747 CBT Flashcards
1
Q
What are the primary sources of power?
A
4 IDGs, 2 EXT, 2 APU GENs.
2
Q
When is Aux power available?
A
Only on the ground
3
Q
Where are the ground power plug in points?
A
External power is available from ground sources through two power receptacles located on the lower right corner of the fuselage.
4
Q
When using 2 Aux pwr (APU) how is the aircraft powered?
A
Each APU powers it’s respective side.
5
Q
What does the electrical synoptic display?
A
AC power only, status of various system breakers and conductors and does not represent actual power flow.
6
Q
What happens of the IDG disconnect is pushed?
A
IDG disconnected and only reversible on the ground by maintenance
7
Q
When on the ground and power sources are switched, is there a momentary loss of power?
A
No, sources a momentarily synchronized prior to changeover.
8
Q
If a bus tie breaker opens, will the bus lose power?
A
No, it will still be powered from it’s respective IDG
9
Q
If a generator control breaker opens, will the bus lose power?
A
No, it will still be powered from the other remaining IDGs Busses.
10
Q
What are some things that the AC Busses Power?
A
· TRUs
· Navigation radios and flight control computers
· Flight Deck Lighting
· Pitot and Window Heat
11
Q
When is the ground handling bus powered?
A
automatically when either #1 auxiliary power source is available
12
Q
What does the ground handling bus power?
A
· Lower cargo handling equipment and compartment lights
· Fueling system
· Auxillary hydraulic pump 4
13
Q
What does the cargo handling bus power?
A
· Main Deck Cargo Handling Equipment and lights
· Nose and Side Cargo Doors
14
Q
When is the cargo handling bus powered?
A
automatically when either #2 auxiliary power source is available
15
Q
How is main deck cargo handling bus powered?
A
Preference given to External power and will only be powered if not powering the aircraft. If both sources are available, can use one to power aircraft and the other to power Cargo.
16
Q
What does the ground service bus power?
A
Main and APU battery chargers
· Fuel pumps for APU start
· Passenger and 400C Emergency Exit Doors
· Flight deck flood, navigation, and service lights
· Miscellaneous service outlets and equipment
17
Q
How is the ground service bus powered?
A
AC bus 1 or from the same source as the ground handling bus by selecting the switch next to door 1L
18
Q
How is the captains transfer bus powered?
A
Usually from AC bus #3 otherwise AC bus #1
19
Q
How is the FOs transfer bus powered?
A
Usually from AC bus #2 otherwise AC bus #1
20
Q
Some items that the utility busses power include?
A
· Forward main fuel pumps 2 and 3
· Forward override/jettison pumps 2 and 3
· Center override/jettison pump
· Galley Equipment
21
Q
DC power supplies certain equipment, some of which is?
A
· Cabin pressure, fuel jettison, and pack temperature controllers
· Wing anti-ice control
· Engine-driven and hydraulic demand pump control
· Fuel transfer and jettison valve control
· Individual nacelle anti-ice control
22
Q
What are some of the items powered by the Main battery bus?
A
· APU Controller (alternate), Fuel Valves (all engines), All Crossfeed Valves
· Dome, Storm, and Selected Indicator Lights
· DG disconnect (all engines), Manual Pressurization Control, Trailing Edge Flap Control
· Captain’s Interphone, Left Radio Tuning Panel, Left VHF
23
Q
What are some of the items powered by the APU battery bus?
A
· APU DC Fuel Pump, Engine Start Air Control
· Cargo, First Officer, and Service Interphones, PA System
· Captain Interphone, left radio tuning panel, left VHF, nacelle anti-ice control
· APU and Engine Fire/Overheat Detection Loops A and B
· APU Fire Warning Horn
24
Q
How are the APU and Main battery busses powered?
A
By DC Bus #3 but only if AC Bus #3 is also on. If not, then directly from respective hot battery.
25
Some of the items powered by the Main hot battery bus include?
· APU Fuel Shutoff Valve, SparvValves (all engines)
· APU and Lower Cargo Fire Extinguishers
· Engine Fire Extinguishers (all engines), Fire Switch Unlock (all engines)
26
Some of the items powered by the APU hot battery bus include?
· IRU Left, Center, Right DC power
· Left and Right Outflow Valves
· APU Inlet Door, Apu Controller (primary)
27
What happens to the DC busses during an Autoland approach?
AC and DC busses 1, 2 and 3 are isolated from the synchronous bus to provide independent power sources for the three autopilots. AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus
28
When is Autoland Isolation cancelled?
IF: All autopilots disengage
• TO/GA mode is annuciated and the airplane is higher than 100 feet radio altitude
• Approach mode is disarmed or deselected
• Electrical system unable to maintain a configuration for autoland bus isolation
29
The main standby bus powers what?
```
· Left EIU, Left CDU, Left ILS, Left VOR
· Various Flight Control Components
· Standby Ignition for All Enginers
· Primary EICAS Display, RMI, Standby Instrument Lights
· Left ADC, Left EFIS Control Panel
```
30
How long can the Main battery supply the main standby bus?
Minimum 30min
31
What does the APU standby bus power?
Left FMC
Left ND
Left PFD
32
How many Hydraulic systems are there?
4, 1 per engine
33
Which systems does hydraulic system 1 power?
* Inboard Trailing Edge Flaps
* Body Gear Actuation & Steering
* Nose Gear Actuation & Steering
* Alternate Brakes
34
Which systems does hydraulic system 2 power?
• Alternate Brakes
35
Which systems does hydraulic system 4 power?
* Outboard Trailing Edge Flaps
* Wing Gear Actuation
* Normal Brakes
36
How many pumps power the respective hydraulic systems and what is their output?
1 Engine driven and 1 demand pump, each can put out 3000PSI
37
How are the demand pumps driven?
1 and 4 are air driven while 2 & 3 are electric.
38
What differs about Hydraulic system 4?
it has an electrically driven auxiliary pump used for ground handling prior to engine start.
39
If a magenta RF is shown next to the hydraulic reservoir, what does this mean?
The reservoir must be refilled.
40
Where are the fuel quantity and temperature sensors?
Temperature sensor in tank 1 only, Quantity in each tank
41
How many fuel tanks are there and what are their designations?
Centre wing (CWT)
Main 1,2,3,4
Reserve 2,3
42
How many fuel pumps are there in the main tanks?
2 AC in each main tank and 2 Overide/Jettison in tanks 2&3
43
How many fuel pumps are there in the CWT?
2 Overide/Jettison pumps
44
When does the fuel quantity change colour to amber?
Below -37C
45
What is the maximum fuel capacity?
163,042 KG
| 203,066 litres
46
How much capacity do the fuel pumps have?
One pump can operate two engines at cruise thrust or one engine at takeoff thrust.
47
Where is APU fuel taken from?
Main Tank 2
48
When on the ground after engine start, where do engines draw fuel from?
CWT
49
Once flaps are extended for take-off, where do the engines draw fuel from?
#1 and #4 from CWT, #2 & #3 from respective main tanks
50
After take-off, when does CWT fuel supply all engines?
When flaps are out of the range 10-20
51
When should you not jettison fuel (config)
With flaps between 1-5
52
What occurs when either jettison nozzle valve switch is pushed?
Activates the override/jettison pumps and opens all jettison valves. The pumps must already be on.
53
When does the reserve tank fuel drain into tanks 2/3?
When main tank fuel in 2 or 3 respectively is 18200kg or less.
54
Fire detection, warning and extinguishing are provided for which areas?
engines, APU, lower cargo compartments, and the lavatory.
55
How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for the each system?
1-APU, 2 on each side for 2 engines, 4 for the FWD and AFT lower cargo compartment.
56
Does the APU compartment have overheat protection?
No
57
What is the sensing method used for the engines and APU for fire and heat?
Dual loop fire and overheat detection for each engine (4 loops). Dual loop fire detection only for APU
58
Where is the APU ground control panel?
Left body gear wheel well.
59
Maximum Range?
7200nm
60
What is the Maximum Operating Altitude?
45,100' PA
61
What is the Maximum Altitude for Takeoff and Landing?
10,000' PA
62
What is the Maximum Field Elevation?
9,500' MSL
63
What is the Runway Slope?
+/- 2%
64
What is the Maximum Speed Operating in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace?
0.90 Mach
65
Where are the door locations?
RHS: 2x Lower cargo doors, and upper deck service door.
LHS: Main deck aft cargo door, and front and rear main deck entry doors.
66
where does external power plug in?
Two External Power Receptacles are located on the lower right forward fuselage.
67
Where is flight crew oxygen sourced?
The Flight Crew oxygen system uses gaseous cylinders (2) to supply oxygen to the masks at each flight deck seat. The oxygen is provided at 100% or diluted
68
How many temperature zones are there?
7
69
How many packs are there?
3
70
When can wing anti-ice operate?
Airborne only.
71
When can nacelle anti-ice operate?
Airborne or on the ground
72
Is bleed air anti icing automatic?
Some aircraft are automatic, some are on or off.
73
How many probes are there and how are they protected from Ice?
4 pitot/static, 2 TAT and 2 AOA. They are electrically heated and have no controls.
74
Which hydraulic systems power which parts of the aircraft?
Heavy load items (landing gear, brakes, flaps, etc) are powered by systems 1 and 4. The primary power source for the Primary Flight controls are systems 2 and 3.
75
Which landing gear is steerable?
Nose and body gear
76
How does fuel get to the APU if no AC power is available?
Dedicated DC pump in main tank 2
77
Can the APU be operated in flight?
Yes but only for bleed air and cannot be started inflight.
78
What is the APUs service ceiling?
20,000ft
79
What is the APU able to provide?
All electrical on the ground.
Air needs on ground except during engine start
One pack up to 15,000ft
80
How are the thrust reversers actuated?
Bleed air
81
How many elevators are there?
4, 2 per side
82
How many spoilers are there?
12, 10 of which assist roll control.
83
Which spoilers function as speed brakes?
The inboard 8
84
How many Rudders are there?
2, upper and lower
85
How are the flaps powered?
The leading edge flaps are normally powered by bleed air and the trailing edge by the hydraulic system
86
If the primary flap drive fails, is there an alternate method?
Yes, electric motor.
87
What is the aircraft wingspan? -400
213', 64.9m
88
What is the aircraft length? -400
231' 10''
| 70.7m
89
What is the nosewheel distance from nose? -400
25' 0''
| 7.6m
90
Which part of the aircraft traces the largest arc during a turn?
Wingtips
91
What is the minimum radius free of obstructions required for a 180deg turn?
Wing Tip Radius 149' 0'' (45.4m)
92
What is the minimum Pavement Width for a 180 deg turn?
153' 0''
| 46.6m
93
How does gear lever position affect landing lights?
When gear lever is in down position it will be at full bright, otherwise dimmed.
94
If normal electrical power is lost, is there any cockpit lighting?
flood lights operate from standby electrical power.
95
Where are the freighter Aircraft light Switch Locations?
· Upper Deck Cabin Services Module (CSM) at Door 1L,
· Right Upper Deck Service door,
· Main Equipment Center Lower hatch
96
Where do the emergency lights get their power from and how long do they last?
powered by remote batteries. Battery charge is provided by DC bus 4. A fully charged battery provides at least 15 minutes of operation for the associated light.
97
Where are the blowout discs for the aircraft emergency oxygen systems?
There is one disc for both systems, on RHS aft of lower FWD cargo door.
98
How does the crew oxygen mask Mic get activated?
Opening the left side mask box door.
99
What does the normal position on the crew oxygen mask supply?
Mix of ambient air and oxygen, the mix ratio is dependent on cabin pressure.
100
What does the emergency position do on the crew oxygen mask?
Supplies 100% oxygen under pressure.
101
What is the maximum acceptable drop in oxy pressure during test of a single mask?
100PSI
102
When do oxygen masks deploy?
Cabin altitude >14000ft or when activated in cockpit.
103
What is the supernumerary oxygen system capable of supplying?
195 minutes of oxygen @
| Cabin altitude of 25,000
104
Can the supernumerary oxygen system be re-set?
Yes, if below 12,000ft by using the reset switch
105
How long can portable oxygen bottles supply oxygen?
approximately 2 hours.
106
Where do the packs normally get bleed air from?
Pack one left manifold, Pack 2 Centre manifold, Pack 3 right manifold.
107
Is there any way of knowing if conditioned air is connected to the aircraft?
No
108
How many pack temperature controllers are there and what do they do?
2 and each has 3 channels, one for each pack. Only one operates and normally swap on each landing.
109
What is the temperature range that can be set on the master temperature controller for each zone?
18-29 deg C
110
By how much can cabin temperature control on the upper deck differ from the master?
+- 6deg C
111
How is foot and shoulder heat supplied?
Electrically
112
Where is ventilation provided?
Galley, Lavatory, Crew Rest and Supernumerary Gaspers.
113
Where is ventilated air drawn from?
Galley and lavatory
114
How many ventilation fans are there?
2, primary and backup
115
What effect does hi flow on the pack have on fuel burn?
High flow during cruise will
| increase total fuel consumption by approximately 0.3% for each operating pack.
116
For automatic PTC switching to occur...
Trim Air must be ON
117
What is the PTC and how many are there?
Pack Temperature Controller, 2
118
How are the pack valves operated?
Electrically controlled, bleed air operated
119
What controls temperature in each zone?
ZTC, Zone Temperature Controller
120
Is there any part of the aircraft that does not require the master trim air switch to be on for air conditioning?
Yes, lower lobe cargo bays
121
Can the lower lobe cargo air supply duct shutoff valves be re-set after an overheat?
Yes, by switching off the lower lobe flow rate switch.
122
Which packs generally supply the lower lobe cargo compartments?
Pack two aft, pack 3 FWD
123
What is the difference between low and high on the lower lobe cargo air selector?
Low=2/3 of pack air, High=all pack air.
124
What is different when lower lobe cargo air is selected on high?
The selected pack will supply the correct temperature for that compartment and the ZTC will control the remaining 2 packs.
125
When the lower lobe cargo air is selected on low, what happens?
the ZTC limits the outlet temperature of the pack supplying the selected lower lobe cargo compartment to be not higher than the outlet temperature of the other two packs
126
What is the default FD/Crew rest area temperature?
24C
127
What temperature range is the main deck temperature selector on the overhead panel?
4-29 Deg C
128
What does the MAN selection do on the main deck temperature selector?
Allows for manual positioning of the trim air valves.
129
What does the FLT DECK FAN switch do?
on the ground with packs off, circulates cabin air. With at least one pack on, the fan increases the flow of conditioned air to the flight deck.
130
What is the FLIGHT DECK TEMP selector range?
18-29 deg C
131
What does pressing the zone re-set switch do?
Resets the Trim Air System
132
How is the AFT cargo heated?
AFT cargo heat switch, hot bleed air.
133
How is the FWD cargo heated?
heated air from the E&E compartment heats the forward cargo compartment
134
How many cabin altitude controllers are there?
2, A&B
135
How do the outflow valves operate?
The two outflow valves normally operate in parallel, however full cabin altitude and full ventilation rates can be maintained by one valve in the event the other valve has failed.
136
What is the Maximum Differential Pressure?
9.4 PSI
137
What happens if a positive pressure relief valve opens?
Pack 2 shuts down
138
What does the EICAS: PRESS RELIEF message mean?
Either pressure relief valve opens with all packs operating.
139
How many and where are the negative pressure relief valves located?
2 in each main cargo door (6 total)
140
What is the Maximum Allowable Cabin Pressure Differential for Takeoff and Landing?
0.11 psi.
141
How are the outflow valves driven?
Automatic are AC, manual are DC
142
Where does the cabin altitude controller get elevation info?
FMC
143
When does the Cabin Altitude Limiter operate?
when cabin altitude exceeds 11,000ft
144
What does the Cabin Altitude Limiter do?
Shuts both outflow valves, only if in automatic mode.
145
What altitude does the cabin altitude controller use if there is no altitude in the FMC?
39,000ft
146
What maximum altitude does the cabin climb to?
8000ft
147
If the aircraft departs from a field elevation higher than 8,000 feet what does the cabin altitude controller do?
Descends the cabin altitude to the scheduled cabin cruise altitude during the climb
148
What is the landing elevation range available for the pressurization system?
-1000ft to 14,000ft
149
If landing data is unavailable, what altitude does the cabin altitude controller assume?
2000ft
150
When landing at elevations 8000-10,000ft how do you control the pressurisation system?
Set to manual and 8000ft during CLB and CRZ. Set AUTO prior to descent.
151
What is the primary means of gaining performance info with ACARS available?
FDP
152
What is the primary means of gaining performance info with ACARS not-available?
TLR
153
What is the backup method for FDP/TLR?
Dispatch, who uses an online version of FDP
154
How are DDG items entered onto FDP?
Dispatch enters them as part of flight planning and Pilots MUST check they show on the ACARS Data page 2 and FDP-REMARKS
155
What does and * next to MTOW on FDR indicate?
Indicates MTOW
156
When will FDP not work?
When ACARS Origin, date, FLT No. doesnt match TLR or if requested more than 8 hours after TLR
157
Do the TLR and OFP revision numbers have to match?
No
158
What does MFPTW on TLR indicate?
Maximum Flight Plan Take-off Weight, Actual take-off weight must not exceed this
159
When doing a assumed temp de-rate D-TO, what does the MT on the TLR indicate?
the assumed temperature.
160
If no AUTOLAND performance data is listed on a separate F30 table, what are the implications?
Add 1000ft to the landing distance on TLR
161
What change in ZFW will require a new OFP?
10 tonnes
162
When an EICAS alert is preceded by a >, what implications does this have?
The checklist does not need to be consulted.
163
Which CBs are prohibited from re-set?
Fuel pump and fuel pump control
164
Which QRH action items require confirmation?
```
Thrust lever
Fuel control
Fire switches
Gen drive disconnect
IRS mode selector
```
165
How many FCC (flight control computers) are there?
3
166
In normal flight, what does the autopilot control?
Ailerons and elevator
167
When does HOLD engage on takeoff roll?
65kts
168
When will annunciations on an autoland be inhibited?
200ft
169
What does the FD indicate on take-off?
8 deg NU, then V2+10 - V2+25 once airborne
170
When will the autothrottle disconnect?
When more than 1 engine failed.
171
When does the IAS/Mach display on the MCP automatically change?
310/0.84
172
When can autothrottles not be switched on
If 2 FMCs or Engines fail
173
When does VNAV engage on climb?
400ft
174
When does TO/GA mode arm on approach?
When flaps are selected away from 0 or glideslope is captured.
175
Is there any indication that TO/GA mode is armed on approach?
Yes, GA annunciates on the EICAS as the thrust limit
176
When must LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciate to allow an AUTOLAND?
600ft
177
Mmo?
0.90 Mach
178
Vle?
270KIAS 0.82M
179
Vlo?
320KIAS 0.82M
180
What are the flap operation limitations with regard to fuel jettison?
Do NOT operate flaps between 1 and 5 during fuel jettison.
181
What are the flap limit speeds?
```
1- 280
5- 260
10- 240
20- 230
25- 205
30- 180
```
182
What happens if TOGA not pushed by 50kts?
cannot engage autothrottles until 400ft
183
What tracking does TO/GA provide?
Ground track on take-off, ground track during go-around at the time TOGA was pushed.
184
When will LNAV capture the track?
within 2.5nm
185
If HDG SEL is engaged, how will the aircraft follow the bug?
Shortest distance if engaging, if already engaged, direction of heading bug turn.
186
What AoB does auto provide on the HDG SEL knob?
15-25 deg AoB, except during ILS
187
Will VNAV descend below the MCP altitude?
No
188
What happens if TOGA is pressed after T/O?
All de-rates are removed and THR REF is activated
189
When is TOGA inhibited on go-around?
2 seconds after descending through 5ft RA until climbing through 5ft RA
190
What happens if a PFD fails?
It is automatically displayed on the ND
191
Where are the PFD/ND controls?
On glareshield and through CDU
192
How many ADC are there?
2
193
How many IRS are there?
3
194
What is an EIU and how many are there?
EICAS Interface Unit, provides info to PFD and ND, 3
195
How many FMCs are there?
2
196
How many CDUs are there?
3
197
If both FMCs fail, where can navigation info be obtained for the ND?
CDU
198
What is an FCC and how many are there?
Flight Control Computer, 3, used to drive FD commands.
199
Which switch determines which side LOC and GS info is displayed on the PFD and ND?
EIU Selector
200
When does the landing altitude reference on the PFD change from DEP to ARR
400nm or halfway whichever occurs 1st
201
What happens if the Baro setting is not changed through transition?
300ft above or below the baro will turn orange and be boxed.
202
In LOC expanded mode, what does one rectangle deviation indicate?
1/2 dot deviation
203
On an LCD display when does the Slip/Skid indicator fill solid white?
At full scale deviation
204
How is the standby AH powered?
Main battery
205
Where does the standby ASI get it's information from?
Pitot 1 and alternate static, displays uncorrected airspeed
206
If both FMCs fail and navigation reverts to CDU, what is no longer available?
LNAV, VNAV, Autothrottles.
207
What is the difference between dashed and boxed lines in the FMS?
Boxed=required information
| dashed=optional
208
What is the difference between small and large font in the FMS?
Large=manually entered or required limit
| Small=FMS calculated
209
What is max range/min fuel cost index?
0
210
What is the FMS RVSM step climb increment?
4000ft
211
For FMS entry, where is ZFW read from?
FDP or if unavailable, TLR and Loadsheet
212
Can FMC V speeds be used?
No, they are based on balanced field and not authorized, use FDP V speeds.
213
What controls speed in VNAV PTH?
Thrust
214
What controls speed in VNAV SPD?
Pitch
215
What does VNAV ALT mean?
When MCP altitude is restricting FMC planned altitude
216
How can Max Rate climb be roughly calculated?
Max angle + 25 kts until M0.84
217
How do you enter Lat/Long into FMS?
N/S with 4 figure group + decimal
| then E/W with 5 figure group + Decimal
218
What does OPT altitude on the FMS not take into account?
Wind
219
How far ahead does the RECMD altitude look?
500nm
220
How far ahead does the "step to" altitude look?
whole flight plan
221
If descending prior to ToD, what does the FMS command?
1250FPM descent until intercepting VNAV descent path.
222
What is the difference when commencing early descent prior to, or after 50nm to ToD?
Outside 50, CRZ speed, inside, Descent speed.
223
When will waypoints sequence?
within 21nm
224
How many transponders are fitted?
2, both controlled through 1 panel
225
When will the ON BATT light illuminate on the maintenance panel for the IRS?
If AC power has failed and the APU hot batt bus is supplying DC power
226
How many IRUs are there?
3, L, C, R
227
When AC power is lost what powers the IRUs?
DC power from APU hot batt however the C IRU only for 5 min
228
How long does IRU alignment take?
10mins
229
Where does the autobrake get reference deceleration from?
The IRU selected on the captains' side
230
If an IRU selector is moved from NAV to ATT in flight, what is the implication?
Cannot operate in NAV mode until full ground alignment is commpleted
231
The IRS is the sole source of attitude and heading signals to the AFDS, PFD, and ND, true or false?
True
232
What radio navigation systems are there?
2, VOR, ADF, DME and 3xILS
233
What is different about the ADF?
Must be tuned manually
234
What powers the 747-400?
General Electric CF6-80C2-B1F (derated B5F)
| General Electric CF6-80C2-B5F
235
How many spools are there on the engines?
2
236
How are the engines started?
Bleed air
237
How are the reversers activated?
Pneumatic, bleed air
238
What primary engine data is always displayed?
N1, EGT
239
When is secondary engine data displayed?
When selected, on initial power up and if a fuel control is selected to cutoff in flight
240
How many igniters are there per engine?
2
241
How many engine fuel pumps are there and when do they operate?
2, N2 rotation
242
Which engine related fuel valves shut when the fire switch is pulled?
Spar and engine fuel valves and the metering valve.
243
Which engine related fuel valves shut when the fuel control switch is in cuttoff?
Spar and engine fuel valves and the metering valve.
244
What does the engine oil system lubricate?
· Engine Bearings
| · Accessory Gearbox
245
Where are oil temperature and pressure measured?
Temp: downstream of engine
Press: Upstream of engine
246
How many pumps are there in the engine oil system?
2, scavenge and Main
247
What happens if the primary EICAS screen fails, can secondary engine indications be viewed?
Primary EICAS will be displayed on secondary screen and secondary data can be viewd in compact form by pressing ENG
248
What is different about N1 indications compared to other engine parameters?
Max N1 is an amber line and does not change colour when reached
249
Where is bleed air sourced for engine start?
APU
Ground cart
Other engine
250
When would both igniters be activated?
When selected or automatically for an inflight re-start or flameout
251
With the STBY switch in NORM on the Engine Start and Ignition Panel, what does this do?
With the Standby (STBY) Ignition Selector in NORM, AC power system supplies power to selected igniters. If AC power system is not powered, then standby power system supplies power continuously to all igniters.
252
With the STBY switch in 1 or 2 on the Engine Start and Ignition Panel, what does this do?
With the Standby (STBY) Ignition Selector in 1 or 2, standby power system supplies power continuously to the selected igniters regardless of Auto Ignition Selector position.
253
What does the AUTO switch do on the Engine Start and Ignition Panel?
Selects whether a SINGLE or BOTH igniters are used for all starts.
254
When does ignition automatically activate?
· during start when the Start switch is out and the N2 RPM is less than 50%
· anytime the engine Nacelle anti-ice is ON
· an engine flameout is detected
· Trailing edge flaps out of up position
255
Does CON ignition have any effect on RPM?
Min RPM is commanded to approach idle
256
What does Pulling the Start switch out do?
arms the start valve and opens the engine bleed air valve
257
When is starter cutout?
50% N2
258
What happens after starter cutout?
The start valve and engine bleed valve will close.
| The light in the START switch will go out when the start valve has closed. The ignition will be cut off.
259
What will autostart abort for?
* Hot start
* Hung start
* No EGT rise
260
What does autostart not monitor?
Oil Pressure, N1 rotation
261
How many times will the EEC attempt a start?
2 times, 3 times if hot or hung prior to starter cutout
262
What happens automatically on the second start attempt?
2 igniters are used
263
What happens if there is a hot or hung start after starter cutout?
all start attempts are aborted and engine does not motor
264
With an engine out, what is the altitude displayed for start envelope?
Maximum altitude or current altitude if max is above current
265
In-flight, how many start attempts does the EEC make?
Unlimited
266
How many EECs are there?
4, 1 per engine
267
How many modes does the EEC have?
2, normal and alternate
268
Which parameter does the EEC use for thrust setting?
N1
269
What happens to N1 as outside conditions change?
EEC maintains set thrust setting
270
Do the thrust levers need to be adjusted with higher bleed requiremnts?
No, the EEC adjusts fuel flow to compensate
271
Can the autothrottle operate with an EEC in alternate mode?
No, however if all EEC are in alternate, Autothrottle can be re-engaged
272
What protections are lost with alternate EEC mode?
Max thrust (N1) protection
273
What happens when the EECs are in alternate?
The thrust protections are lost and auto correction for environmental and bleed requirements ETC are lost
274
When will the EEC select approach idle in flight?
* Nacelle anti-ice is ON
* Flaps are in landing position
* Continuous ignition switch is ON
275
When will the EEC select approach idle on the ground?
Thrust reverser operation and for 5 sec after landing
276
When is N1 and N2 overspeed protection available?
In both normal and alternate EEC modes
277
Does the thrust reverser operate of the engine isn't running?
No, requires bleed air from it's engine
278
How do you know that the reverser is fully deployed?
the REV on the EICAS turns green
279
Where is vibration detected?
· Fan
· Low Pressure Turbine (LPT)
· N2
· Broad Band (BB)
280
Are all vibration sources displayed?
No, only the highest?
281
When is · Broad Band (BB) vibration displayed?
When the source cannot be determined
282
How can airframe vibration due to engine malfunction be reduced?
Descending and reducing speed, if this does not work, increasing airspeed slightly may alleviate
283
Can the APU be started in flight?
No
284
How many packs can the APU run?
all 3 on ground except during engine start and 1 in flight up to 15,000ft
285
Where does the APU take fuel from?
Main tank 2
286
What happens when the APU detects a fire?
APU shuts down and on the ground the Fire bottle discharges automatically
287
Where is the APU ground access control?
Right body gear wheel well
288
Which battery/batteries does the APU require to start?
Main and APU
289
What are the APU battery start cooling times?
1, 1, 75 minutes
290
What precaution must be taken when shutting down the APU?
Battery should remain on during APU cooldown (2 minutes after APU selected off)
291
What are the 3 types of EICAS message?
Alert (Warning, Caution, Advisory)
Memo
Status
292
Do all alert messages have checklist steps?
No the careted ones don't
293
What is the difference between an EICAS advisory and caution?
Advisory are indented
294
What do status messages affect?
Dispatch
295
When will the takeoff config warning sound?
ON ground
Fuel control in run
ENG 2 or 3 in takeoff range
SPD
296
When does the "approaching altitude" indicate?
900-300ft of selected alt
297
When is the pilot alert function inhibited?
Below 20,000ft, flaps not up or on climb
298
Which ND modes can TCAS not be displayed?
Centred and plan
299
When must a descend RA not be followed?
below 1000ft AGL
300
What does the GPWS terrain database not account fot?
Man-made obstructions
301
With regard to terrain on the ND, what do the colours represent?
```
Green = 2000-500ft(250 gear down) below
Amber = 500ft(250 gear down)-2000ft above
Red = >2000ft above
```
302
What warrants a terrain escape maneuver?
any "PULL UP" annunciation
303
When LLWS is entered into FDP, what does it assume?
Flap 20, max thrust, Higher Vr(up to 20kts) and V2
304
When does PWS operate (departure)?
12 seconds after beginning scanning which occurs once thrust lever (2/3) in TO range
305
When does PWS operate (arrival)?
Begins scanning below 2300ft, PWS activates below 1200ft RA
306
What parameters below 500ft would indicate windshear?
```
deviations plus or minus:
500ft
15kts
5 deg pitch
1 dot GS
Unusual thrust for prolonged period
```
307
How is pitch controlled?
4 elevators and moveable horizontal stabiliser
308
How are the elevators powered?
4 Hydraulic systems, L,R by 1,4 respectively
| Centre by 1/2, 3/4 for each side
309
How is elevator feel and trim powered?
3,4 hydraulic systems
310
How are the elevators controlled?
Signals from control column control inboard panels, inboard panel position controls outboard
311
What happens to elevator feel if hydraulic systems 2 & 4 fail?
elevator feel is provided by springs
312
With respect to autopilots, when is stab trim inhibited?
When more than 1 autopilot is engaged
313
What are the 3 positions of the stabiliser cutout switches and what do they do?
ON- supplies constant pressure to STCM (stabiliser trim control module)
Auto- normal position
CUTOUT- removes hydraulic pressure from stabiliser trim
314
How fast does the horizontal stabilizer move?
Faster at low airspeed, slower at higher airspeed.
315
Is there a crosscheck of stab trim green band position?
Yes, the nose gear oleo has a sensor which compares the green band position and if it disagrees, displays >STAB GREENBAND
316
What does STAB TRIM UNSCHD mean
The stabiliser trim is moving unscheduled
317
What provides roll control?
5 spoiler panels per wing and inboard and outboard ailerons
318
When do the outboard ailerons lockout?
above 238kts
319
Which systems power the spoilers?
2,3,4 with no duplication
320
Which systems power the ailerons?
LO, LI, RI, RO
1/2, 1/3, 2/4, 3/4
respectively
321
Can aileron trim be used when autopilot is engaged?
No, Strictly FORBIDDEN
322
Which spoilers are represented on the EICAS status display?
LH = fourth from wing tip (only indication of speedbrake operation)
RH = closest to wingtip
Both provide for ground spoiler and roll control.
323
What are the flap settings?
1, 5, 10, 20, 25, 30
324
What are the take-off / Landing flap settings?
10/20, 25/30
325
How many LE flap groups are there?
3 per wing
326
How are the LE flaps driven?
Pneumatically with electric backup
327
How many TE flap groups are there?
2, inboard and outboard
328
How are the TE flaps driven?
Hydraulically with electric backup.
System 1 = inboard
System 4 = outboard
329
When do LE flaps extend?
inboard and mid-span at 1, TE and outer LE at 5
330
How many control modes do flaps have?
Primary, Secondary and Alternate
331
How does the alternate flap extension differ?
All flaps extend simultaneously and to a max 25 setting. On retraction all LE retract once TE have retracted
332
How does primary flap operation compare to seocndary?
Primary and pneumatic/hydraulic, secondary is electric
333
When is flap load relief available?
Primary mode only
334
How is flap asymmetry prevented?
TE outboard and inboard are mechanically linked respectively.
335
If one flap group goes to secondary mode, what happens to the rest of them?
The opposite side goes to secondary mode to maintain symmetry however the rest stay in primary except mid and inboard LE act as a single group
336
After operating in secondary mode, can flaps switch back to primary?
Yes, depending on the reason for secondary mode
337
How many flap control units are there?
3 FCUs
338
How does alternate flap operate?
Electrically driven by rotary switch
339
What is a precaution in alternate flap mode?
No asymmetry protection
340
When is flap load relief available?
25 and 30 deg in primary only
341
How many spoiler panels are there?
6 per wing
342
which spoilers are activated in flight?
inner 4 on each wing
343
What happens to spoilers if hydraulics are lost?
Symmetrical panels become unusable
344
With spoilers armed, when do they deploy?
thrust lever 1&3 near idle and main gear on ground.
345
Can spoilers deploy automatically without being armed?
Yes, if thrust levers 2 & 4 are in the reverse idle. Spoilers will stow if thrust levers 1 or 3 are advanced
346
How many rudders are there?
2
347
Which systems power the rudders?
1 & 3 Upper
| 2 & 4 lower
348
How many rudder ratio changers are there?
2, one for upper, one for lower rudder
349
When a rudder ratio changer fails, what effect does it have?
It will limit the rudder movement to the situation it failed in. Eg. low speed high travel, high speed low travel
350
How many yaw dampers are there and do the rudder pedals move?
2, one for upper, one for lower rudder, no
351
Which systems power the yaw dampers?
3-upper, 2-lower
352
Which hydraulic systems provide power to the landing gear?
1 powers nose and body gear actuation and steering, 4 actuates the wing gear
353
How many brake systems are there?
normal and alternate
354
How are the normal and alternate brakes powered?
normal: 4
alternate: 1 & 2
355
When is anti-skid available?
normal and alternate
356
When is autobrake available?
Normal brakes only
357
Which system operates the brakes?
4
358
What is the brake accumulator used for?
Park brake only
359
What numbers are used for brake temperature and what is their significance?
0-4 normal, 5-9 high
360
What is minimum brake cooling time?
70 mins
361
What happens to the brake system if HYD pressure 4 is low?
System 1 supplies pressure
362
What happens to the brake system if HYD pressure 4 and 1 is low?
System 2 supplies pressure
363
If the brake temp is high, how long after reaching normal range should the gear be retracted?
8 mins
364
What is the difference between anti-skid protection in normal and alternate?
Normal, each wheel has protection, in alternate it is provided to each wheel pair
365
What protections are provided by anti-skid and how are they achieved?
Touchdown and Hydroplane Protection - Uses Inertial Ground Speed
Locked Wheel Protection - Compares Wheel Speeds
366
What systems are required for autobrake to function?
Anti-skid and normal brakes
367
What activates RTO autobrakes?
All thrust levers to closed above 85kts
368
When do autobrakes activate on landing?
- On the ground
- Wheels spin up detected, and
- All thrust levers are closed.
369
What deactivates the autobrakes?
* Pedal braking applied
* Any Thrust lever advanced after landing
* Speedbrake lever moved to DOWN detent (after they have deployed on the ground)
* DISARM or OFF position selected
370
When can wing anti ice be operated?
in flight only
371
What is an implication of WAI and LE flaps?
with LE flaps extended WAI is innefective
372
When can EAI be used?
ON ground and in flight
373
How is probe heat operated?
There are no controls, automatically on with engines on, except TAT inhibited on ground
374
How is window heat controlled?
Window heat for front windshields on control panel, side windows are automatic
375
Where are the ice detector probes and when do they operate?
Forward lower fuselage only in flight
376
If the oxygen mask is used, how is the headset mike re-instated?
Close the mask box and press the PRESS TO TEST AND RE-SET switch
377
What is the V, B, R switch in the centre of the audio control panel?
It filters Voice, Both or Range (morse) from the Nav receivers
378
When does the RADIO TRANSMIT EICAS message apppear?
Radio transmission for greater then 30 seconds
379
What stuck mike protection is there on the ground?
On the ground, any VHF radio transmitting for longer than 35 seconds is disabled following annunciation of a warning beep.
380
How do you transmit on the FLT interphone?
Selecting MIC and using like any other radio or
| Use the INT position on the ACP or Control wheel
381
What is the FLT interphone connected to?
Nose wheel well audio panel
382
What does the SERV INTERPHONE switch enable?
Connects various ground crew stations around the aircraft to the FLT interphone
383
Where does the PA transmit?
Upper deck only
384
On the freighter call panel, where does U/D connect to ?
Upper deck seating area
385
On the freighter call panel, where does CARGO connect to ?
Main cargo deck
386
On the freighter call panel, where does GND connect to ?
Nose wheel well
387
How many VHF radios are there?
3, L,C,R
388
What are the VHF radios used for?
L/R are voice, C is data for ACARS however can be used for Voice
389
What should be displayed on the C audio tuning panel?
ACARS or DATA
390
How many HF radios are there?
2, L and R
391
When an HAF radio is tuned, how is a failure annunciated?
A tone lasting longer the 7 seconds
392
Can two HF radios transmit at once?
No, there is only one antenna however they can both receive at once.
393
When is the CVR powered?
Whenever AC power available
394
What does the CVR record?
2 pilot mics, 1st observer mic and area mic
395
How can CVR be erased?
On ground, park brake set with AC power available, press erase for 3 sec
396
On the CVR, how is a positive test annunciated?
Green light after test
