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Atlas Air > 747 CBT > Flashcards

747 CBT Flashcards

1
Q

What are the primary sources of power?

A

4 IDGs, 2 EXT, 2 APU GENs.

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2
Q

When is Aux power available?

A

Only on the ground

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3
Q

Where are the ground power plug in points?

A

External power is available from ground sources through two power receptacles located on the lower right corner of the fuselage.

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4
Q

When using 2 Aux pwr (APU) how is the aircraft powered?

A

Each APU powers it’s respective side.

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5
Q

What does the electrical synoptic display?

A

AC power only, status of various system breakers and conductors and does not represent actual power flow.

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6
Q

What happens of the IDG disconnect is pushed?

A

IDG disconnected and only reversible on the ground by maintenance

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7
Q

When on the ground and power sources are switched, is there a momentary loss of power?

A

No, sources a momentarily synchronized prior to changeover.

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8
Q

If a bus tie breaker opens, will the bus lose power?

A

No, it will still be powered from it’s respective IDG

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9
Q

If a generator control breaker opens, will the bus lose power?

A

No, it will still be powered from the other remaining IDGs Busses.

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10
Q

What are some things that the AC Busses Power?

A

· TRUs
· Navigation radios and flight control computers
· Flight Deck Lighting
· Pitot and Window Heat

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11
Q

When is the ground handling bus powered?

A

automatically when either #1 auxiliary power source is available

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12
Q

What does the ground handling bus power?

A

· Lower cargo handling equipment and compartment lights
· Fueling system
· Auxillary hydraulic pump 4

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13
Q

What does the cargo handling bus power?

A

· Main Deck Cargo Handling Equipment and lights

· Nose and Side Cargo Doors

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14
Q

When is the cargo handling bus powered?

A

automatically when either #2 auxiliary power source is available

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15
Q

How is main deck cargo handling bus powered?

A

Preference given to External power and will only be powered if not powering the aircraft. If both sources are available, can use one to power aircraft and the other to power Cargo.

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16
Q

What does the ground service bus power?

A

Main and APU battery chargers
· Fuel pumps for APU start
· Passenger and 400C Emergency Exit Doors
· Flight deck flood, navigation, and service lights
· Miscellaneous service outlets and equipment

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17
Q

How is the ground service bus powered?

A

AC bus 1 or from the same source as the ground handling bus by selecting the switch next to door 1L

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18
Q

How is the captains transfer bus powered?

A

Usually from AC bus #3 otherwise AC bus #1

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19
Q

How is the FOs transfer bus powered?

A

Usually from AC bus #2 otherwise AC bus #1

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20
Q

Some items that the utility busses power include?

A

· Forward main fuel pumps 2 and 3
· Forward override/jettison pumps 2 and 3
· Center override/jettison pump
· Galley Equipment

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21
Q

DC power supplies certain equipment, some of which is?

A

· Cabin pressure, fuel jettison, and pack temperature controllers
· Wing anti-ice control
· Engine-driven and hydraulic demand pump control
· Fuel transfer and jettison valve control
· Individual nacelle anti-ice control

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22
Q

What are some of the items powered by the Main battery bus?

A

· APU Controller (alternate), Fuel Valves (all engines), All Crossfeed Valves
· Dome, Storm, and Selected Indicator Lights
· DG disconnect (all engines), Manual Pressurization Control, Trailing Edge Flap Control
· Captain’s Interphone, Left Radio Tuning Panel, Left VHF

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23
Q

What are some of the items powered by the APU battery bus?

A

· APU DC Fuel Pump, Engine Start Air Control
· Cargo, First Officer, and Service Interphones, PA System
· Captain Interphone, left radio tuning panel, left VHF, nacelle anti-ice control
· APU and Engine Fire/Overheat Detection Loops A and B

· APU Fire Warning Horn

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24
Q

How are the APU and Main battery busses powered?

A

By DC Bus #3 but only if AC Bus #3 is also on. If not, then directly from respective hot battery.

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25
Q

Some of the items powered by the Main hot battery bus include?

A

· APU Fuel Shutoff Valve, SparvValves (all engines)
· APU and Lower Cargo Fire Extinguishers
· Engine Fire Extinguishers (all engines), Fire Switch Unlock (all engines)

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26
Q

Some of the items powered by the APU hot battery bus include?

A

· IRU Left, Center, Right DC power
· Left and Right Outflow Valves
· APU Inlet Door, Apu Controller (primary)

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27
Q

What happens to the DC busses during an Autoland approach?

A

AC and DC busses 1, 2 and 3 are isolated from the synchronous bus to provide independent power sources for the three autopilots. AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus

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28
Q

When is Autoland Isolation cancelled?

A

IF: All autopilots disengage
• TO/GA mode is annuciated and the airplane is higher than 100 feet radio altitude
• Approach mode is disarmed or deselected
• Electrical system unable to maintain a configuration for autoland bus isolation

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29
Q

The main standby bus powers what?

A 
· Left EIU, Left CDU, Left ILS, Left VOR
· Various Flight Control Components
· Standby Ignition for All Enginers
· Primary EICAS Display, RMI, Standby Instrument Lights
· Left ADC, Left EFIS Control Panel
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30
Q

How long can the Main battery supply the main standby bus?

A

Minimum 30min

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31
Q

What does the APU standby bus power?

A

Left FMC
Left ND
Left PFD

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32
Q

How many Hydraulic systems are there?

A

4, 1 per engine

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33
Q

Which systems does hydraulic system 1 power?

A
  • Inboard Trailing Edge Flaps
  • Body Gear Actuation & Steering
  • Nose Gear Actuation & Steering
  • Alternate Brakes
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34
Q

Which systems does hydraulic system 2 power?

A

• Alternate Brakes

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35
Q

Which systems does hydraulic system 4 power?

A
  • Outboard Trailing Edge Flaps
  • Wing Gear Actuation
  • Normal Brakes
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36
Q

How many pumps power the respective hydraulic systems and what is their output?

A

1 Engine driven and 1 demand pump, each can put out 3000PSI

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37
Q

How are the demand pumps driven?

A

1 and 4 are air driven while 2 & 3 are electric.

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38
Q

What differs about Hydraulic system 4?

A

it has an electrically driven auxiliary pump used for ground handling prior to engine start.

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39
Q

If a magenta RF is shown next to the hydraulic reservoir, what does this mean?

A

The reservoir must be refilled.

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40
Q

Where are the fuel quantity and temperature sensors?

A

Temperature sensor in tank 1 only, Quantity in each tank

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41
Q

How many fuel tanks are there and what are their designations?

A

Centre wing (CWT)
Main 1,2,3,4
Reserve 2,3

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42
Q

How many fuel pumps are there in the main tanks?

A

2 AC in each main tank and 2 Overide/Jettison in tanks 2&3

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43
Q

How many fuel pumps are there in the CWT?

A

2 Overide/Jettison pumps

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44
Q

When does the fuel quantity change colour to amber?

A

Below -37C

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45
Q

What is the maximum fuel capacity?

A

163,042 KG

203,066 litres

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46
Q

How much capacity do the fuel pumps have?

A

One pump can operate two engines at cruise thrust or one engine at takeoff thrust.

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47
Q

Where is APU fuel taken from?

A

Main Tank 2

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48
Q

When on the ground after engine start, where do engines draw fuel from?

A

CWT

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49
Q

Once flaps are extended for take-off, where do the engines draw fuel from?

A

1 and #4 from CWT, #2 & #3 from respective main tanks

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50
Q

After take-off, when does CWT fuel supply all engines?

A

When flaps are out of the range 10-20

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51
Q

When should you not jettison fuel (config)

A

With flaps between 1-5

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52
Q

What occurs when either jettison nozzle valve switch is pushed?

A

Activates the override/jettison pumps and opens all jettison valves. The pumps must already be on.

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53
Q

When does the reserve tank fuel drain into tanks 2/3?

A

When main tank fuel in 2 or 3 respectively is 18200kg or less.

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54
Q

Fire detection, warning and extinguishing are provided for which areas?

A

engines, APU, lower cargo compartments, and the lavatory.

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55
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for the each system?

A

1-APU, 2 on each side for 2 engines, 4 for the FWD and AFT lower cargo compartment.

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56
Q

Does the APU compartment have overheat protection?

A

No

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57
Q

What is the sensing method used for the engines and APU for fire and heat?

A

Dual loop fire and overheat detection for each engine (4 loops). Dual loop fire detection only for APU

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58
Q

Where is the APU ground control panel?

A

Left body gear wheel well.

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59
Q

Maximum Range?

A

7200nm

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60
Q

What is the Maximum Operating Altitude?

A

45,100’ PA

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61
Q

What is the Maximum Altitude for Takeoff and Landing?

A

10,000’ PA

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62
Q

What is the Maximum Field Elevation?

A

9,500’ MSL

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63
Q

What is the Runway Slope?

A

+/- 2%

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64
Q

What is the Maximum Speed Operating in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace?

A

0.90 Mach

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65
Q

Where are the door locations?

A

RHS: 2x Lower cargo doors, and upper deck service door.
LHS: Main deck aft cargo door, and front and rear main deck entry doors.

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66
Q

where does external power plug in?

A

Two External Power Receptacles are located on the lower right forward fuselage.

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67
Q

Where is flight crew oxygen sourced?

A

The Flight Crew oxygen system uses gaseous cylinders (2) to supply oxygen to the masks at each flight deck seat. The oxygen is provided at 100% or diluted

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68
Q

How many temperature zones are there?

A

7

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69
Q

How many packs are there?

A

3

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70
Q

When can wing anti-ice operate?

A

Airborne only.

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71
Q

When can nacelle anti-ice operate?

A

Airborne or on the ground

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72
Q

Is bleed air anti icing automatic?

A

Some aircraft are automatic, some are on or off.

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73
Q

How many probes are there and how are they protected from Ice?

A

4 pitot/static, 2 TAT and 2 AOA. They are electrically heated and have no controls.

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74
Q

Which hydraulic systems power which parts of the aircraft?

A

Heavy load items (landing gear, brakes, flaps, etc) are powered by systems 1 and 4. The primary power source for the Primary Flight controls are systems 2 and 3.

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75
Q

Which landing gear is steerable?

A

Nose and body gear

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76
Q

How does fuel get to the APU if no AC power is available?

A

Dedicated DC pump in main tank 2

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77
Q

Can the APU be operated in flight?

A

Yes but only for bleed air and cannot be started inflight.

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78
Q

What is the APUs service ceiling?

A

20,000ft

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79
Q

What is the APU able to provide?

A

All electrical on the ground.
Air needs on ground except during engine start
One pack up to 15,000ft

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80
Q

How are the thrust reversers actuated?

A

Bleed air

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81
Q

How many elevators are there?

A

4, 2 per side

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82
Q

How many spoilers are there?

A

12, 10 of which assist roll control.

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83
Q

Which spoilers function as speed brakes?

A

The inboard 8

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84
Q

How many Rudders are there?

A

2, upper and lower

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85
Q

How are the flaps powered?

A

The leading edge flaps are normally powered by bleed air and the trailing edge by the hydraulic system

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86
Q

If the primary flap drive fails, is there an alternate method?

A

Yes, electric motor.

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87
Q

What is the aircraft wingspan? -400

A

213’, 64.9m

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88
Q

What is the aircraft length? -400

A

231’ 10’’

70.7m

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89
Q

What is the nosewheel distance from nose? -400

A

25’ 0’’

7.6m

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90
Q

Which part of the aircraft traces the largest arc during a turn?

A

Wingtips

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91
Q

What is the minimum radius free of obstructions required for a 180deg turn?

A

Wing Tip Radius 149’ 0’’ (45.4m)

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92
Q

What is the minimum Pavement Width for a 180 deg turn?

A

153’ 0’’

46.6m

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93
Q

How does gear lever position affect landing lights?

A

When gear lever is in down position it will be at full bright, otherwise dimmed.

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94
Q

If normal electrical power is lost, is there any cockpit lighting?

A

flood lights operate from standby electrical power.

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95
Q

Where are the freighter Aircraft light Switch Locations?

A

· Upper Deck Cabin Services Module (CSM) at Door 1L,
· Right Upper Deck Service door,
· Main Equipment Center Lower hatch

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96
Q

Where do the emergency lights get their power from and how long do they last?

A

powered by remote batteries. Battery charge is provided by DC bus 4. A fully charged battery provides at least 15 minutes of operation for the associated light.

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97
Q

Where are the blowout discs for the aircraft emergency oxygen systems?

A

There is one disc for both systems, on RHS aft of lower FWD cargo door.

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98
Q

How does the crew oxygen mask Mic get activated?

A

Opening the left side mask box door.

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99
Q

What does the normal position on the crew oxygen mask supply?

A

Mix of ambient air and oxygen, the mix ratio is dependent on cabin pressure.

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100
Q

What does the emergency position do on the crew oxygen mask?

A

Supplies 100% oxygen under pressure.

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101
Q

What is the maximum acceptable drop in oxy pressure during test of a single mask?

A

100PSI

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102
Q

When do oxygen masks deploy?

A

Cabin altitude >14000ft or when activated in cockpit.

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103
Q

What is the supernumerary oxygen system capable of supplying?

A

195 minutes of oxygen @

Cabin altitude of 25,000

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104
Q

Can the supernumerary oxygen system be re-set?

A

Yes, if below 12,000ft by using the reset switch

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105
Q

How long can portable oxygen bottles supply oxygen?

A

approximately 2 hours.

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106
Q

Where do the packs normally get bleed air from?

A

Pack one left manifold, Pack 2 Centre manifold, Pack 3 right manifold.

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107
Q

Is there any way of knowing if conditioned air is connected to the aircraft?

A

No

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108
Q

How many pack temperature controllers are there and what do they do?

A

2 and each has 3 channels, one for each pack. Only one operates and normally swap on each landing.

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109
Q

What is the temperature range that can be set on the master temperature controller for each zone?

A

18-29 deg C

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110
Q

By how much can cabin temperature control on the upper deck differ from the master?

A

+- 6deg C

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111
Q

How is foot and shoulder heat supplied?

A

Electrically

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112
Q

Where is ventilation provided?

A

Galley, Lavatory, Crew Rest and Supernumerary Gaspers.

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113
Q

Where is ventilated air drawn from?

A

Galley and lavatory

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114
Q

How many ventilation fans are there?

A

2, primary and backup

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115
Q

What effect does hi flow on the pack have on fuel burn?

A

High flow during cruise will

increase total fuel consumption by approximately 0.3% for each operating pack.

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116
Q

For automatic PTC switching to occur…

A

Trim Air must be ON

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117
Q

What is the PTC and how many are there?

A

Pack Temperature Controller, 2

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118
Q

How are the pack valves operated?

A

Electrically controlled, bleed air operated

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119
Q

What controls temperature in each zone?

A

ZTC, Zone Temperature Controller

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120
Q

Is there any part of the aircraft that does not require the master trim air switch to be on for air conditioning?

A

Yes, lower lobe cargo bays

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121
Q

Can the lower lobe cargo air supply duct shutoff valves be re-set after an overheat?

A

Yes, by switching off the lower lobe flow rate switch.

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122
Q

Which packs generally supply the lower lobe cargo compartments?

A

Pack two aft, pack 3 FWD

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123
Q

What is the difference between low and high on the lower lobe cargo air selector?

A

Low=2/3 of pack air, High=all pack air.

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124
Q

What is different when lower lobe cargo air is selected on high?

A

The selected pack will supply the correct temperature for that compartment and the ZTC will control the remaining 2 packs.

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125
Q

When the lower lobe cargo air is selected on low, what happens?

A

the ZTC limits the outlet temperature of the pack supplying the selected lower lobe cargo compartment to be not higher than the outlet temperature of the other two packs

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126
Q

What is the default FD/Crew rest area temperature?

A

24C

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127
Q

What temperature range is the main deck temperature selector on the overhead panel?

A

4-29 Deg C

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128
Q

What does the MAN selection do on the main deck temperature selector?

A

Allows for manual positioning of the trim air valves.

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129
Q

What does the FLT DECK FAN switch do?

A

on the ground with packs off, circulates cabin air. With at least one pack on, the fan increases the flow of conditioned air to the flight deck.

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130
Q

What is the FLIGHT DECK TEMP selector range?

A

18-29 deg C

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131
Q

What does pressing the zone re-set switch do?

A

Resets the Trim Air System

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132
Q

How is the AFT cargo heated?

A

AFT cargo heat switch, hot bleed air.

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133
Q

How is the FWD cargo heated?

A

heated air from the E&E compartment heats the forward cargo compartment

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134
Q

How many cabin altitude controllers are there?

A

2, A&B

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135
Q

How do the outflow valves operate?

A

The two outflow valves normally operate in parallel, however full cabin altitude and full ventilation rates can be maintained by one valve in the event the other valve has failed.

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136
Q

What is the Maximum Differential Pressure?

A

9.4 PSI

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137
Q

What happens if a positive pressure relief valve opens?

A

Pack 2 shuts down

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138
Q

What does the EICAS: PRESS RELIEF message mean?

A

Either pressure relief valve opens with all packs operating.

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139
Q

How many and where are the negative pressure relief valves located?

A

2 in each main cargo door (6 total)

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140
Q

What is the Maximum Allowable Cabin Pressure Differential for Takeoff and Landing?

A

0.11 psi.

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141
Q

How are the outflow valves driven?

A

Automatic are AC, manual are DC

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142
Q

Where does the cabin altitude controller get elevation info?

A

FMC

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143
Q

When does the Cabin Altitude Limiter operate?

A

when cabin altitude exceeds 11,000ft

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144
Q

What does the Cabin Altitude Limiter do?

A

Shuts both outflow valves, only if in automatic mode.

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145
Q

What altitude does the cabin altitude controller use if there is no altitude in the FMC?

A

39,000ft

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146
Q

What maximum altitude does the cabin climb to?

A

8000ft

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147
Q

If the aircraft departs from a field elevation higher than 8,000 feet what does the cabin altitude controller do?

A

Descends the cabin altitude to the scheduled cabin cruise altitude during the climb

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148
Q

What is the landing elevation range available for the pressurization system?

A

-1000ft to 14,000ft

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149
Q

If landing data is unavailable, what altitude does the cabin altitude controller assume?

A

2000ft

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150
Q

When landing at elevations 8000-10,000ft how do you control the pressurisation system?

A

Set to manual and 8000ft during CLB and CRZ. Set AUTO prior to descent.

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151
Q

What is the primary means of gaining performance info with ACARS available?

A

FDP

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152
Q

What is the primary means of gaining performance info with ACARS not-available?

A

TLR

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153
Q

What is the backup method for FDP/TLR?

A

Dispatch, who uses an online version of FDP

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154
Q

How are DDG items entered onto FDP?

A

Dispatch enters them as part of flight planning and Pilots MUST check they show on the ACARS Data page 2 and FDP-REMARKS

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155
Q

What does and * next to MTOW on FDR indicate?

A

Indicates MTOW

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156
Q

When will FDP not work?

A

When ACARS Origin, date, FLT No. doesnt match TLR or if requested more than 8 hours after TLR

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157
Q

Do the TLR and OFP revision numbers have to match?

A

No

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158
Q

What does MFPTW on TLR indicate?

A

Maximum Flight Plan Take-off Weight, Actual take-off weight must not exceed this

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159
Q

When doing a assumed temp de-rate D-TO, what does the MT on the TLR indicate?

A

the assumed temperature.

160
Q

If no AUTOLAND performance data is listed on a separate F30 table, what are the implications?

A

Add 1000ft to the landing distance on TLR

161
Q

What change in ZFW will require a new OFP?

A

10 tonnes

162
Q

When an EICAS alert is preceded by a >, what implications does this have?

A

The checklist does not need to be consulted.

163
Q

Which CBs are prohibited from re-set?

A

Fuel pump and fuel pump control

164
Q

Which QRH action items require confirmation?

A 
Thrust lever
Fuel control
Fire switches
Gen drive disconnect
IRS mode selector
165
Q

How many FCC (flight control computers) are there?

A

3

166
Q

In normal flight, what does the autopilot control?

A

Ailerons and elevator

167
Q

When does HOLD engage on takeoff roll?

A

65kts

168
Q

When will annunciations on an autoland be inhibited?

A

200ft

169
Q

What does the FD indicate on take-off?

A

8 deg NU, then V2+10 - V2+25 once airborne

170
Q

When will the autothrottle disconnect?

A

When more than 1 engine failed.

171
Q

When does the IAS/Mach display on the MCP automatically change?

A

310/0.84

172
Q

When can autothrottles not be switched on

A

If 2 FMCs or Engines fail

173
Q

When does VNAV engage on climb?

A

400ft

174
Q

When does TO/GA mode arm on approach?

A

When flaps are selected away from 0 or glideslope is captured.

175
Q

Is there any indication that TO/GA mode is armed on approach?

A

Yes, GA annunciates on the EICAS as the thrust limit

176
Q

When must LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciate to allow an AUTOLAND?

A

600ft

177
Q

Mmo?

A

0.90 Mach

178
Q

Vle?

A

270KIAS 0.82M

179
Q

Vlo?

A

320KIAS 0.82M

180
Q

What are the flap operation limitations with regard to fuel jettison?

A

Do NOT operate flaps between 1 and 5 during fuel jettison.

181
Q

What are the flap limit speeds?

A 
1-   280
5-  260
10- 240
20- 230
25- 205
30- 180
182
Q

What happens if TOGA not pushed by 50kts?

A

cannot engage autothrottles until 400ft

183
Q

What tracking does TO/GA provide?

A

Ground track on take-off, ground track during go-around at the time TOGA was pushed.

184
Q

When will LNAV capture the track?

A

within 2.5nm

185
Q

If HDG SEL is engaged, how will the aircraft follow the bug?

A

Shortest distance if engaging, if already engaged, direction of heading bug turn.

186
Q

What AoB does auto provide on the HDG SEL knob?

A

15-25 deg AoB, except during ILS

187
Q

Will VNAV descend below the MCP altitude?

A

No

188
Q

What happens if TOGA is pressed after T/O?

A

All de-rates are removed and THR REF is activated

189
Q

When is TOGA inhibited on go-around?

A

2 seconds after descending through 5ft RA until climbing through 5ft RA

190
Q

What happens if a PFD fails?

A

It is automatically displayed on the ND

191
Q

Where are the PFD/ND controls?

A

On glareshield and through CDU

192
Q

How many ADC are there?

A

2

193
Q

How many IRS are there?

A

3

194
Q

What is an EIU and how many are there?

A

EICAS Interface Unit, provides info to PFD and ND, 3

195
Q

How many FMCs are there?

A

2

196
Q

How many CDUs are there?

A

3

197
Q

If both FMCs fail, where can navigation info be obtained for the ND?

A

CDU

198
Q

What is an FCC and how many are there?

A

Flight Control Computer, 3, used to drive FD commands.

199
Q

Which switch determines which side LOC and GS info is displayed on the PFD and ND?

A

EIU Selector

200
Q

When does the landing altitude reference on the PFD change from DEP to ARR

A

400nm or halfway whichever occurs 1st

201
Q

What happens if the Baro setting is not changed through transition?

A

300ft above or below the baro will turn orange and be boxed.

202
Q

In LOC expanded mode, what does one rectangle deviation indicate?

A

1/2 dot deviation

203
Q

On an LCD display when does the Slip/Skid indicator fill solid white?

A

At full scale deviation

204
Q

How is the standby AH powered?

A

Main battery

205
Q

Where does the standby ASI get it’s information from?

A

Pitot 1 and alternate static, displays uncorrected airspeed

206
Q

If both FMCs fail and navigation reverts to CDU, what is no longer available?

A

LNAV, VNAV, Autothrottles.

207
Q

What is the difference between dashed and boxed lines in the FMS?

A

Boxed=required information

dashed=optional

208
Q

What is the difference between small and large font in the FMS?

A

Large=manually entered or required limit

Small=FMS calculated

209
Q

What is max range/min fuel cost index?

A

0

210
Q

What is the FMS RVSM step climb increment?

A

4000ft

211
Q

For FMS entry, where is ZFW read from?

A

FDP or if unavailable, TLR and Loadsheet

212
Q

Can FMC V speeds be used?

A

No, they are based on balanced field and not authorized, use FDP V speeds.

213
Q

What controls speed in VNAV PTH?

A

Thrust

214
Q

What controls speed in VNAV SPD?

A

Pitch

215
Q

What does VNAV ALT mean?

A

When MCP altitude is restricting FMC planned altitude

216
Q

How can Max Rate climb be roughly calculated?

A

Max angle + 25 kts until M0.84

217
Q

How do you enter Lat/Long into FMS?

A

N/S with 4 figure group + decimal

then E/W with 5 figure group + Decimal

218
Q

What does OPT altitude on the FMS not take into account?

A

Wind

219
Q

How far ahead does the RECMD altitude look?

A

500nm

220
Q

How far ahead does the “step to” altitude look?

A

whole flight plan

221
Q

If descending prior to ToD, what does the FMS command?

A

1250FPM descent until intercepting VNAV descent path.

222
Q

What is the difference when commencing early descent prior to, or after 50nm to ToD?

A

Outside 50, CRZ speed, inside, Descent speed.

223
Q

When will waypoints sequence?

A

within 21nm

224
Q

How many transponders are fitted?

A

2, both controlled through 1 panel

225
Q

When will the ON BATT light illuminate on the maintenance panel for the IRS?

A

If AC power has failed and the APU hot batt bus is supplying DC power

226
Q

How many IRUs are there?

A

3, L, C, R

227
Q

When AC power is lost what powers the IRUs?

A

DC power from APU hot batt however the C IRU only for 5 min

228
Q

How long does IRU alignment take?

A

10mins

229
Q

Where does the autobrake get reference deceleration from?

A

The IRU selected on the captains’ side

230
Q

If an IRU selector is moved from NAV to ATT in flight, what is the implication?

A

Cannot operate in NAV mode until full ground alignment is commpleted

231
Q

The IRS is the sole source of attitude and heading signals to the AFDS, PFD, and ND, true or false?

A

True

232
Q

What radio navigation systems are there?

A

2, VOR, ADF, DME and 3xILS

233
Q

What is different about the ADF?

A

Must be tuned manually

234
Q

What powers the 747-400?

A

General Electric CF6-80C2-B1F (derated B5F)

General Electric CF6-80C2-B5F

235
Q

How many spools are there on the engines?

A

2

236
Q

How are the engines started?

A

Bleed air

237
Q

How are the reversers activated?

A

Pneumatic, bleed air

238
Q

What primary engine data is always displayed?

A

N1, EGT

239
Q

When is secondary engine data displayed?

A

When selected, on initial power up and if a fuel control is selected to cutoff in flight

240
Q

How many igniters are there per engine?

A

2

241
Q

How many engine fuel pumps are there and when do they operate?

A

2, N2 rotation

242
Q

Which engine related fuel valves shut when the fire switch is pulled?

A

Spar and engine fuel valves and the metering valve.

243
Q

Which engine related fuel valves shut when the fuel control switch is in cuttoff?

A

Spar and engine fuel valves and the metering valve.

244
Q

What does the engine oil system lubricate?

A

· Engine Bearings

· Accessory Gearbox

245
Q

Where are oil temperature and pressure measured?

A

Temp: downstream of engine
Press: Upstream of engine

246
Q

How many pumps are there in the engine oil system?

A

2, scavenge and Main

247
Q

What happens if the primary EICAS screen fails, can secondary engine indications be viewed?

A

Primary EICAS will be displayed on secondary screen and secondary data can be viewd in compact form by pressing ENG

248
Q

What is different about N1 indications compared to other engine parameters?

A

Max N1 is an amber line and does not change colour when reached

249
Q

Where is bleed air sourced for engine start?

A

APU
Ground cart
Other engine

250
Q

When would both igniters be activated?

A

When selected or automatically for an inflight re-start or flameout

251
Q

With the STBY switch in NORM on the Engine Start and Ignition Panel, what does this do?

A

With the Standby (STBY) Ignition Selector in NORM, AC power system supplies power to selected igniters. If AC power system is not powered, then standby power system supplies power continuously to all igniters.

252
Q

With the STBY switch in 1 or 2 on the Engine Start and Ignition Panel, what does this do?

A

With the Standby (STBY) Ignition Selector in 1 or 2, standby power system supplies power continuously to the selected igniters regardless of Auto Ignition Selector position.

253
Q

What does the AUTO switch do on the Engine Start and Ignition Panel?

A

Selects whether a SINGLE or BOTH igniters are used for all starts.

254
Q

When does ignition automatically activate?

A

· during start when the Start switch is out and the N2 RPM is less than 50%
· anytime the engine Nacelle anti-ice is ON
· an engine flameout is detected
· Trailing edge flaps out of up position

255
Q

Does CON ignition have any effect on RPM?

A

Min RPM is commanded to approach idle

256
Q

What does Pulling the Start switch out do?

A

arms the start valve and opens the engine bleed air valve

257
Q

When is starter cutout?

A

50% N2

258
Q

What happens after starter cutout?

A

The start valve and engine bleed valve will close.

The light in the START switch will go out when the start valve has closed. The ignition will be cut off.

259
Q

What will autostart abort for?

A
  • Hot start
  • Hung start
  • No EGT rise
260
Q

What does autostart not monitor?

A

Oil Pressure, N1 rotation

261
Q

How many times will the EEC attempt a start?

A

2 times, 3 times if hot or hung prior to starter cutout

262
Q

What happens automatically on the second start attempt?

A

2 igniters are used

263
Q

What happens if there is a hot or hung start after starter cutout?

A

all start attempts are aborted and engine does not motor

264
Q

With an engine out, what is the altitude displayed for start envelope?

A

Maximum altitude or current altitude if max is above current

265
Q

In-flight, how many start attempts does the EEC make?

A

Unlimited

266
Q

How many EECs are there?

A

4, 1 per engine

267
Q

How many modes does the EEC have?

A

2, normal and alternate

268
Q

Which parameter does the EEC use for thrust setting?

A

N1

269
Q

What happens to N1 as outside conditions change?

A

EEC maintains set thrust setting

270
Q

Do the thrust levers need to be adjusted with higher bleed requiremnts?

A

No, the EEC adjusts fuel flow to compensate

271
Q

Can the autothrottle operate with an EEC in alternate mode?

A

No, however if all EEC are in alternate, Autothrottle can be re-engaged

272
Q

What protections are lost with alternate EEC mode?

A

Max thrust (N1) protection

273
Q

What happens when the EECs are in alternate?

A

The thrust protections are lost and auto correction for environmental and bleed requirements ETC are lost

274
Q

When will the EEC select approach idle in flight?

A
  • Nacelle anti-ice is ON
  • Flaps are in landing position
  • Continuous ignition switch is ON
275
Q

When will the EEC select approach idle on the ground?

A

Thrust reverser operation and for 5 sec after landing

276
Q

When is N1 and N2 overspeed protection available?

A

In both normal and alternate EEC modes

277
Q

Does the thrust reverser operate of the engine isn’t running?

A

No, requires bleed air from it’s engine

278
Q

How do you know that the reverser is fully deployed?

A

the REV on the EICAS turns green

279
Q

Where is vibration detected?

A

· Fan
· Low Pressure Turbine (LPT)
· N2
· Broad Band (BB)

280
Q

Are all vibration sources displayed?

A

No, only the highest?

281
Q

When is · Broad Band (BB) vibration displayed?

A

When the source cannot be determined

282
Q

How can airframe vibration due to engine malfunction be reduced?

A

Descending and reducing speed, if this does not work, increasing airspeed slightly may alleviate

283
Q

Can the APU be started in flight?

A

No

284
Q

How many packs can the APU run?

A

all 3 on ground except during engine start and 1 in flight up to 15,000ft

285
Q

Where does the APU take fuel from?

A

Main tank 2

286
Q

What happens when the APU detects a fire?

A

APU shuts down and on the ground the Fire bottle discharges automatically

287
Q

Where is the APU ground access control?

A

Right body gear wheel well

288
Q

Which battery/batteries does the APU require to start?

A

Main and APU

289
Q

What are the APU battery start cooling times?

A

1, 1, 75 minutes

290
Q

What precaution must be taken when shutting down the APU?

A

Battery should remain on during APU cooldown (2 minutes after APU selected off)

291
Q

What are the 3 types of EICAS message?

A

Alert (Warning, Caution, Advisory)
Memo
Status

292
Q

Do all alert messages have checklist steps?

A

No the careted ones don’t

293
Q

What is the difference between an EICAS advisory and caution?

A

Advisory are indented

294
Q

What do status messages affect?

A

Dispatch

295
Q

When will the takeoff config warning sound?

A

ON ground
Fuel control in run
ENG 2 or 3 in takeoff range
SPD

296
Q

When does the “approaching altitude” indicate?

A

900-300ft of selected alt

297
Q

When is the pilot alert function inhibited?

A

Below 20,000ft, flaps not up or on climb

298
Q

Which ND modes can TCAS not be displayed?

A

Centred and plan

299
Q

When must a descend RA not be followed?

A

below 1000ft AGL

300
Q

What does the GPWS terrain database not account fot?

A

Man-made obstructions

301
Q

With regard to terrain on the ND, what do the colours represent?

A 
Green = 2000-500ft(250 gear down) below 
Amber = 500ft(250 gear down)-2000ft above
Red = >2000ft above
302
Q

What warrants a terrain escape maneuver?

A

any “PULL UP” annunciation

303
Q

When LLWS is entered into FDP, what does it assume?

A

Flap 20, max thrust, Higher Vr(up to 20kts) and V2

304
Q

When does PWS operate (departure)?

A

12 seconds after beginning scanning which occurs once thrust lever (2/3) in TO range

305
Q

When does PWS operate (arrival)?

A

Begins scanning below 2300ft, PWS activates below 1200ft RA

306
Q

What parameters below 500ft would indicate windshear?

A 
deviations plus or minus:
500ft
15kts
5 deg pitch
1 dot GS
Unusual thrust for prolonged period
307
Q

How is pitch controlled?

A

4 elevators and moveable horizontal stabiliser

308
Q

How are the elevators powered?

A

4 Hydraulic systems, L,R by 1,4 respectively

Centre by 1/2, 3/4 for each side

309
Q

How is elevator feel and trim powered?

A

3,4 hydraulic systems

310
Q

How are the elevators controlled?

A

Signals from control column control inboard panels, inboard panel position controls outboard

311
Q

What happens to elevator feel if hydraulic systems 2 & 4 fail?

A

elevator feel is provided by springs

312
Q

With respect to autopilots, when is stab trim inhibited?

A

When more than 1 autopilot is engaged

313
Q

What are the 3 positions of the stabiliser cutout switches and what do they do?

A

ON- supplies constant pressure to STCM (stabiliser trim control module)
Auto- normal position
CUTOUT- removes hydraulic pressure from stabiliser trim

314
Q

How fast does the horizontal stabilizer move?

A

Faster at low airspeed, slower at higher airspeed.

315
Q

Is there a crosscheck of stab trim green band position?

A

Yes, the nose gear oleo has a sensor which compares the green band position and if it disagrees, displays >STAB GREENBAND

316
Q

What does STAB TRIM UNSCHD mean

A

The stabiliser trim is moving unscheduled

317
Q

What provides roll control?

A

5 spoiler panels per wing and inboard and outboard ailerons

318
Q

When do the outboard ailerons lockout?

A

above 238kts

319
Q

Which systems power the spoilers?

A

2,3,4 with no duplication

320
Q

Which systems power the ailerons?

A

LO, LI, RI, RO
1/2, 1/3, 2/4, 3/4
respectively

321
Q

Can aileron trim be used when autopilot is engaged?

A

No, Strictly FORBIDDEN

322
Q

Which spoilers are represented on the EICAS status display?

A

LH = fourth from wing tip (only indication of speedbrake operation)
RH = closest to wingtip
Both provide for ground spoiler and roll control.

323
Q

What are the flap settings?

A

1, 5, 10, 20, 25, 30

324
Q

What are the take-off / Landing flap settings?

A

10/20, 25/30

325
Q

How many LE flap groups are there?

A

3 per wing

326
Q

How are the LE flaps driven?

A

Pneumatically with electric backup

327
Q

How many TE flap groups are there?

A

2, inboard and outboard

328
Q

How are the TE flaps driven?

A

Hydraulically with electric backup.
System 1 = inboard
System 4 = outboard

329
Q

When do LE flaps extend?

A

inboard and mid-span at 1, TE and outer LE at 5

330
Q

How many control modes do flaps have?

A

Primary, Secondary and Alternate

331
Q

How does the alternate flap extension differ?

A

All flaps extend simultaneously and to a max 25 setting. On retraction all LE retract once TE have retracted

332
Q

How does primary flap operation compare to seocndary?

A

Primary and pneumatic/hydraulic, secondary is electric

333
Q

When is flap load relief available?

A

Primary mode only

334
Q

How is flap asymmetry prevented?

A

TE outboard and inboard are mechanically linked respectively.

335
Q

If one flap group goes to secondary mode, what happens to the rest of them?

A

The opposite side goes to secondary mode to maintain symmetry however the rest stay in primary except mid and inboard LE act as a single group

336
Q

After operating in secondary mode, can flaps switch back to primary?

A

Yes, depending on the reason for secondary mode

337
Q

How many flap control units are there?

A

3 FCUs

338
Q

How does alternate flap operate?

A

Electrically driven by rotary switch

339
Q

What is a precaution in alternate flap mode?

A

No asymmetry protection

340
Q

When is flap load relief available?

A

25 and 30 deg in primary only

341
Q

How many spoiler panels are there?

A

6 per wing

342
Q

which spoilers are activated in flight?

A

inner 4 on each wing

343
Q

What happens to spoilers if hydraulics are lost?

A

Symmetrical panels become unusable

344
Q

With spoilers armed, when do they deploy?

A

thrust lever 1&3 near idle and main gear on ground.

345
Q

Can spoilers deploy automatically without being armed?

A

Yes, if thrust levers 2 & 4 are in the reverse idle. Spoilers will stow if thrust levers 1 or 3 are advanced

346
Q

How many rudders are there?

A

2

347
Q

Which systems power the rudders?

A

1 & 3 Upper

2 & 4 lower

348
Q

How many rudder ratio changers are there?

A

2, one for upper, one for lower rudder

349
Q

When a rudder ratio changer fails, what effect does it have?

A

It will limit the rudder movement to the situation it failed in. Eg. low speed high travel, high speed low travel

350
Q

How many yaw dampers are there and do the rudder pedals move?

A

2, one for upper, one for lower rudder, no

351
Q

Which systems power the yaw dampers?

A

3-upper, 2-lower

352
Q

Which hydraulic systems provide power to the landing gear?

A

1 powers nose and body gear actuation and steering, 4 actuates the wing gear

353
Q

How many brake systems are there?

A

normal and alternate

354
Q

How are the normal and alternate brakes powered?

A

normal: 4
alternate: 1 & 2

355
Q

When is anti-skid available?

A

normal and alternate

356
Q

When is autobrake available?

A

Normal brakes only

357
Q

Which system operates the brakes?

A

4

358
Q

What is the brake accumulator used for?

A

Park brake only

359
Q

What numbers are used for brake temperature and what is their significance?

A

0-4 normal, 5-9 high

360
Q

What is minimum brake cooling time?

A

70 mins

361
Q

What happens to the brake system if HYD pressure 4 is low?

A

System 1 supplies pressure

362
Q

What happens to the brake system if HYD pressure 4 and 1 is low?

A

System 2 supplies pressure

363
Q

If the brake temp is high, how long after reaching normal range should the gear be retracted?

A

8 mins

364
Q

What is the difference between anti-skid protection in normal and alternate?

A

Normal, each wheel has protection, in alternate it is provided to each wheel pair

365
Q

What protections are provided by anti-skid and how are they achieved?

A

Touchdown and Hydroplane Protection - Uses Inertial Ground Speed
Locked Wheel Protection - Compares Wheel Speeds

366
Q

What systems are required for autobrake to function?

A

Anti-skid and normal brakes

367
Q

What activates RTO autobrakes?

A

All thrust levers to closed above 85kts

368
Q

When do autobrakes activate on landing?

A
  • On the ground
  • Wheels spin up detected, and
  • All thrust levers are closed.
369
Q

What deactivates the autobrakes?

A
  • Pedal braking applied
  • Any Thrust lever advanced after landing
  • Speedbrake lever moved to DOWN detent (after they have deployed on the ground)
  • DISARM or OFF position selected
370
Q

When can wing anti ice be operated?

A

in flight only

371
Q

What is an implication of WAI and LE flaps?

A

with LE flaps extended WAI is innefective

372
Q

When can EAI be used?

A

ON ground and in flight

373
Q

How is probe heat operated?

A

There are no controls, automatically on with engines on, except TAT inhibited on ground

374
Q

How is window heat controlled?

A

Window heat for front windshields on control panel, side windows are automatic

375
Q

Where are the ice detector probes and when do they operate?

A

Forward lower fuselage only in flight

376
Q

If the oxygen mask is used, how is the headset mike re-instated?

A

Close the mask box and press the PRESS TO TEST AND RE-SET switch

377
Q

What is the V, B, R switch in the centre of the audio control panel?

A

It filters Voice, Both or Range (morse) from the Nav receivers

378
Q

When does the RADIO TRANSMIT EICAS message apppear?

A

Radio transmission for greater then 30 seconds

379
Q

What stuck mike protection is there on the ground?

A

On the ground, any VHF radio transmitting for longer than 35 seconds is disabled following annunciation of a warning beep.

380
Q

How do you transmit on the FLT interphone?

A

Selecting MIC and using like any other radio or

Use the INT position on the ACP or Control wheel

381
Q

What is the FLT interphone connected to?

A

Nose wheel well audio panel

382
Q

What does the SERV INTERPHONE switch enable?

A

Connects various ground crew stations around the aircraft to the FLT interphone

383
Q

Where does the PA transmit?

A

Upper deck only

384
Q

On the freighter call panel, where does U/D connect to ?

A

Upper deck seating area

385
Q

On the freighter call panel, where does CARGO connect to ?

A

Main cargo deck

386
Q

On the freighter call panel, where does GND connect to ?

A

Nose wheel well

387
Q

How many VHF radios are there?

A

3, L,C,R

388
Q

What are the VHF radios used for?

A

L/R are voice, C is data for ACARS however can be used for Voice

389
Q

What should be displayed on the C audio tuning panel?

A

ACARS or DATA

390
Q

How many HF radios are there?

A

2, L and R

391
Q

When an HAF radio is tuned, how is a failure annunciated?

A

A tone lasting longer the 7 seconds

392
Q

Can two HF radios transmit at once?

A

No, there is only one antenna however they can both receive at once.

393
Q

When is the CVR powered?

A

Whenever AC power available

394
Q

What does the CVR record?

A

2 pilot mics, 1st observer mic and area mic

395
Q

How can CVR be erased?

A

On ground, park brake set with AC power available, press erase for 3 sec

396
Q

On the CVR, how is a positive test annunciated?

A

Green light after test

Atlas Air (2 decks)

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