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Boeing 756 Systems Val > 756 Fleet SKV study cards 2015 > Flashcards

756 Fleet SKV study cards 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

What provides info to Capt flight instruments?

A

Left IRU

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2
Q

When is RA displayed?

A

2500’

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3
Q

What is the source of the Capt RDMI? What is the backup source?

A

Source is FO IRU, backup source is the Center IRU

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4
Q

How is aircraft track supplied to the HSI?

A

Supplied by FMC

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5
Q

During normal FMC ops, system capabilities are contained within the ______. During alternate navigation operations, _______.

A

Normal ops= FMC

Alt ops= CDUs use own internal and computing capes

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6
Q

EFI system contains how many SGs (Symbol Generators)?

A

3

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7
Q

PLI indicator appears anytime….

A

… any time you have flaps extended and activates anytime you hit shaker speed

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8
Q

How many CDUs are there?

A

2

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9
Q

What restrictions apply to flying to an airport IFR at night?

A

Do not operate under IFR or at night into airports north of 73° North Latitude or
south of 60° South Latitude whose navigation aids are referenced to magnetic
north.

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10
Q

Where does the clock get its reference for UTC?

A

GPS

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11
Q

The EFIS gets info from SGs… what switch do you use to change the SG source?

A

the EFI switch

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12
Q

What are the positions for the Instrument Selector Panel?

A

Selects alternate source for the FMC SGs:

Flt Dir switch = L, R, C / Nav Switch= FMC-R, FMC-L, CDU-L (used for alternate Nav)

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13
Q

What does the EFI switch to when depressed?

A

ALTN

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14
Q

If you push the EFI switch, what happens?

A

Switches to center SG as ALTN

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15
Q

When the Capt ADC switch is selected, what happens?

A

Switches to FO source

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16
Q

What does a blocked pitot tube affect?

A

Airspeed and Altitude

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the IRS switch L on Instrument Service Panel?

A

Switch to Center for ALTN mode

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18
Q

If both pilots select ALTN on EFI/IRS/ADC switch, what EICAS message appears?

A

INSTR SWITCH

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19
Q

If aircraft operating in polar region, compass should be selected to display ________

A

True North

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20
Q

How are EICAS warnings displayed?

A

RED and highest priority

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21
Q

Where does the SATCOM antenna get it’s beam steering inputs from?

A

the IRUs

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22
Q

What type of communication is available from the Cabin Inter-phone?

A

Flight Deck and Cabin Comm

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23
Q

During Normal Ops, when does the Flight Data Recorder work?

A

First engine on, or in Flight

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24
Q

When you get a call from the cabin, what is seen/heard on the flight deck?

A

a DING and a blue light on the overhead panel

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25
Q

Why is HF radio inhibited on the ground?

A

To prevent automatic data transmission from occurring… and it should not be used while refueling

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26
Q

What does the ALERT switch on the overhead panel do?

A

Calls every station in the cabin

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27
Q

How is the Flight Recorder erased?

A

Parking brake set on ground, hold button for 2 seconds on AC power.

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28
Q

Where are the PA IN USE and the VIDEO IN lights located?

A

on Overhead panel

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29
Q

How do you place a voice call on SATCOM?

A

on the CDU

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30
Q

Which of the following is used for SATCOM?

A

CDU

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31
Q

What is the number of smoke detectors in each cargo compartment?

A

2

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32
Q

What supplies airflow through the smoke detectors?

A

Detector Fans

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33
Q

Which fire detectors arm for single loop operation if the other fails?

A

APU and ENGINE

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34
Q

What is a successful test of the WHEEL WELL fire detection?

A

WHEEL WELL fire light illuminates

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35
Q

How do you initiate a WHEEL WELL fire test?

A

WHEEL WELL fire test is pressed and held

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36
Q

How are the cargo fire bottles discharged?

A

One or both bottles can be discharged into either compartment manually

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37
Q

What does OVHT on EQUIP COOLING button mean?

A

the Supply Fan for the forward E/E is INOP

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38
Q

How are the Engine Press regulated shut off valves controlled and actuated?

A

they are ELECTRICALLY controlled and PNEUMATICALLY activated

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39
Q

Which recirc fan draws air from FWD E/E?

A

LEFT recirc fan

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40
Q

What shuts off if exhaust is detected?

A

LEFT recirc fan

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41
Q

Which recirc fan(s) shut down if smoke is detected in the supply side of the FWD E/E compartment?

A

LEFT and RIGHT

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42
Q

an OVHT light on the Equip Cooling Sw means…

A

…either there is LOW AIRFLOW or the FWD EQUIP cooling fan is INOP

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43
Q

How many equipment cooling fans operate at a time? What switches them?

A

ONE, the EQUIP Cooling switch alternates them

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44
Q

If you get an EICAS message of “FWD EQUIP SMOKE,” where is it coming from?

A

Equipment cooling exhaust air

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45
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur to get rid of smoke?

A

The overboard exhaust valve latches closed

because it needs to be open to get rid of smoke

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46
Q

the AUX fan automatically turns on when…

A

… you push the EQUIP COOLING swtich to ALTN and both supply fans have failed

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47
Q

The purpose of the recirculating fans is to…

A

… Allow packs to operate at a reduced airflow

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48
Q

The RIGHT RECIRC fan goes to the …

A

Mix Manifold

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49
Q

If the CAPT PITOT amber light illuminates in flight, it means…

A

… the Capt Pitot Probe is not being heated in flight

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50
Q

What indications will you get on the FMA when the FD is in GA mode?

A

Roll pitch activates in GA on ADI

Autothrottles to climb >2000 FPM

Roll commands bank to maintain ground track

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51
Q

When is LNAV deactivated when LNAV switch is selected a 2nd time?

A

When LNAV is armed

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52
Q

Approach to GA switch with FD off?

A

FD will reappear

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53
Q

What is NOT indicated by LAND 3 on the ASA?

A

When only 2 A/P are operating normally above 200’

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54
Q

What is the function of the YAW DAMPER?

A

To improve roll coordination and Dutch Roll Dampening

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55
Q

What powers the rudder?

A

Three HYD system motors (L, C, R)

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56
Q

What powers the elevators?

A

Three HYD system motors (L, C, R)

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57
Q

What powers the RUDDER RATIO?

A

LEFT HYD system

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58
Q

When is MACH/SPEED active?

A

A/P off… (it trims as airspeed changes)

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59
Q

A/P stab trim motor: How many are used?

A

1

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60
Q

Which HYD system(s) power the STAB TRIM?

A

Center and Right

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61
Q

The YAW DAMPER needs how many IRUs to align?

A

One

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62
Q

What does the Auto Slats system do?

A

Drives Slats to Landing position if Stick Shaker activated

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63
Q

How are the LE Slats and TE Flaps powered in NORM and ALTN?

A 
Norm= Hydraulic
ALTN= Electric
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64
Q

When does the CARGO COMP smoke detector system automatically configure for single loop operations?

A

When either detector fails and the ENG/APU/CARGO OVHT test is commanded

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65
Q

What do the RED ILLUMINATED switch lights mean?

A

The FIRE has NOT been extinguished

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66
Q

How do you manually pull out the fire handle if locked?

A

Push the ENG fire OVRD switch under the handle

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67
Q

Rotating the fire handle either way does what?

A

Discharges the bottle

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68
Q

If you see discharge lights on the APU handle, what does it mean?

A

Low Pressure in the APU bottle

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69
Q

When do FIRE lights go out?

A

When the fire is extinguished

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70
Q

What happens when the APU handle is pulled?

A 
APU fuel valve closes
Air supply valve is closed
APU generator is tripped off
Fire extinguisher is armed
Silences bell
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71
Q

During APP GA mode, armed FD not up and glide slope captures….

A

Automatically

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72
Q

If the bank limit selector is set to 15 degrees, which mode will be limited?

A

HDG SEL

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73
Q

LAND 3 auto rudder input engaged?

A

at 500 ft RA during auto land if ASA shows Land3 or LAND2 in window

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74
Q

When is normal Bus Tie ops inhibited during auto land?

A

Below 200 ft

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75
Q

What happens when the APP switch on the MCP is selected?

A

the other two A/P engage

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76
Q

FD roll commands during a GA provide?

A

current ground track

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77
Q

Does AUTO SLATS or LOAD RELIEF function in ALTN mode?

A

Nope

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78
Q

In ALTN mode is there Asymmetry relief for Trailing Edge flaps? Leading Edge flaps?

A 
TE= NO
LE= YES
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79
Q

FLAP and SLAT electrical drive units…

A

… control movement

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80
Q

What two positions do the Leading Edge Slats have?

A

Takeoff and Land

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81
Q

The ALTN flap system is powered by…

A

Electric motors

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82
Q

When do the ARMED speed brakes activate?

A

Landing Gear on ground (not tilted)
Both Thrust Levers Idle
Either Thrust Reverser up

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83
Q

What inhibits the MACH/SPEED system?

A

Electric Trim
Alternate Trim
A/P trim

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84
Q

Pressing the LE Switch on the ALTN panel does what?

A

Disengages BOTH HYD Motors and ARMS the associated (LE, in this case) Electric Motor

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85
Q

What does the RUDDER RATIO light mean at cruise?

A

May have too little Low Speed Authority, and/or too much High Speed Authority… Use Caution

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86
Q

What does the Yellow A/P Caution light mean?

A

A/P is degraded

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87
Q

How many Flight Control Computers are engaged when on ONE autopilot?

A

One

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88
Q

What happens when the FWD CARGO EXT ARM switch is pushed to ARM?

A

BOTH Recirculating Fans are turned off

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89
Q

“CARGO DET 2” is displayed, what actions must be taken?

A

A FIRE TEST must be accomplished per QRH

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90
Q

How many LOOPS in each Fire System?

A

APU/ENG: 2
Wheel: 1
Cargo: 2 smoke detectors

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91
Q

When does the Discrete FIRE light illuminate on the forward panel?

A

When there is a FIRE in ANY system

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92
Q

Pulling the APU handle does what?

A 
[Closes the FUEL valve]
Also:
APU shuts down
Arms APU fire bottle
Closes APU bleed valve
Silences bell
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93
Q

Pushing either GA Switch increases A/T to what?

A

Climb at 2000 fpm

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94
Q

What is caused by pressing TO/GA on TMSP?

A

D-Rated Thrust

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95
Q

After liftoff, how is F/D T/O mode terminated?

A

Engaging A/P in CMD

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96
Q

If FLCH is selected, what does the Airspeed bug do?

A

Sets the current speed

97
Q

On the ground, how is the F/D T/O mode engaged?

A

ARM the FD switch

98
Q

If A/P disengage is pushed, what does NOT happen?

A

Does not disconnect FD

99
Q

Once the LOC is captured, how can you deselect LOC?

A

Turn off BOTH F/D switches

100
Q

757 Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude

A

42,000’

101
Q

767 Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude

A

43,100’

102
Q

Maximum Takeoff/Landing Tailwind Component (752C/753/764)

A

15 knots

103
Q

Maximum Takeoff/ Landing Tailwind Component

764 Takeoff in EEC ALTN mode

A

10 knots

104
Q

Maximum Vmo

A

Indicated by Max Airspeed Pointer

105
Q

Maximum Mmo

A

.86 Mach

106
Q

*Recommended Severe Turbulence Penetration Airspeed >10k’ and *

A

at or >10k’: 290 KIAS/ .78 Mach

<10: 250 KIAS/ .75 Mach

107
Q

Are Flaps 1 Takeoffs allowed (753)?

A

No, they are prohibited

108
Q

Maximum Gear Extended Speed

A

270 KIAS or .82 Mach

109
Q

Maximum Alt Gear Extended Speed

A

250 KIAS or .75 Mach

110
Q

Recommended Crosswind Component Assumptions

A

Assumes engine failure RTO

Reduce CW land guidelines by 5 kts on wet/contaminated RW with asymmetric REV thrust used

111
Q

Recommended Crosswind Component Guidelines (Dry/Wet/ Takeoff/ Land)

A

All Takeoff and Land 40 Kts, except for Wet Runway Takeoff which is 25 Kts

112
Q

True/False: You should apply ALL gusts when applying wind limits?

A

TRUE

113
Q

Rolling Takeoffs are advised when crosswinds exceed ______ Kts

A

20

114
Q

Maximum 752C Takeoff Weight

A

255K Lbs

115
Q

(757) Isolation Valve is opened for…

A

Ground ops of A/C
Engine Start
Non-Normal A/C ops
Non-Normal Anti-Ice ops

116
Q

Icing conditions on Ground

A

OAT is 10C or below with visible moisture

117
Q

Icing conditions in Flight

A

TAT is 10C or below with visible moisture

118
Q

(True/False) Takeoff in Moderate or Heavy Freezing Rain or Hail is totally cool

A

FALSE, it is prohibited

119
Q

DO NOT USE wing anti-ice until ______

A

after the First Power Reduction

120
Q

On takeoff or approach, do not engage autopilot below _______

A

800’ AGL

121
Q

MAX Autoland Headwind

A

25 knots

122
Q

MAX Autoland Tailwind

752C and 764

A

15 knots

10 knots for CAT II/III

123
Q

MAX Autoland Tailwind

753

A 
12 knots (flaps 30)
15 knots (flaps 25)
(10 knots for CAT II/III)
124
Q

Can you use aileron trim while the autopilot is engaged?

A

Nope (prohibited)

125
Q

Autopilot use prohibited below 100’ RA at airport pressure altitudes above _______ ft

A

8400 ft

126
Q

(764) When coupled to an autopilot without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, you must disengage the autopilot prior to descending below _______.

A

100’ RA

127
Q

Minimum Altitude for use of autopilot on ILS coupled approaches (no auto land)

A

50 feet AGL

128
Q

Minimum Altitude for use of autopilot on non precision approaches

A

50 feet below MDA/DA

129
Q

Minimum Altitude for use of autopilot on auto landings

A

Touchdown and Rollout

130
Q

Auto landings must be made with flaps _____or _______

A

25 or 30

131
Q

APU Start Limits

A

Three start attempts may be made followed by a 1 hour cooling period. Allow 5 minutes cooling between each attempt.

132
Q

APU Bleed Air not available above approximately _________ feet.

A

17,000

133
Q

Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Extended) for 752C and 753

A

Up to 4 minutes continuous operation followed by a 15 minute wait

134
Q

Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Extended) for 764

A

Two consecutive 5 minute cycles require a 10 minute period before each additional 5 minute cycles

135
Q

Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Normal) for 752C and 753)

A

Three attempts of 2 minutes continuous followed by a rundown to 0% N3, then a 15 minute cool period

136
Q

Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Normal) for 764

A

5 mins ON, followed by one-half minute off for each minute on

137
Q

Engine Starter Re-Engagement Speed for 752C and 753

A

Recommended: 0% N3
Normal: 0-20% N3
>20% N3 not recommended except in case of FIRE

138
Q

Engine Starter Re-Engagement Speed for 764

A

Recommended: 0% N2
Normal: 0-20% N2
30% N2 permissable for purging fuel or to clear a fire

139
Q

Minimum Oil for Dispatch

A

ETOPS: 18 quarts

Non-ETOPS: 16 Quarts

140
Q

MAXIMUM Flap Extension Altitude

A

20,000 feet MSL

141
Q

The navigation and display system does not support operations greater than ______ degrees north or south.

A

87 degrees

142
Q

(True/False)
With TWO operational FMCs, unless flown in accordance with the VOR/NDB substitution procedures in the FOM, ONE pilot must have raw data from the VOR associated with the approach displayed on the RDMI or EHSI in the VOR mode, no later than the FAF

A

TRUE (page 1.30.13 of FM)

143
Q

(TRUE/FALSE)

The EFB moving map is certified as a sole means of navigation

A

FALSE!

As installed, the EFB is only designed and certified for position orientation and situational awareness

144
Q

What is the maximum approach speed inside the FAF for RNP operations?

A

180 KIAS

145
Q

If leveling off within 2000’ after changing altimeter to/from QNE, do NOT use VNAV if QNH is LESS than ______. After level off, VNAV may be re-engaged for climb or cruise.

A

29.70 hg

146
Q

Is it OK to reset a tripped fuel pump or fuel pump control circuit breaker?

A

Negatory big buddy. No can do.

147
Q

Max Fuel imbalance between main tanks (764)

A

2000 plus or minus 500#

148
Q

Center Tank fuel pump switches must not be on, unless __________________

A

…. unless personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor low PRESS lights

149
Q

RTO is armed above _______ kts

A

85 kts

150
Q

The Autobrakes light means:

A

The system has disarmed

151
Q

Nosewheel steering authority is:

A

7 degrees w/rudder

65 degrees w/ tiller

152
Q

Landing gear OFF position does what?

A

Removes hydraulic pressure

153
Q

Nose gear sensing allows what?

A

Stall warning
TAT probe heat
Warning/Caution inhibit timer

154
Q

Yaw Damper runs off of what HYD systems?

A

Left and Center

155
Q

RUDDER RATIO light means

A

fault in the system

156
Q

Elevator Feel system uses what systems?

A

Center and Right and AUX pitot

157
Q

UNSCHED STAB TRIM light means

A

Stabilizer movement has occurred without a signal to trim

158
Q

STAB TRIM light means

A

Stabilizer trim operates at a reduced rate

159
Q

MACH SPEED TRIM light means

A

Mach Speed trim system inoperative

160
Q

SPD BRAKES light means

A

speed brakes extended when flaps are in the landing position OR the radio altitude is 800 ft or below

161
Q

SPOILERS light means

A

one or more spoiler pairs are failed

162
Q

AUTO SPD BRK light means

A

An Automatic Speed Brake or Load Alleviation system fault has occurred

163
Q

Hyd SYS PX light means

A

Low system PRESSURE

164
Q

Hyd RSVR light means

A

either LOW Fluid or LOW Air pressure

165
Q

When does the Center #2 HYD pump shed?

A

When there is a single source of AC power and the Center #1 pump is on

166
Q

(757) What main components are on the LEFT HYD system

A 
Landing Gear (and truck tilt)
Flaps/Slats
Nose wheel steering
HMG
Alternate Brakes
167
Q

(757) When does the PTU kick in?

A

Left Eng or Left Engine driven pump failure

Low PX left system

168
Q

(757) What does the HMG power?

A

The Standby AC/DC buses

169
Q

(757) What Hyd System do the brakes rely on?

A

NORM: Right
Alternate: Left (pair wheel sensing)
Reserve: Right
Accumulator: Right

170
Q

(757) What is the primary flight control HYD system?

A

Center

except flaps/slats, which are really lift devices anyway

171
Q

How is the RAT deployed?

A

757: Spring action
767: Electric Motor

172
Q

When does the RAT switch armed for engine failure? How slow (on approach) will the RAT provide enough pressure for flight controls?

A

80 knots on takeoff

130 knots on approach

173
Q

When will you get a PACK INOP light?

A 
S.O.F.T.
Switched off
Overheat
Fault
Trim air off
174
Q

What cabin altitude does the CABIN ALT light come on? Go off

A

ON: climbing through 10k
OFF: descending through 8500’

175
Q

At what cabin altitude do the oxygen masks drop?

A

14,000’

176
Q

How long are the passenger O2 masks going to supply oxygen?

A

12 minutes from activation

177
Q

757 Engine anti-ice is located _________ of bleed valve

A

UPSTREAM

178
Q

757 wing anti ice is fed to which three segments?

A

3 immediately outboard of engines

179
Q

767 wing anti ice is fed to which three segments?

A

3 most outboard

180
Q

How many Autopilots can be ARMED at once?

A

2… the third one is ENGAGED

181
Q

What does a HI STAGE light mean?

A

over pressure in pneumatic system

182
Q

What does BLEED light mean?

A

over temperature in pneumatic system

183
Q

What does DUCT LEAK light mean?

A

leak in pneumatic system

184
Q

the APP switch can be selected within _________ degrees of the final approach course

A

120

185
Q

What would drive your EICAS/EFIS to go FULL BRIGHT?

A

Loss of equipment cooling airflow
or
Left recirculating fan fail

186
Q

(757) when does the aircraft flare during auto land? when does it go to idle?

A

FLARE 45’ RA

IDLE 25’ RA

187
Q

(767) when does the aircraft flare during auto land? when does it go to idle?

A

FLARE 50’ RA

IDLE 15’ RA

188
Q

During Approach Mode, what is supplying power to the Center Autopilot?

A

Static Inverter and Hot Battery Bus

189
Q

At what altitude on a Autopilot coupled ILS (autoland), will the aircraft transition to runway align?

A

500’

190
Q

What does the HI STAGE light mean when accompanied by the ENG HI STAGE display on the EICAS?

A

engine bleed air pressure is excessive and the

high pressure bleed air valve automatically locks closed.

191
Q

What does the BLEED light with the ENG BLEED VAL display on the EICAS mean?

A

engine bleed air temperature is excessive.

The engine bleed valve automatically closes.

192
Q

What does the OVHT light on the pneumatic overhead panel mean? What EICAS message will accompany it?

A

engine bleed air is excessive…. accompanied by L or R ENG OVHT EICAS message

193
Q

What automatically happens when a bleed air overheat occurs?

A

engine bleed air valve is automatically closed.

With the engine bleed air valve closed, both the HPSOV and PRV are also closed.

194
Q

APU bleed air VALVE light and EICAS message of APU BLEED VAL display when ________.

A

APU bleed valve position disagrees with commanded position

195
Q

The DUCT LEAK light illuminates and the EICAS caution message L or R BLD DUCT LEAK displays when____________.

A

high temperature bleed air leak is detected.

196
Q

If a Pack INOP light extinguishes when you switch the Pack to STBY control, the fault is __________.

A

the fault is with the automatic controller

197
Q

If a Pack INOP light does NOT extinguish when you switch the Pack to STBY control, the fault is _____________.

A

the fault is a pack overheat

198
Q

The flight deck receives 100% conditioned fresh air from which Pack?

A

LEFT Pack

199
Q

What does turning off the LEFT recirculation fan do? can it be reset in flight?

A

Causes the overboard exhaust valve to latch OPEN.

No it cannot be reset, maintenance action required to reset it after landing.

200
Q

What does a ASA status of LAND 3 mean?

A

3 autopilots engaged and operating normally for an automatic landing

201
Q

What does an ASA status of LAND 2 mean?

A

AFDS redundancy is reduced, in some cases only two autopilots are available

202
Q

What does an ASA status of NO AUTOLAND mean?

A

AFDS unable to make an automatic landing

203
Q

What amount of redundancy does a LAND 2 indication provide??

A

single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive).

204
Q

What amount of redundancy does a LAND 3 indication provide?

A

a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational).

205
Q

Below 200 feet radio altitude the ASA display

cannot change except….

A

except to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition.

206
Q

Will the autopilot provide low or high speed limit protection in the vertical speed mode?

A

No

207
Q

On takeoff, the flight director will command a pitch to maintain what speed?

A

V2 + 15 or liftoff speed + 15, whichever is greater

208
Q

On takeoff, if an engine failure occurs on the ground, the pitch commanded target speed is what?

A

V2 or airspeed at liftoff, whatever is greater

209
Q

Glideslope capture is inhibited until ____________

A

The localizer is captured

210
Q

If autopilot is disengaged below 330’ during a LAND 2 approach, _________ lbs of forward control column force may be required to counter the automatic trim condition.

A

20-30 lbs

211
Q

(752 only) Which HF radio is Data capable?

A

Left

212
Q

What is the priority of power to the main buses?

A

1) External power
2) Engine IDG
3) APU

213
Q

The ground service bus powers what?

A

Main Batt charger
APU Batt charger
Misc Cabin and System loads

214
Q

The HMG powers the _____________

A 
L&R AC transfer bus
Standby AC Bus
Standby DC bus
Hot battery bus, 
Battery bus, 
Captains Flight Instruments
215
Q

The Engine driven generator amber DRIVE light will illuminate if ________________.

A

The generator drive oil temperature is high or the generator drive oil pressure is low

216
Q

What should you do before you turn the EEC off? (in a non-normal situation)

A

Retard the throttles to mid-position to prevent a possible engine overboost

217
Q

When is approach idle selected by the EEC?

A

1) Gear or flaps extended

2) Engine anti-ice is on

218
Q

When is approach idle cancelled?

A

5 seconds after touchdown

219
Q

When would you use the RICH position on the fuel control switch for engine start?

A

When EGT is 0 degrees Celsius or less.

220
Q

Pulling an Engine Fire Switch does what?

A

1) Closes associated engine bleed air valve
2) Trips associated generator off
3) Shuts off Hyd fluid to associated engine-driven hydraulic pump
4) Arms both engine fire extinguisher bottles

221
Q

When does the PTU automatically activate?

A

Left engine failure or Left engine driven hydraulic pump pressure is low

222
Q

(True/False) When the hydraulic motor generator first begins to operate, the battery DISCH light(s) may illuminate until the battery voltage decreases to a level produced by the hydraulic motor generator.

A

TRUE

223
Q

(757) How does the Alternate Landing Gear Extension system extend the landing gear?

A

Dedicated DC powered electric pump with fluid in the supply line

224
Q

Which brake system uses paired wheel sensing?

A

Alternate system

225
Q

In which of the braking systems (Normal, Alternate, Reserve, Accumulator) is Anti-Skid available?

A

All of them

226
Q

RTO autobrake setting commands maximum braking pressure if:

A

Airplane is on the ground
Groundspeed > 85 knots
Both thrust levers in IDLE

227
Q

If an RTO is initiated below 85 knots, will auto brakes function?

A

NO

228
Q

(752) What is the only STATUS message that requires a non-normal checklist?

A

FWD/AFT CARGO DET 1 OR 2

229
Q

The Master WARNING lights and Fire Bell are inhibited for fire during takeoff from_____ to _________.

A

From rotation to 400’ radio altitude or 20 seconds elapsed time, whichever occurs first.

230
Q

Takeoff configuration warnings are terminated when the airspeed exceeds _________.

A

V1

231
Q

Advisory message inhibits during takeoff begin at ____________ and end at ___________.

A

80 knots… 400’ radio altitude or 20 seconds after rotation, whichever occurs first… or if takeoff thrust is not selected on both engines

232
Q

How is an EICAS message of PILOT RESPONSE cleared?

A

by pushing any control on any of the monitored systems or panels

(MCP, EFIS control panel, display select panel, CDUs, or radar transmitters)

233
Q

Predictive Windshear (PWS) is automatically enabled when?

A

On ground at takeoff thrust and in-flight when below 2,300 AGL

234
Q

(757) Fuel temperature in the ______ main tank is displayed

A

RIGHT

235
Q

(767) Fuel temperature in the _______ main tank is displayed

A

LEFT

236
Q

FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the total useable fuel in the left or right main tank drops below approximately ___________ lbs

A

2200

237
Q

FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the center tank contains MORE than __________ lbs and then center fuel pump switches are off.

A

1200

238
Q

(757) FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the Left and Right Main tanks differ by ________ lbs.

A

1800

239
Q

(767) FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the Left and Right Main tanks differ by ___________ lbs.

A

2000 plus or minus 500 lbs

Boeing 756 Systems Val (1 decks)

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