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737 MAX Systems Review Flashcards

1
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
4. Emergency exit lights will automatically illuminate when the EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch is in the ARMED position and ______.

A

AC power is removed or DC Bus 1 fails

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2
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
5. The overwing emergency exits lock when a minimum of three of the four entry/service doors are closed, either engine is running, and_____.

A

The aircraft air/ground logic indicates that the aircraft is in the air, or both thrust levers are advanced to the takeoff power position.

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3
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
6. True or False; Failure of the overwing emergency exit Flight Lock System illuminates the MAINT (amber) light on the Aft Overhead Panel.

A

True

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4
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
7. What is the purpose of the Flight Deck Access System (FDAS)?

A

FDAS allows entry to the flight deck from the passenger cabin.

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5
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
8. How is the Crew Oxygen Mask microphone activated?

A

Automatically when the Crew Oxygen Mask is removed from the stowage compartment.

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6
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
9. Approximately how long does oxygen flow when the PASS OXYGEN system is activated?

A

12 min

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7
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
10. How is the PASS OXYGEN system activated?

A
  • Automatically - cabin altitude = 14,000 ft.
  • Manually - PASS OXYGEN switch ON.
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8
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
11. True or False; The Aft Attendant Panel EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS switch overrides Flight Deck control.

A

True

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9
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
12. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding the operation of the Potable Water System?

A

If pneumatic pressure is insufficient, an AC powered air compressor can supply pressure to the Potable Water System if the water service panel door is closed and CAB/UTIL switch is ON.

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10
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
13. The Flight Deck Door reacts to a decompression in the passenger cabin by ___________ .

A

possibly opening to allow air to vent into the passenger cabin.

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11
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
14. True or False; The Flight Deck Door can be manually deadbolted to prevent the door from opening, regardless of FDAS operation.

A

True

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12
Q

AIRPLANE GENERAL
15. The MUTE switch on the Internet Ground Control Panel is used to inhibit 2Ku transmission _____ .

A

On the ground only

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13
Q

ENGINES & APU
17. The ______ regulates the respective engine

A

Electronic Engine Control (EEC).

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14
Q

ENGINES & APU
18. A REV (green) light above the N1 indicator indicates that the ____.

A

Thrust reverser is deployed

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15
Q

ENGINES & APU
19. A REV (amber) light above the N1 indicator indicates that the ____.

A

Thrust reverser is moving from the stowed position

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16
Q

ENGINES & APU
20. The Fuel Used displays ____.

A

the fuel used since the last reset.

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17
Q

ENGINES & APU
21. The ENGINE CONTROL (amber) light illuminates ______.

A

when the EEC detects faults in the Engine Control System that are not dispatchable

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18
Q

ENGINES & APU
22. True or False; Illumination of the ENGINE CONTROL (amber) light will cause the ENG annunciator and MASTER CAUTION to illuminate.

A

True

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19
Q

ENGINES & APU
23. What is the indication an EEC is in normal mode?

A

White ON light

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20
Q

ENGINES & APU
24. After engine shutdown, an EGT exceedance is displayed by _____________.

A

A red box around the digital readout

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21
Q

ENGINES & APU
25. A flashing white box surrounding the EGT digital readout during engine start indicates _______.

A

impending hot start detected by EEC during ground start

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22
Q

ENGINES & APU
26. When the EEC detects an engine flameout, both igniters are activated when the Ignition Select Switch is in _____ .

A

any position

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23
Q

ENGINES & APU
27. The OIL FILTER BYPASS (amber) light illuminates ______ .

A

prior to oil bypassing the oil filter.

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24
Q

ENGINES & APU
28. The EEC selects approach idle for the operating engine(s) when Engine Anti-Ice is selected to ON or ____.

A

when the flaps are 15 or greater

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25
Q

ENGINES & APU
29. If the EGT digital readout and EGT round dial indications are red, it indicates _______.

A

EGT has reached or exceeded redline

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26
Q

ENGINES & APU
30. The EEC provides ____ redline overspeed protection.

A

N1 & N2

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27
Q

ENGINES & APU
31. During ground starts, the EEC detects ___.

A
  • Wet starts
  • EGT start limit exceedances
  • Impending hot starts
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28
Q

ENGINES & APU
32. The ENG FAIL (amber) alert displays ____.

A

when N2 drops below sustainable idle and the respective start lever is in IDLE

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29
Q

ENGINES & APU
33. The APU provides ____.

A

both electrical power and bleed air.

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30
Q

ENGINES & APU
34. With the APU operating, turning the battery switch OFF will cause the APU to ____.

A

automatically shut down

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31
Q

ENGINES & APU
35. Wait at least ______ after positioning the APU switch OFF before positioning the Battery Switch to OFF.

A

3 minutes

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32
Q

ENGINES & APU
36. Operate APU for _____ after illumination of the APU GEN OFF BUS (blue) light before using it as a bleed air source.

A

2 minutes

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33
Q

ENGINES & APU
37. True or False; With ground power only (battery switch OFF), the APU will start.

A

False

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34
Q

ENGINES & APU
38. Automatic APU shutdown protection is provided for _____.

A
  • High oil temperature
  • EGT exceedances
  • APU fire
  • Low oil pressure
  • Overspeed
    (HEALO)
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35
Q

ENGINES & APU
39. The REVERSER COMMAND light (amber) indicates ______ .

A

a reverse thrust lever is not in the down position in flight.

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36
Q

ENGINES & APU
40. Prior to thrust levers being positioned to idle, an EEC switch displaying ON (white) and ALTN (amber) indicates ________ mode.

A

Soft Alternate

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37
Q

ENGINES & APU
41. MOTORING on the N2 indicator indicates _______ .

A

Bowed Rotor Motoring is active

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38
Q

ENGINES & APU
42. The REVERSER LIMITED (amber) light on the Engine Panel illuminates ________.

A

-In flight; when a fault in the thrust reverser system limits reverser thrust
-On ground; when a reverser malfunction has occurred, and
reverse thrust will be limited to idle if commanded.

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39
Q

ENGINES & APU
43. The THRUST crew alert on the Engine Display indicates __________ .

A

the associated engine thrust is more or less than the
commanded thrust.

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40
Q

ENGINES & APU
44. Illumination of the FUEL FLOW (amber) crew alert indicates _____.

A

fuel flow is abnormally high when compared to the
FMC expected fuel flow.

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41
Q

ENGINES & APU
45. The secondary engine instruments are toggled _______ .

A

using the MFD ENG switch and will automatically display when a secondary indication abnormal condition exists.

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42
Q

ENGINES & APU
46. Which engine start ignitor is available on standby power?

A

Right ignitor

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43
Q

ELECTRICAL
48. With the loss of all AC power, if automatic switching does not occur, the standby power busses are powered by _________.

A

positioning the STANDBY POWER switch to BAT

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44
Q

ELECTRICAL
49. DC power is supplied by ____.

A

three Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) or the batteries

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45
Q

ELECTRICAL
50. The two basic principles of operation for the 737 Electrical System are: 1) the source of power being connected to a Transfer Bus automatically disconnects an existing source and 2) ______.

A

there is no paralleling of the AC sources of power

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46
Q

ELECTRICAL
51. The AC Standby Bus is normally powered by ______.

A

AC Transfer Bus 1

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47
Q

ELECTRICAL
52. During loss of normal electrical power, the Static Inverter _____.

A

converts DC power to AC power to energize the AC Standby Bus

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48
Q

ELECTRICAL
53. The Cross Bus Tie Relay will open ____.

A

when Glide Slope is active during a Flight Director or A/P ILS approach

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49
Q

ELECTRICAL
54. If the aircraft takes off with APU powering both Transfer Busses, and the APU is shut down or fails in flight, _____.

A

the IDGs are automatically connected to their related Transfer Busses

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50
Q

ELECTRICAL
55. Loss of power to ________ illuminates the STANDBY PWR OFF (amber) light.

A

the AC Standby Bus, the DC Standby Bus, or the Battery Bus

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51
Q

ELECTRICAL
56. If all generators are inop, and the Main Battery and the Auxiliary Battery are the only sources of power, which Display Units are available?

A

the Captain’s Inboard and Outboard Display Units

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52
Q

ELECTRICAL
57. With normal power sources available, placing the BAT Switch to OFF ____.

A

removes power from Battery Bus and Switched Hot Battery Bus

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53
Q

ELECTRICAL
58. Under normal conditions, the DC Standby Bus can be powered by ____.

A

TR1, TR2, or TR3

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54
Q

ELECTRICAL
59. True or False; It is possible to power one AC Transfer Bus with external power and the other AC Transfer Bus with APU power.

A

False

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55
Q

ELECTRICAL
60. On the ground, an illuminated ELEC (amber) light on the AC and DC Metering Panel indicates _______.

A

a fault exists in DC Power System or Standby Power System

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56
Q

ELECTRICAL
61. An illuminated BAT DISCHARGE (amber) light on the AC and DC Metering Panel indicates ______.

A

an excessive discharge in the Main Battery and/or Auxiliary Battery

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57
Q

ELECTRICAL
62. How long can two fully-charged batteries provide standby power?

A

a minimum of 60 minutes

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58
Q

ELECTRICAL
63. In flight, an illuminated TR Unit (amber) light indicates ________.

A

TR1 has failed or TR2 and TR3 have failed

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59
Q

ELECTRICAL
64. The Generator DRIVE (amber) light, when illuminated, indicates the respective IDG has experienced low oil pressure caused by _______.

A

-IDG mechanical failure
-Engine shutdown
-IDG auto-decouple due to high oil temperature

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60
Q

ELECTRICAL
65. True or False; A decoupled IDG can only be reset on the ground by maintenance personnel.

A

True

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61
Q

ELECTRICAL
66. For single IDG operation, the system is designed to ______.

A

shed electrical load incrementally, based on actual load sensing

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62
Q

ELECTRICAL
67. True or False; An illuminated GEN OFF BUS (blue) light indicates an IDG is not supplying power to the respective Transfer Bus.

A

True

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63
Q

ELECTRICAL
68. In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power, which busses are automatically shed?

A

all Galley Busses and Main Busses

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64
Q

ELECTRICAL
69. An illuminated GRD POWER AVAILABLE (blue) light indicates _____.

A

external power is connected and power (within tolerances) is available

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65
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
71. Can you discharge the fire bottles using only battery power?

A

Yes

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66
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
72. Fire protection for the APU is provided by ____ fire extinguishing bottle(s).

A

one

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67
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
73. The APU fire extinguishing agent discharges ____.

A

manually only

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68
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
74. If the battery switch is OFF, the APU has ____ ability available.

A

only fire extinguishing

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69
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
75. Placing the Test Switch in the FAULT/INOP position tests the _____.

A

fault detection ability for both engines and the APU

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70
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
76. Fire detection for the engines and APU is available when the battery switch is ______.

A

ON

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71
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
77. The engine fire extinguishing bottles are discharged ____.

A

by pulling and manually rotating the fire switch

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72
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
78. The APU fire bottle is discharged ____

A

by pulling and rotating the APU fire switch

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73
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
79. Does the main wheel well have a fire extinguishing system?

A

No

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74
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
80. Pulling the APU fire switch ____.

A

Closes; -APU Inlet Door
-APU Bleed Air Valve
-APU Fuel Shutoff Valv
Deactivates the fuel solenoid 
Trips the APU generator field

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75
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
81. With a dual loop failure on an engine, the following light(s) will illuminate.

A

FAULT light only

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76
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
82. If the Cargo Fire DETECTOR FAULT light is illuminated, _________________.

A

one or more detectors in the related loop(s) has failed

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77
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
83. True or False; Pulling the fire switch will shut off the associated bleed air.

A

True

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78
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
84. Where is the APU fire ground control panel located?

A

Main wheel well

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79
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
85. True or False; Pulling the fire switch will discharge the associated engine fire extinguisher bottle.

A

False

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80
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
86. The Lower Cargo Compartment is equipped with ________.

A

(2) Fire extinguishing bottles with a total of 195 minutes of fire suppression.

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81
Q

FIRE PROTECTION
87. To silence the fire warning bell, ____.

A

press FIRE WARN

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82
Q

HYDRAULICS
91. The hydraulic systems on the 737 are designated as ____.

A

System A, System B, and Standby

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83
Q

HYDRAULICS
92. Normal pressure for Hydraulic System A and B is ____ psi +/- 200 psi.

A

3000

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84
Q

HYDRAULICS
93. In the event the Hydraulic System B Engine-Driven Pump output pressure drops below a specific value, the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) is to provide ________.

A

Hydraulic System B fluid at a flow rate and pressure sufficient to provide normal rates of operation for the Autoslats and Leading Edge Devices

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85
Q

HYDRAULICS
94. Which of the following components are powered by Hydraulic System A?

A

Landing Gear
Ailerons
Normal Nose Wheel Steering Ground Spoilers
Alternate Brakes
Rudder
(A=LANGAR)

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86
Q

HYDRAULICS
95. Which of the following components are powered by Hydraulic System B?

A

Trailing Edge Flaps
Leading Edge Flaps
Slats

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87
Q

HYDRAULICS
96. Moving a FLT CONTROL switch to the STBY RUD position ____.

A

-Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
-Arms the standby low pressure light
-Deactivates the FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE light when the Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve opens

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88
Q

HYDRAULICS
97. Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when with loss of System A or B, with the respective FLT CONTROL switch position to ON and _________.

A

airborne or wheel speed is greater than 60 kts with flaps extended

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89
Q

HYDRAULICS
98. Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System _________ .

A

activates the standby electric motor-driven pump and allows the Standby System to power the rudder and thrust reversers

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90
Q

HYDRAULICS
99. True or False; The refill (RF) indication (white) light is only valid in flight.

A

False

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91
Q

HYDRAULICS
99. True or False; The refill (RF) indication (white) light is only valid in flight.

A

False

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92
Q

HYDRAULICS
100. Hydraulic Systems A & B reservoirs are pressurized by _____.

A

bleed air

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93
Q

HYDRAULICS
101. In the event of a System A engine-driven pump leak, the standpipe prevents total system fluid loss. With System A fluid level at the top of the standpipe, the reservoir quantity displayed indicates approximately ____.

A

20% full

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94
Q

HYDRAULICS
102. In the event of a System B pump leak, quantity decreases to zero. However, with fluid level at the top of the standpipe, fluid remaining in the System B reservoir is sufficient for operation of the ________ .

A

Power Transfer Unit

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95
Q

HYDRAULICS
103. The STANDBY HYD LOW QUANTITY (amber) light illuminates when the standby reservoir quantity is ____.

A

less than 50%

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96
Q

HYDRAULICS
104. True or False;
Extension of the Leading Edge Devices may result in up to 20% drop in System B hydraulic fluid quantity.

A

True

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97
Q

HYDRAULICS
105. If a leak develops in Hydraulic System A engine-driven pump or its related lines, a ____ in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss.

A

Standpipe

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98
Q

HYDRAULICS
106. If a leak develops in Hydraulic System A electric motor-driven pump or its related lines, the hydraulic fluid quantity in the reservoir decreases to ____.

A

0%

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99
Q

HYDRAULICS
107. True or False; In the event of a Standby Hydraulic System leak, the standby reservoir quantity decreases to 70%.

A

False

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100
Q

HYDRAULICS
108. True or False; Placing both ELEC Hydraulic Pump Switches to ON simultaneously may create an amperage surge, resulting in hydraulic pump motor circuit breakers tripping in the E/E compartment.

A

True

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101
Q

HYDRAULICS
109. Hydraulic Systems Quantity and Pressure indications are displayed by selecting the ______ switch.

A

MFD SYS

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102
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
111. The landing gear is normally extended and retracted by _____.

A

Hydraulic System A

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103
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
112. Parking brakes can utilize pressure from ___ .

A

Hydraulic System A or B

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104
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
113. In the event the #1 engine fails, normal retraction of the landing gear is not available; however, the gear will be retracted by ___ .

A

Landing Gear Transfer Valve and Hydraulic System B engine-driven pump

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105
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
114. In the event of a Hydraulic System A loss while landing gear are up, the gear may be extended by ___ .

A

manual gear extension

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106
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
115. The lever lock override switch on the Landing Gear panel, can be used to bypass ___ .

A

the Landing Gear Lever Lock mechanism, under certain conditions

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107
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
116. At what speed is automatic Rejected Takeoff (RTO) braking available?

A

at 88 kts

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108
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
117. The Supplemental Landing Gear indicator lights on the overhead panel show three green lights. The Landing Gear panel on the forward instrument panel shows two green lights and one red light. The gear status is________.

A

all gear are down and locked

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109
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
118. True or False; With the loss of Hydraulic System B, the auto brake system still operates normally.

A

False

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110
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
119. What protects the main wheel well from loose tread during gear retraction?

A

the frangible fitting

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111
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
120. The nose wheel steering system can only be powered by Hydraulic System A.

A

False

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112
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
121. In the event of normal and alternate brake system pressure loss, the brake accumulator can provide approximately _____ .

A

6 applications

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113
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
122. The PSEU monitors ____.

A

landing and takeoff configuration warnings, and
landing gear, and air/ground sensing

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114
Q

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES
123. The wheel thermal fuse plugs exist to prevent tire explosion.

A

True

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115
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
125. If the Capt Pitot Probe and the FO Pitot Probe are damaged and inop, __________.

A

the Auxiliary Pitot Probe provides data to the Standby Instruments

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116
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
126. The ____ provides inertial position and track data to the FMC.

A

ADIRU

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117
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
127. Flight instrument systems failures are displayed by failure flags on the PFD and _____.

A

ND

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118
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
128. Maximum airspeed is indicated on the airspeed tape by a vertical _____ bar.

A

red and black

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119
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
129. When STD is pressed on the EFIS Control Panel, the altimeter is automatically set to ____.

A

29.92 inches

120
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
130. The ____ displays flight path angle and drift angle on the PFD.

A

Flight Path Vector (FPV)

121
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
131. The vertical black and red bar at the top of the airspeed tape indicates ____.

A

VMO/MMO, and
Flap Placard Speed, and
Landing Gear Placard Speed

122
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
132. The standby instruments include the Magnetic Compass, Attitude Indicator, Altimeter/Airspeed Indicator, and ____.

A

Localizer / glideslope deviation

123
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
133. The Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) battery pack and battery charger are powered by the ______.

A

Battery Bus

124
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
134. If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed on _________, and the failed outboard display unit blanks.

A

the Inboard Display Unit

125
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
135. The top of the lower amber bar on the speed tape indicates ___.

A

the minimum maneuver speed for full maneuver capability

126
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
136. The MFD INFO Switch on the Engine Display Control Panel _______ .

A

Displays N1/SPD REF SET, where crew can manually enter values.

127
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
137. The PLI appears on the Pilots PFD _____.

A

when flaps are extended, or
when airspeed approaches Stick Shaker activation for the existing flight conditions, regardless of flap position

128
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
138. On the Vertical Situation Display (VSD), the Range to Target Speed Dot (RTSD) is displayed as a solid green dot and indicates ________.

A

where the aircraft will achieve FMC and MCP target speed

129
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
139. On the Vertical Situation Display (VSD), the stabilized approach Decision Gates are displayed on the FMC Approach Glide Path Line at ______.

A

1000 AFE (white) and 500 AFE (amber)

130
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
140. The Altitude Disagree Alert (amber) indicates the Captain’s and F/O’s altitude disagree by more than _____ for more than 5 continuous seconds.

131
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
141. An airspeed disagree between Captain’s and F/O’s airspeed indicators of greater than 5 kts for 5 seconds is indicated by _______.

A

IAS DISAGREE (amber)

132
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
142. An angle of attack disagree of more than 10 degrees for 10 continuous seconds is indicated by

A

AOA DISAGREE (amber)

133
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
143. The HGS is controlled through the _____ .

134
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
144. The VNAV Speed Band on the PFD indicates ______ .

A

FMC target speed during VNAV PTH descents
- Upper end; VNAV SPD reversion speed
- Lower end; autothrottle wake up speed.

135
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS
145. True or False; The DPCs collect data from various aircraft subsystems and displays subsystem information on the associated Flight Deck Display Units.

136
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
149. The Bleed Air system is provided air by __________.

A
  • Engine bleed air (4th & 10th stage)
  • external pneumatic air,
  • APU bleed air
137
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
150. ____ causes the engine bleed valve to automatically close.

A

Either over pressure or over temperature

138
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
151. The BLEED (amber) light illuminates when ________.

A
  • bleed sensors have automatically closed the engine bleed air valve due to excessively high engine bleed air temperature or pressure, or
  • failure within the Bleed Air System that is not resettable., or
  • incorrect bleed air configuration is detected 45 seconds after flaps reach the UP position.
139
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
152. When the APU is shut down, the APU bleed valve ___________.

A

closes automatically

140
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
153. During normal operations, if the Isolation Valve Switch is in AUTO, then the Isolation Valve ____.

141
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
154. When the Isolation Valve Switch is in AUTO, the valve will open automatically if ____.

A

a pack switch or engine bleed switch is placed OFF

142
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
155. A DUAL BLEED (amber) light will illuminate when ____.

A

the APU bleed air valve is open and Engine 1 Bleed Switch is ON, or
the APU bleed air valve is open, Engine 2 Bleed Switch is ON, and the isolation valve is open

143
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
156. The Air Supply Control (ASC) manages the 4th and 10th stage pneumatic air in response to _______ .

A

bleed air demand

144
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
157. What would cause the PACK (amber) light to illuminate?

A
  • failure of both the primary and standby pack controls for the same pack
  • failure of the pack valve to open when commanded
  • incorrect pack switch configuration after takeoff
  • pack overheat
145
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
160. True or False; A failure of either Primary or Standby Pack control illuminates the MAINT (amber) light after landing.

146
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
161. In a normal bleed configuration when airborne, with flaps retracted, what causes a pack to automatically switch to high air flow?

A

engine failure, opposite pack failure, or one pack switch selected OFF.

147
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
162. What provides cooling air for the air conditioning heat exchangers (pack systems)?

A

RAM air system

148
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
163. To switch the pressurization to the ALTN automatic controller, you ___.

A

select ALTN on the Cabin Pressurization Panel

149
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
164. A single Cabin Pressure Controller failure (the active controller) is indicated by _______ light(s).

A

both ALTN & amber AUTO FAIL

150
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
165. What would cause the OFF SCHED DESCENT (amber) light to illuminate?

A

Pilot starting a descent prior to the aircraft reaching the set FLT ALT.

151
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
166. The CABIN ALTITUDE (red) light and Altitude Warning Horn activate at approximately what altitude?

A

10,000’ +/- 1,000’

152
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
167. True or False; The Cabin Altitude Warning Horn can be silenced using the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch above 10,000 ft.

153
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
168. What is the primary source of conditioned air for the flight deck?

A

The left Pack

154
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
169. True or False; The flight attendant control panel can change the cabin temperature within 3 degrees of the cabin zone temperature.

155
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
170. Recirculated air by the recirculation fans _______ .

A

reduced bleed air demand

156
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
171. Equipment cooling is provided for electronic equipment in the ____.

A

Electrical & Electronic Compartment (E & E bay) and Flight Deck equipment

157
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
172. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about external preconditioned air?

A

External, preconditioned air temperature cannot be controlled from the Flight Deck using the packs.

158
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
173. Each A/C pack has ____ controllers for pack temperature control.

159
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
174. What does the EQUIP COOLING OFF (amber) light indicate?

A

Loss of airflow due to the failure of the respective Equipment Cooling Fan

160
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
175. The illumination of the EQUIP SMOKE (amber) light _____________.

A

automatically sets the air conditioning packs to high flow mode.

161
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
176. An air conditioning supply duct overheat will cause the ____ light to illuminate.

162
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
177. Which cargo compartment is heated by warm air from the Equipment Cooling System’s exhaust fans?

A

the forward cargo compartment only

163
Q

AIR SYSTEMS
178. In the event of a single pack failure at altitude, the remaining pack is capable of maintaining cabin pressure and comfort at an airplane altitude of _____.

A

41,000 feet

164
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 180. Which Flight Deck windows are heated?

A

L1/R1 and L2/R2

165
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 181. Which of the following are electrically heated?

A
  • Pitot probes
  • TAT probes, and
  • Alpha vanes (AOA)
  • L1 & R1 windows
  • Elev pitot probes
166
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 182. The Engine Anti-Ice system uses engine bleed air to prevent ice formation on the ____ .

A

engine cowl and core

167
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 183. The Wing Anti-Ice system uses engine bleed air to prevent ice formation on ___ .

A

three inboard leading edge slats

168
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 184. The ENG ANTI-ICE (amber) light illuminates due to ___ .

A
  • associated Cowl Thermal
Anti-Ice System has been inhibited due to a system failure, and/or
  • associated Engine Core Anti-Ice Valve
has failed in the closed position.

169
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 185. The COWL ANTI-ICE (amber) light illuminates due to ____ .

A

an overpressure condition in the associated duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve.

170
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 186. A green Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) displayed above the N1 gauge indicates ___ .

A

the ENG ANTI-ICE switch is ON and the Anti-Ice Valve is open, supplying bleed air to the cowl

171
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 187. What does an amber TAI (Thermal Anti-Ice) above the N1 readout indicate?

A

That the cowl anti-ice valve disagrees with the ENG ANTI-ICE switch position for more than 8 seconds

172
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 188. What happens if an overheat condition is detected in windows L1/R1 or L2/R2?

A

Power to the affected window is automatically removed.

173
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 189. In flight, if the Wing Anti-Ice switch is turned OFF after having been ON, __________ .

A

stall warning logic remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight

174
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 190. True or False; The Wing Anti-Ice switch automatically trips OFF at lift-off when the Air/Ground Sensor goes to the air mode.

175
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 191. An amber Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) indication displayed above the N1 indication indicates ___ .

A

the Cowl Anti-Ice Valve disagrees with the Engine Anti-Ice Switch for more than 8 seconds.

176
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 192. When ENG ANTI-ICE is selected to ON, _________.

A

stall warning logic is set for icing conditions only while the switches remain ON

177
Q

ANTI-ICE & RAIN PROTECTION 193. Wing Anti-Ice control valves will automatically close on the ground when__________.

A

either engine thrust is advanced for takeoff power, and/or
either temperature sensor senses an overheat of the leading edge

178
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
195. True or False; IRS outputs are independent of external navigation aids.

179
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
196. True or False; The FMCs are completely independent and do not transfer or compare information between each unit.

180
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
197. Which of the following is correct?
1. Usually, the FMCs receive inertial data from their on-side ADIRU (left ADIRU to FMC 1 and right ADIRU to FMC 2).
2. With the FMC Transfer switch in the normal position, both FMCs operate as primaries.
3. Usually, the FMCs receive inertial data from the Captain’s side ADIRU.
4. During normal operations, the left FMC drives both NAV displays in the map mode.

A

Answer: (1) Usually, the FMCs receive inertial data from their on-side ADIRU (left ADIRU to FMC 1 and right ADIRU to FMC

181
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
198. Which of the following is NOT used by the FMCs to determine position?

182
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
199. If GPS inputs are lost to the FMC, the FMC reverts to using ____ to determine its position.

A

radio or IRS updating

183
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
200. Which input has the highest weighted priority for FMC position?

184
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
201. During a VNAV PATH descent, the FMC calculates a descent path based on _____.

A

airspeed restrictions, altitude restrictions, and the end of descent( E/D) point

185
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
202. True or False; Derated takeoff rating can be further reduced by assumed (SEL) temperature.

186
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
203. Lateral navigation will engage when the aircraft is laterally within ___ of the active route leg, or an intercept heading of equal to or less than ___ , and the intercept will occur prior to the active waypoint.

A

3nm, 90 degrees

187
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
204. A full IRS alignment takes approximately ____.

A

5-17 minutes, depending on latitude

188
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
205. An ALIGN (white) light illuminates steady when the respective IRS is operating in the ____, initial ATT mode, or shutdown cycle .

A

ALIGN mode

189
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
206. A flashing white ALIGN light means ____.

A

-No present position entered, or
-Unreasonable present position entry

190
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
207. How long can the right IRS operate without AC electrical power?

191
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
208. An illuminated FAULT (amber) light on the IRS Display Unit indicates ____.

A

the related IRS system has detected a fault

192
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
209. ____ GPS receivers are installed in the Boeing 737-NG.

193
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
210. Illumination of an ON DC light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit indicates what?

A

The IRS is operating on DC power

194
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
211. True or False; After flight, if the aircraft remains parked for 7.5 - 15 minutes with the IRS switches remaining in NAV, Automatic Navigation Realignment (ANR) can occur causing movement of the MAP, and various alerts as the IRSs align in NAV mode.

195
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
212. Illumination of the ILS (amber) light on the IRS panel indicates _____ .

A

failure of one or more ILS sensor units.

196
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION
213. Where does the FMC receive fuel quantity information from?

A

Fuel Quantity Indicating System, and
The engines, and
Manual entries.

197
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
217. True or False; Either hydraulic system, A or B, can operate all of the Primary Flight Controls.

198
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
218. Under normal conditions, the Trailing Edge Flaps and LE Devices are powered by ___ .

A

Hydraulic System B

199
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
219. Placing the FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD _____ .

A

activates the Standby Hydraulic System pump, and
opens the Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve, allowing Standby Hydraulic System pressure to the Standby Rudder PCU

200
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
220. Illumination of the SPEED TRIM FAIL (amber) light indicates ______ .

A

failure of the Speed Trim System and MCAS functions.

201
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
221. Stall identification and control is enhanced by the Elevator Feel Shift (EFS) Module and the Speed Trim System.

202
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
222. Two independent, identical SMYD computers determine when stall warning is required based on several factors, including, but not limited to: ___ .

A

-Angle of Attack (AOA) Sensors output
-ADIRU outputs
-Wing configurations

203
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
223. Speed Trim may be overridden by___ .

A

-Actuation of the Control Wheel Trim Switches (which inhibits further Speed Trim operation for 5 seconds)
-Manual rotation of either Stabilizer Trim Wheel

204
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
224. The stall warning “Stick Shaker” is designed to alert the pilots after a stall has fully developed.

205
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
225. During normal operation, the Main Yaw Damper requires ___ .

A
  • Hydraulic System B pressure
  • B FLT CONTROL Switch in the ON (guarded) position
  • SMYD Computers to provide continuous system monitoring
206
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
226. During Manual Reversion (loss of both Hydraulic Systems A and B), the ailerons, rudder, and elevators are all operated manually.

207
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
227. After landing, or RTO, the SPEED BRAKE lever will automatically move to the DOWN detent, and all spoiler panels retract when ___ .

A

either thrust lever is advanced

208
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
228. If the Aileron Control System is jammed, the First Officer can still fly the aircraft using the ____ with force applied to the control wheel.

A

flight spoilers

209
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
229. The horizontal stabilizer trim is normally powered _____, but may also be operated _____.

A

electrically; manually

210
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
230. Through the use of the three-position Alternate Flap Switch located on the Flight Control Panel, the TE Flaps can be operated electrically (electric motor), and ___ .

A

the LEDs can be fully extended ONLY using the Standby Hydraulic System

211
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
231. Flap load relief protects trailing edge flaps from excessive air loads.

212
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
232. During alternate flap extension, asymmetry protection for the trailing edge flaps is available.

213
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
233. During trailing edge alternate flap extension, the following protective systems are not available:

A
  • flap load relief
  • asymmetry protection
  • skew protection
  • autoslat operation
  • PTU operation
  • Leading Edge Uncommanded Motion Protection
214
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
234. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT (amber) light illuminates when _____.

A

any LE device is in transit

215
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
235. When illuminated in flight, the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED (amber) light indicates spoiler operation when the SPEED BRAKE lever is beyond the ARMED position and ___.

A

the flaps are extended more than 10

216
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
236. Elevator jam landing assist is active when ______ .

A
  • Autpilot OFF
  • trailing edge flaps position 1 or greater
- ELEVATOR JAM LANDING ASSIST switch ON
217
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
237. Illumination of the SPOILERS (amber) light on the FLT CONTROL panel indicates ______ .

A

the Spoiler Control Electronics Unit has identified a Spoiler System fault.

218
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
238. MCAS activation is inhibited by _________.

A
  • either STAB TRIM cutout switch to CUTOUT, or
  • forward control column movement.
219
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
239. The purpose of the Landing Attitude Modifier is _________ .

A

increase drag during the approach phase and increase nose landing gear clearance on landing.

220
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
240. The SPEEDBRAKE (red) alert on the PFD and aural “SPEEDBRAKE SPEEDBRAKE” alert is activated when the speedbrakes do not deploy during landing or rejected takeoff above ___ knots.

221
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
241. EMER Descent Speedbrake is active when the aircraft is above 30,000 ft and the cabin altitude warning is active.

222
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
242. Rudder limiting is no longer active in flight when ______.

A

an engine failure is detected.

223
Q

FUEL
244. The main fuel tanks are serviced through ____.

A

a single point refueling receptacle

224
Q

FUEL
245. Fuel can be provided from any tank to either or both engines by opening the fuel _____ .

A

Crossfeed valve

225
Q

FUEL
246. With all fuel pumps operating, what ensures Center Tank fuel is used before Main Tank fuel?

A

Fuel pump output pressure differential.

226
Q

FUEL
247. With fuel pumps not operating, the APU fuel is suction-fed from ____.

A

Main tank #1

227
Q

FUEL
248. The Center Tank Fuel Scavenge Jet Pump will activate when ____.

A

Main Tank No. 1 has 4500 lbs or less

228
Q

FUEL
249. A bright blue Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light indicates the Crossfeed Valve is ____.

A

in transit or the valve position disagrees with selector position

229
Q

FUEL
250. The IMBAL (amber) Alert indicates the Main Tanks fuel quanties differ by greater than _____ .

230
Q

FUEL
251. The Fuel CONFIG (amber) Alert is displayed when either engine is running and _____.

A

Center Tank fuel quantity is greater than 1600 lbs and both CTR Fuel PUMP switches are positioned OFF

231
Q

FUEL
252. The Fuel LOW (amber) Alert indicates the respective Main Tank fuel quantity is less than _______.

232
Q

FUEL
253. The Nitrogen Generation System Operability Indicator is located ________.

A

in the main wheel well

233
Q

FUEL
254. When Main Tank Fuel pump pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from its corresponding Main Tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps.

234
Q

FUEL
255. The Center Tank fuel pumps automatically shut off after approximately 15 seconds of a continuous LOW PRESSURE signal.

235
Q

FUEL
256. Positioning an Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF closes ____.

A

the Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve and the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve.

236
Q

FUEL
257. An illuminated dim blue ENG VALVE CLOSED light indicates ___.

A

the valve is closed

237
Q

FUEL
258. An extinguished SPAR VALVE CLOSED (blue) light indicates ____.

A

the valve is open

238
Q

FUEL
259. The INSUFFICIENT FUEL (amber) alert indicates the FMC fuel at the destination is predicted to be less than _____ lbs.

239
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
261. Which system provides the N1 limit for the A/T?

240
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
262. Name some actions that will disengage the A/P?

A
  • column or wheel force override
  • Pushing either TO/GA switch with a single A/P engaged below 2000 ft RA
  • Activating either pilot’s control wheel trim switch
241
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
263. Independent FD operation is annunciated by ____.

A

illumination of both MA lights on the MCP

242
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
264. An amber CWS P below the FMA could indicate _______.

A

the previously selected pitch mode has been deselected.

243
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
265. The three flight mode annunciator (FMA) displays above the attitude indicator are ____.

A

autothrottle, roll, pitch

244
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
266. The crew is alerted to an altitude deviation when exceeding ____ feet from the selected MCP altitude.

245
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
267. THR HLD on the Flight Mode Annunciator means ____.

A

power is removed from the A/T servo motors

246
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
268. After TO/GA is selected on a two-engine go around, the FD will command an initial pitch attitude of approximately _____ degrees.

247
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
269. On a go-around with the autothrottle armed, after the first push of either TO/GA switch, the thrust levers advance to reduced go-around N1 to produce _____ rate of climb.

A

1000 fpm to 2000 fpm

248
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
270. On a single-engine go-around, a push of either TO/GA switch will command an initial pitch attitude of _____ degrees nose up.

249
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
271. When pushed, the APP switch ____.

A

arms AFDS for LOC & GS capture

250
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
272. Except for when APP mode is active, to switch the Autopilot from A to B, ____.

A

select Autopilot B

251
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
273. When V/S is selected, the Autothrottle mode will __________ .

A

Engage in MCP SPD.

252
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
274. When will the STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light illuminate?

A
  • A/P engaged and A/P is not trimming the stabilizer properly, and/or
  • partial failure of an FCC occurs.
253
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
275. The Bank Angle selector will limit the angle of bank in _______.

A

HDG SEL and VOR modes

254
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
276. When do the flight directors operate independently?

A

manual flight and TO/GA mode engaged and below 400 ft RA, or
manual flight and APP mode engaged with LOC and G/S captured

255
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
277. A flashing amber A/T alert light indicates ______ .

A

airspeed differs from commanded value by +10 or -5 kts and is not approaching commanded value in flight with flaps not fully retracted

256
Q

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
278. Which of the following occurs in Minimum Speed Reversion?

A
  • A/P disengages after one second of stick shaker, and
  • F/Ds bias out of view until airspeed reaches greater than minimum maneuver speed
257
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
282. When the Captain’s ALT-NORM switch is placed to ALT on the Audio Control Panel (ACP), ________.

A

the Captain’s ACP is degraded, overhead speaker is inhibited, and the Captain can only communicate on VHF1.

258
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
283. The Push-to-Talk (PTT) switches on the control wheel, Glareshield, or ACP are used to key the oxygen mask or boom microphone for radio transmission or transmission over the flight interphone.

259
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
284. Placing the service interphone switch to the ON position ____.

A

adds all external jacks to the service interphone system

260
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
285. What does the ATTEND button do?

A

Sounds a two-tone chime in the Passenger Cabin, and
Illuminates call lights in the cabin

261
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
286. On the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP), an illuminated Offside Tuning (white) light indicates ____.

A

the Captain is tuning VHF #2 from the CA’s panel , or
the First Officer is tuning VHF #1 from the FO’s panel

262
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
287. The Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) displays _________ when the selected radio has failed.

263
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
288. The Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) displays _________ when the RTP has failed.

A

PANEL FAIL

264
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
289. Injury to personnel or fire may result if the HF Radio is keyed while the aircraft is being fueled/defueled.

265
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
290. In what order does the Communication System attempt data transmission?

A

1) VHF
2) Satellite
3) HF

266
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
291. The MEDLINK headset jacks are controlled by the observer’s Audio Control Panel.

267
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
292. To gain the attention of ground crew, the Flight Deck crew can _________.

A

press the GRD CALL switch to sound a horn in the nose wheel well

268
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
293. Crews are notified of an incoming SELCAL by __________ .

A
  • FMC scratchpad message, and
  • white “C” call light on the associated radio transmitter switch
269
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
294. Selecting a radio Transmitter Selector Switch ________.

A
  • Allows for audio reception on selected communication system, and
  • Selects the related communication system for transmission, and
  • Deselects a previously selected transmitter
270
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
295. The Passenger Address hand microphone on the Aft Electronics panel bypasses the ACP and communicates directly to the Passenger cabin.

271
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
296. Pushing the ATTEND Call Switch ________.

A

Sounds a two-tone chime in the Passenger Cabin, and
Illuminates call lights in the cabin

272
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
297. Incoming calls from the passenger cabin handsets are indicated by ______.

A

CALL (blue) light on the overhead panel, and
a white “C” light on the CABIN ACP Transmitter Selector switch.

273
Q

COMMUNICATIONS
298. When pressed, the VHF TEST switch _________.

274
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
299. The red on the elevation display indicates terrain elevation is ___ .

A

more than 2000 feet above the aircraft altitude

275
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
300. Radar turbulence (WX+T) detection is capable of detecting clear air turbulence.

276
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
301. Predictive Windshear (PWS) may be activated ______.

A

by selecting either WXR switch on either EFIS Control Panel, and
by advancing either Thrust Lever towards takeoff thrust

277
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
302. The weather radar does not provide alerting for all types of windshear. The Flight Crew must continue to rely on traditional windshear avoidance methods.

278
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
303. Predictive Windshear (PWS) alert area extends to 40 nm.

279
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
304. Predictive windshear alerting is not available until ___ after the weather radar starts scanning.

A

12 seconds

280
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
305. When the RA encounter is terminated, and the guidance is no longer displayed, the TCAS system will issue the aural advisory “___.”

A

CLEAR OF CONFLICT

281
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
306. Look at the graphic. In this situation, the crew should _________.

A

avoid the area inside the red lines, due to traffic conflict

282
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
307. The TOO LOW FLAPS alert is disabled in flight when ___ and remains silenced until the switch is repositioned.

A

the Ground Proximity FLAP INHIBIT Switch is positioned to FLAP INHIBIT

283
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
308. RUNWAY AWARENESS and ADVISORY SYSTEM (RAAS) operates automatically, without any action from the Flight Crew.

284
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
309. An aural “MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY” alert indicates ____.

A

Potential windshear detected by the Predictive Windshear System outside of the warning region

285
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
310. The radar scanning is activated by using the WXR switch on ____ .

A

either EFIS Control Panel

286
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
311. How does the TCAS display a Traffic Advisory?

A

An amber dot.

287
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
312. A red WINDSHEAR and aural “WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR” alert indicates __________.

A

the aircraft has encountered active windshear.

288
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
313. When descending below 500 ft RA on an approach, a “FIVE HUNDRED” advisory callout from the GPWS system is given if:

A

An approach other than an ILS is used

289
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
314. The WX+T switch on the Radar control panel provides __________.

A

turbulence displayed (magenta) out to 40NM for all selected ranges

290
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
315. The ROLL/YAW ASYMMETRY (amber) alert on the PFD is first indicated when the autopilot has reached __% of it’s total roll authority.

291
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
316. The amber MAINT light on the aft overhead panel illuminates when a system fault requires maintenance attention. When this light is illuminated, a magenta MAINT alert is visible on the SYS page.

292
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
317. Which of the following is/are true about the MASTER CAUTION system?

A

The Master Caution system alerts the crew to most cautions that occur outside the normal field of vision, and
The Master Caution and system annunciator light remains illuminated until the crew resets the system, or the condition no longer exists, and
Single/simple faults only illuminate the Master Caution system with a Master Caution Recall.

293
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
318. Conditions which require the immediate attention of the Flight Crew are indicated by ________.

A

Red lights

294
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
319. Conditions which require the timely attention of the Flight Crew are indicated by ________.

A

Amber lights

295
Q

WARNING SYSTEMS
320. When only one GPS fails, the GPS caution light does not illuminate until a MASTER CAUTION recall occurs.

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