76T Systems Val A--Inspection, Elec, Emer Equip, Eng/APU Flashcards
Inspecting nose gear doors on B767 check for:
Damage, a slight droop is normal.
Steering and centering cables should be checked for:
Proper security & tension
Runway turnoff lights on the B757 are located:
Above the nose gear landing lights
The nose gear landing lights should be checked for damage and:
If visible, check filaments are intact
B767 runway turnoff lights are mounted in the:
Wing roots
Checking the nose gear tires & wheels for condition, also check:
Tie bolts are securely installed
Pitot probes should be:
Uncovered, undamaged, & free from obstruction
B767 Pitot-Static probes are integrated, check they are:
Uncovered, undamaged, & free from obstruction
When visually checking the integrated Pitot-Static probes on the B767, also check the:
RVSM critical areas for surface damage or contamination
TAT PROBES on B767 are located:
Below the Captain’s windshield
B757 the TAT PROBE is located:
Just aft of door 1R
B757 negative pressure relief valves are:
Located aft of door 1R
Pack inlet and exit doors should be:
Open and free from obstruction
Leading edge slats should be:
Fully retracted and free of contamination
Unless a reverser is locked by an MEL requirement the pins should be:
Flush with the cowl
(Slide) The probe displayed is the:
EEC
Visible repair to acoustical material is allowed if it is:
Intact and secure
Inspecting wing tip lights it is good technique to check static wicks are intact, a missing or broken wick:
Must be reported to maintenance for repair or possible deferral
Inboard ailerons on B767 may droop:
Without hydraulic power
When should main gear safety pins be installed?
While maintenance action is being conducted
Inspecting hydraulic lines on main gear, visible fluid on ground may indicate:
Damage and leaking fluid
Some portion of the landing gear strut should be visible, a good technique is to:
Note whether similar strut extension exists between the two main landing gear
B757 static ports are:
Located on each side of the aft fuselage
B757-200 inspections for tail strike damage, a good indicator is:
Damage to the water drain mast
B767 tail skid– visually inspect:
The low pressure indicator is not extended
(Slide) The valves pictured are:
Positive pressure relief
(Slide) This is the ____ on a B767.
ADP exhaust
Equipment cooling exhaust valve should be:
Open and free from obstruction
When an aircraft if scheduled for flight with system components inop, the aircraft must be operated in accordance with limitations stated in the FM. As amended by the:
MEL
Aircraft scheduled for flight certain secondary airframe or engine parts or components missing, the aircraft must be operated with the limitations stated in the FM. As amended by the:
CDL
Before maintenance can DF or CF a dispatch item, they must coordinate with Dispatch to ensure a joint decision:
TRUE
FAR 121.701 requires each certificate holder to have an approved procedure for keeping adequate copies of the aircraft’s logbook in a place readily accessible:
TRUE
FAR 121.709 requires that after maintenance is performed on an aircraft:
An airworthiness release must be provided
7.40.1 A new MRD is required prior to initial taxi if:
All of the above.
Any items were fixed
An autoland was accomplished (SAT or UNSAT)
Any new defects or service requests were reported
7.40.4 All pertinent MEL requirement for a deferral are included on the MRD in the:
OPS PLACARD for the deferral
Controlling Maintenance authorities:
All the above:
- Station maintenance when in the blocks at a —United Maintenance station
- TOMC when out of the block, in flight or at a contract maintenance station
- The Captain if a PDL item is transmitted prior to takeoff
Pilot-Performed engine runs above idle power:
All the above:
- Pilots are sitting in Primary flight deck pilot seats
- Written procedures from TOMC are received and used
- Pilots accomplish all normal applicable checklists
ACARS uses the ___ VHF radio to exchange data with ground stations. FM 17.10
Center
ACARS data is entered and transmitted manually or automatically. When the parking brake is first related after all cabin doors are closed, the ___ report is automatically transmitted.
OUT
Airborne telephone system (AIRFONE) is powered from the ___ bus.
Ground service
A cockpit voice recorder digitally records cockpit audio inputs for ___ minutes
30
When the OBS AUDIO ENT switch is positioned ON, passengers can select channel 9 at their seat and monitor ___
All channels selected on the first observers audio panel
The flight recorder starts automatically when ___ or ____. Fm 17.10
Either engine is running, the aircraft is in flight
With an AC electrical power failure, which VHF radio remains powered to allow communication?
Left
Left CHF communications radio is powered by the ___ bus?
Standby DC
Cabin inter phone systems permits communication between the cockpit and various flight attendant stations in the cabin. To contact and speak to all flight attendants at once elected the ___ on the cabin call panel
ALERT switch
The CALSEL alert at the LDOC facility is activated when the appropriate digit on the DTMF microphone is pushed for a minimum of ____seconds while the LDOC operator re-tunes the transmitter.
60
(B757 ER, B767) The HF coupler requires tuning whenever a new HF frequency is selected. Accomplished by momentarily keying the microphone & waiting until the 100 HZ coupler tone ceases before transmitting. Coupler tuning can take up to ____ seconds
15
(B767 56K) A wider ACARS printer is installed which incorporates a full page format.
TRUE
Center autopilot receives power from center busses & are normally powered from the ____
Left main AC & DC busses
With at least two generators operating and three autopilots armed for an autoland approach, the center busses transfer from the left main busses directly to the ___ and ___.
Static inverter, hot battery bus
Between arming of the three autopilots and 200 feet RA, loss of a generators causes the electrical system to___
Revert to its normal configuration
Three autopilots are engaged for an auto land approach, the airplane is above 200 feet RA, and the APU is not available. With the loss of a generator, which of the following would the ASA indicate?
NO LAND 3
If a generator is lost below 200 feet RA with three autopilots engaged and the APU not available, the electrical system____
Remains in the triple channel configuration
AC bus tie breakers are locked open below___ feet RA during auto land (triple channel configuration) to prevent the remaining generator from powering both main AC busses
200
APU operating, either AC bus tie breaker can close below 200 ft RA to allow APU gen to power one main AC bus, but both bus tie breakers cannot close to allow the APU to power both main busses
TRUE
A generator is lost below 200 feet RA with three autopilots engaged, and the APU not available. Which of the following would the ASA indicate?
LAND 3
Is it possible for the APU to power both main AC busses during a triple channel approach when below 200 feet?
NO
Electrical system reverts to normal, non-isolated operation when the autopilots are disengaged, or during an autopilot go-around when ____
Either go-around switch is pushed
Normal sources of power are lost, which busses are powered by the battery?
Hot battery bus, battery bus, and standby AC & DC busses
Normal power source for the battery bus is the __
Left Main DC bus
Both batteries are connected to their own battery charger. The battery chargers operate whenever there is AC power on the ___ bus.
Ground service
Standby busses ar enormally powered from the left main AC and DC busses, but can be powered from the main aircraft battery by automatic or manual switching if the normal sources fail.
TRUE
Two main DC channels are interconnected through a tie bus. In order for the DC bus tie breaker to operate, at least on e of the BUS TIE switches must be in AUTO.
FALSE
Each flight instrument transfer bus is normally powered from its associated main AC bus, but can automatically transfer to the opposite AC bus in the event of failure of the associated AC bus. In order for this automatic transfer to occur ____
The associated bus tie switch must be in AUTO
Ground handling bus is powered automatically anytime ____ or ___ electrical power is available on the ground only
External power, APU
Ground service bus is normally powered by the:
Right AC bus
Protect essential equipment during engine stet, with the APU supplying electrical and pneumatic power, why load sheds occur? First engine? Second engine?
First engine? Sheds both utility and galley busses.
Second engine? Sheds associated utility and galley busses.
Heavy electrical load shed may occur prior to engine start with the APU generator or external power supplying power to the electrical system. Heavy load shed is caused by what?
Turning ON the left and center electric hydraulic pumps
On the ground, generator loss load shed is armed by advancing both throttles into the takeoff range. Advancing throttles on the ground prior to engine start can cause load shedding.
TRUE
Power to the utility busses is controlled by the utility bus switches. These switches also energize the utility bus galley relays, supplying main AC bus power to the galley busses
TRUE
Associated AC bus tie breaker is armed for automatic operation, the AC busses are powered according to which of the following system priorities?
Associated engine generator, APU generator, opposite engine generator
IDG incorporates a generator, a constant speed drive, and the drive oil system cooled by ____
A fuel/oil heat exchanger which in turn helps heat the fuel
Bus tie switches in AUTO arm what four automatic features?
Arms associated AC BTB for automatic operation to power the AC busses; allows automatic transfer of associated flight instrument transfer bus; with both switches in AUTO activates the automatic DC bus tie system; allows the breaker to lock open for a fault trip
When an AC bus tie switch is manually isolated (switch in AUTO) the breaker is locked open and prevents the DC bus tie breaker from closing?
TRUE
With external power available and both engines operating, what is accomplished by pushing the EXT PWR switch to ON?
Closes the external power contractor (EPC) overriding the normal bus power priorities to trip off the APU and/or engine generators and power the AC tie bus
The STBY POWER OFF light is illuminated not he battery and standby power control panel. What does this indicate?
Indicates one or both standby busses are unpowered
What is indicated when the DISCH light is illuminated on the battery and standby power control pose?
Indicates the battery is supplying a load and is discharging
What is accomplished by pushing a GEN DRIVE DISC switch when a GEN DRIVE light is illuminated?
Activates a circuit to disconnect the associated generator drive from the engine
The left DRIVE light, on the engine generator and utility bus control panel, is illuminated. This indicates the associated generator drive oil pressure is too ___ for continued operation or oil temperature is too ____
Low, High
Regardless of switch position, the passenger signs illuminate automatically if cabin altitude exceeds _____ feet
10,000
Two runway turnoff lights are mounted on the fixed portion of the nose gear.
TRUE
(B757 ER) HMG automatically starts and supplies AC and DC power to designated busses when _____
Primary AC power is lost on both main AC busses
There is no time limit for HMG operation, and the HMG automatically shuts down when _____
AC power is re-established from either engine or APU generator
(B757 ER) During HMG operation, battery power is removed from the ____ IRU(s) after 5 minutes to conserve battery power.
Right
(B767 60K) The cabin signs do not illuminate automatically when passenger oxygen is activated.
TRUE
The HMG is powered from the ____ hydraulic system.
Center
(B767) Both left and right recirculation fans are powered through the respective utility bus.
TRUE
The runway turnoff lights are in the same location as the B757.
FALSE
(B767 56K) What signs are illuminated, continuously, regardless of switch position?
No smoking
(B767 56K) Regardless of switch position, the FASTEN SEATBELT signs illuminate when passenger oxygen is activated
TRUE
Flight deck oxygen bottle is located in the forward cargo compartment. How can you monitor bottle pressure?
By selecting the EICAS STATUS page
Passenger oxygen masks can be manually deployed from the cockpit with the PASS OXY switch on the overhead panel. Masks automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin altitudes exceeds____ feet.
14,000
Once activated, the passenger oxygen generator continues to generate oxygen for approximately ____ minutes and cannot be shut off.
12
The PASS OCY light is illuminated on the overhead panel. This indicates what?
The circuit to open he cabin oxygen module doors has been activated.
A second bulb in the aft flight deck dome light is powered by the emergency lighting system to provide for flight deck evacuation.
TRUE
Emergency lighting is powered by battery packs located in several zones in the cabin. The emergency lighting batteries are kept charged from the ____ bus.
Right main DC
The EMER LIGHTS can be activated manually or automatically. Manual activation can be from the cockpit EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel or by an EMER LIGHTS switch located _____, regardless of the position on the flight deck switch.
On the aft flight attendant panel.
All interior and exterior emergency light is illuminate automatically when armed, and the charging power supply is lost or turned off. The exterior lights on the associated side illuminate automatically when and entry/service door or overawing exit on that side is opened with the slide armed.
TRUE
When the EMER LIGHTS switch is placed in the ON position, emergency lights are turned on and are powered by what?
Associated battery packs
There are _____ overawing exits, ___ on each side of the fuselage.
4,2
An evacuation signal system provides an aural and visual means of alerting the crew members that an evacuation is initiated. The home can be silenced individually at each panel, however, the system remains active until ____
All command switches are turned off
EMER ESCAPE squib test lights on the auxiliary panel indicate the associated overwing escape slide squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 1 switch is pushed, and associated overwing escape slide inflation bottle pressure is satisfactory when the TEST 2 switch is pushed.
TRUE
Emergency flashlights are installed throughout the cabin and at each flight attendant jumpseat. Is the Emergency flashlight battery rechargeable?
NO
One halon extinguisher is located in the cockpit. Halon extinguishers are effective on all types of fires, but are used primarily on electrical, fuel, and grease fires.
TRUE
A Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) unit provides approximately ____ minutes of oxygen.
15
(B757 ER) There are ____ portable water-activated VHF/UHF radio beacons and ___ portable water-activated VHF/UHF transceivers installed in the cabin.
4, 2
(B767 60K) There are 12 supplemental oxygen packs located throughout the cabin. Supplemental oxygen can supply 10 percent of the cabin occupants for ___ minutes.
40
(B767) A single portable exit light mounted over the flight deck door provides flight deck emergency lighting. The light is powered by self-contained batteries which are kept charged from the ___ bus.
Standby DC
(B767) The EMER ESCAPE lights on the auxiliary panel indicate associated overwing escape slide squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 1 switch is pushed, and the associated wing spoiler squib circuitry is operative when the TEST 2 switch is pushed
TRUE
What is the electrical power source for the engines EEC?
PMA (Permanent magnet alternator)
Each EEC consists of a ____ and ___ channel
Primary, secondary
One EEC chanel must be operating for the engine to run, therefore, the EECs cannot be turned off.
TRUE
Although capable of supplying EPR information to the primary channel, the secondary channel cannot use that information to directly control )))
Thrust
Is manual EEC channel or EEC control mode selection available to the pilots?
NO
Automatic EEC channel switching occurs when:
An engine is shut down in flight only
If both channels in an EEC fail, the associated engine decelerates to and remains at ____
Minimum fuel flow
The ENG LIM PROT EICAS message and ENG LIM PROT light are illuminated. In this condition, the EEC control mode is?
N2
The EEC provides N1 and N2 red-line overspeed protection in all modes except for the reverse thrust in the N2 mode. Automatic thrust limit protection is provided only in EPR and N1 modes.
TRUE
If the EEC fails to limit the N1 and N2 to their respective red lines, there is a fail-safe backup to prevent uncontrolled acceleration to the point where catastrophic rotor-burst could occur. If N2 RPM reaches ____ percent, the fuel control unit reduces N2 RPM to ____ percent and mechanically locks the engine at that speed.
105, 85
There are ___ engine idle speeds
3
Approach idle is activated when ______ is on, or when the trailing edge flaps are extended beyond position ____
Engine anti-ice, 20
A significant drop in indicated oil quantity occurs after engine start and during ground operations (as much as 14 quarts). In flight, oil quantity may read as low as____, if oil pressure remains above the redline limit.
Zero
Engine Oil pump is driven directly by the _____, so oil pressure varies directly with the engine RPM.
N2 Rotor
EICAS displays L ENG OIL PRESS and ENG OIL PRESS light is illuminated. This indicates the engine oil pressure has dropped below ____ PSI
70
Continuous ignition is automatically provided when the ___ of ____.
Slats are extended, engines anti-ice is on
A REV ISLN VAL EICAS advisory message appears (on the ground only) when a fault is detected in the thrust reverser system. The message is inhibited above___ knots during takeoff and in flight until landing.
80
When utilizing reverse thrust, the REV annunciation on EICAS is ____ during transit and __ when fully deployed.
Yellow, green
The EICAS N1 speed is not displayed until the associated engine reaches approximately 3 percent N1 (______%N2)
28-30
EGT start limit radial indicates in red the maximum starting EGT. It is visible during engine start with the fuel control switch in RUN until the _____
Engine is running and EGT decays below the hot start limit
The Fuel On Command Bug is displayed when the engine is shut down on the ground, or in flight when _____ is displayed.
X-BLD
The most accurate engine oil quantity readings are obtained within ______ hour(s) after engine shutdown or after motoring the engine.
2
With the standby engine indicator selector in AUTO, what indications to be automatically displayed?
AC power is lost, EICAS fails, both CRTs fail, or either CRT fails on the ground and STATUS mode is selected
Climb thrust derate switches located not he thrust mode select panel either of two derate values for climb thrust computation. Climb 1 selects approximately ____ percent of CLB thrust, and Climb 2 selects approximately ___ percent of CLB thrust.
92, 85
The Thrust Mode Select Panel (TMSP) switches communicate with the Thrust Management Computer (TMC) for reference EPR computation and indicate in ____ the EPR reference and value for the thrust mode.
Green
Assumed temperature takeoff thrust is limited to a ____ percent reduction of maximum takeoff thrust or selected climb thrust, whichever is greater thrust value. When the limit is reached, further clockwise knob rotation does not change the displayed temperature or reference thrust value.
25
APU starting is completely automatic once initiated, APU starts may be attempted at any altitude, but the APU may not always start above ____ feet.
35,000
Fuel for he APU is normally supplied from the ____, but can be supplied from any tank _____.
Left main fuel tank, through the crossfeed system
APU time delay for shutdown is variable from 0 to 120 seconds. If the APU bleed valve has been closed for more than ____ seconds when the APU selector is moved to OFF, the APU shuts down without delay.
60
The APU has its own battery and charger. The aircraft battery is also required for ground operation to supply power for _____.
APU fire protection, the APU fuel valve, and the DC fuel pump
If the APU FAULT light remains illuminated after placing the APU selector to ON, this would indicate____
APU fuel valve is not in the proper position
(B767) There is/are ____ engine idle speed(s)
2
(B767) Each engine EEC consists of two channels designated ____ and ____.
A and B
(B767) The ENG EEC MODE EICAS message is displayed and ALTN light is illuminated. This indicates the associated engine EEC is operating in the ____ mode.
N1
(B767) Overspeed protection includes a fail-safe backup. If N1 exceeds 117 percent or N2 exceeds 110.3 percent, field flow is reduced to the minimum flow setting and locked. Flameout is likely at low altitude.
TRUE
(B767) Engine EGT is displayed on EICAS until the EEC is powered during initial engine rotation.
FALSE
(B767) Reduced climb thrust is automatically terminated when the airplane reaches
12,500 feet
(B767 56K) In addition to engine anti-ice selected ON or trailing edge flaps selected beyond position Flaps 20, approach idle is also automatically provided whenever the start selectors are placed to CONT
TRUE
On initial aircraft power-up, an automatic test system tests the engine fire and overheat detectors, the APU fire detectors, and the cargo compartment smoke detectors. If a fault is detected in one of the loops, the affected system reconfigures itself to a single loop operation.
TRUE
The FWD and AFT Cargo Compartments each have two smoke detectors. Both detectors in a compartment must sense smoke particles to activate the cargo fire warning. EICAS monitors each detector for faults. An EICAS status message CARGO DET 1 or CARGO DET 2 indicates one detector has either failed open, (not allowing the detector to sense smoke) or failed closed, (incorrectly detecting smoke). In either case, the other associated detector is unaffected by the condition causing the fault. What must be accomplished to reconfigure the system to a single detector operation?
Accomplishing the ENG/APU/CARGO FIRE/OVHT test.
The Cargo Fire Arm switches, when pushed, silence the fire bell, arm the extinguishing system, and ____.
FWD ______
AFT _______
FWD - turns off forward cargo heat fan, turns off both recirculation fans
AFT - turns off cargo heat fan, turns off the cargo heater, turns off the right recirculation fan
The wheel well fire detector loop is only tested when the WHL WELL test switch is pushed. A valid test is indicated by the _____ light illuminating. Failure of the light to illuminate indicates a faulty loop.
a) discrete FIRE
b) EICAS FIRE
c) WHL WELL FIRE
WHL WELL FIRE
All detection systems have dual detector capability except
a) engine fire
b) engine overload
c) APU fire
d) cargo fire
e) wheel well
wheel well
Dual detection loops are installed in the APU compartment. What occurs if a fire is detected in the APU or surrounding compartment?
Automatically shuts down the APU, bypassing the cooling down delay in the normal shutdown sequence.
When a single engine fire loop fault is detected, a message is displayed as ______.
EICAS status message
EICAS displays FIRE/OVHT SYS and the FAIL light is illuminated. What condition(s) cause these indications?
A failure of fault in both loops of the engine fire, engine overheat, and APU fire or cargo fire detection system.
How many bottles are installed for engine fire suppression?
2
A single fire extinguisher bottle is installed for APU fire suppression.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The wheel well fire detection system does not detect ____ without an associated fire.
hot brakes
If a cargo fire detector fails open, a status message does not display until the remaining detector senses smoke. This failure renders the cargo fire warning system ____ until the system is tested.
inoperative
Two cargo smoke detector fans are located in each cargo compartment. One operates to draw air from the compartment through the smoke detectors. If the operating fan fails, the other fan _____.
starts automatically
How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for cargo fire suppression?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
2
The fire warning bell and master warning lights (for fire only) are inhibited from nose strut extension until reaching ____ feet RA, or for 20 seconds, whichever occurs first.
a) 200
b) 400
c) 800
d) 1000
400
A smoke detector is installed in each lavatory. The detectors are powered by ____.
the airplane electrical system
A fire extinguisher is installed in each lavatory trash bin. The extinguisher’s nozzle tip is normally ____ in color and changes to a _____ color after being discharged.
black,
aluminum/silver
Engine and APU bottle discharge lights indicate ____ in the associated bottle.
low pressure
(B767) There are ___ fire extinguisher bottles installed to provide the protection for the cargo departments.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
3
(B767) Pushing the single BTL DISCH switch discharges Bottle 1 immediately into the selected cargo compartment. ____ minutes later or _____, whichever occurs first, a metered discharge of the remaining bottles is automatically initiated.
30,
upon touchdown
There is no manual reversion for the elevators, ailerons, and rudder.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The trailing edge flaps and leading edge slats are normally powered by the ____ hydraulic system.
a) left
b) center
c) right
left
Hydraulic power is shut off to both the flap and slat drive units for
a) LE asymmetry only.
b) TE asymmetry only.
c) LE disagreement only.
d) TE disagreement only.
e) LE or TE asymmetry or disagreement.
LE or TE asymmetry or disagreement.
A Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) monitors the system and controls the operation of the drive units. If a failure or abnormal condition occurs, the FSEU _____.
shuts down the hydraulic drive
A flap load relief system retracts the flaps from position ____ to position ____ if the Flaps ____ speed limit is exceeded.
30,
25,
30
The leading edge slats extend to the landing position when the trailing edge flaps extend beyond position
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
20
If the leading edge slats are in the takeoff position and the left hydraulic system is pressurized, a stall warning causes the slats to extend to the landing position. This system is inoperative when the alternate flap system is selected.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The flaps and slats can be extended and retracted independently with the alternate flap system driven by ____.
electric motors rather than hydraulic power
When using the alternate flap system, the only protection provided is _____.
asymmetry for the leading edge slats only
Flight control system overrides protect against control column or flight control jams. Overrides bypass the restricted portion of the control system when higher than normal _____.
control forces are applied
The two single elevators are each powered by three hydraulic actuators. Two independent feel systems are powered by the ____ hydraulic systems to provide artificial feel forces to the control columns.
a) left and center
b) left and right
c) center and right
center and right
The horizontal stabilizer is positioned by dual (left and right) hydraulic motor/brake modules powered by the ____ hydraulic systems.
a) left and center
b) center and right
c) left and right
center and right
The rate of stabilizer trim varies with ____ and the number of ____ operating.
airspeed,
trim modules
The stabilizer is controlled automatically by the ___ system or by the ____.
Mach/speed trim,
autopilot(s)
Electric or manual pilot trim inputs inhibit the Mach/speed trim system
a) True
b) False
TRUE
The MACH/speed system is inhibited on the ground and engages _____ seconds after takeoff.
a) 20
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60
20
Electric trimming disengages the autopilot when _____.
only one is engaged
Trimming with the STAB TRIM levers (ALTN STAB TRIM switches, as installed) overrides the autopilots no matter how many are engaged and causes autopilot disengagement.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
Hydraulic power must be available from ____ system to set aileron trim accurately.
at least one hydraulic
If aileron trim is inadvertently activated while an autopilot is engaged, the repositioning of the aileron neutral trim point is not apparent to the pilots.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
Only ___ of the six spoiler panels on each wing operate with the ailerons to assist with roll control.
a) three
b) four
c) five
five
In flight, movement of the speed brake lever signals the control system electronic units (CSEUs) to extend or retract _____ flight spoiler panels simultaneously to the selected position.
10
With the speed brake lever in the ARMED position, the ground spoilers automatically extend upon landing and the lever moves to the UP position when there is hydraulic pressure to both landing gear truck tilt actuators, both truck tilt sensors detect a no-tilt condition on the ground, and _____.
both throttles are at idle
With the AUTO SPD BRK light illuminated, a fault may cause inflight deployment with the lever armed. What action also extends the ground spoilers?
If either reverse thrust lever is raised to its interlock stop and all other conditions are met.
The yaw damper controllers receive inputs from ____ and ____.
IRS,
ADC
The yaw damper system improves _____ and _____.
turn coordination,
dutch roll damping
The yaw damper controllers receive inputs from the IRS and ADC and provide signals to ______.
two (left and right) hydraulic yaw damper actuators
The rudder ratio changer receives air data computer airspeed inputs and provides signals to an actuator powered by the _____ hydraulic system.
a) left
b) center
c) right
left
A fault in the Rudder Ratio system illuminates the RUDDER RATIO light and EICAS message. How much rudder authority is available?
Low speed/full authority
Flaps 1, selects position 1 for the TE flaps and the takeoff position for the LE slats.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
Pushing the leading edge alternate flap switch allows trailing edge slats to be extended manually with the flap lever.
a) True
b) False
FALSE
If a LEADING EDGE or TRAILING EDGE light is illuminated with an associated EICAS message, this would indicate ____.
one or more leading edge slats or trailing edge flaps failed to reach the position called for by the flap handle.
EICAS displays RUDDER RATIO and the RUDDER RATIO light is illuminated indicating _____.
a fault in the rudder ratio system
The SPEED BRAKES light on the center instrument panel is illuminated indicating _____.
the speed brake lever is aft of the ARMED position and the airplane is below 800 feet RA and above 15 feet; or the lever is aft of the ARMED position and landing flaps are extended above 15 feet RA
The SPOILERS light on the overhead panel and the associated EICAS message are illuminated indicating _____.
one or more spoiler system faults detected
The AUTO SPEEDBRAKE EICAS message and the AUTO SPD BRK light are illuminated. This indicates a fault in the automatic speed brake system. If the speed brake lever is DOWN or ARMED, speed brakes may not extend automatically on _____. If the SPEED BRAKE lever is in ARMED, speed brakes may extend in flight if _____.
landing or rejected takeoff, an additional fault occurs
Is the STAB TRIM light on the overhead panel inhibited when an autopilot or the Mach/speed trim system is engaged?
a) Yes
b) No
Yes
Is the UNSCHED STAB TRIM light on the overhead panel illuminated when trimming with the STAB TRIM levers (switches) when an autopilot is engaged?
a) Yes
b) No
Yes
The MACH SPD TRIM light on the overhead panel is illuminated and associated EICAS message is displayed indicating ______
a fault in the Mach/speed trim system
The L YAW DAMPER EICAS message is displayed and INOP light is illuminated. With the switch ON, what does this indicate?
associated yaw damper system is inoperative due to a fault
(B767) The trailing edge flaps and leading edge slats are normally powered by the _____
a) left
b) center
c) right
center
(B767) The trailing edge flaps do not begin to extend until position _____ is selected.
5
(B767) An asymmetry or disagree condition sensed on the trailing edge flaps shuts off hydraulic power to the ____ drive unit(s).
a) TE and LE
b) TE (only)
c) LE (inboard only)
d) LE (outboard only)
TE (only)
(B767) The flap load relief system retracts the flaps to position ____ if the associated maximum extension speed is exceeded with the flaps extended to either position ____ or _____.
20,
25,
30
(B767) Extension of the trailing edge flaps to position _____ or beyond hydraulically drives the inboard ailerons to _____ percent down, changing the body angle to provide better approach visibility.
5,
50
(B767) An asymmetry or disagreement condition sensed on the leading edge slats shuts off hydraulic power only to the associated (inboard or outboard) drive unit.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
(B767) No asymmetry or disagree protection or flap load relief is provided during alternate flap or slat operation.
a) True
b) False
TRUE
(B767) The elevator feel systems are powered by the ___ hydraulic systems.
a) left and center
b) left and right
c) center and right
left and center
(B767) There is no auto slat system in the B767. Stall protection is provided by a stick shaker (like the B757) and a ____.
stick pusher
(B767) When does the stick pusher move both control columns forward?
Pushes both control columns forward if angle of attack increases after the stick shakers activate, or if the stick shakers activate for several seconds
(B767) A pitch enhancement system (PES) is installed which provides a backup source of hydraulic power to operate the horizontal stabilizer if both the _____ hydraulic systems fail.
a) left and right
b) left and center
c) center and right
left and center
(B767) The PES trims at approximately ____ the normal rate and when operating, trim is only available from the electric trim switches on the _____.
1/4, control yoke
