single detector operation?
Accomplishing the ENG/APU/CARGO FIRE/OVHT test.
The Cargo Fire Arm switches, when pushed, silence the fire bell, arm the extinguishing system, and ____.
FWD ______
AFT _______
FWD - turns off forward cargo heat fan, turns off both recirculation fans
AFT - turns off cargo heat fan, turns off the cargo heater, turns off the right recirculation fan
The wheel well fire detector loop is only tested when the WHL WELL test switch is pushed. A valid test is indicated by the _____ light illuminating. Failure of the light to illuminate indicates a faulty loop.
a) discrete FIRE
b) EICAS FIRE
c) WHL WELL FIRE
WHL WELL FIRE
All detection systems have dual detector capability except
a) engine fire
b) engine overload
c) APU fire
d) cargo fire
e) wheel well
wheel well
Dual detection loops are installed in the APU compartment. What occurs if a fire is detected in the APU or surrounding compartment?
Automatically shuts down the APU, bypassing the cooling down delay in the normal shutdown sequence.
When a single engine fire loop fault is detected, a message is displayed as ______.
EICAS status message
EICAS displays FIRE/OVHT SYS and the FAIL light is illuminated. What condition(s) cause these indications?
A failure of fault in both loops of the engine fire, engine overheat, and APU fire or cargo fire detection system.
How many bottles are installed for engine fire suppression?
2
A single fire extinguisher bottle is installed for APU fire suppression.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The wheel well fire detection system does not detect ____ without an associated fire.
hot brakes
If a cargo fire detector fails open, a status message does not display until the remaining detector senses smoke. This failure renders the cargo fire warning system ____ until the system is tested.
inoperative
Two cargo smoke detector fans are located in each cargo compartment. One operates to draw air from the compartment through the smoke detectors. If the operating fan fails, the other fan _____.
starts automatically
How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for cargo fire suppression?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
2
The fire warning bell and master warning lights (for fire only) are inhibited from nose strut extension until reaching ____ feet RA, or for 20 seconds, whichever occurs first.
a) 200
b) 400
c) 800
d) 1000
400
A smoke detector is installed in each lavatory. The detectors are powered by ____.
the airplane electrical system
A fire extinguisher is installed in each lavatory trash bin. The extinguisher’s nozzle tip is normally ____ in color and changes to a _____ color after being discharged.
black,
aluminum/silver
Engine and APU bottle discharge lights indicate ____ in the associated bottle.
low pressure
(B767) There are ___ fire extinguisher bottles installed to provide the protection for the cargo departments.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
3
(B767) Pushing the single BTL DISCH switch discharges Bottle 1 immediately into the selected cargo compartment. ____ minutes later or _____, whichever occurs first, a metered discharge of the remaining bottles is automatically initiated.
30,
upon touchdown
There is no manual reversion for the elevators, ailerons, and rudder.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The trailing edge flaps and leading edge slats are normally powered by the ____ hydraulic system.
a) left
b) center
c) right
left
Hydraulic power is shut off to both the flap and slat drive units for
a) LE asymmetry only.
b) TE asymmetry only.
c) LE disagreement only.
d) TE disagreement only.
e) LE or TE asymmetry or disagreement.
LE or TE asymmetry or disagreement.
A Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) monitors the system and controls the operation of the drive units. If a failure or abnormal condition occurs, the FSEU _____.
shuts down the hydraulic drive
A flap load relief system retracts the flaps from position ____ to position ____ if the Flaps ____ speed limit is exceeded.
30,
25,
30
The leading edge slats extend to the landing position when the trailing edge flaps extend beyond position
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
20
If the leading edge slats are in the takeoff position and the left hydraulic system is pressurized, a stall warning causes the slats to extend to the landing position. This system is inoperative when the alternate flap system is selected.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The flaps and slats can be extended and retracted independently with the alternate flap system driven by ____.
electric motors rather than hydraulic power
When using the alternate flap system, the only protection provided is _____.
asymmetry for the leading edge slats only
Flight control system overrides protect against control column or flight control jams. Overrides bypass the restricted portion of the control system when higher than normal _____.
control forces are applied
The two single elevators are each powered by three hydraulic actuators. Two independent feel systems are powered by the ____ hydraulic systems to provide artificial feel forces to the control columns.
a) left and center
b) left and right
c) center and right
center and right
The horizontal stabilizer is positioned by dual (left and right) hydraulic motor/brake modules powered by the ____ hydraulic systems.
a) left and center
b) center and right
c) left and right
center and right
The rate of stabilizer trim varies with ____ and the number of ____ operating.
airspeed,
trim modules
The stabilizer is controlled automatically by the ___ system or by the ____.
Mach/speed trim,
autopilot(s)
Electric or manual pilot trim inputs inhibit the Mach/speed trim system
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The MACH/speed system is inhibited on the ground and engages _____ seconds after takeoff.
a) 20
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60
20
Electric trimming disengages the autopilot when _____.
only one is engaged
Trimming with the STAB TRIM levers (ALTN STAB TRIM switches, as installed) overrides the autopilots no matter how many are engaged and causes autopilot disengagement.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
Hydraulic power must be available from ____ system to set aileron trim accurately.
at least one hydraulic
If aileron trim is inadvertently activated while an autopilot is engaged, the repositioning of the aileron neutral trim point is not apparent to the pilots.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
Only ___ of the six spoiler panels on each wing operate with the ailerons to assist with roll control.
a) three
b) four
c) five
five
In flight, movement of the speed brake lever signals the control system electronic units (CSEUs) to extend or retract _____ flight spoiler panels simultaneously to the selected position.
10
With the speed brake lever in the ARMED position, the ground spoilers automatically extend upon landing and the lever moves to the UP position when there is hydraulic pressure to both landing gear truck tilt actuators, both truck tilt sensors detect a no-tilt condition on the ground, and _____.
both throttles are at idle
With the AUTO SPD BRK light illuminated, a fault may cause inflight deployment with the lever armed. What action also extends the ground spoilers?
If either reverse thrust lever is raised to its interlock stop and all other conditions are met.
The yaw damper controllers receive inputs from ____ and ____.
IRS,
ADC
The yaw damper system improves _____ and _____.
turn coordination,
dutch roll damping
The yaw damper controllers receive inputs from the IRS and ADC and provide signals to ______.
two (left and right) hydraulic yaw damper actuators
The rudder ratio changer receives air data computer airspeed inputs and provides signals to an actuator powered by the _____ hydraulic system.
a) left
b) center
c) right
left
A fault in the Rudder Ratio system illuminates the RUDDER RATIO light and EICAS message. How much rudder authority is available?
Low speed/full authority
Flaps 1, selects position 1 for the TE flaps and the takeoff position for the LE slats.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
Pushing the leading edge alternate flap switch allows trailing edge slats to be extended manually with the flap lever.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
If a LEADING EDGE or TRAILING EDGE light is illuminated with an associated EICAS message, this would indicate ____.
one or more leading edge slats or trailing edge flaps failed to reach the position called for by the flap handle.
EICAS displays RUDDER RATIO and the RUDDER RATIO light is illuminated indicating _____.
a fault in the rudder ratio system
The SPEED BRAKES light on the center instrument panel is illuminated indicating _____.
the speed brake lever is aft of the ARMED position and the airplane is below 800 feet RA and above 15 feet; or the lever is aft of the ARMED position and landing flaps are extended above 15 feet RA
The SPOILERS light on the overhead panel and the associated EICAS message are illuminated indicating _____.
one or more spoiler system faults detected
The AUTO SPEEDBRAKE EICAS message and the AUTO SPD BRK light are illuminated. This indicates a fault in the automatic speed brake system. If the speed brake lever is DOWN or ARMED, speed brakes may not extend automatically on _____. If the SPEED BRAKE lever is in ARMED, speed brakes may extend in flight if _____.
landing or rejected takeoff, an additional fault occurs
Is the STAB TRIM light on the overhead panel inhibited when an autopilot or the Mach/speed trim system is engaged?
a) Yes
b) No
Yes
Is the UNSCHED STAB TRIM light on the overhead panel illuminated when trimming with the STAB TRIM levers (switches) when an autopilot is engaged?
a) Yes
b) No
Yes
The MACH SPD TRIM light on the overhead panel is illuminated and associated EICAS message is displayed indicating ______
a fault in the Mach/speed trim system
The L YAW DAMPER EICAS message is displayed and INOP light is illuminated. With the switch ON, what does this indicate?
associated yaw damper system is inoperative due to a fault
(B767) The trailing edge flaps and leading edge slats are normally powered by the _____
a) left
b) center
c) right
center
(B767) The trailing edge flaps do not begin to extend until position _____ is selected.
5
(B767) An asymmetry or disagree condition sensed on the trailing edge flaps shuts off hydraulic power to the ____ drive unit(s).
a) TE and LE
b) TE (only)
c) LE (inboard only)
d) LE (outboard only)
TE (only)
(B767) The flap load relief system retracts the flaps to position ____ if the associated maximum extension speed is exceeded with the flaps extended to either position ____ or _____.
20,
25,
30
(B767) Extension of the trailing edge flaps to position _____ or beyond hydraulically drives the inboard ailerons to _____ percent down, changing the body angle to provide better approach visibility.
5,
50
(B767) An asymmetry or disagreement condition sensed on the leading edge slats shuts off hydraulic power only to the associated (inboard or outboard) drive unit.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
(B767) No asymmetry or disagree protection or flap load relief is provided during alternate flap or slat operation.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
(B767) The elevator feel systems are powered by the ___ hydraulic systems.
a) left and center
b) left and right
c) center and right
left and center
(B767) There is no auto slat system in the B767. Stall protection is provided by a stick shaker (like the B757) and a ____.
stick pusher
(B767) When does the stick pusher move both control columns forward?
Pushes both control columns forward if angle of attack increases after the stick shakers activate, or if the stick shakers activate for several seconds
(B767) A pitch enhancement system (PES) is installed which provides a backup source of hydraulic power to operate the horizontal stabilizer if both the _____ hydraulic systems fail.
a) left and right
b) left and center
c) center and right
left and center
(B767) The PES trims at approximately ____ the normal rate and when operating, trim is only available from the electric trim switches on the _____.
1/4, control yoke
(B767) The outboard ailerons are mechanically locked out above approximately _____ knots, and unlock below approximately ____ knots TAS.
a) 280, 200
b) 260, 240
c) 290, 250
d) 280, 240
280, 240
(B767) To assist with roll control at low speeds, ____ spoiler panels operate on each wing, while only ____ spoilers on each wing are utilized at high speeds.
six,
four
(B767) When an armed overwing exit is opened, the inboard spoiler panels _____.
retract
(B767) The AIL LOCK light and associated EICAS message are illuminated. This indicates _____.
one or both outboard ailerons failed to lock at high speed or failed to unlock at low speed
The air data system consists of two air data computers, one total air temperature probe, a pitot static system, and ____
Two angle of attack probes
The command airspeed bug on each Mach/Airspeed indicator can be positioned automatically front he FMC CDU or manually from the MCP IAS/MACH selector. VNAV controls the MCP command airspeed bug to the flap limit speed minus ____ knots.
5
The RDMIs provide FMS waypoint, VOR or ADF bearing information, and waypoint, VOR/DME, and ILS/DME distance information, as selected by the pilots. FMS waypoint distance is the ____distance tot he active waypoint while VOR and ILS distance information is ____range DME distance.
Horizontal, slant
The RDMI and VSI are not operational, and attitude data for the ADI is unavailable, until the associated IRU has completed alignment and entered the NAV mode.
TRUE
There is/are ___ symbol generator(s) installed.
3
The HSI compass rose is automatically referenced to magnetic north when aircraft location is between ___ degrees north and ___ degrees south latitude with the heading reference in NORM.
73, 60
Selectors and switches allow either pilot to select an alternate instrument source. The alternate source may be a third (center) system, if installed, or the opposite (left or right) source. A ____ is provided whenever both pilots have selected the same instrument data source.
Caution Alert
There are ____ radio altimeters installed. The ___ radio altimeter supplies the configuration warning system and the ground proximity warning system.
3, Left
Three radio altimeters provide data to the flight control computers, symbol generators as well as other using systems. The ____ radio altimeter also supplies the configuration and ground proximity warning system.
Left
The Standby Attitude Indicator (SAI) can be powered from the standby DC bus for approximately ____ minutes in the event all other electrical power fails.
30
Normally, the left IRU provides the F/O RDMI heading reference. When an IRS FAULT occurs, selecting the IRS switch changes the source of heading, track, attitude, and speed data for associated for ADI, HSI, VSI, and opposite RDMI to the ___ IRU.
Center
(B757 Non-ER) On the Instrument Source Selector Panel, pushing the Captain’s FMC switch ____
Selects the right FMC as the source for the left and center symbol generators and FCCs
There are three symbol generators (SGs). Pushing the EFI switch to ALTN selects the ____ symbol generator.
Center
If an engine fails after liftoff, the pitch bar on the ADI commands the greater of _____ or _____, but not more than _____.
Existing speed, V2, V2+15
During flight, the amber FD flag appears. This indicates ___.
The selected flight director has failed.
With the flaps extended, a Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) on each ADI indicates ____
Stick shaker pitch attitude when visible
TCAS traffic is displayed in all HSI modes.
False
During flight, the amber MAP flag appears on the HSI, this indicates _____
Failure of associated FMC-generated map display
The ALT light on each primary altimeter indicates the aircraft within ____ feet above or below the altitude set int he MCP altitude indicator and extinguishes when within ____ feet of the MCP altitude
900, 300
The radio altitude display on the ADI indicates radio altitude at ____ feet and below
2500
DIST-L/DIST-R indicators on the RDMI display distance in nautical miles to the next active waypoint or tuned radio facility, as indicated by a letter prefix. An “L” prefix indicates____
Slant range distance is to the tuned ILS/DME
During flight, the HDG flag appears not he Captains RDMI. This indicates _____
Selected IRS heading source is unreliable, no computed data is available, or instrument has failed
If the Captain’s clock fails, time inputs to both FMCs switch to the First Officer’s clock.
TRUE
(B757 ER) A NAV selector is installed in place of the FMC switch on each INSTR SOURCE SEL panel. Placing the selector in the CDU-L or CDU-R position displays the ____ route on the associated HSI
Standby navigation
(B767 56K) When pushed, the CTR switch is located on the HSI control panel toggles between _____ and ____ displays when the HSI mode selector is in the MAP, VOR, or APP position.
Full, expanded rose
All Fuel is contained in _____ tanks, labeled _____, _____, and ______.
Three, L, C, and R
The fuel quantity in each tank is measured electronically, corrected for density, and displayed ______
On a digital indicator for each tank
Surge tanks are provided in each wing tip. Fuel from the surge tank is drained into the _____
Associated main tank
Normal fueling and refueling is done through dual fuel nozzles in the fueling bay under the ____ wing
Right
The AC pumps provide fuel under pressure to the engine driven fuel pumps. The ___ pump in the ____ tank normally supplies the APU.
FWD, LEFT
With the center tank pumps, remaining center tank fuel is automatically scavenged into the main tanks when the left main tank is less than ____ percent full at a rate of approximately _____ pounds per hour.
50, 400
To reduce electrical loads, the center tank boost pumps are normally inhibited in flight or on the ground when the associated engine N2 is less than ____ percent.
50
A DC motor driven pump is installed in the _____ tank as a backup source of fuel pressure.
Left, starting the APU
With the center fuel pump switches selected ON, illuminated PRESS lights indicate ______
Output pressure is low, no fuel remains in the center tank with pump switch ON, associated N2 is below 50 percent with pump switch ON
The FUEL TEMP indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in the ____ main tank.
Right
On the ground, the left forward fuel boots pump starts automatically, regardless of switch position when ____ and ____.
The APU selector is positioned to START or ON and AC power is available
The FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the quantity in either main tank is below approximately _____ pounds.
2200
When lateral fuel imbalance is ____ pounds between the main tanks, the FUEL CONFIG light illuminates
1800
The FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the center tank contains more than ____ pounds of usable fuel with the center pump switches off
1200
A single cross feed switch opens and closes the valve. What indicates correct valve position?
Valve light not illuminated
(B757 ER) Extended Range aircraft are equipped with dual cross feed valves
TRUE
(B767) The fueling bay is located under the ____ wing.
LEFT
(B767) The FUEL CONFIG light for a lateral imbalance is triggered by an imbalance of ____ pounds between the main tanks.
2000 +/- 500
(B767) A fuel jettison system is installed which jettisons fuel from the center tank only and at a rate of ____ pounds per minute
2800
(B767) Positioning the fuel jettison selector to ON automatically inhibits ____ window heat and selects ___ mode for equipment cooling in the order to reduce electrical demand
L-3 & R-3, OVRD
(B767) With the center tank pumps off, scavenge of remaining center tank fuel begins when the main tanks are approximately ______
Half full
(B767) The FUEL TEMP indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in the ____ main tank.
LEFT
(B767) The FAULT light on the overhead fuel jettison panel remained illuminated when the fuel jettison selector was placed ON. This could indicate a jettison pump is not operating as commanded or ______
A jettison valve is not in the commanded position
The PTU uses hydraulic pressure from the right engine driven pump to power a hydraulic motor which, in turn, drives a hydraulic pump in the left hydraulic system.
TRUE
The PTU activates automatically if the ____ fails or ___ pressure is low.
Left engine, left engine pump
When activated, the PTU augments the electric pump to operate the ____, ______, and _____
Landing gear, nose wheel steering, flaps and slats
The PTU is inhibited if the right engine is shut down.
TRUE
The ____ system reservoir includes a standpipe to reserve fluid for the PTU pump in the event of a system leak
LEFT
If the PTU does not operate properly, EICAS displays a ____ status message
POWER XFER UNIT
To prevent electrical overload, the center ____ electric hydraulic pump is inhibited anytime only one generator (APU or engine) or only external power is available and both center hydraulic system electric pump switches are ON
No 2
A RAT located in the body fairing of the right main gear is available to supply center system flight controls in the event of a _____ in flight
Dual engine failure
When deployed the RAT drives a hydraulic pump that supplies adequate pressure for flight controls down to an airspeed of approximately _____ knots
130
The center system reservoir includes a standpipe to reserve fluid for the _____
RAT
The RAT is armed on the ground above _____ knots and deploys in flight automatically if _____
80, both engines fail
The RAT can be deployed manually at any time using the flight deck switch on the overhead panel
TRUE
The RAT deploys by:
Spring force
The right hydraulic system electric pump operates, regardless of switch position, when the _____ switch is activated
Reserve brakes
The ____ system reservoir includes a standpipe to reserve fluid for the reserve brake system
Right
All hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized by the pneumatic systems to ensure
Positive fluid flow
The RSVR light on the overhead panel and associated EICAS message indicates and/or ____
Low fluid quantity low air pressure
High demand items, such as flaps, slats, and landing gear are powered by which hydraulic system?
Left
The L HYD QTY EICAS message displays, and RSVR light are illuminated. This indicates the quantity int he associated system is below _____ percent.
50
When a hydraulic pump PRESS light is illuminated, this indicates low pressure front the associated pump regardless of switch position
True
The OVHT light for the R ELEC PUMP is illuminated with the associated EICAS message displayed. This indicates an overheat condition in the pump and the light extinguishes when the ____ cools.
Fluid
When hydraulic quantity for a systems is at _____ percent or below, RF appears indicating the reservoir needs refilling.
.75
The PRESS light in the RAT switch on the overhead panel is illuminated. This indicates the RAT is ____
Supplying satisfactory pressure to the center hydraulic system
(B757 ER) An HMG is installed which is automatically powered by the left engine hydraulic pump whenever both main AC busses are unpowered
TRUE
(B757 ER) The HMG may be driven by the power transfer unit, if the PTU is operating.
TRUE
(B757 ER) When the HMG is operating, hydraulic flow to the flaps and slats is mechanically reduced, resulting in ____operating time for these items.
Increased
(B757 ER) The simultaneous extension or retraction of the landing gear and TE flaps while operating with the HMG can cause hydraulic fluid starvation of the HMG, resulting in temporary flight instrument display _____.
Blanking
(B767) The electric demand pumps located in the left and right hydraulic systems are normally selected for automatic operation. In automatic operation, the demand pump starts whenever the associated ____ drops below a preset value or anytime the associated _____ is closed
System pressure, engine fuel shutoff valve
(B767) To prevent electrical overload, the ____center hydraulic electric pump is inhibited when only one generator (APU or engine) or only external power is available and the other _____ electric pumps are commanded to operate.
No 2, three
(B767) The center ____ hydraulic electric pump operates, regardless of switch position, whenever the ____ system is activated.
No 1, reserve brakes and steering
(B767) The air demand pump is powered by air from the center pneumatic duct and is normally selected for automatic operation. The pump operates automatically whenever the landing gear, flaps, slats, or speed brakes/ground spoilers are selected for operation and whenever the center system pressure_____
Drops to a preset value
(B767) The hydraulic QTY light on the overhead panel indicates:
The associated reservoir is below 50 percent
(B767) High demand items, such as flaps, slats, and landing gear, speed brakes/ground spoilers are powered by the _____ hydraulic system
Center
(B767) The RAT is deployed by:
Electric actuator motor (vs. spring action on B757)
(B767) The HMG is powered by the _____ hydraulic system.
Center
When the HMG is powered, the center system air demand pump operates continuously to ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure to drive the generator.
TRUE
(B767) The C HYD QTY EICAS message is displayed, and QTY light is illuminated. Have the automatic reserve brakes and steering system been activated?
YES
The water drain masts are ____ heated and when on the ground, the heat is ____ to prevent injury to ground personnel
Electrically, reduced
The engine anti-ice valve is located ____ of the associated engine bleed air valve
Downstream
The TMC automatically adjusts the maximum EPR limits when engine anti-ice is being used as a function of engine anti-ice ____ position.
Switch
When engine anti-ice is turned ON, a ____ annunciation appears above the EICAS N1 display
TAI (thermal anti-ice)
If only one engine bleed source is available when engine anti-ice is ON, the ____ required for anti-ice operation is displayed on EICAS for the engine supplying bleed air
Minimum N1
Turning ON the Engine Anti-Ice switches automatically energizes ______ and activates ______ for the associated engine, provided the associated ENGINE START selector is positioned to AUTO
Continuous ignition, approach idle
The wing anti-ice system routes air from the aircraft pneumatic system to the three leading edge slats _____
Immediately outboard of the engine on each wing
Except for a provision to test the wing anti-ice valves, the valves are inhibited from opening on the ground.
TRUE
There is always overheat protection provided for the wing anti-ice in flight.
FALSE
The TMC automatically adjusts the maximum EPR limits when wing anti-ice is being used as a function of anti-ice ____ position
Switch
Window overheat protection is provided
TRUE
On the ground, the TAT probe _____, the pitot probes receive ______, and the angle of attack vanes receive_____.
Is not heated, low heat, full heat
In addition to electric heat for the windshields and side windows, anti-fogging is provided by ____
Condition air ducted to the upper windshield
After liftoff, the TAT probe, pitot probes, and AOA vanes all receive _______ heat.
Full
Loss of heat to the TAT probe or both angle of attack vanes have no effect on an auto throttle when engaged.
False
(B767) the engine anti-ice valve is located ____of the associated engine bleed air valve.
Upstream
(B767) The engine anti-ice minimum N1 reference bug is not displayed on EICAS when the Engine Anti-ice switch is ON
TRUE
(B767) Rotating the Fuel Jettison selector to ON deactivates the window heat on windows _____ to reduce electrical load.
L-3 and R-3
(B767) The three outboard leading edge slats on each wing are anti-iced.
TRUE
Normal gear extension is operated by:
Hydraulic pressure
The _______ hydraulic system provides power for landing gear retraction and extension
Left
The normal brake system is powered by the _____ hydraulic system
Right
The alternate brake system is powered by the ____ hydraulic system.
Left
If pressure in the right hydraulic systems drops below approximately _____ PSI, braking automatically shifts to the alternate brake systems.
1500
The alternate brake system has all the capabilities of the normal brake system except for automatic braking.
TRUE
The normal antiskid system provides what protection features?
All the above. Skidding, wheel lockup, hydroplaning, touchdown.
The alternate antiskid system provides the same protection as the normal system, but receives inputs from transducers which monitor _____ rather than individual wheels.
Paired wheels in the same axle
The auto brakes system is available through the normal brake system. With the loss of the _____ hydraulic system, auto braking is not used due to the potential loss of _____capability.
Left, nose wheel steering
With the auto brakes system armed and both throttles at idle, automatic braking is initiated at touchdown when ______, ______, and ______.
Main gear trucks until, wheel spinup occurs, the IRS senses aircraft pitch at 1 degree or less
Autobraking delays for up to _____ seconds if the IRS pitch attitude remains above 1 degree.
8
The auto braking system disarms immediately when an ____ or _____ system fault occurs.
Autobrakes, normal antiskid
Manual braking, advancing either throttle, moving the speed brake lever out of the UP position, or selecting the DISARM or OFF position on the selector disarms the auto brakes system.
TRUE
With the RTO mode armed, the auto brakes system applies maximum braking when both throttles are retarded to idle above ____ knots
85
The same conditions that disarm the auto brakes system during landing, also disarm the auto brakes system after RTO mode has engaged.
TRUE
The reserve brake source system and brake accumulator provide backup pressure sources for the normal (right) brake system if both the _____ hydraulic systems fail.
Left and right
When the RESERVE BRAKES switch is activated, fluid below the standpipe in the _____hydraulic system reservoir is made available to the ______ systems electric hydraulic pump.
Right, right
The BRAKE SOURCE EICAS message and BRAKE SOURCE light are illuminated. This indicates braking is available from _____
The accumulator only
The accumulator can provide several braking applications or parking brake applications.
TRUE
The normal antiskid system provides full antiskid protection when the ____ brake system is pressurized by either the reserve brake source or the brake accumulator
Normal
The main gear trucks tilt ____ following liftoff
Aft
Alternate gear extension uses a _____to release the gear doors and gear up locks, allowing the gear to free fall to the down and locked position.
Small electric hydraulic pump
The landing gear cannot be extended using the alternate extension system without _____and trapped fluid within the supply line to the pump.
Electrical power
All gear doors remain open after alternate gear extension whether or not the left hydraulic system is pressurized.
True
An illuminated ANTISKID light and associated ANTISKID EICAS message indicates:
A fault in the active antiskid system
Is the ANTISKID light on the overhead panel inhibited when the parking brakes are set?
YES
When illuminated, the AUTO BRAKES light on the center instrument panel could indicate which of the following?
Autobrake systems has disarmed
The amber GEAR light on the center instrument panel is illuminated, this indicates the landing gear position____
Disagrees with position called for by landing gear lever
The nose wheel steering tiller turns the nose wheels a maximum of ____ degrees either side of center for ground operations when hydraulic pressure is available from the _____hydraulic system
65, left
The rudder pedals can turn the nose wheels a maximum of _____ degrees either side of center ground operations.
7
The accumulator can only be pressurized by the _____hydraulic system.
Right
The PARK BRAKE light on the control pedestal and associated EICAS message are illuminated, this indicates the PARK BRAKE handle is not retracted and ____
The antiskid return line valve is closed
(B767) The ____ hydraulic system provides power for the landing gear retraction and extension.
Center
(B767) The reserve brakes system provides nose wheel steering in the event the ____hydraulic system fails.
Center
(B767) The alternate brake system is powered by the ____ system, but can be powered by a _____ system when necessary.
Center, reserve brake and steering source
(B767) Fluid trapped below the standpipe in the center hydraulic system reservoir is reserved for:
Reserve brake and steering
(B767) When the RESERVE BKS & STRG switch is activated, the ____electric hydraulic pump starts operating regardless of switch position.
Center No. 1
(B767) Automatic reserve brakes and steering source operation occurs when the center system reservoir fluid quantity drops below approximately _____ percent.
50
(B767) When the main gear is retracted, it is held up by the _____
Landing gear doors
(B767) Alternate gear extension uses a/an____actuator to release the main gear doors and nose gear uplatches.
Electric
(B767) The rudder pedals can turn the nose wheels a maximum of _____degrees either side of center during ground operations.
6
(B757) The tailskid is powered by the _____ hydraulic system and retracts and extends with the landing gear.
Center
(B767) A TAILSKID light is illuminated, and an associated EICAS message is displayed. This would indicate____
Tailskid position does not agree with landing gear lever position
The AFDS/autothrottle GA mode arms when _____is captured or _____ are extended.
Glideslope, flaps
When GA mode engages, the auto throttle increases thrust as required up to the GA thrust limit to establish a climb rate of at least ______FPM
2000
If the airplane is descending or is below 400 feet, the AFDS can only be taken out of GA mode by _____. If flaps are at position 25 or 30, the auto throttle can only be taken out of GA mode by ____.
Disengaging all autopilots and turning off both flight directors, disengaging it
When level or climbing above 400 feet, the AFDS can be taken out of GA mode by____.
Selecting another pitch and/or roll mode
When in the TO or GA modes, the windshear recovery system is activated automatically.
TRUE
When in other than TO or GA modes, the windshear recovery system is activated by pushing:
Either go-around switch
There is/are ____flight control computer(s) to integrate the functions of the autopilots and flight directors.
3
An FCC ____operate an autopilot in command, and supply flight director commands simultaneously
CANNOT
Flight director commands are not available during triple autopilot operations.
TRUE
At least ____ FCCs must be operating for an autopilot to be engaged or remain engaged
TWO
The normal power source for the left and center FCCs is the:
Left AC bus.
When armed for a three autopilot approach, the power source for the center FCC switches to the ______ to satisfy a bus isolation requirement for auto land.
Hot battery bus and standby inverter
Upgraded FCCs must be installed. Depending on the mix of FCCs installed, NO AUTOLAND may be annunciated on the ASA at _____ feet AGL during single autopilot approaches
600
In general, all automatic flight control modes can be disengaged by selecting another mode, disengaging the autopilot, and/or turning off both flight directors. The exception is the APP mode after localizer and glideslope capture, which can only be disengaged by _____ or ____.
Disengaging the autopilot and turning of both flight directors, by engaging the GA mode
When armed, the LNAV, VNAV, LOC, BCRS, and APP modes can be disarmed by _____
Pushing the mode switch a second time
Both throttles can be moved manually without disengaging the auto throttle, but the throttles reposition themselves in response to computed thrust requirements when released, except in the ______mode
THR HOLD
The auto throttles can be disengaged manually by ____or____
Pushing either auto throttle disconnect switch, positioning the A/T ARM switch to OFF
When does auto throttle disengagement occur automatically?
All of the above.
- Either reverse lever is raised through the interlock
- A fault is detected in the active auto throttle mode
- Either engine RPM falls below EEC activation speed (approx 10-20% N2)
- Heat is lost to the TAT probe(s) or both AOA vanes
- The EEC EPR mode fails
What are the basic functions of the TMC?
All of the above.
- Calculate thrust limits and thrust setting or follow FMS thrust settings
- Generate fast/slow indications for display on the ADIs
- Detect and transmit auto throttle failure
- Actuate the throttles through the servo and clutches
Flight mode annunciations (FMAs) on the ADIs are the only valid indications of the operating status of the auto throttles and/or AFDS
TRUE
Flight mode annunciations appear in _____when the mode is armed for engagement, and changes to _____when the respective mode engages.
White, green
A ______ box surrounds a flight mode annunciation for _____seconds when the mode initially engages.
Green, 10
A _____line through the AFDS pitch or roll mode annunciation indicates a ____in that mode.
Yellow, fault
Flap limit speeds, aircraft angle of attack for the configuration (alpha), and aircraft maximum speed limits are automatically monitored by the AFDS and TMC in all modes except______
Vertical speed
Each ASA consists of two windows, the upper window displays ______, can only appear in the APP mode with two or more autopilots armed for the approach, and all the other conditions for a two or three autopilot auto land approach are satisfied below ______ feet RA.
LAND 3 and LAND 2, 1500
Below _____ feet RA, the ASA display can only change to indicate a ____ condition.
200, NO AUTOLAND
The ASA system does not monitor the status of all ground and airborne equipment required for CAT II and CAT III operations.
TRUE
In flight, turning ON the first F/D switch engages the associated flight director in the current mode of autopilot if the autopilot is engaged in CMD, or in ____ and ____ modes if autopilot is not engaged.
Heading hold, vertical speed
With LNAV armed and the aircraft not on a heading to intercept the active leg, the CDU MSG lights illuminate and ____ appears in the scratch pad of both CDUs.
NOT ON INTERCEPT HEADING
VNAV cannot be engaged after takeoff while the thrust mode is in TO when below ____ feet RA
400
The BANK LIMIT selector is in the AUTO position and HEADING SELECT is the engaged ROLL mode. At 260 KTAS, bank angle is limited to ____ degrees
15
Heading hold mode causes the AFDS to roll out and/or hold magnetic heading existing at _____
Wings level
Heading hold is the basic pitch mode for flight directors and autopilot if no other pitch mode is engaged.
False
Vertical speed is the basic ____ mode for AFDS if no other ______ mode is engaged.
Pitch, pitch
The vertical speed mode allows the aircraft to fly away from the altitude set in the MCP altitude indicator.
TRUE
If the intercept angle is greater than ____ degrees, LOC capture does not occur.
120
Pushing the APP switch on the MCP arms the AFDS to capture and track both localizer and glideslope. Glideslope capture does not occur if the intercept track angle is not within ____ degrees of localizer course.
80
During a CAT III Approach, all three FCCs must recognize LOC and G/S capture before multi-channel autopilot engagement occurs.
TRUE
The amber AUTO PILOT caution light on the center instrument panel is illuminated. This indicates at least one engaged autopilot is operating _____.
In a degraded mode.
The red A/P DISC light on the center instrument panel is illuminated. This indicates at least one engaged autopilot is operating____.
Disengaged
Is it possible to display more than one limit mode on the ADI in the auto throttle annunciation mode area?
No
ALPHA is annunciated in the pitch annunciated area of each ADI when windshear recovery guidance is being provided.
FALSE
The ASA upper indicator is blank until approach mode is selected and all requirements for a CAT II or CAT III approach have been satisfied below _____feet RA.
1500
The ASA lower indicator can appear anytime electrical power is available.
TRUE
(B767 60K) The AFDS/AUTOTHROTTLE GA mode increases thrust with _____, to maintain a climb rate of 2000 FPM.
Adjustment, as necessary
The FMCs contain two databases, one for ____ data and one for _____ data.
navigational,
performance
If both FMCs are operating, the operate independently, but occasionally compare data.
TRUE
One FMC is designated the master and the other is the slave. The left FMC is the master unless the ____, or all autopilots are disengaged, the ____ is OFF and the _____ is ON.
right autopilot is engaged in CMD,
left flight director,
right flight director
Positioning an FMC switch, located on an instrument source selector panel, to ALTN connects the associated ____ and ____ to the opposite FMC.
HSI,
CDU
The Inertial Reference System consists of ____ Inertial Reference Unit(s) with individual controls on a single panel
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
3
Full IRU alignment requires about ____ minutes while the system determines level attitude and true heading.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15
10
Present position (latitude and longitude) must be manually entered for the IRU to complete the _____.
alignment process
IRS alignment can only be accomplished while the airplane is parked.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
If an IRU shuts down due to a loss of power (both AC and DC), the IRU stores the present position provided the selector is in NAV.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
The IRS has a _____ capability that can be used to remove accumulated IRS errors on through flights.
30-second fast alignment
What is/are the reason(s) an IRU ALIGN light flashes?
a) Position disagreement
b) Fault
c) Position not entered in time after start of alignment process
d) Airplane movement during alignment process
e) All of the above
All of the above
The IRUs can operate on either AC or DC power. Normally the _____ bus powers to the left and center IRU and the ____ bus powers the right IRU.
left AC,
right AC
(B757 Non-ER) If AC power is lost to the IRUs, after 5 minutes, power is removed from the _____ IRU(s) to conserve battery power.
a) center and right
b) left and center
c) center
d) right
left and center
If the IRU alignment is lost during flight, the NAV mode is inoperative for the remainder of the flight. However, attitude information can still be obtained by moving the IRU mode selector to _____.
ATT
If the IRS reverts to DC power on the ground, the ground crew call horn, in the the nose wheel well, sounds continuously to alert personnel of the _____.
high battery drain
While in flight, the FMC refines its position calculations based on the average position of all operating IRUs and inputs from the _____, _____, and _____.
DME,
VOR,
ILS
The FMCs continuously update the IRS position.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
After ____ minutes, with no radio updating,the ____ message appears on the CDUs.
10,
IRS NAV ONLY
Once above _____ feet RA, the VNAV mode can be engaged if the MCP altitude is above the airplane altitude.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400
400
The VNAV mode disengages if the MCP altitude is intercepted before reaching the FMC cruise altitude.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
During a VNAV descent, the target speed is economy above 10,000 feet MSL and ____ knots below 10,000 feet until necessary to begin a deceleration to reach the final approach fix inbound at ____ knots.
240,
170
During a VNAV descent, the ADI VNAV annunciation is ____ whenever the airplane is on the VNAV profile and the throttles are at idle thrust. Any time thrust increases to maintain a given airspeed or rate of descent, the annunciation is ____.
VNAV PATH,
VNAV SPD
The ___ ILS receiver provides input to the standby attitude indicator.
a) left
b) center
c) right
center
Neither the ILS frequency nor the front course can be changed after localizer or glidescope capture with multiple autopilots engaged.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The ON DC light is illuminated for the right IRU. This indicates the right IRU is ____.
operating on backup (aircraft battery) DC power
The DC FAIL light for the left IRU is illuminated. This indicates ____.
DC power is not available to the left IRU
The FAULT light is illuminated for the center IRU. This indicates _____.
a fault in the center IRU which could cause erroneous outputs (if ON during alignment or while in ATT mode, indicates failure of center IRU)
The VOR frequency selector tunes the VOR and DME when the associated HSI is in the VOR, MAP, PLAN or ILS mode.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
The FMC light on the center instrument panel is illuminated. This indicates ____.
FMS is displaying a message on the CDUs
The C-Pegasus FMC incorporates ANP/RNP, SATCOM, or GPS.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
(B757 ER) In the event of a dual FMC failure, each Multifunction Control Display Unit (MCDU) is capable of a backup navigation function, known as ____.
standby navigation
(B757 ER) The MCDU contains a permanent navigational database which is accessed when both FMCs fail.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
(B757 ER) During HMG operation, the ____ bus (powered by HMG AC) continues to power the left IRU.
left AC Transfer
(B757 ER) During HMG operation, the ____ (powered by HMG DC) powers the center and right IRUs.
main aircraft battery
(B757 ER) During HMG operation, power is removed from the ____ IRU(s) after 5 minutes to conserve battery power.
a) left
b) left and center
c) right
d) right and center
right
The navigation radios must be manually tuned when using the standby navigation system, since no radio updating of the present position occurs.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
During engine start, the APU inlet guide vanes move to the maximum output position when the start valve opens. For this reason, the duct pressure available for start from the APU cannot be confirmed until_____
After the start is initiated
During engine start, the APU bled valve is allowed to open, regardless of engine bleed valve position, as a function of engine start____
Selector position
APU pneumatic output is reduced when combined electrical and pneumatic loads exceed design capacities.
TRUE
Barometric control of the APU components automatically reduces APU pneumatic output and results in insufficient pressure for cabin pressurization above ____ feet.
17,000
During low thrust operation, the high stage valve_____, allowing ____ pressure air to supply the pneumatic system.
opens, high
The Pressure Regulating and Shut Off Valve (PRSOV) is ______ controlled and _____ actuated.
Electrically, pneumatically
The L DUCT LEAK light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates _____
leak in the left, center, OR left wing anti-ice duct
The R BLEED light on the overhead bleed air panel is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates _____
Right engine high state and bleed air valves have automatically closed due to engine bleed air temperature exceeding the maximum temperature limit
The L HI STAGE light on the overhead bleed air panel is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates _____
Left engine high stage bleed valve has automatically locked closed due to an overpressure in the engine bleed system
The APU VALVE light is illuminated with the APU bleed switch selected ON. This indicates _____
Position of the APU bleed valve disagrees wight he position of the switch or position called for by system logic
The L engine bleed air OFF light is illuminated with the L engine bleed air switch selected ON. This indicates _____
Left engine bleed valve is closed
The air conditioning packs can provide a normal flow or a high flow schedule. When is the high flow schedule automatically activated?
All of the above.
- If one pack is inoperative.
- If the associated recirculation fan is off or inoperative.
- On the ground, when only the APU or external air is supplying pneumatic air (both packs)
High flow to the opposite pack is inhibited when the RPM of either engine falls below _____
A preset value
The right recirculation fan is powered by the _____ bus, and the left recirculation fan is powered by the ____ bus.
Right utility, left main AC
If the left recirculation fan is turned off or fails in flight, the overboard exhaust valve _____ and remains ____ until landing.
latches open, open
The automatic temperature control system has two operating modes, _______ and ______
Normal, backup
The normal mode (temperature control) is operative when the temperature control selectors are position in the auto range, pack selectors are set to AUTO, and the TRIM AIR switch
TRUE
(B757 PS) Due to lower passenger density and a relocation of bulkheads, initially use target zone temperatures of ____F,/ ____ F/ ______ F respectively for the FLT DK/FWD CAB/AFT CAB zones
72/72/69
What condition(s) causes the backup mode (temperature control) to operate?
All the above.
- TRIM AIR switch is OFF
- All three temperature control selectors are positioned to OFF
- Cabin (zone) temperature controls is inoperative
In backup mode (temperature control), both packs provide a _____ output temperature to attempt to keep all compartments at a ______ temperature.
constant, comfortable
The standby temperature control system consists of ____ level(s) of operation.
3
Supplemental heating of the AFT cargo compartment air is accomplished by ____
Electric heater
There are two supply fans to assist with the cooling of the FWD equipment compartment. Should the operating fan fail, the alternate fan automatically starts running.
False
When the pressure differential is ___ PSI or the left recirculation fan is off or inoperative, an overboard exhaust valve ____ automatically
Less than 2.5, opens
When the pressure differential is ___PSI, all exhaust air is discharged into the _____
Greater than 2.5, mix manifold
The aft E/E equipment racks are cooled by air drawn over the racks by the ____ vent system.
Lavatory/galley
Smoke has been detected in the FWD equipment exhaust duct, is the OVHT light inhibited for 5 minutes?
NO
When smoke is no longer detected in either the supply or exhaust ducting, the air conditioning packs automatically return to normal operation and the recirculation fans are automatically turned back on.
TRUE
The FWD CAB INOP light located on the air conditioning panel is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates ____
An overheat condition, fault, or FWD CAB temperature control selector is OFF (All three INOP lights illuminated - TRIM AIR switch is OFF)
The temperature control selector on the air conditioning panel is selected to AUTO. This allows the temperature to be automatically maintained from _____ F in the C position to ______ F in the W position
65, 85
The L PACK INOP light is illuminates, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates ____ or ___
Excessive pack outlet temperature, fault in the automatic pack temperature controller
The R PACK OFF light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. this indicates ___ or ____
Pack selector is in the OFF position, loss of air to the pack
The PACK INOP and PACK OFF lights are both illuminated on the L Pack. This indicates _____
The pack has shut down due to an internal pack overheat
The Pack selector has been placed in the STBY N position. This position controls the associated pack to a constant ____ outlet temperature
Comfortable
When the EQUIP COOLING switch is positioned to ALTN, the alternate supply fan in the forward equipment cooling system is selected and the overboard exhaust valve is opened
TRUE
The EQUIP COOLING OVHT light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. Could this condition be caused by the failure of the selected forward equipment cooling supply fan?
Yes
The EQUIP COOLING OVHT light illuminates when there is low airflow in the forward equipment cooling system on the ground. What additional crew alerting is indicated if this condition occurs?
Ground crew call horn sounds
Two identical independent automatic systems control cabin altitude using a single outflow valve powered by _____
Two AC Motors
A manual system allows direct flight deck control of the outflow valve using a DC motor which is powered by the ____ bus
Standby DC
If cabin altitude reaches, ____ feet, the outflow valve automatically closes and can reopen again when cabin altitude descends below ____
11,000; 9,000
On the ground, the pressurization system begins pressuring the aircraft to slightly below airport elevation when ____
The throttles are advanced for takeoff
Once airborne, the pressurization system does not remember the departure station airport elevation
TRUE
During climb, cabin altitude increases at a rate proportional to aircraft rate of climb until the maximum normal differential pressure of ____ PSI is reached at approximately ____ feet
8.6; 35,000
The cabin altitude descends to approximately ____ feet below the selected landing altitude so that the cabin is pressurized on landing
100
When the MODE SELECT selector not he pressurization control panel is positioned to MAN the outflow valve moves at _____ the automatic rate
1/2
The CABIN ALTITUDE warning lights are illuminated, and the associated EICAS messages is displayed. This indicates _____
Cabin altitude is above 10,000 feet
If the CABIN ALTITUDE warning lights are illuminated in flight, they do not extinguish until the cabin altitude descends below ____ feet
8500
(B757 ER) An auxiliary equipment cooling fan provides backup cooling for the forward supply system. The fan operates when ____ or _____ and the EQUIP COOLING switch is selected to ALTN.
Both main AC busses are unpowered, both forward supply fans fail
(B767) Ground pneumatic air enters the pneumatic system via the ____ duct(s)
Left
(B767) the APU bleed valve automatically closes, if open, when either engine bleed valve opens, except during engine start, or when the center isolation valve is open
FALSE
(B767) The L STRUT DCT LEAK EICAS message is displayed, and the DUCT LEAK light is illuminated. This indicates _____
A left engine strut duct leak has been detected
(B767) EICAS is displaying a R ENG BLD OVHT message, and the BLD OVHT light is illuminated. This indicates a bleed air overheat has occurred and the ____ has automatically closed.
HPSOV
(B767) If the ____ remains open when only low stage air is required, the associated ____ light illuminates
HPSOV, BLEED
(B767) The left recirculation fan is powered from the ___bus, and the right recirculation fan is powered from the ____ bus.
Left utility, right utility
(B767) If the pressure regulating valve (PRV) fails in the full open position, the associated BLEED light illuminates, and EICAS displays a caution message
TRUE
(B767) When is the PACK high flow inhibited?
All of the above.
- Wing anti-ice is ON and only one engine is supplying bleed air
- N2 RPM of either engine is below a preset value
- Flaps are not up
(B767) The airplane is divided into ____ primary zones for temperature control and there are also ____ auxiliary zones
4, 2
The cockpit electric heaters operate on the ground and also in flight
TRUE
(B767) Supplemental cargo heat is controlled by switches ion the overhead panel using ____
Warm air from the pneumatic system
(B767) The BULK cargo compartment can be maintained at a higher temperature by selecting the ____ position on the auxiliary panel
VENT
(B767) The forward equipment cooling STBY mode is used if an ____ is indicated during AUTO mode operation, or if the _____ light illuminates after both engines are started.
overheat, VALVE
(B767) The forward equipment cooling OVRD mode is used if _____ or ____
Overheat condition remains after selecting STBY, smoke is detected in the forward equipment cooling system
(B767) Positioning the EQUIP COOLING, selector to OVRD turns of the supply and exhaust fans, opens the smoke clearance valve, and arms the NO COOLING light
TRUE
(B767) The NO COOLING light illuminates if ____ is detected.
No reverse air flow
(B767) Positioning the fuel jettison selector to ON automatically selects the _____ mode regardless of the position of the equipment cooling selector
OVRD
(B767) The ground crew call horn in the nose wheel well sounds continuously if ____ is selected on the ground or ____
OVRD, overheat condition exists
(B767) When illuminated, the OVHT light for the forward equipment cooling system indicates ____ or _____
High temperature, lack of air flow
(B767) Selecting STBY on the EQUIP COOLING selector turns off and inhibits the OVHT light for ____minutes
5
(B767) Selecting OVRD on the EQUIP COOLING selector _____ the OVHT light
Deactivates
There are three types of aural warnings _____, _____, and ______
Bell, siren, voice
There are two types of CAUTION aurals: _____ and ____
Beeper, voice
A takeoff configuration WARNING system is armed automatically when the aircraft is on the ground and either engine is accelerated to ____
Near takeoff thrust
The configuration warning for gear not down with throttles in idle receives altitude information from the ______ radio altimeter
Left
The landing configuration WARNING is given when any landing gear is not locked down and the aircraft is at or below _____ feet RA with either throttle in idle or _____
800, landing flaps are selected
Pitch Limit Indicators (PLIs) indicate ______and are normally in view only when the _____ are extended
Stick shaker pitch attitude, flaps
An overspeed warning occurs if ____ limits are exceeded
VMO/MMO
The prevent potential conflicts between required maneuvers, the warning systems prioritize as follows:
GPWS Windshear, Predictive Windshear, Terrain, TCAS
The overspeed warning indications remain active until?
Both A and B–airspeed is reduced below VMO/MMO; the master WARNING light is pushed
The fire bell and master warning lights (for fire only) are inhibited during takeoff, from ____ until reaching _____feet RA, or for 20 seconds, whichever occurs first.
Nose strut extension, 400
During takeoff, the beeper and master caution lights are inhibited , for all cautions, beginning at ____, and ending when the airplane reaches _____ feet RA or 20 seconds after ____ whichever occurs first
80 knots, 400, nose strut extension
Transponder mode ____ ground operation permits transponder interrogation by ATC and other aircraft for ground surveillance purposes
C
EICAS messages that alert the pilots to an abnormal operational or system condition requiring immediate pilot awareness and corrective action best describes a/an ___
WARNING
EICAS messages that alert the pilots to an abnormal operational or system condition requiring immediate pilot awareness and timely corrective action best describes a/an ______
CAUTION
If installed, EICAS communication alerts advise the pilots of incoming normal communications and direct the pilots to the appropriate system. The three levels of communication alerts are _____,, _____, and ________
Low, medium, high
STATUS messages indicate equipment conditions that require awareness at _____ and that are not otherwise shown on the flight deck.
DISPATCH
The Altitude Alerting System is inhibited in flight with landing gear down and locked.
TRUE
A TCAS corrective RA advises the pilots to change the current pitch to maintain adequate separation. Response is required within _____ seconds.
5
Following a corrective RA, TCAS may issue a a strengthened RA. Response time for a strengthened RA is required within ______ seconds
2.5
Preventive RAs are inhibited below ______ feet AGL on climb and ______ feet AGL on descent
1100, 900
The EGPWS database contains all runways in the world that are longer than _____ feet for which terrain data exists
3500
During a predictive terrain caution or warning alert, TCAS reverts from RA to the TA mode and TCAS aural alerts are inhibited
TRUE
Below _____ feet RA, the GPWS monitors for hazardous flight path conditions and provides visual and aural warnings, alerts, or advisories when such conditions are encountered
2450
PWS uses the Doppler capability of the X-Band weather radar to detect the presence of low altitude horizontal wind flow and to predict the presence of one or more windshear occurrences. The PWS system operates only below _____ feet RA
2300
The PWS symbol displayed on the HSI is available in all modes except _____
PLAN
How can the pilot inhibit the below glideslope aural advisory and GND PROX light on the instrument panel cluster
By pushing the light below 1000 feet RA
On the EICAS control panel, what action resets an overspeed or overtemp display?
Pushing the MAX IND reset switch
The WINDSHEAR light is illuminated , and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates _____
A windshear condition has been detected
The PULL UP light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates ____ or _____
Excessive terrain closure rate with gear and flaps not in the landing configuration, excessive sink rat in any configuration
The ALT ALERT light is illuminated, and the associated EICAS message is displayed. This indicates _____
Aircraft has deviated 300 feet from MCP altitude
When pulled, the THRUST REF SET knob on the EICAS control panel causes the thrust mode indicator to display ____ and reference EPR indicator to display _____ EPR
MAN, 1.55
