756 Fleet SKV study cards 2015 Flashcards
1
Q
What provides info to Capt flight instruments?
A
Left IRU
2
Q
When is RA displayed?
A
2500’
3
Q
What is the source of the Capt RDMI? What is the backup source?
A
Source is FO IRU, backup source is the Center IRU
4
Q
How is aircraft track supplied to the HSI?
A
Supplied by FMC
5
Q
During normal FMC ops, system capabilities are contained within the ______. During alternate navigation operations, _______.
A
Normal ops= FMC
Alt ops= CDUs use own internal and computing capes
6
Q
EFI system contains how many SGs (Symbol Generators)?
A
3
7
Q
PLI indicator appears anytime….
A
… any time you have flaps extended and activates anytime you hit shaker speed
8
Q
How many CDUs are there?
A
2
9
Q
What restrictions apply to flying to an airport IFR at night?
A
Do not operate under IFR or at night into airports north of 73° North Latitude or
south of 60° South Latitude whose navigation aids are referenced to magnetic
north.
10
Q
Where does the clock get its reference for UTC?
A
GPS
11
Q
The EFIS gets info from SGs… what switch do you use to change the SG source?
A
the EFI switch
12
Q
What are the positions for the Instrument Selector Panel?
A
Selects alternate source for the FMC SGs:
Flt Dir switch = L, R, C / Nav Switch= FMC-R, FMC-L, CDU-L (used for alternate Nav)
13
Q
What does the EFI switch to when depressed?
A
ALTN
14
Q
If you push the EFI switch, what happens?
A
Switches to center SG as ALTN
15
Q
When the Capt ADC switch is selected, what happens?
A
Switches to FO source
16
Q
What does a blocked pitot tube affect?
A
Airspeed and Altitude
17
Q
What is the purpose of the IRS switch L on Instrument Service Panel?
A
Switch to Center for ALTN mode
18
Q
If both pilots select ALTN on EFI/IRS/ADC switch, what EICAS message appears?
A
INSTR SWITCH
19
Q
If aircraft operating in polar region, compass should be selected to display ________
A
True North
20
Q
How are EICAS warnings displayed?
A
RED and highest priority
21
Q
Where does the SATCOM antenna get it’s beam steering inputs from?
A
the IRUs
22
Q
What type of communication is available from the Cabin Inter-phone?
A
Flight Deck and Cabin Comm
23
Q
During Normal Ops, when does the Flight Data Recorder work?
A
First engine on, or in Flight
24
Q
When you get a call from the cabin, what is seen/heard on the flight deck?
A
a DING and a blue light on the overhead panel
25
Why is HF radio inhibited on the ground?
To prevent automatic data transmission from occurring... and it should not be used while refueling
26
What does the ALERT switch on the overhead panel do?
Calls every station in the cabin
27
How is the Flight Recorder erased?
Parking brake set on ground, hold button for 2 seconds on AC power.
28
Where are the PA IN USE and the VIDEO IN lights located?
on Overhead panel
29
How do you place a voice call on SATCOM?
on the CDU
30
Which of the following is used for SATCOM?
CDU
31
What is the number of smoke detectors in each cargo compartment?
2
32
What supplies airflow through the smoke detectors?
Detector Fans
33
Which fire detectors arm for single loop operation if the other fails?
APU and ENGINE
34
What is a successful test of the WHEEL WELL fire detection?
WHEEL WELL fire light illuminates
35
How do you initiate a WHEEL WELL fire test?
WHEEL WELL fire test is pressed and held
36
How are the cargo fire bottles discharged?
One or both bottles can be discharged into either compartment manually
37
What does OVHT on EQUIP COOLING button mean?
the Supply Fan for the forward E/E is INOP
38
How are the Engine Press regulated shut off valves controlled and actuated?
they are ELECTRICALLY controlled and PNEUMATICALLY activated
39
Which recirc fan draws air from FWD E/E?
LEFT recirc fan
40
What shuts off if exhaust is detected?
LEFT recirc fan
41
Which recirc fan(s) shut down if smoke is detected in the supply side of the FWD E/E compartment?
LEFT and RIGHT
42
an OVHT light on the Equip Cooling Sw means...
...either there is LOW AIRFLOW or the FWD EQUIP cooling fan is INOP
43
How many equipment cooling fans operate at a time? What switches them?
ONE, the EQUIP Cooling switch alternates them
44
If you get an EICAS message of "FWD EQUIP SMOKE," where is it coming from?
Equipment cooling exhaust air
45
Which of the following does NOT occur to get rid of smoke?
The overboard exhaust valve latches closed
| because it needs to be open to get rid of smoke
46
the AUX fan automatically turns on when...
... you push the EQUIP COOLING swtich to ALTN and both supply fans have failed
47
The purpose of the recirculating fans is to...
... Allow packs to operate at a reduced airflow
48
The RIGHT RECIRC fan goes to the ...
Mix Manifold
49
If the CAPT PITOT amber light illuminates in flight, it means...
... the Capt Pitot Probe is not being heated in flight
50
What indications will you get on the FMA when the FD is in GA mode?
Roll pitch activates in GA on ADI
Autothrottles to climb >2000 FPM
Roll commands bank to maintain ground track
51
When is LNAV deactivated when LNAV switch is selected a 2nd time?
When LNAV is armed
52
Approach to GA switch with FD off?
FD will reappear
53
What is NOT indicated by LAND 3 on the ASA?
When only 2 A/P are operating normally above 200'
54
What is the function of the YAW DAMPER?
To improve roll coordination and Dutch Roll Dampening
55
What powers the rudder?
Three HYD system motors (L, C, R)
56
What powers the elevators?
Three HYD system motors (L, C, R)
57
What powers the RUDDER RATIO?
LEFT HYD system
58
When is MACH/SPEED active?
A/P off... (it trims as airspeed changes)
59
A/P stab trim motor: How many are used?
1
60
Which HYD system(s) power the STAB TRIM?
Center and Right
61
The YAW DAMPER needs how many IRUs to align?
One
62
What does the Auto Slats system do?
Drives Slats to Landing position if Stick Shaker activated
63
How are the LE Slats and TE Flaps powered in NORM and ALTN?
```
Norm= Hydraulic
ALTN= Electric
```
64
When does the CARGO COMP smoke detector system automatically configure for single loop operations?
When either detector fails and the ENG/APU/CARGO OVHT test is commanded
65
What do the RED ILLUMINATED switch lights mean?
The FIRE has NOT been extinguished
66
How do you manually pull out the fire handle if locked?
Push the ENG fire OVRD switch under the handle
67
Rotating the fire handle either way does what?
Discharges the bottle
68
If you see discharge lights on the APU handle, what does it mean?
Low Pressure in the APU bottle
69
When do FIRE lights go out?
When the fire is extinguished
70
What happens when the APU handle is pulled?
```
APU fuel valve closes
Air supply valve is closed
APU generator is tripped off
Fire extinguisher is armed
Silences bell
```
71
During APP GA mode, armed FD not up and glide slope captures....
Automatically
72
If the bank limit selector is set to 15 degrees, which mode will be limited?
HDG SEL
73
LAND 3 auto rudder input engaged?
at 500 ft RA during auto land if ASA shows Land3 or LAND2 in window
74
When is normal Bus Tie ops inhibited during auto land?
Below 200 ft
75
What happens when the APP switch on the MCP is selected?
the other two A/P engage
76
FD roll commands during a GA provide?
current ground track
77
Does AUTO SLATS or LOAD RELIEF function in ALTN mode?
Nope
78
In ALTN mode is there Asymmetry relief for Trailing Edge flaps? Leading Edge flaps?
```
TE= NO
LE= YES
```
79
FLAP and SLAT electrical drive units...
... control movement
80
What two positions do the Leading Edge Slats have?
Takeoff and Land
81
The ALTN flap system is powered by...
Electric motors
82
When do the ARMED speed brakes activate?
Landing Gear on ground (not tilted)
Both Thrust Levers Idle
Either Thrust Reverser up
83
What inhibits the MACH/SPEED system?
Electric Trim
Alternate Trim
A/P trim
84
Pressing the LE Switch on the ALTN panel does what?
Disengages BOTH HYD Motors and ARMS the associated (LE, in this case) Electric Motor
85
What does the RUDDER RATIO light mean at cruise?
May have too little Low Speed Authority, and/or too much High Speed Authority... Use Caution
86
What does the Yellow A/P Caution light mean?
A/P is degraded
87
How many Flight Control Computers are engaged when on ONE autopilot?
One
88
What happens when the FWD CARGO EXT ARM switch is pushed to ARM?
BOTH Recirculating Fans are turned off
89
"CARGO DET 2" is displayed, what actions must be taken?
A FIRE TEST must be accomplished per QRH
90
How many LOOPS in each Fire System?
APU/ENG: 2
Wheel: 1
Cargo: 2 smoke detectors
91
When does the Discrete FIRE light illuminate on the forward panel?
When there is a FIRE in ANY system
92
Pulling the APU handle does what?
```
[Closes the FUEL valve]
Also:
APU shuts down
Arms APU fire bottle
Closes APU bleed valve
Silences bell
```
93
Pushing either GA Switch increases A/T to what?
Climb at 2000 fpm
94
What is caused by pressing TO/GA on TMSP?
D-Rated Thrust
95
After liftoff, how is F/D T/O mode terminated?
Engaging A/P in CMD
96
If FLCH is selected, what does the Airspeed bug do?
Sets the current speed
97
On the ground, how is the F/D T/O mode engaged?
ARM the FD switch
98
If A/P disengage is pushed, what does NOT happen?
Does not disconnect FD
99
Once the LOC is captured, how can you deselect LOC?
Turn off BOTH F/D switches
100
*757 Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude*
42,000'
101
*767 Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude*
43,100'
102
*Maximum Takeoff/Landing Tailwind Component (752C/753/764)*
15 knots
103
*Maximum Takeoff/ Landing Tailwind Component*
| 764 Takeoff in EEC ALTN mode
10 knots
104
Maximum Vmo
Indicated by Max Airspeed Pointer
105
Maximum Mmo
.86 Mach
106
*Recommended Severe Turbulence Penetration Airspeed >10k' and *
at or >10k': 290 KIAS/ .78 Mach
| <10: 250 KIAS/ .75 Mach
107
Are Flaps 1 Takeoffs allowed (753)?
No, they are prohibited
108
Maximum Gear Extended Speed
270 KIAS or .82 Mach
109
Maximum Alt Gear Extended Speed
250 KIAS or .75 Mach
110
Recommended Crosswind Component Assumptions
Assumes engine failure RTO
Reduce CW land guidelines by 5 kts on wet/contaminated RW with asymmetric REV thrust used
111
Recommended Crosswind Component Guidelines (Dry/Wet/ Takeoff/ Land)
All Takeoff and Land 40 Kts, except for Wet Runway Takeoff which is 25 Kts
112
True/False: You should apply ALL gusts when applying wind limits?
TRUE
113
Rolling Takeoffs are advised when crosswinds exceed ______ Kts
20
114
Maximum 752C Takeoff Weight
255K Lbs
115
(757) Isolation Valve is opened for...
Ground ops of A/C
Engine Start
Non-Normal A/C ops
Non-Normal Anti-Ice ops
116
Icing conditions on Ground
OAT is 10C or below with visible moisture
117
Icing conditions in Flight
TAT is 10C or below with visible moisture
118
(True/False) Takeoff in Moderate or Heavy Freezing Rain or Hail is totally cool
FALSE, it is prohibited
119
DO NOT USE wing anti-ice until ______
after the First Power Reduction
120
*On takeoff or approach, do not engage autopilot below _______*
800' AGL
121
*MAX Autoland Headwind*
25 knots
122
*MAX Autoland Tailwind*
| 752C and 764
15 knots
| 10 knots for CAT II/III
123
*MAX Autoland Tailwind*
| 753
```
12 knots (flaps 30)
15 knots (flaps 25)
(10 knots for CAT II/III)
```
124
Can you use aileron trim while the autopilot is engaged?
Nope (prohibited)
125
Autopilot use prohibited below 100' RA at airport pressure altitudes above _______ ft
8400 ft
126
(764) When coupled to an autopilot without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, you must disengage the autopilot prior to descending below _______.
100' RA
127
*Minimum Altitude for use of autopilot on ILS coupled approaches (no auto land)*
50 feet AGL
128
*Minimum Altitude for use of autopilot on non precision approaches*
50 feet below MDA/DA
129
*Minimum Altitude for use of autopilot on auto landings*
Touchdown and Rollout
130
Auto landings must be made with flaps _____or _______
25 or 30
131
APU Start Limits
Three start attempts may be made followed by a 1 hour cooling period. Allow 5 minutes cooling between each attempt.
132
APU Bleed Air not available above approximately _________ feet.
17,000
133
*Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Extended) for 752C and 753*
Up to 4 minutes continuous operation followed by a 15 minute wait
134
*Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Extended) for 764*
Two consecutive 5 minute cycles require a 10 minute period before each additional 5 minute cycles
135
*Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Normal) for 752C and 753)*
Three attempts of 2 minutes continuous followed by a rundown to 0% N3, then a 15 minute cool period
136
*Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Normal) for 764*
5 mins ON, followed by one-half minute off for each minute on
137
*Engine Starter Re-Engagement Speed for 752C and 753*
Recommended: 0% N3
Normal: 0-20% N3
>20% N3 not recommended except in case of FIRE
138
*Engine Starter Re-Engagement Speed for 764*
Recommended: 0% N2
Normal: 0-20% N2
30% N2 permissable for purging fuel or to clear a fire
139
*Minimum Oil for Dispatch*
ETOPS: 18 quarts
| Non-ETOPS: 16 Quarts
140
*MAXIMUM Flap Extension Altitude*
20,000 feet MSL
141
The navigation and display system does not support operations greater than ______ degrees north or south.
87 degrees
142
(True/False)
With TWO operational FMCs, unless flown in accordance with the VOR/NDB substitution procedures in the FOM, ONE pilot must have raw data from the VOR associated with the approach displayed on the RDMI or EHSI in the VOR mode, no later than the FAF
TRUE (page 1.30.13 of FM)
143
(TRUE/FALSE)
| The EFB moving map is certified as a sole means of navigation
FALSE!
| As installed, the EFB is only designed and certified for position orientation and situational awareness
144
What is the maximum approach speed inside the FAF for RNP operations?
180 KIAS
145
If leveling off within 2000' after changing altimeter to/from QNE, do NOT use VNAV if QNH is LESS than ______. After level off, VNAV may be re-engaged for climb or cruise.
29.70 hg
146
Is it OK to reset a tripped fuel pump or fuel pump control circuit breaker?
Negatory big buddy. No can do.
147
Max Fuel imbalance between main tanks (764)
2000 plus or minus 500#
148
Center Tank fuel pump switches must not be on, unless __________________
.... unless personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor low PRESS lights
149
RTO is armed above _______ kts
85 kts
150
The Autobrakes light means:
The system has disarmed
151
Nosewheel steering authority is:
7 degrees w/rudder
| 65 degrees w/ tiller
152
Landing gear OFF position does what?
Removes hydraulic pressure
153
Nose gear sensing allows what?
Stall warning
TAT probe heat
Warning/Caution inhibit timer
154
Yaw Damper runs off of what HYD systems?
Left and Center
155
RUDDER RATIO light means
fault in the system
156
Elevator Feel system uses what systems?
Center and Right and AUX pitot
157
UNSCHED STAB TRIM light means
Stabilizer movement has occurred without a signal to trim
158
STAB TRIM light means
Stabilizer trim operates at a reduced rate
159
MACH SPEED TRIM light means
Mach Speed trim system inoperative
160
SPD BRAKES light means
speed brakes extended when flaps are in the landing position OR the radio altitude is 800 ft or below
161
SPOILERS light means
one or more spoiler pairs are failed
162
AUTO SPD BRK light means
An Automatic Speed Brake or Load Alleviation system fault has occurred
163
Hyd SYS PX light means
Low system PRESSURE
164
Hyd RSVR light means
either LOW Fluid or LOW Air pressure
165
When does the Center #2 HYD pump shed?
When there is a single source of AC power and the Center #1 pump is on
166
(757) What main components are on the LEFT HYD system
```
Landing Gear (and truck tilt)
Flaps/Slats
Nose wheel steering
HMG
Alternate Brakes
```
167
(757) When does the PTU kick in?
Left Eng or Left Engine driven pump failure
| Low PX left system
168
(757) What does the HMG power?
The Standby AC/DC buses
169
(757) What Hyd System do the brakes rely on?
NORM: Right
Alternate: Left (pair wheel sensing)
Reserve: Right
Accumulator: Right
170
(757) What is the primary flight control HYD system?
Center
| except flaps/slats, which are really lift devices anyway
171
How is the RAT deployed?
757: Spring action
767: Electric Motor
172
When does the RAT switch armed for engine failure? How slow (on approach) will the RAT provide enough pressure for flight controls?
80 knots on takeoff
| 130 knots on approach
173
When will you get a PACK INOP light?
```
S.O.F.T.
Switched off
Overheat
Fault
Trim air off
```
174
What cabin altitude does the CABIN ALT light come on? Go off
ON: climbing through 10k
OFF: descending through 8500'
175
At what cabin altitude do the oxygen masks drop?
14,000'
176
How long are the passenger O2 masks going to supply oxygen?
12 minutes from activation
177
757 Engine anti-ice is located _________ of bleed valve
UPSTREAM
178
757 wing anti ice is fed to which three segments?
3 immediately outboard of engines
179
767 wing anti ice is fed to which three segments?
3 most outboard
180
How many Autopilots can be ARMED at once?
2... the third one is ENGAGED
181
What does a HI STAGE light mean?
over pressure in pneumatic system
182
What does BLEED light mean?
over temperature in pneumatic system
183
What does DUCT LEAK light mean?
leak in pneumatic system
184
the APP switch can be selected within _________ degrees of the final approach course
120
185
What would drive your EICAS/EFIS to go FULL BRIGHT?
Loss of equipment cooling airflow
or
Left recirculating fan fail
186
(757) when does the aircraft flare during auto land? when does it go to idle?
FLARE 45' RA
IDLE 25' RA
187
(767) when does the aircraft flare during auto land? when does it go to idle?
FLARE 50' RA
IDLE 15' RA
188
During Approach Mode, what is supplying power to the Center Autopilot?
Static Inverter and Hot Battery Bus
189
At what altitude on a Autopilot coupled ILS (autoland), will the aircraft transition to runway align?
500'
190
What does the HI STAGE light mean when accompanied by the ENG HI STAGE display on the EICAS?
engine bleed air pressure is excessive and the
| high pressure bleed air valve automatically locks closed.
191
What does the BLEED light with the ENG BLEED VAL display on the EICAS mean?
engine bleed air temperature is excessive.
| The engine bleed valve automatically closes.
192
What does the OVHT light on the pneumatic overhead panel mean? What EICAS message will accompany it?
engine bleed air is excessive.... accompanied by L or R ENG OVHT EICAS message
193
What automatically happens when a bleed air overheat occurs?
engine bleed air valve is automatically closed.
| With the engine bleed air valve closed, both the HPSOV and PRV are also closed.
194
APU bleed air VALVE light and EICAS message of APU BLEED VAL display when ________.
APU bleed valve position disagrees with commanded position
195
The DUCT LEAK light illuminates and the EICAS caution message L or R BLD DUCT LEAK displays when____________.
high temperature bleed air leak is detected.
196
If a Pack INOP light extinguishes when you switch the Pack to STBY control, the fault is __________.
the fault is with the automatic controller
197
If a Pack INOP light does NOT extinguish when you switch the Pack to STBY control, the fault is _____________.
the fault is a pack overheat
198
The flight deck receives 100% conditioned fresh air from which Pack?
LEFT Pack
199
What does turning off the LEFT recirculation fan do? can it be reset in flight?
Causes the overboard exhaust valve to latch OPEN.
No it cannot be reset, maintenance action required to reset it after landing.
200
What does a ASA status of LAND 3 mean?
3 autopilots engaged and operating normally for an automatic landing
201
What does an ASA status of LAND 2 mean?
AFDS redundancy is reduced, in some cases only two autopilots are available
202
What does an ASA status of NO AUTOLAND mean?
AFDS unable to make an automatic landing
203
What amount of redundancy does a LAND 2 indication provide??
single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive).
204
What amount of redundancy does a LAND 3 indication provide?
a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational).
205
Below 200 feet radio altitude the ASA display
| cannot change except....
except to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition.
206
Will the autopilot provide low or high speed limit protection in the vertical speed mode?
No
207
On takeoff, the flight director will command a pitch to maintain what speed?
V2 + 15 or liftoff speed + 15, whichever is greater
208
On takeoff, if an engine failure occurs on the ground, the pitch commanded target speed is what?
V2 or airspeed at liftoff, whatever is greater
209
Glideslope capture is inhibited until ____________
The localizer is captured
210
If autopilot is disengaged below 330' during a LAND 2 approach, _________ lbs of forward control column force may be required to counter the automatic trim condition.
20-30 lbs
211
(752 only) Which HF radio is Data capable?
Left
212
What is the priority of power to the main buses?
1) External power
2) Engine IDG
3) APU
213
The ground service bus powers what?
Main Batt charger
APU Batt charger
Misc Cabin and System loads
214
The HMG powers the _____________
```
L&R AC transfer bus
Standby AC Bus
Standby DC bus
Hot battery bus,
Battery bus,
Captains Flight Instruments
```
215
The Engine driven generator amber DRIVE light will illuminate if ________________.
The generator drive oil temperature is high or the generator drive oil pressure is low
216
What should you do before you turn the EEC off? (in a non-normal situation)
Retard the throttles to mid-position to prevent a possible engine overboost
217
When is approach idle selected by the EEC?
1) Gear or flaps extended
| 2) Engine anti-ice is on
218
When is approach idle cancelled?
5 seconds after touchdown
219
When would you use the RICH position on the fuel control switch for engine start?
When EGT is 0 degrees Celsius or less.
220
Pulling an Engine Fire Switch does what?
1) Closes associated engine bleed air valve
2) Trips associated generator off
3) Shuts off Hyd fluid to associated engine-driven hydraulic pump
4) Arms both engine fire extinguisher bottles
221
When does the PTU automatically activate?
Left engine failure or Left engine driven hydraulic pump pressure is low
222
(True/False) When the hydraulic motor generator first begins to operate, the battery DISCH light(s) may illuminate until the battery voltage decreases to a level produced by the hydraulic motor generator.
TRUE
223
(757) How does the Alternate Landing Gear Extension system extend the landing gear?
Dedicated DC powered electric pump with fluid in the supply line
224
Which brake system uses paired wheel sensing?
Alternate system
225
In which of the braking systems (Normal, Alternate, Reserve, Accumulator) is Anti-Skid available?
All of them
226
RTO autobrake setting commands maximum braking pressure if:
Airplane is on the ground
Groundspeed > 85 knots
Both thrust levers in IDLE
227
If an RTO is initiated below 85 knots, will auto brakes function?
NO
228
(752) What is the only STATUS message that requires a non-normal checklist?
FWD/AFT CARGO DET 1 OR 2
229
The Master WARNING lights and Fire Bell are inhibited for fire during takeoff from_____ to _________.
From rotation to 400' radio altitude or 20 seconds elapsed time, whichever occurs first.
230
Takeoff configuration warnings are terminated when the airspeed exceeds _________.
V1
231
Advisory message inhibits during takeoff begin at ____________ and end at ___________.
80 knots... 400' radio altitude or 20 seconds after rotation, whichever occurs first... or if takeoff thrust is not selected on both engines
232
How is an EICAS message of PILOT RESPONSE cleared?
by pushing any control on any of the monitored systems or panels
(MCP, EFIS control panel, display select panel, CDUs, or radar transmitters)
233
Predictive Windshear (PWS) is automatically enabled when?
On ground at takeoff thrust and in-flight when below 2,300 AGL
234
(757) Fuel temperature in the ______ main tank is displayed
RIGHT
235
(767) Fuel temperature in the _______ main tank is displayed
LEFT
236
FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the total useable fuel in the left or right main tank drops below approximately ___________ lbs
2200
237
FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the center tank contains MORE than __________ lbs and then center fuel pump switches are off.
1200
238
(757) FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the Left and Right Main tanks differ by ________ lbs.
1800
239
(767) FUEL CONFIG light illuminates when the Left and Right Main tanks differ by ___________ lbs.
2000 plus or minus 500 lbs
