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767 systems ati > 767 > Flashcards

767 Flashcards

Systems Test

1
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude?

A

8,400 ft.

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2
Q

When will the RETURN TO SEAT sign illuminate when the RTS selector is in the AUTO position?

A

With the flaps extended.

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3
Q

What exit should a crewmember take when using the descent devices (inertial reels) on the special freighter aricraft?

A

L1 door.

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4
Q

If a light bulb is burned out in an alternate action switch light, what action should the crew take?

A

Call maintenance for relamping.

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5
Q

How is the cockpit side window opened from the inside?

A

By pulling the window lock lever aft and cranking the window.

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6
Q

How does the crew know that a new status message has been issued bu the EICAS computer?

A

The word, “STATUS” appears on the lower EICAS display.

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7
Q

What conditions will give a landing configuration warning?

A

Gear not down and landing flaps are selected.

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8
Q

What indication would be present if no reverse airflow is detected in the equipment cooling system, after the pilot selects OVRD on the equipment cooling panel?

A

NO COOLING light would be illuminated.

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9
Q

How long is the OVHT light inhibited after selecting the STBY position on the equipment cooling panel?

A

Five (5) minutes.

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10
Q

After an air conditioning pack overheat occurs, how is the pack reset?

A

By pushing the pack reset switch after allowing the pack to cool.

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11
Q

What does the [Pack Off] light indicate when illuminated?

A

Pack valve is closed.

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12
Q

What is the pressurization system’s maximum normal operating differential pressure?

A

8.6 psid.

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13
Q

During cruise flight, how many feet must the aircraft climb before the cabin altitude begins to climb?

A

500 feet.

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14
Q

What happens when an APU fault occurs (FAULT light illuminates) with the APU running?

A

The APU automatically shuts down immediately with no cool down cycle.

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15
Q

On the ground, if the aircraft battery switch is turned off prior to APU shutdown, how will the APU be affected?

A

The APU will shut down after a normal cool down cycle if pneumatics were in use.

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16
Q

What symbol generator will be selected by the Captain when his EFI switch is in ALTN?

A

Center.

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17
Q

The MAP flag has appeared on the F/O’s HSI. How can the map display be restored?

A

F/O selects alternate FMC switch.

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18
Q

What is your indication that VNAV has been engaged?

A

Green VNAV on the ADI’s.

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19
Q

What does an illuminated mode select switch on the MCP indicate?

A

The selected mode has been requested.

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20
Q

Below what altitude is the NO LAND 3 annunciation inhibited?

A

200 feet RA.

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21
Q

If G/A is engaged and aircraft altitude is above 400 feet, what occurs when another pitch or roll mode is selected?

A

All autopilots (except the first in CMD) will disengage.

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22
Q

How many flight control computers must be operative to engage a single autopilot?

A

2.

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23
Q

What is required to disengage the APP mode after LOC and G/S capture?

A

Disengage all autopilots and turn off both flight directors, or engage GA.

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24
Q

How is the auto-throttle normally disengaged after an automatic landing?

A

By selecting reverse thrust.

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25
Q

A white “LNAV” annunciation on the ADI indicates:

A

LNAV is armed.

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26
Q

With LNAV armed, which of the following modes may be used to turn the aircraft to intercept the active route with an autopilot in CMD?

A

HDG SEL.

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27
Q

How does the flight crew call the ground crew?

A

By pushing the GND CALL switch on the PILOT’S CALL PANEL on the overhead panel.

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28
Q

When the V/S (Vertical Speed) Mode is selected on the MCP panel, the airspeed will be limited by the FMC to no more than Vmo/Mmo.

A

False

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29
Q

What is accomplished by selecting the AC Bus Tie switches to AUTO?

A

It engages the automatic control of the AC and DC bus tie systems.

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30
Q

What causes the Standby Power Bus [OFF] light to illuminate?

A

A loss of power on the standby AC bus and/or standby DC bus.

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31
Q

What positions should the bus tie switch(es) be placed to in order to enable the DC bus tie relay to automatically close with a power loss on either Left or Right Main DC bus?

A

Both AC bus tie switches must be in AUTO.

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32
Q

When can the ground service bus be powered?

A

On the ground or in flight from the right main AC bus.

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33
Q

What is required to enable the captain’s flight instrument transfer bus to transfer with the loss of left main AC?

A

The left AC bus tie switch must be in AUTO.

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34
Q

What does the yellow cross on the oxygen mask/regulator mean?

A

Oxygen is flowing to the mask/regulator.

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35
Q

What happens when a single fault is detected in an engine fire detection loop?

A

The system automatically reconfigures itself for single loop operation.

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36
Q

What should you do if the engine fire switch cannot be pulled out during an engine fire?

A

Push the respective override switch and pull the engine fire switch.

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37
Q

How may the fire warning bell be silenced?

A

Push the Master Warning/Caution Reset Switch.

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38
Q

If an APU fire occurs, when will the APU Fire Warning Light extinguish?

A

When the APU fire is extinguished.

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39
Q

When will the fire bell and master warning lights be inhibited?

A

During takeoff, from rotation to 400 feet RA or 20 seconds later, whichever is reached first.

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40
Q

What affect will placing both Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switches to the CUTOUT position have on stabilizer trim?

A

Stabilizer trim is inoperative.

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41
Q

If power is lost on the left main AC Bus, which autopilot(s) can be engaged?

A

No Autopilots can be engaged.

42
Q

When do the inboard ailerons droop?

A

When the flaps are extended beyond the Flaps 5 position.

43
Q

Which of the following is true when the [AUTO SPDBRK] light is illuminated?

A

Speed brakes can still be operated manually.

44
Q

Which flap drive system(s) have asymmetry protection?

A

Normal (hydraulic) flap drive system only.

45
Q

What will cause an [UNSCHED STAB TRIM] light to illuminate?

A

Uncommanded stabilizer movement.

46
Q

How are the flaps operated after loss of center hydraulic system pressure?

A

The alternate flap system operates the flaps with electric motors.

47
Q

What F/O flight instrument indications are connected to right side data sources with all instruments source selector switches in their normal positions?

A

All flight instruments, except the RDMI.

48
Q

How do the primary altimeters operate?

A

Electrically, receiving altitude signals from the Air Data Computer.

49
Q

Which Instrument Source Selector switch should be selected to ALTN if both the ADI and HSI lose their displays?

A

The EFI switch.

50
Q

In which HSI mode(s) can radar returns be displayed?

A

Map, EXP VOR, and EXP ILS.

51
Q

When will the ADI attitude displays appear during the cockpit preflight?

A

As soon as the associated IRS enters the NAV mode.

52
Q

When is radio altitude displayed on the ADI?

A

When the aircraft is at or below 2500 feet AGL.

53
Q

The FAST/SLOW indicator indicates deviation from what speed?

A

The speed indicated by the Command Airspeed Bug.

54
Q

Which HSI mode(s) can display the active route, airports, and weather returns?

A

Map

55
Q

What do the PLI’s (Pitch Limit Indicators) represent?

A

The pitch attitude at which stick shaker occurs with the flaps/slats extended.

56
Q

The IRS present position is continuously updated in flight by the FMC’s, using VOR/DME information.

A

False

57
Q

What type(s) of power can be used to power the IRU’s?

A

Both AC and DC power.

58
Q

What message will be displayed on the TAKEOFF REF page if preflight-required information has not been entered?

A

All prompts requiring preflight entries.

59
Q

What must be set in the ILS control panel to remove the glideslope and localizer deviation scales from view?

A

All dashes (—–).

60
Q

What commands should the FMC be sending to the AFDS and auto-throttle when the aircraft symbol reaches the point labeled “T/D” on the HSI?

A

Descent commands.

61
Q

Where can you find the fuel burn for the engines since engine start?

A

On the FMC Progress Page 2 of 2.

62
Q

If AC power is lost on N741AX in flight, what affect will this have on the IRS’s?

A

After five minutes, the left and center IRS’s shut down.

63
Q

When are changes to the ILS frequency inhibited?

A

When three autopilots are in CMD and either the localizer or glideslope are captured.

64
Q

What indications would occur if the aircraft is moved during a normal alignment when any ALIGN light is illuminated?

A

The ALIGN light will begin flashing.

65
Q

How long is an FMC NAV database valid?

A

28 days.

66
Q

How is the lowest altitude constraint displayed on the HSI MAP?

A

E/D

67
Q

What will cause the “DRAG REQUIRED” message to be displayed on the CDU?

A

Airspeed is above the FMC target descent speed.

68
Q

What will cause the “INSUFFICIENT FUEL” massage to be displayed on the CDU?

A

Less than RESERVE fuel will remain at the destination airport.

69
Q

At what airspeed during takeoff will the “A/T” mode change to “THR HOLD”?

A

At 80 knots.

70
Q

When will the page title change from “ACT” to “MOD”?

A

The original active data has been modified but not executed.

71
Q

To activate a route during preflight, the ACTIVATE prompt must be selected on the RTE or LEGS page and:

A

The EXEC Key pushed.

72
Q

Which of the following conditions will cause the “FUEL CONFIG” message to be displayed?

A

When less than 2200 lbs. of fuel remain in either main fuel tank.

73
Q

When will the left forward AC fuel boost pump operate automatically, regardless of switch position?

A

On the ground, when the APU is running and AC power is available.

74
Q

How is total fuel quantity calculated for the overhead panel indicator?

A

It is a separate calculation performed by the fuel quantity processor.

75
Q

What type of demand pump powers the center hydraulic system?

A

Air Driven.

76
Q

With the left hydraulic demand pump selector in AUTO, when will the left demand pump operate?

A

When left engine driven primary pump output pressure is low.

77
Q

When does the Ram Air Turbine deploy automatically?

A

In-flight, when both engines’ N2 RPM drop to 50% or less.

78
Q

With no malfunctions in the system, what will the wing anti-ice valves do when the aircraft lands with wing anti-ice turned on?

A

The valves will close automatically upon touchdown.

79
Q

When does probe heat begin to operate?

A

When the first engine started is above 50% N2.

80
Q

Which hydraulic system is used to operate the landing gear and nose wheel steering?

A

Center.

81
Q

Which of the following provides the greatest deceleration rate when using autobrakes?

A

RTO.

82
Q

When does the landing gear lever lock prevent movement of the landing gear lever to the UP position?

A

When the main gear is untilted.

83
Q

Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the alternate brake system?

A

Center.

84
Q

What is the maximum alternate gear extension airspeed?

A

250 knots/.75 Mach.

85
Q

What indicates a bleed air leak in the center pneumatic duct?

A

[DUCT LEAK] light illuminated.

86
Q

What does the [BLEED] light indicate?

A

The high pressure bleed valve is not in the commanded position.

87
Q

What does the [HI STAGE] light indicate?

A

Bleed air is too hot for the system to deal with.

88
Q

If N2 exceeds the red line limit in flight, how may the max exceedance display be erased?

A

When the MAX IND RESET switch is pushed.

89
Q

What is the position of the thrust reversers if the REV annunciations are green?

A

Fully deployed.

90
Q

What happens when an engine fuel control switch is placed to the CUTOFF positions?

A

The engine fuel valve and spar valve both close.

91
Q

What is indicated by a STARTER CUTOUT message on EICAS, an illuminated [VALVE] light on the overhead panel, with the N2 RPM above 50%?

A

The start valve is open.

92
Q

When will the in-flight start envelope be displayed?

A

When an engine is shut down in flight and the secondary engine display is in view on the lower EICAS screen (full-up display).

93
Q

When is the secondary engine display required to be in view?

A

Takeoff only.

94
Q

Out of the selections below, when will standby engine indications be displayed on the Standby Engine Indicator (SEI) with the SEI Selector in AUTO?

A

When both EICAS CRT’s fail.

95
Q

With the Ignition Selector in the No. 1 position, which igniter(s) will operate on each engine with the Engine Start Selector in FLT?

A

Both Igniters will operate.

96
Q

Which of the following is indicated by a siren?

A

Cabin altitude warning.

97
Q

With EICAS message “page 1” displayed, what action is required to display the second page of EICAS warning, caution and advisory messages?

A

Push the Cancel Switch.

98
Q

What EICAS display changes will occur if the upper EICAS CRT fails?

A

The Primary engine indications appear on the lower EICAS CRT.

99
Q

With the EICAS computer selector in AUTO, what will happen if the left EICAS computer fails?

A

The right computer will take over the EICAS displays automatically.

100
Q

If the EEC fails, what must be accomplished to prevent an over-boost condition within the engine before turning off the EEC switch?

A

Retard the thrust levers to mid position.

101
Q

Why did the bicycle fall over?

A

Because it was two tired.

767 systems ati (1 decks)

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