767

Question 1

What is the maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude?

Answer 1

8,400 ft.

Question 2

When will the RETURN TO SEAT sign illuminate when the RTS selector is in the AUTO position?

Answer 2

With the flaps extended.

Question 3

What exit should a crewmember take when using the descent devices (inertial reels) on the special freighter aricraft?

Answer 3

L1 door.

Question 4

If a light bulb is burned out in an alternate action switch light, what action should the crew take?

Answer 4

Call maintenance for relamping.

Question 5

How is the cockpit side window opened from the inside?

Answer 5

By pulling the window lock lever aft and cranking the window.

Question 6

How does the crew know that a new status message has been issued bu the EICAS computer?

Answer 6

The word, “STATUS” appears on the lower EICAS display.

Question 7

What conditions will give a landing configuration warning?

Answer 7

Gear not down and landing flaps are selected.

Question 8

What indication would be present if no reverse airflow is detected in the equipment cooling system, after the pilot selects OVRD on the equipment cooling panel?

Answer 8

NO COOLING light would be illuminated.

Question 9

How long is the OVHT light inhibited after selecting the STBY position on the equipment cooling panel?

Answer 9

Five (5) minutes.

Question 10

After an air conditioning pack overheat occurs, how is the pack reset?

Answer 10

By pushing the pack reset switch after allowing the pack to cool.

Question 11

What does the [Pack Off] light indicate when illuminated?

Answer 11

Pack valve is closed.

Question 12

What is the pressurization system’s maximum normal operating differential pressure?

Answer 12

8.6 psid.

Question 13

During cruise flight, how many feet must the aircraft climb before the cabin altitude begins to climb?

Answer 13

500 feet.

Question 14

What happens when an APU fault occurs (FAULT light illuminates) with the APU running?

Answer 14

The APU automatically shuts down immediately with no cool down cycle.

Question 15

On the ground, if the aircraft battery switch is turned off prior to APU shutdown, how will the APU be affected?

Answer 15

The APU will shut down after a normal cool down cycle if pneumatics were in use.

Question 16

What symbol generator will be selected by the Captain when his EFI switch is in ALTN?

Answer 16

Center.

Question 17

The MAP flag has appeared on the F/O’s HSI. How can the map display be restored?

Answer 17

F/O selects alternate FMC switch.

Question 18

What is your indication that VNAV has been engaged?

Answer 18

Green VNAV on the ADI’s.

Question 19

What does an illuminated mode select switch on the MCP indicate?

Answer 19

The selected mode has been requested.

Question 20

Below what altitude is the NO LAND 3 annunciation inhibited?

Answer 20

200 feet RA.

Question 21

If G/A is engaged and aircraft altitude is above 400 feet, what occurs when another pitch or roll mode is selected?

Answer 21

All autopilots (except the first in CMD) will disengage.

Question 22

How many flight control computers must be operative to engage a single autopilot?

Answer 22

2.

Question 23

What is required to disengage the APP mode after LOC and G/S capture?

Answer 23

Disengage all autopilots and turn off both flight directors, or engage GA.

Question 24

How is the auto-throttle normally disengaged after an automatic landing?

Answer 24

By selecting reverse thrust.

Question 25

A white "LNAV" annunciation on the ADI indicates:

Answer 25

LNAV is armed.

Question 26

With LNAV armed, which of the following modes may be used to turn the aircraft to intercept the active route with an autopilot in CMD?

Answer 26

HDG SEL.

Question 27

How does the flight crew call the ground crew?

Answer 27

By pushing the GND CALL switch on the PILOT'S CALL PANEL on the overhead panel.

Question 28

When the V/S (Vertical Speed) Mode is selected on the MCP panel, the airspeed will be limited by the FMC to no more than Vmo/Mmo.

Answer 28

False

Question 29

What is accomplished by selecting the AC Bus Tie switches to AUTO?

Answer 29

It engages the automatic control of the AC and DC bus tie systems.

Question 30

What causes the Standby Power Bus [OFF] light to illuminate?

Answer 30

A loss of power on the standby AC bus and/or standby DC bus.

Question 31

What positions should the bus tie switch(es) be placed to in order to enable the DC bus tie relay to automatically close with a power loss on either Left or Right Main DC bus?

Answer 31

Both AC bus tie switches must be in AUTO.

Question 32

When can the ground service bus be powered?

Answer 32

On the ground or in flight from the right main AC bus.

Question 33

What is required to enable the captain's flight instrument transfer bus to transfer with the loss of left main AC?

Answer 33

The left AC bus tie switch must be in AUTO.

Question 34

What does the yellow cross on the oxygen mask/regulator mean?

Answer 34

Oxygen is flowing to the mask/regulator.

Question 35

What happens when a single fault is detected in an engine fire detection loop?

Answer 35

The system automatically reconfigures itself for single loop operation.

Question 36

What should you do if the engine fire switch cannot be pulled out during an engine fire?

Answer 36

Push the respective override switch and pull the engine fire switch.

Question 37

How may the fire warning bell be silenced?

Answer 37

Push the Master Warning/Caution Reset Switch.

Question 38

If an APU fire occurs, when will the APU Fire Warning Light extinguish?

Answer 38

When the APU fire is extinguished.

Question 39

When will the fire bell and master warning lights be inhibited?

Answer 39

During takeoff, from rotation to 400 feet RA or 20 seconds later, whichever is reached first.

Question 40

What affect will placing both Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switches to the CUTOUT position have on stabilizer trim?

Answer 40

Stabilizer trim is inoperative.

Question 41

If power is lost on the left main AC Bus, which autopilot(s) can be engaged?

Answer 41

No Autopilots can be engaged.

Question 42

When do the inboard ailerons droop?

Answer 42

When the flaps are extended beyond the Flaps 5 position.

Question 43

Which of the following is true when the [AUTO SPDBRK] light is illuminated?

Answer 43

Speed brakes can still be operated manually.

Question 44

Which flap drive system(s) have asymmetry protection?

Answer 44

Normal (hydraulic) flap drive system only.

Question 45

What will cause an [UNSCHED STAB TRIM] light to illuminate?

Answer 45

Uncommanded stabilizer movement.

Question 46

How are the flaps operated after loss of center hydraulic system pressure?

Answer 46

The alternate flap system operates the flaps with electric motors.

Question 47

What F/O flight instrument indications are connected to right side data sources with all instruments source selector switches in their normal positions?

Answer 47

All flight instruments, except the RDMI.

Question 48

How do the primary altimeters operate?

Answer 48

Electrically, receiving altitude signals from the Air Data Computer.

Question 49

Which Instrument Source Selector switch should be selected to ALTN if both the ADI and HSI lose their displays?

Answer 49

The EFI switch.

Question 50

In which HSI mode(s) can radar returns be displayed?

Answer 50

Map, EXP VOR, and EXP ILS.

Question 51

When will the ADI attitude displays appear during the cockpit preflight?

Answer 51

As soon as the associated IRS enters the NAV mode.

Question 52

When is radio altitude displayed on the ADI?

Answer 52

When the aircraft is at or below 2500 feet AGL.

Question 53

The FAST/SLOW indicator indicates deviation from what speed?

Answer 53

The speed indicated by the Command Airspeed Bug.

Question 54

Which HSI mode(s) can display the active route, airports, and weather returns?

Answer 54

Map

Question 55

What do the PLI's (Pitch Limit Indicators) represent?

Answer 55

The pitch attitude at which stick shaker occurs with the flaps/slats extended.

Question 56

The IRS present position is continuously updated in flight by the FMC's, using VOR/DME information.

Answer 56

False

Question 57

What type(s) of power can be used to power the IRU's?

Answer 57

Both AC and DC power.

Question 58

What message will be displayed on the TAKEOFF REF page if preflight-required information has not been entered?

Answer 58

All prompts requiring preflight entries.

Question 59

What must be set in the ILS control panel to remove the glideslope and localizer deviation scales from view?

Answer 59

All dashes (-----).

Question 60

What commands should the FMC be sending to the AFDS and auto-throttle when the aircraft symbol reaches the point labeled "T/D" on the HSI?

Answer 60

Descent commands.

Question 61

Where can you find the fuel burn for the engines since engine start?

Answer 61

On the FMC Progress Page 2 of 2.

Question 62

If AC power is lost on N741AX in flight, what affect will this have on the IRS's?

Answer 62

After five minutes, the left and center IRS's shut down.

Question 63

When are changes to the ILS frequency inhibited?

Answer 63

When three autopilots are in CMD and either the localizer or glideslope are captured.

Question 64

What indications would occur if the aircraft is moved during a normal alignment when any ALIGN light is illuminated?

Answer 64

The ALIGN light will begin flashing.

Question 65

How long is an FMC NAV database valid?

Answer 65

28 days.

Question 66

How is the lowest altitude constraint displayed on the HSI MAP?

Answer 66

E/D

Question 67

What will cause the "DRAG REQUIRED" message to be displayed on the CDU?

Answer 67

Airspeed is above the FMC target descent speed.

Question 68

What will cause the "INSUFFICIENT FUEL" massage to be displayed on the CDU?

Answer 68

Less than RESERVE fuel will remain at the destination airport.

Question 69

At what airspeed during takeoff will the "A/T" mode change to "THR HOLD"?

Answer 69

At 80 knots.

Question 70

When will the page title change from "ACT" to "MOD"?

Answer 70

The original active data has been modified but not executed.

Question 71

To activate a route during preflight, the ACTIVATE prompt must be selected on the RTE or LEGS page and:

Answer 71

The EXEC Key pushed.

Question 72

Which of the following conditions will cause the "FUEL CONFIG" message to be displayed?

Answer 72

When less than 2200 lbs. of fuel remain in either main fuel tank.

Question 73

When will the left forward AC fuel boost pump operate automatically, regardless of switch position?

Answer 73

On the ground, when the APU is running and AC power is available.

Question 74

How is total fuel quantity calculated for the overhead panel indicator?

Answer 74

It is a separate calculation performed by the fuel quantity processor.

Question 75

What type of demand pump powers the center hydraulic system?

Answer 75

Air Driven.

Question 76

With the left hydraulic demand pump selector in AUTO, when will the left demand pump operate?

Answer 76

When left engine driven primary pump output pressure is low.

Question 77

When does the Ram Air Turbine deploy automatically?

Answer 77

In-flight, when both engines' N2 RPM drop to 50% or less.

Question 78

With no malfunctions in the system, what will the wing anti-ice valves do when the aircraft lands with wing anti-ice turned on?

Answer 78

The valves will close automatically upon touchdown.

Question 79

When does probe heat begin to operate?

Answer 79

When the first engine started is above 50% N2.

Question 80

Which hydraulic system is used to operate the landing gear and nose wheel steering?

Answer 80

Center.

Question 81

Which of the following provides the greatest deceleration rate when using autobrakes?

Answer 81

RTO.

Question 82

When does the landing gear lever lock prevent movement of the landing gear lever to the UP position?

Answer 82

When the main gear is untilted.

Question 83

Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the alternate brake system?

Answer 83

Center.

Question 84

What is the maximum alternate gear extension airspeed?

Answer 84

250 knots/.75 Mach.

Question 85

What indicates a bleed air leak in the center pneumatic duct?

Answer 85

[DUCT LEAK] light illuminated.

Question 86

What does the [BLEED] light indicate?

Answer 86

The high pressure bleed valve is not in the commanded position.

Question 87

What does the [HI STAGE] light indicate?

Answer 87

Bleed air is too hot for the system to deal with.

Question 88

If N2 exceeds the red line limit in flight, how may the max exceedance display be erased?

Answer 88

When the MAX IND RESET switch is pushed.

Question 89

What is the position of the thrust reversers if the REV annunciations are green?

Answer 89

Fully deployed.

Question 90

What happens when an engine fuel control switch is placed to the CUTOFF positions?

Answer 90

The engine fuel valve and spar valve both close.

Question 91

What is indicated by a STARTER CUTOUT message on EICAS, an illuminated [VALVE] light on the overhead panel, with the N2 RPM above 50%?

Answer 91

The start valve is open.

Question 92

When will the in-flight start envelope be displayed?

Answer 92

When an engine is shut down in flight and the secondary engine display is in view on the lower EICAS screen (full-up display).

Question 93

When is the secondary engine display required to be in view?

Answer 93

Takeoff only.

Question 94

Out of the selections below, when will standby engine indications be displayed on the Standby Engine Indicator (SEI) with the SEI Selector in AUTO?

Answer 94

When both EICAS CRT's fail.

Question 95

With the Ignition Selector in the No. 1 position, which igniter(s) will operate on each engine with the Engine Start Selector in FLT?

Answer 95

Both Igniters will operate.

Question 96

Which of the following is indicated by a siren?

Answer 96

Cabin altitude warning.

Question 97

With EICAS message "page 1" displayed, what action is required to display the second page of EICAS warning, caution and advisory messages?

Answer 97

Push the Cancel Switch.

Question 98

What EICAS display changes will occur if the upper EICAS CRT fails?

Answer 98

The Primary engine indications appear on the lower EICAS CRT.

Question 99

With the EICAS computer selector in AUTO, what will happen if the left EICAS computer fails?

Answer 99

The right computer will take over the EICAS displays automatically.

Question 100

If the EEC fails, what must be accomplished to prevent an over-boost condition within the engine before turning off the EEC switch?

Answer 100

Retard the thrust levers to mid position.

Question 101

Why did the bicycle fall over?

Answer 101

Because it was two tired.