737 ATP Flashcards
Runway Slope
+/- 2%
Max tailwind / crosswind
15 / 36 (max demonstrated crosswind
w/winglets=33 knots)
Max Speed
320/.82
Turbulent Speed
280/.78
Max Altitude
41,000 ft.
Max Takeoff & Landing Altitude
8,400 ft.
Max Ramp Weight
174,700 lbs. (IGW) 156,000 lbs. (STD)
Max Takeoff Weight (MTOW)
174,200 lbs. (IGW) 155,500 lbs. (STD)
Max Landing Weight (MLW)
144,000 lbs.
Max Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)
136,000 lbs.
Max Cabin Differential Pressure
9.1 PSI
APU Bleed and Electrical
10,000 ft.*
APU Bleed Only
17,000 ft.
APU Electrical Only
41,000 ft.
Min Altitude for A/P ON after Takeoff
400 ft.
Min Altitude for A/P ON During Non-Pre App
50 ft below minimums
Maximum Engine Limits
Redline
Minimum Engine Limits
Redline
Caution Limits
Amber
Engine Ignition Must be ON For
Takeoff, Landing, Heavy Rain, Anti-Ice
Max Flap Extension Altitude
20,000 ft.
Min Altitude For Speed Brake Use
1,000 ft.
Alternate Flap Duty Cycle (down & up)
Flaps 1 thru 15 = 5 min; Flaps >15 = 25 mins
Fuel System Minimum Temperatures
-43 degrees C or fuel freeze plus 3 degrees C
Fuel System Maximum Temperatures
+49 degrees C
Fuel IMBAL For Taxi/Takeoff or Landing
1,000 lbs.
Icing Condition Temperature
10C / 50F
ADIRU Alignment Must Not be Attempted at
Latitudes Greater than
⇒ 78 degrees 15 minutes
⇒ *Under Captain’s Emergency Authority, APU
has demonstrated the capability to supply
both bleed air and electrical power up to
20,000 feet altitude.
What do you have left when on standby power?
?
What engine instruments are left on standby?
?`
What engine instruments are self generating?
?
If start engine valve does not close, what do you
do and why?
?
What is difference between LE flaps transit light
on fwd panel and transit yellow lights on aft
overhead?
?
Hydraulic discussion
⇒ What to look for on gauges for quantities?
⇒ What do you see if a leak in A or B occurs?
⇒ Discussion of Landing Gear Transfer Unit
⇒ Do system A and B mix fluid?
What is the alternate flap limit (1 cycle)?
⇒ What is 1 cycle? 15° or 40°?, therefore don’t
normally have to worry about time limit on
alternate flaps
⇒ Discussion of why time limit.
a. 0 - 15 = more lift
b. 15 - 30 = more drag
c. therefore more effort for motor to drive
flaps down
Discuss DC meter selector switch - what does it
do?
?
Discuss bus transfer switch - what does it do?
⇒ Why are there two switch positions? a. AUTO - provides 3 items – BTBs, DC bus tie relay, TR3 transfer works automatically b. OFF-Prevents automatic transfer
What does flight recorder off light mean?
⇒ Can you go without F.R.? (MEL)
Discussion of duct overheat lights
⇒ What if in conjunction w/ bleed trip off?
a. What to do? I.e. warm up, cool off?
L Wing body overheat light on.
⇒ Where are sensors?
⇒ What do they do?
Pressurization - what power sources?
⇒ What indicators do you have with electrical failure? a. Cabin rate of climb ⇒ How to control pressure normally and manually?
Discussion of fire warning system
⇒ What do you see?
⇒ What do you see on test?
⇒ Discussion of where fuel valves are and what
opens or closes them
a. Fire switch @ fuel control
b. Start lever @ strut
⇒ Mentioned to watch for fuel valve closed
light to indicate that valve actually closed
(Look for this in sim check)
Discussion of zero fuel weights
?
With the Flight Recorder switch in NORMAL, when
does the flight recorder operate?
On the ground?
In the air?
⇒ Oil pressure on first engine started
⇒ Any electrical power available
What does an illuminated OFF light mean
adjacent to the Flight Recorder switch?
⇒ Power failure, loss of input data or electronic
malfunction, test failed
What are some of the things that the flight
recorder monitors?
⇒ Altitude
⇒ Heading
⇒ Acceleration
⇒ Airspeed
Where is the flight recorder located?
⇒ Aft cabin ceiling
What does the Crew Oxygen gage indicate?
⇒ Crew O2 pressure at the bottle
What is normal crew O2 pressure?
⇒ 1,850 psi
What is the normal minimum crew O2 pressure for
dispatch?
⇒ According to table in performance inflight
Where is the crew O2 bottle located?
⇒ Aft end of the E&E compartment
How is the crew O2 bottle accessed?
⇒ Thru the forward cargo compartment
forward bulkhead access panel
What happens if the crew O2 bottle becomes
overheated and thermally discharges?
⇒ Green disk will be gone (on pre-flight
inspection)
What kind of crew O2 do you get in NORMAL
operation of the crew mask?
⇒ Air/O2 mix on demand
What kind of crew O2 do you get in 100%?
⇒ 100% oxygen on demand
What kind of crew O2 do you get in EMERGENCY?
⇒ 100% oxygen under pressure
Where is the passenger O2 supply stored?
⇒ Each individual PSU unit
With the switch in the guarded NORMAL position,
when will the passenger O2 masks be presented?
⇒ Approximately 14,000 feet cabin pressure
What is the function of the ON position of the
PASS O2 switch?
⇒ Manual activation of pax oxy doors
How many masks are connected to each
passenger O2 generator?
⇒ 4 at passenger seats, 2 at flight attendants
and lavatories
What is indicated by the illuminated PASS OXY
ON light?
⇒ System activated
With the PASS OXY ON light illuminated, what
other light might you expect to see ON?
⇒ Auto fail light
⇒ MC lights
⇒ Overhead annunciator (ALT Horn @ 10,000
feet cabin altitude)
When does the passenger O2 generator actually
start to manufacture oxygen?
⇒ First mask pulled down on each bank of seats
How long will passenger O2 flow through the
passenger masks, once activated?
⇒ 12 minutes
Can the passenger O2 be shut off after flow is
initiated?
⇒ No
What can you do if a passenger oxygen mask
compartment does not open when activated?
⇒ Manually open
Should passengers use oxygen when the cabin
altitude is below 14,000 ft.? Why not?
⇒ No, air is mix of O2 and cabin air
What is available with the Service Interphone in
the OFF position?
⇒ Flight deck to cabin
⇒ Cabin to flight deck
What is available with the Service Interphone in
the ON position?
⇒ Connects all external jacks
With the Service interphone switch in the OFF
position, is communication between flight deck
and cabin possible?
⇒ Yes
Is there an exterior service interphone switch?
Where?
⇒ No, there is an external flight interphone jack
located on the external power panel
What does PSEU stand for?
⇒ Proximity Switch Electronic Unit
What does the PSEU monitor?
⇒ Air/Ground sensors
⇒ Configuration status/alerts
⇒ Overwing exit locks
When is the PSEU light inhibited?
⇒ In flight (takeoff power to 30 sec after
landing)
Should you be concerned with the PSEU light if it
is illuminated on the ground?
⇒ Yes
Should you be concerned with the PSEU light if it
illuminates during recall?
⇒ No, if it will cancel by pushing the MC light, it
is ok to go
Are there any limitations on the use of the
windshield wipers?
⇒ Don’t use on a dry windshield
Why is it important not to use wipers on a dry
windshield?
⇒ Will destroy rain repellant coating
What sort of rain repellant system do we use?
⇒ Rain repellant coating (like Rain-X)
In the ARMED position, when will the emergency
lights come on?
⇒ Loss of DC bus 1 or AC power has been
turned off
What do the EMERGENCY LIGHTS illuminate?
⇒ Aisle lights; entry/exit lights; escape path
lighting; dome light; locator
⇒ signs; area lighting; exterior area lighting
Where is the other EMERGENCY LIGHT switch?
⇒ AFT flight attendants panel
Will the AFT flight attendant panel Emergency
Light switch override the cockpit switch?
⇒ Yes
What cockpit light(s) are controlled by the
emergency light switch?
⇒ Flt deck CAPT dome light
What does the blue light on the audio control
panel indicate?
⇒ Ground or cabin is trying to call
Can you call the personnel on the ground?
⇒ Yes
How is this accomplished?
⇒ Thru the ground call button and nosewheel
well horn
Where is the CVR circuit breaker located?
⇒ Behind the captain’s seat
When does the CVR start recording?
⇒ Anytime 115V AC is applied to the A/C
How long is the CVR recording?
⇒ 120 minutes (older than 120 min is auto
erased)
How do you erase what is on the CVR?
⇒ On ground, parking brake set, hold 2 sec
What is unique to the EQUIP door light?
⇒ Only door light that has two doors associated
with it
What does the Lights test position do?
⇒ illuminates (at full brightness) all system
lights on center pedestal, overhead panel,
and most lights on instrument panel.
Which NAV modes will display TCAS traffic?
⇒ Map, center map, VOR or APP modes
What does a TA look like?
⇒ Solid amber circle
What does a RA look like?
⇒ Solid red square
What does pitch guidance on the PFD look like
during a RA?
⇒ Restrictive red bands
What does vertical speed guidance on the IVSI
look like during a RA?
⇒ Red-do not fly to / Green-fly to
In the TA/RA mode, when is an RA inhibited?
⇒ Stall
⇒ Windshear
⇒ GPWS
⇒ Less than 1,000 FT RA
What are the sources of bleed air?
⇒ engines, APU, ground air
What is bleed air used for?
⇒ Anti-ice, air cond, press of water, HYD
pressurization, engine start, (and aspirated
TAT probe if installed)
What is indicated by an illuminated DUAL BLEED
light?
⇒ APU bleed open with #1 eng bleed switched
position or APU bleed open with #2 eng
bleed open and isolation valve open
What would cause an Engine Bleed tripoff?
⇒ Excessive pressure or temperature
How does the Isolation Valve work in AUTO?
⇒ Valve is closed when all engine bleeds and
pack switches are on
What would cause a L WING BODY OVERHEAT
light to illuminate?
⇒ Duct leak left side (eng strut, wing leading
edge, air conditioning bay, keel beam, or APU
duct)
What would case a R WING BODY OVERHEAT light
to illuminate?
⇒ Duct leak on right side
Can a BLEED TRIP OFF be reset?
⇒ Yes
Can a WING BODY OVERHEAT be reset?
⇒ No
Equipment cooling is for the most part automatic.
When would you have to interact with the
system?
⇒ When the OFF light illuminates
What does the Equipment Cooling OFF light
indicate?
⇒ Loss of air flow due to fan failure
How many Supply fans are there? Exhaust fans?
⇒ Two, two
Where is equipment exhaust air drawn from?
⇒ Flight deck displays, overhead and AFT
electronic panels, circuit breaker panels and E
& E bay
Where is equipment cooling air exhausted?
⇒ Overboard exhaust valve (when open)
⇒ Outflow valve when OEV closed
If a supply or exhaust fan should fail when on the
ground, what indication would you get?
⇒ MC Light with an Overhead annunciation and
a nosewheel well horn
Is a single PACK capable of supplying all of the air
conditioning and pressurization requirements of
the airplane?
⇒ Yes
What is indicated by a PACK light?
⇒ Pack trip (overheat) or dual controller failure
When would you get HIGH flow if both packs were
in AUTO?
⇒ Both engine bleeds off and APU bleed on
If on downwind at 5 flaps and you had a pack to
fault, would the remaining pack go to high flow?
⇒ No, not with flaps out
Is it recommended to operate two packs from a
single bleed?
⇒ No
When would it be feasible?
⇒ on the ground with the APU
What sort of flow does the APU produce when a
pack is in HIGH on the ground?
⇒ Max rate
What is indicated by a CONT CAB zone temp light?
⇒ Duct temp overheat or dual controller failure
What is indicated by a FWD CAB zone temp light?
⇒ Duct temp overheat
What is indicated by a AFT CAB zone temp light?
⇒ Duct temp overheat
Can the AFT CAB zone temp light be reset?
⇒ Yes
If both the primary and secondary controllers for
a pack fail, will the pack continue to operate?
⇒ Yes
Why would the engineers design an air
conditioning system that is so seemingly difficult
to understand?
⇒ To make it simple to operate
When you move a zone temperature control up,
what are you asking the system to do?
⇒ Add warm trim (bleed) air
What do recirculation fans do?
⇒ Reduce pack workload and bleed air demand
which saves fuel
How would you achieve maximum cooling on the
ground?
⇒ Packs in auto, APU bleed open, & engine
bleeds closed
Which windows do the air vent controls defrost?
⇒ The #1 windows only
What is the maximum differential pressure?
⇒ 9.1 PSI
What is indicated by an AUTOFAIL light
illuminated by itself?
⇒ Dual controller failure
What is indicated by an AUTOFAIL light
illuminated along with the ALTN light?
⇒ Single controller failure
What is indicated by the OFF SCHED DESCENT
light?
⇒ Aircraft descended prior to (.25 PSI) reaching
cruise altitude
What is the result of changing the FLT ALT setting
after takeoff?
⇒ Inhibits auto return feature
How does the operation of the outflow valve in
manual compare with the operation in AUTO?
⇒ Slower (20 seconds-full closed to full open)
What condition would cause an AUTO FAIL light
to illuminate?
⇒ Excessive rate of cabin change (+/- 2000 FPM) ⇒ Loss of DC power ⇒ Controller fault ⇒ Outflow valve problem ⇒ High cabin pressure (>8.75 PSI) ⇒ High cabin altitude (15,800 FT)
What does the HIGH ALT LDG Option Switch do?
⇒ Reprograms initiation of cabin altitude
warning horn from 10,000 ft to 12,500 ft.
What does ENG VALVE CLOSED mean when bright
blue?
⇒ In transit or disagreement
What does ENG VALVE CLOSED mean when dim
blue?
⇒ Valve closed
What does SPAR VALVE CLOSED mean when
bright blue?
⇒ In transit or disagreement
What does SPAR VALVE CLOSED mean when dim
blue?
⇒ Valve closed
What is the position of the engine valve or spar
valve if the lights are extinguished?
⇒ Open
Which valve is controlled by the start lever,
engine valve or spar valve?
⇒ Both, Spar valve and engine valve
Which one of these valves is controlled by the
engine fire switch?
⇒ Both
Which one of these valves is controlled by the
respective EEC?
⇒ Engine valve
What is the maximum fuel temperature?
⇒ 49C
What is the minimum fuel temperature?
⇒ -43C or fuel freeze +3C (whichever is higher)
What is indicated by a FILTER BYPASS light?
⇒ Impending filter bypass (contaminated fuel)
Could the Filter Bypass light be ice? Why not?
⇒ Not likely. Fuel is warmed prior to entering
filter
If a fuel valve is in transit, is it bright or dim?
⇒ Bright
Is the fuel crossfeed from tank to tank or tank to
engine?
⇒ Tank to engine
How many valves are controlled with the
crossfeed switch?
⇒ One
What electrical power is needed to operate the
crossfeed valve?
⇒ Battery bus
Are the Center Tank FUEL LOW PRESS lights
always armed to indicate low pressure?
⇒ No, only in ON position
What does the Center Tank FUEL LOW PRESS
lights mean?
⇒ Pumps are on with output either LOW or NO
pressure
If only one Center Tank LOW PRESS light is on, will
the Master Caution light illuminate?
⇒ Yes, it only takes one LOW PRESS light to give
you the MC lights and FUEL ANNUNCIATOR
on the center tanks
With one Center Tank pump OFF, will illumination
of the opposite low press light illuminate the MC
light?
⇒ Yes
What is the electrical power source for the center
tank pumps?
⇒ AC Power
What is the electrical power source for the main
tank fuel pumps?
⇒ AC Power
What does illumination of a AFT/FWD fuel LOW
PRESS light mean?
⇒ Low output press or switch is off
What sort of indication would you get with the
illumination of just one LOW PRESS light in the
center tank?
⇒ Master caution and fuel annunciator on recall
What indication would you get with illumination
of both LOW PRESS lights in the same tank?
⇒ Master caution and fuel annunciator lights
How many fuel sticks are there in a Main Tank?
⇒ six
How many fuel sticks are there in the Center
Tank?
⇒ four
Which fuel is used first, Center Tank or Main
Tank?
⇒ Center tank fuel
Do Center Tank pumps produce the same
pressure as Main Tank pumps?
⇒ No, higher output
Engines have mechanical fuel pumps. Can they
suck fuel?
⇒ Yes
Can fuel be suctioned from the Main Tanks? Why?
⇒ Yes. They have a bypass valve
Can fuel be suctioned from the Center Tank?
Why?
⇒ No. No bypass valve
The Center Tank has a fuel scavenge jet pump.
What does it do?
⇒ Transfers remaining center tank fuel to #1
main tank when #1 main tank is
approximately half full and #1 fwd boost
pump is running
Where is the fuel temperature sensor located?
⇒ #1 main tank
Which tank can supply the APU?
⇒ Any tank with the appropriate pump on and
crossfeed position
Which tank can the APU suction feed from?
⇒ #1 main tank
What is the total capacity of the fuel system?
⇒ 46,000 lbs
How much fuel can the Center Tank hold?
⇒ 28,800 lbs
What does LOW indicate on the main tank gages?
⇒ Fuel quantity less than 2.000 lbs
Can you get a LOW indication on the Center Tank
gage?
⇒ no
What does CONFIG indicate on the Center Tank
gage?
⇒ Center tank quantity >1600 lbs with low or
no pump pressure and engine is running
What does IMBAL indicate on the Main Tank
gage?
⇒ Mains differ by more than 1000 lbs
The APU is located where on this airplane?
⇒ In the tail, fireproof compartment
If you tried to start the APU and had no luck, is
there anything you could check?
⇒ Battery switch on, fire handles in cockpit and
in the wheelwell
How long can it take the APU to start?
⇒ Up to 120 seconds
What are some requirements to start the APU?
⇒ BATT switch must be on and inlet door must
be fully open
What happens if the APU has not started by the
end of the start cycle?
⇒ Auto shutdown
What happens if the APU GEN OFF BUS light has
not illuminated by the end of the start cycle?
⇒ Auto shutdown & fault light illuminates
If a fault is sensed by the APU, what happens?
⇒ Auto shutdown
What are some of the things that will cause an
auto shutdown of the APU?
⇒ Fire ⇒ Low oil pressure ⇒ High oil temperature ⇒ Overspeed ⇒ Fuel control unit fail ⇒ High EGT temperature ⇒ Other ECU faults
How long should the APU be operated before
using it as a bleed source?
⇒ One minute
Why is it recommended waiting one minute
before selecting bleed source after APU start?
⇒ To increase the service life
Is it mandatory to wait one minute after APU start
to select as bleed source?
⇒ No, but it is recommended. As soon as the
APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates it is ready
to take a load
When the APU switch is moved to OFF, does the
APU shut down immediately?
⇒ No
How could you shut the APU down immediately?
⇒ APU fire handle or BATT switch
During engine start will the APU ECU favor bleed
air or electrical load?
⇒ Bleed air
At other times is this APU load logic the same?
⇒ No, electrical load is favored
Does the battery switch have to be ON in order to
start the APU?
⇒ Yes
How do you know if the APU is ready to accept a
bleed air or electrical load?
⇒ APU GEN off bus light illuminates
What is indicated by the MAINT light?
⇒ Maintenance should be notified
Can you operate the APU with the MAINT light
on?
⇒ You can still use the APU if required
What is indicated by the APU LOW OIL PRESS
light?
⇒ Startup or shutdown due to low oil pressure
Can you operate the APU with the LOW OIL PRESS
light on?
⇒ No, this will cause an auto shutdown
What is indicated by the APU FAULT light?
⇒ Some fault caused auto shutdown
What is indicated by the APU OVERSPEED light?
⇒ APU RPM limit exceeded with a
corresponding auto shutdown
What is indicated by an APU OVERSPEED light on
shutdown?
⇒ Feature has failed a self-test during a normal
APU shutdown
Will an APU LOW OIL PRESSURE alert shut the APU
down before the start cycle is complete?
⇒ No
Approximately how long does it take for the APU
inlet door to open or close?
⇒ 20 seconds
What does an illuminated STBY HYD LOW
QUANTITY light indicate?
⇒ Low quality (approx 50%)
Is this STBY HYD LOW QUANTITY light always
armed?
⇒ Yes
What does an illuminated STBY HYD LOW
PRESSURE light indicate?
⇒ Low pressure
Is the STBY HDY LOW PRESSURE light always
armed?
⇒ No
When is the STBY HDY LOW PRESSURE light
armed?
⇒ When the standby system is armed or
operating
What does an illuminated STBY RUD ON light
indicate?
⇒ The standby rudder system is commanded
on to pressurize the standby rudder power
control unit
When does illumination of the STBY RUD ON light
take place?
⇒ When the force fight monitor (FFM) detects
opposing pressure between A and B
actuators (this may occur if either system A or
B is jammed or disconnected) or if Stby
rudder switch is on (A or B)
What is indicated by an electric pump OVERHEAT
light?
⇒ Associated pump has overheated
⇒ (Abex electric motor driven hydraulic pump
option)
⇒ If an overheat is detected in either pump, the
related overheat light illuminates
⇒ (Vickers electric motor driven hydraulic pump
option)
⇒ If an overheat is detected in either pump, the
related overheat light illuminates, power is
removed from the pump and the low
pressure light illuminates
What is indicated by a LOW PRESSURE light?
⇒ Output pressure is low
When is the engine LOW PRESSURE light
deactivated?
⇒ When the associated engine fire handle is
pulled
When is the electric pump LOW PRESSURE light
deactivated
⇒ Never
What happens when you turn OFF an engine
pump switch?
⇒ Blocks output pressure (by way of a blocking
solenoid)
What happens in the hydraulic system when you
pull and engine fire switch?
⇒ Shuts off fluid to the pump and deactivates
the low pressure light
What is the normal hyd system pressure?
⇒ 3,000 PSI
What is the maximum hyd system pressure?
⇒ 3,500 PSI
What is the minimum hyd system pressure?
⇒ 2,800 PSI
What does an RF mean adjacent to the hydraulic
quantity gage?
⇒ Refill
When is a RF indicated adjacent to hyd qty?
⇒ Quantity less than 76%
Which hydraulic system powers the:
Gear A TE Flaps + LE Devices B Alternate Brakes A Normal Brakes B Flight Spoilers ½ by A (2 out of four ea. wing) ½ by B Autopilot A A Autopilot B B Ailerons A&B Rudder A&B Elevator A&B Thrust reverser #1 A Thrust reverser #2 B PTU A LGTU B Ground Spoilers A Yaw Damper B Nose wheel steering A Alt Nose wheel steering B
How does the output of an electric pump compare
with the engine driven pump?
⇒ Engine driven pump output volume 4 times
greater
Where are the heat exchangers for the (electric)
hydraulic fluid located?
⇒ Main fuel tanks
How much fuel is required in the tanks for ground
operation of the electric hyd pumps?
⇒ 1675 lbs
What are the consequences of a leak in System A
engine pump or lines?
⇒ Fluid Leaks to standpipe (approx 20% left at
standpipe)
What are the consequences of a leak in System A
electric pump?
⇒ Complete fluid loss
What are the consequences of a leak in System B?
⇒ Fluid loss to standpipe (still allows PTU
operation)
What are the consequences of a leak in the STBY
System?
⇒ Complete fluid loss (B system to 72%)
What does the PTU do?
⇒ LED extension and retraction; autoslat
operation (airborne, flaps
What does the LGTU do?
⇒ B system transfers fluid to A system to help
raise the gear
What does the STBY Hydraulic system power?
⇒ Standby rudder, thrust reversers, leading
edge devices, and Stby yaw damper (manual
reversion)
How is the STBY HYD System activated manually?
⇒ STBY rudder or ALT flaps master SW
How is the STBY HYD System activated
automatically?
⇒ Loss of system A or B, flaps not up, 60 KTS
or greater or airborne or FFM activated
What is the purpose of the overhead gear lights?
⇒ Redundant, do not need view ports
What is indicated by a three-green indication on
the overhead gear lights and only two-green
indication on the center forward panel?
⇒ Gear is down and locked
Does the same set of circuits operate both sets of
lights on the overhead & center forward panel?
⇒ No
What is the OFF gear handle position for?
⇒ Removes hydraulic pressure from landing
gear system
What is the gear handle trigger for?
⇒ Allows landing gear to be raised, bypassing
the lever lock
What normally releases the lever lock on the
landing gear?
⇒ Air/ground sensing
When the gear handle is raised on takeoff, what
takes place?
⇒ Hydraulic pressure releases uplocks, brakes
stop tire rotation, retraction is accomplished,
mechanical uplocks engage to hold gear up
When the gear handle is moved to the DOWN
position, what happens?
⇒ HYD press releases uplocks
⇒ Gear extends by HYD press, airloads and
gravity
⇒ Overcenter mechanical and HYD locks hold
the gear at full extension
What is indicated by a red gear light?
⇒ Not down and locked throttle(s) idle & less
than 800 ft RA or disagreement with lever (intransit
of unsafe)
What is indicated by all lights extinguished?
⇒ Gear is up and locked
Which hydraulic system is used for alternate nose
wheel steering?
⇒ System B
Is alternate nose wheel steering ever
automatically selected?
⇒ No
In the normal mode, which hydraulic system is
providing power for steering?
⇒ System A
In the alternate mode, which hydraulic system is
providing power for steering?
⇒ System B
What does pressing the landing gear warning
horn button accomplish?
⇒ Silences landing gear warning horn
Does pushing the landing gear warning horn
button always cancel the configuration horn?
⇒ No
When does the landing gear warning horn button
not cancel the configuration horn?
⇒ Flaps 15 or greater with landing gear up
What does RTO refer to?
⇒ REJECTED TAKEOFF MODE
When do you get autobrakes when this mode is
armed?
⇒ THROTTLES IDLE ABOVE 90 KNOTS
What happens if you reject the takeoff below 90
knots?
⇒ No autobrakes are activated and RTO remains
armed
What conditions must exist in order to arm RTO?
⇒ On the ground anti-skid and autobrakes
operational RTO selected at less than 60
knots idle power
What happens to the RTO mode when airborne?
⇒ It is automatically disarmed
What happens to RTO switch when airborne?
⇒ It does not move from RTO
What happens if you land in the RTO mode?
⇒ No autobrake action occurs
What happens when you first select an autobrake
mode for landing?
⇒ Does a self-test
What is indicated by a successful self-test?
⇒ Autobrake Disarm light illuminates for one
second then extinguishes
What is indicated by an unsuccessful self-test?
⇒ Autobrake disarm light remains illuminated
and system does not arm
How many levels of deceleration can be selected
with Autobrakes?
⇒ Four
What kind of braking do you get in the MAX
Autobrake mode?
⇒ Less than produced by full pedal braking
What is different about selecting MAX?
⇒ You must pull the switch out and rotate
After landing, when does autobrake application
begin?
⇒ Both thrust levers to idle main wheels spinup
Can landing autobrake selections be made after
landing?
⇒ Yes
When can you select after landing
⇒ Any time above 60 knots
Will the autobrake system completely stop the
airplane?
⇒ Yes
How can the pilot disarm the autobrake system?
⇒ Move the selector switch to off
⇒ Speed brake lever to the down detent
⇒ Advancing a throttle momentarily
⇒ Manual braking
Will autobrakes operate with alternate brake
system?
⇒ No
Will autobrakes operate with accumulator
pressure?
⇒ No
Do Alternate brakes have anti-skid protection?
⇒ Yes
What is different about anti-skid protection with
alternate brakes?
⇒ Paired wheels
What kind of protection is available with normal
brakes?
⇒ Individual wheels
If the anti-skid light is ON, does anti-skid work?
⇒ No
What types of anti-skid are available?
⇒ Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and
hydroplane
What does an illuminated ANTI-SKID light
indicate?
⇒ A system fault exists
What is normal brake pressure?
⇒ 3,000 PSI
What is maximum brake pressure?
⇒ 3,500 PSI
What is the normal brake precharge pressure?
⇒ 1,000 PSI
Which system pressurizes the brake accumulator?
⇒ System B
With accumulator only what braking is available?
⇒ Several applications and parking brake
What light might you see on the forward panel if
there is a fault in the parking brake system?
Anti-skid inop light
What is being tested when this stall test switch is
pushed?
⇒ SMYD (Stall Management & Yaw Damper
Computer)
When can you perform the test of the stall
warning system?
⇒ On the ground
What electrical power must be available for the
stall test?
⇒ AC power
When is the stall warning system armed for
operation?
⇒ In flight
Will the FO’s stick shaker be felt on the Captain’s
control column?
⇒ Yes
What does the amber color on the Leading Edge
Device annunciator represent?
⇒ LED in transit
What does the green color on the Leading Edge
Device annunciator represent?
⇒ LED in extend or full extend position
What color is the annunciator for an LED in
transit?
⇒ Amber
What color is the annunciator for an LED in a
proper position?
⇒ Green or Extinguished (retracted)
What is wrong if all lights on the LED are
extinguished?
⇒ Nothing
Why do leading edge flaps have just two positions
on the annunciator?
⇒ They are either retracted or extended
Why do leading edge slats have three positions
on the annunciator?
⇒ Retracted, Extended or Full Extended
When might a green light be an indication of an
abnormal condition?
⇒ LED jammed or in an improper or
uncommanded position
If this panel was inoperative, where could you
monitor LED’s in transit?
⇒ Forward Instrument Panel LE flaps in transit
light
Is autoslat movement displayed on the LED
annunciator panel?
⇒ Yes
Is autoslat movement displayed on the LE FLAPS
TRANSIT light on the Center Forward Panel?
⇒ No, this light is inhibited during autoslat ops
What happens when you press the test switch?
⇒ All lights on the annunciator panel illuminate
Do the LED annunciator lights test with the
MASTER LIGHTS TEST switch on the forward
panel?
⇒ Yes
At what flap setting do slats move to the EXTEND
position?
⇒ Flaps 1, 2, & 5
At what flap setting do the leading edge flaps
move to FULL EXTEND?
Flaps 1 or greater
At what flap setting do slats move to the FULL
EXTEND position?
⇒ Flaps 10 or greater
How many ailerons are there?
⇒ Two
How many elevators are there?
⇒ Two
How many rudder sections are there?
⇒ One
How are the ailerons operated normally?
⇒ Cables connect control wheels to the hydraulic PCUs (power control units)
How are the ailerons operated with the loss of
Hyd. System A or B?
⇒ No change from normal
How are the ailerons operated with loss of both
Systems A and B?
⇒ Manually by cables
What is installed on the ailerons to aid with
manual reversion flight?
⇒ Balance tab
How are the elevators operated normally?
⇒ Cables connect control columns to PCUs
Are the elevators interconnected?
⇒ Yes, by a torque tube
How are the elevators operated with the loss of
System A or B?
⇒ No change from normal
How are the elevators operated with the loss of
both systems A and B?
⇒ Manually by cables
What is installed on the elevators to aid with
manual reversion flight?
⇒ Balance tabs
How is the rudder operated normally?
⇒ Cables connected to hydraulic PCUs
Are the rudder pedals interconnected?
⇒ Yes
Which hydraulic system normally powers the
main rudder PCU?
⇒ Both A and B
Which hydraulic system normally powers the
main yaw damper?
⇒ System B
How is the rudder operated with the loss of
System A?
⇒ System B and STANDBY rudder PCU
How is the rudder operated with the loss of
System B?
⇒ System A and STANDBY rudder PCU
How is the rudder operated with the loss of both
Systems A and B
⇒ STANDBY rudder PCU
What happens if the FLT CONTROL A switch is
moved to OFF?
⇒ Flight control shutoff valve closes isolating
flight controls from system A hydraulics
What happens if the FLT CONTROL A switch is
moved to STBY RUD?
Activates the standby pump and opens the
standby rudder shutoff valve
What happens if the FLT CONTROL B switch is
moved to OFF?
⇒ Flight control shutoff valve closes isolating
flight controls from the system B hydraulics
What happens if the FLT CONTROL B switch is
moved to STBY RUD?
⇒ Activates the standby pump and opens the
standby rudder shutoff val
What happens if both FLT CONTROL switches are
moved to OFF?
⇒ Pressure from both A and B systems is
removed from the elevators, ailerons, and
the rudder
What happens if both FLT CONTROL switches are
moved to STBY RUD?
⇒ Standby rudder PCU is still powered, flight
controls revert to manual ops, & standby yaw
damper is enabled (turn switch on)
Would the operation of the primary flight controls
be affected by a loss of System A or B?
⇒ No
Would the operation of the primary flight controls
be affected by the loss of Systems A and B?
⇒ Yes
On the modified rudder system, what does the
STBY RUD ON light mean?
⇒ It indicates the standby rudder system is
commanded on to pressurize the standby
rudder power control unit
What limits full rudder authority in flight after
takeoff and before landing?
⇒ At speeds above approx 135 KTS, both hyd
system A and B pressure are reduced by 25%
each
What is the purpose of the Force Fight Monitor
(FFM)?
⇒ It detects opposing pressure (force fight)
between A and B actuators in the main
rudder PCU
What happens if opposing pressure is detected?
⇒ The FFM automatically turns on the standby
hydraulic pump, opens the standby rudder
shutoff valve, and illuminates the STBY
rudder on, MC, and flight control light
How is the Captain’s control column connected to
the primary flight controls?
⇒ Cables to the aileron PCUs
How is the FO’s control column connected to the
primary controls?
⇒ Cables to the spoiler PCUs
Are the Captain’s and FO’s control wheels
connected?
⇒ Yes – by a cable drive system
Would control forces be higher during manual
reversion flight?
⇒ Yes – friction & airloads
What happens if an aileron or spoiler becomes
jammed?
⇒ Aileron transfer mechanism allows operating
controls to be separated from non-operating
controls
How are the ailerons trimmed?
⇒ Electronically repositioning the aileron feel &
centering unit
Where is the aileron trim indicated?
⇒ Top of the control column
Do the control wheels move when the ailerons are
trimmed?
⇒ Yes
Can the aileron trim be used during manual
reversion?
⇒ Yes
Should the aileron trim be used with an autopilot
engaged? Why or why not?
⇒ No! Abrupt roll if not in trim when the A/P is
disengaged
What happens if an elevator becomes jammed?
⇒ Transfer mechanism allows separation of
control columns to breakout operating
control column
What system is still available to assist with a
jammed elevator?
⇒ Stab trim
How are the elevators trimmed
⇒ Only by mach trim above .615 mach
How is pitch trim accomplished?
⇒ Stab trim
How many speeds does the stabilizer trim motor
have?
Two
When do these two speeds of stabilizer trim
motor operate?
⇒ High speed with flaps extended and low
speed with flaps retracted
How is the rudder trimmed?
⇒ Electronically and hydraulically repositioning
the rudder Feel & Control Unit
When the rudder trim is used, are the rudder
pedals displaced?
⇒ Yes
What is indicated by a FLT CONTROL LOW
PRESSURE light?
⇒ Just that
Is this LOW PRESSURE light ever deactivated?
When?
⇒ Yes, when standby rudder is on
In normal operation, would crew members be
concerned with operating the SPOILER switches?
⇒ No
For what purpose are the SPOILER switches used?
⇒ Maintenance
How do spoilers aid with roll control of the
airplane?
⇒ Spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron
when control wheel is displaced more than
10 degrees
How many spoiler panels are used as flight
spoilers
⇒ 8
From what hydraulic system do flight spoilers
receive pressure?
⇒ Half from A, half from B
What purpose other than roll control are the
spoilers used?
⇒ Speedbrakes
When is flight spoiler activation initiated?
⇒ Approx 10 degrees of control wheel
displacement
Which hydraulic system normally powers the
main rudder PCU?
⇒ A and B systems
Which hydraulic system normally powers the
main yaw damper?
⇒ B system
What condition would illuminate the yaw damper
light?
⇒ B flt control switch off or stby rudder, or the
SMYD computer senses a system fault
If hydraulic System B fails will the yaw damper
switch move to OFF automatically?
⇒ No
Will the yaw damper switch ever move to OFF
automatically?
⇒ Yes (B flt control switch to Off or stby
rudder)
Can the yaw damper switch be turned ON after a
loss of System B hydraulics (only)?
⇒ No
When can the yaw damper switch be turned ON
after an automatic disengagement?
⇒ A & B flight control switches in stby rudder
How are the Trailing Edge flaps normally
operated?
⇒ Hydraulically from system B
What is the backup system for operation of the TE
flaps if the B system fails?
⇒ Electrically through the alternate flaps
position switch
What happens when you move the ALT FLAPS
MASTER switch to ARM?
⇒ Activates the standby pump
⇒ Arms alt flaps position switch
⇒ Closes the trailing edge flap bypass valve
How then are the TE flaps extended?
⇒ By an electric motor
Can the TE flaps be retracted with the ALT FLAPS
POS switch?
⇒ Yes
What feature normally available would not be
available during alternate flap operation?
⇒ Asymmetry and skew protection
What happens to the LED’s when you activate the
ALT FLAPS POS switch?
⇒ All LEDs go to full extend
Can the LED’s be retracted with this switch?
⇒ No
Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held
down until LED’s arrive at the desired position?
⇒ No
Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held
down until the TE flaps arrive at the desired
position?
⇒ Yes
Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held in
the up position?
⇒ No (magnetically held UP)
What is the alternate flap duty cycle time for flap
positions 1 to 15?
⇒ 5 Minutes off
What is the alternate flap duty cycle time for flap
positions greater than 15?
⇒ 25 Minutes off
What would the illumination of the FEEL DIFF
Pressure light indicate?
⇒ Excessive pressure differential
Which hydraulic systems send signals to the
Elevator Feel Computer?
⇒ A and B Systems
Would the illumination of the FEEL DIFF
Pressure light mean that a hydraulic system has
failed?
⇒ Possibly
Could a problem with the elevator feel pitot
tube cause FEEL DIFF Pressure light to illuminate?
⇒ Yes
What would the Speed Trim Fail light mean?
⇒ System failure (both channels)
What if the Speed Trim Fail light did not
illuminate until recall?
⇒ Single channel failure
If the Speed Trim Fail light illuminated during
recall, could it be reset?
⇒ Yes
What is the purpose of the Speed Trim?
⇒ To return the airplane to a trimmed speed
condition
What are some of the conditions for Speed
Trim operation?
⇒ Airspeed between 100 KIAS and MACH 0.5,
10 sec after takeoff; 5 sec following release of
trim switches
⇒ Autopilot not engaged
⇒ Sensing of trim requirements
What does the Speed Trim system trim?
⇒ The stabilizer
What is the purpose of the Elevator Feel Shift
Module (EFS)?
⇒ Along with the speed trim and yaw damper
help identify and prevent further movement
into a stall condition
How does it prevent further movement?
⇒ Increases forward control column force to
approx four times normal feel pressure
What would the MACH TRIM FAIL light mean?
⇒ System failure (both computers)
What if the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated
only during recall?
⇒ Single channel failure
If the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated
during recall, could it be reset?
⇒ Yes
When is mach trim automatically
accomplished?
⇒ Above .615 MACH
With failure of the mach trim system, what is
your speed restriction?
⇒ 280 KTS/ .82 MACH
What does the Mach Trim system trim?
⇒ The elevators
What is the purpose of the Mach Trim System?
⇒ Provides speed stability at higher MACH
numbers (by preventing mach tuck)
What would the illumination of the AUTO
SLAT FAIL light mean?
⇒ System failure (both computers)
What if the AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminated
only during recall?
⇒ Single SMYD channel failure
If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminated only
on recall, would it extinguish when recall was
reset?
⇒ Yes
If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light were ON, would
autoslats work
⇒ No
If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light were ON, would
autoslats work with PTU power?
⇒ No
What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM
light mean?
⇒ Abnormal condition or test inputs to
automatic speed brake system
What does the SPEED BRAKE ARMED light
mean?
⇒ A valid automatic speed brake system input
When is the STAB OUT OF TRIM light armed?
⇒ (A/P ops) Auto-pilot engaged
What does the STAB OUT OF TRIM light mean?
⇒ Auto-pilot is not trimming stabilizer properly
(may be on momentarily with large power or
configuration changes)
What does the YAW DAMPER indicator
display?
⇒ Yaw damper movement of the rudder
Does the YAW DAMPER indicator display
rudder pedal input?
⇒ No
What can be determined from the Trailing
Edge (TE) Flap indicator?
⇒ Flap position, Asymmetry or skew condition
What electrical power is needed for the flap
position indicator?
⇒ 28V AC (transfer bus #2)
How would you be able to determine an
asymmetry condition?
⇒ A split needle of the TE Flap indicator
What does the illumination of the LE FLAPS
TRANSIT light indicate?
⇒ Any LED in transit
⇒ Any LED not in programmed position
⇒ Slat skew or asymmetry (inboard 3 only)
⇒ During alternate flap extension until reaching
TE flaps 10
Does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light work during
autoslat extension?
No
What causes the LE FLAPS EXT light to
illuminate?
⇒ All LED’s extended (full ext with flaps 10 thru
40)
What other indicator can you use to
determine position of the LED’s?
⇒ LED annunciator panel
What is indicated by the illumination of the
SPEED BRAKES EXT light
⇒ In flight: beyond armed and TE flaps >10, or
RA
Does the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to be
armed to get spoilers on an RTO?
⇒ No
Why doesn’t the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to
be armed during an RTO to get spoilers?
⇒ During an RTO, auto speed brake system
works when: Wheel Spin – up (60 knots),
reverse thrust is selected
Does the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to be
armed to get spoilers on landing?
⇒ Yes
When does the SPEEDBRAKE system operate
on landing?
⇒ Armed (light on); both throttles to idle; flight
spoilers deploy: Wheel spin – up (60 knots);
ground spoilers deploy: right main gear strut
compresses RA
In flight, what is controlled by the speed brake
lever?
⇒ Flight spoilers symmetrically
What are the cautions concerning the use of
the speedbrake lever in flight?
⇒ Caution should be exercised in a turn since it
greatly Increase roll rate
⇒ Moving the Speed Brake lever past the flight
detent causes buffeting and is prohibited in
flight
- What is the significance of the green band on
the Stabilizer Trim Scale?
⇒ Allowable range for takeoff
Why are gates on the Flap Lever positioned at
the 1 and 15 degree settings?
⇒ Go-around flap settings
What do you have to do to get past the gates
on the Flap Lever?
⇒ Push the handle down as you move it
What are normal landing flap settings?
⇒ Flaps 30 and flaps 40
When the flap handle is at 5 degrees, where
are the LED’s?
⇒ Leading edge flaps: full extend
⇒ Leading edge slats: extend
When the flap handle is at 15 degrees, where
are the LED’s?
⇒ Leading edge flaps: full extend
⇒ Leading edge slats: full extend
Does the flap handle move during autoslat
operation?
⇒ No
Does the flap handle move during flap blowup
operation?
⇒ No
Should the flap lever be moved during
alternate flap operation?
⇒ Yes, as called for in the checklist
What does the takeoff configuration system
monitor?
⇒ Parking Brake (if it is set) ⇒ Trim (takeoff range) ⇒ Speed Brake (handle down detent) ⇒ Spoilers (All boards down) ⇒ Flaps (takeoff configuration) ⇒ LE devices (not in takeoff configuration)
Can you cancel the takeoff configuration
warning?
⇒ No
When will you get a configuration warning?
⇒ On the ground and either or both thrust
levers are advanced for takeoff
What is the purpose of the Stab Trim Cutout
switches?
⇒ Disconnect stab trim during a runaway
Which of the Stab Trim Cutout switches will
cause disengagement of the A/P if engaged?
⇒ Stab trim A/P cutout
How is aileron trim accomplished?
⇒ Electrically through aileron F&C Unit
Do the ailerons move when they are trimmed?
⇒ Yes
Can the autopilot trim the ailerons?
⇒ No
Can you trim the ailerons with the autopilot
engaged?
⇒ Yes, but you should NOT
Where is aileron trim indicated?
⇒ Top of yoke
How is the rudder trim accomplished?
⇒ Through the rudder feel & centering unit
Do the rudder pedals move when the rudder is
trimmed?
⇒ Yes
Can the autopilot trim the rudder?
⇒ No
Does the rudder have trim tabs?
⇒ No
Where is rudder trim indicated?
⇒ Aft pedestal indicator
Can the rudder be trimmed with a loss of
hydraulics?
⇒ No
What is the purpose of the Stab Trim Override
switch?
⇒ Bypasses the control column actuated stab
trim cutout switches (under floor) to restore
power to the stabilizer trim switches
Is the Stab Trim Override switch electrical or
mechanical?
⇒ Electrical
What does IDG stand for?
Integrated drive generator
How many IDG’s does this aircraft have?
Two
Do the AC power sources normally operate
paralleled or isolated?
⇒ Isolated
What does BAT DISCHARGE light mean?
⇒ Excessive battery discharge
What does TR UNIT light mean on the ground? In
flight?
⇒ Any TR has failed; TR 1 OR TR 2 and TR 3 have
failed
What does the ELEC light mean?
⇒ fault in DC or STBY power systems
Will you see the ELEC light in flight?
⇒ No, It is a ground only light
When is the ELEC light inhibited?
⇒ In flight
What is the normal IDG frequency?
⇒ 400 CPS
What is the normal IDG voltage?
⇒ 115 volts
What is the normal battery voltage?
⇒ 24 (22-30 volt range)
If under normal conditions the battery switch is
turned OFF, would the Battery Bus be powered?
⇒ No
If under normal conditions the battery switch is
turned OFF, would the Switched Hot Battery Bus
be powered?
⇒ No
What does the STANDBY PWR OFF light mean?
⇒ STBY AC, STBY DC, or Battery Bus are not
powered
What does the DRIVE light mean?
⇒ Low oil pressure in the IDG
What items make up the Standby Power System?
⇒ Hot battery bus ⇒ Switched hot battery bus ⇒ Battery bus ⇒ Standby AC ⇒ Standby DC ⇒ Static inverter
With the standby power switch in BATT, what is
available?
⇒ Hot battery bus ⇒ Switched hot battery bus ⇒ Battery bus ⇒ Standby AC ⇒ Standby DC ⇒ Static inverter
With the standby power switch in AUTO, what is
available?
⇒ All busses
With the standby power switch in OFF, what is
available?
⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus
Can an IDG be automatically disconnected?
⇒ Yes, due to high oil temperature
What is the covered Disconnect Switch used for?
⇒ When QRH procedure calls for a disconnect
An illuminated GRD POWER AVAILABLE light
means what?
⇒ Acceptable ground power is available
What checks the incoming EXT PWR for quality?
⇒ Bus power control unit
Does the EXT PWR light have a bright blue/dim
blue feature?
⇒ No
When you connect external power to the airplane
electrical system, are both TB’s powered?
⇒ Yes
If the APU is powering the TB’s and EXT PWR is
selected ON, how many busses will EXT power?
⇒ All
What does a TRANSFER BUS OFF light mean?
⇒ Transfer bus not powered
What does a GEN OFF BUS light mean?
⇒ IDG not supplying power to the TB
What does a SOURCE OFF light mean?
⇒ Respective IDG not powering bus or
previously selected source no longer powering bus
What does the BUS TRANSFER switch do?
⇒ Enables or disables auto bus switching
What does the APU GEN OFF BUS light mean?
⇒ APU GEN available but not powering any
busses
If the APU is supplying power to both TB’s and
one APU GEN switch is moved to OFF, what
happens?
⇒ That source off light illuminates and both
transfer busses remain powered
What happens in flight if an IDG fails?
⇒ Auto bus transfer allows other IDG to power
failed side IDG’S TB
How many TR’s are there?
⇒ Four (TR #1, TR #2, TR #3, and Battery
Charger
What normally supplies power to the standby AC
bus; if AC power is not available?
⇒ TB #1; inverter
Is it possible to power one TB from EXT and one
TB from APU?
⇒ No
Is it possible to power one TB from EXT or APU
and one TB from an IDG?
⇒ Yes
Is ground service available without powering all
of the airplane busses?
⇒ Yes
How is the ground service available without
powering all the a/c busses accomplished?
⇒ Ground service switch on fwd FA panel
What happens if you takeoff with the APU
powering both TB’s and the APU fails?
⇒ Auto connect to engine IDG’S one time only
flight only
For single generator operation, is load shedding
automatic or manual?
⇒ Automatic
Which components are shed automatically?
⇒ (Galley Switch Option) galleys on txfr bus 2,
then galleys on txfr bus 1, then main bus #2,
then main bus #1
⇒ (CAB/UTIL Switch Option) galleys and main
bus on txfr bus #2, then galleys and main bus
on txfr bus #1, then IFE busses
In flight, if the APU is the only available power
source do you have to manually load shed?
⇒ No
How is the load shed when the APU is the only
power source?
⇒ (CAB/UTIL Switch Option) in flight, all galley
and main busses are shed. If load still too
high, the IFE busses are shed (Galley Switch
Option) all galleys are shed first; if load is still
too high, all main busses are shed
On the ground, will the APU load shed?
⇒ The APU attempts to carry the full electrical
load except during engine start
Is load restoration automatic or manual?
⇒ Automatic
Can you manually restore galley power? How?
⇒ maybe, cycle galley switch and see
What would an IDG automatically disconnect for?
⇒ High IDG oil temperature
Can a disconnected IDG be reconnected in flight?
⇒ No
What normally powers:
⇒ DC BUS #1?
a. TR 1, 2, and 3
What normally powers: DC BUS #2?
TR 1, 2, and 3
What normally powers: STBY AC BUS?
a. TB #1
What normally powers: STBY DC BUS?
TR1, or all TRs.
What normally powers: BATT BUS
TR #3
What normally powers: HBB
BATT CHG/TR
What normally powers: SHBB
BATT CHG/TR
Normally, are DC BUS #1 and DC BUS #2 isolated?
⇒ No
When are the main DC BUSSES isolated
automatically?
⇒ At glideslope intercept
How can you isolate the DC BUSSES manually?
Bus transfer switch off
How long will a fully charged battery be able to
supply standby power?
⇒ 30 minutes (single battery option)
⇒ 1 hour (dual battery option)
Does STANDBY POWER include one attempt at
starting the APU (fully charged battery)?
⇒ Yes (not recommended above FL250)
What busses are powered by the battery after loss
of both generators?
⇒ Hot battery bus ⇒ Switched hot battery bus ⇒ Battery bus ⇒ Standby AC ⇒ Standby DC ⇒ Static inverter
What does the OVERHEAT light mean?
⇒ An overheat has been detected
What does it mean if the Window Heat ON light is
extinguished with the switch ON?
System failure or an overheat has been
detected
Which window (s) is/are heated with the FWD switch?
⇒ #1 window (thru a temperature controller)
Which window (s) is/are heated with the SIDE switch?
⇒ #2 (thru a temperature controller) & #5 and #4
What is the function of the OVHT position of the
Window Heat test switch?
⇒ simulate an overheat condition
What is the function of the Window Heat POWER
TEST?
⇒ To verify operation when on light is off
Which windows are heated?
⇒ #1, #2, #4, and #5 (there is an option to heat #3)
If a Window Heat ON light was out, what would
you do?
⇒ Do a power test
If a POWER TEST confirmed that the window was
not getting heat, what are your restrictions?
⇒ Cannot exceed 250 knots below 10,000 ft.
MSL
What is indicated by an amber Probe Heat light?
⇒ Probe is not heated
If the ELEV PITOT heat amber light is ON, what
other light would you expect?
Elev feel diff press
Are the static ports heated electrically?
⇒ No
How are the static ports heated?
By the warm air that is circulated around the
cargo compartment
Below what temperature would you use WING
A/I?
10C/50F
What is anti-iced by the wing anti-ice system?
⇒ Inboard three LE slats
Will the wing anti-ice work on the ground?
⇒ Yes
How is wing anti-ice inhibited on the ground?
Overtemp in ducts or high power setting
blue light is bright
What happens to the wing anti-ice switch on
takeoff?
⇒ It trips off at liftoff
After selecting wing anti-ice ON how are the
minimum speed bars affected?
⇒ Min maneuvering speed and stickshaker
logic are increased
Once turned on in flight, will the stickshaker logic
return to normal when the wing anti-ice is turned
OFF?
⇒ No
Is the wing anti-ice effective in any slat position?
⇒ Yes
Will the LT VALVE OPEN or RT VALVE OPEN
position indicate bright then dim if the valves
cycle with thrust movement on the ground?
⇒ Yes
What is anti-iced on the engine?
⇒ The cowl lip
What is indicated by a COWL ANTI-ICE amber
light?
⇒ Overpressure condition in the duct
What is indicated by a COWL VALVE OPEN bright
light?
⇒ Valve in transit or disagrees with the switch
What is the TAI green indication above the N1
gages?
⇒ Valve open
What is the TAI amber indication above the N1
gages?
⇒ Not in agreement with the switch
At what temperature would you use engine antiice?
⇒ 10C/50F or less, visible moisture present or
anticipated
How are the minimum speed bars affected when
engine anti-ice is turned ON?
⇒ Min maneuvering speed and stickshaker
logic are increased
Do the speed bars return to normal when engine
anti-ice is turned OFF?
⇒ Yes
How can you silence a fire warning bell?
Press bell cutout or fire warning light
Some simple faults will not illuminate the Master
Caution Light and a system annunciator until
RECALL. How can you reset the annunciator and
the system light?
⇒ Press MC light
What is the power source for fire detection?
⇒ Battery bus (BB
What is the power source for fire protection?
⇒ Hot battery bus (HBB)
What is the power source for wheel well fire
detection?
⇒ #2 AC transfer bus (TB)
What happens when you pull an engine fire
handle?
⇒ Arms one discharge squib on each engine
fire extinguisher
⇒ Closes the fuel, hydraulic and engine bleed
air valves
⇒ Disables the thrust reverser
⇒ Trips generator control relay & breaker
⇒ Deactivates ENG HYD low pressure light
⇒ Allows rotation of the fire switc
Where are the engine fire bottles located?
⇒ Wheel well
What are the indications of an APU fire?
⇒ Fire warning bell sounds
⇒ Both fire warning lights illuminate
⇒ APU fire warning switch illuminates
⇒ APU automatically shuts down
⇒ Wheel well fire warning horn sounds (on
ground only) & wheel well light flashes
Where is the APU fire bottle located?
⇒ At the APU compartment
What happens when you pull the APU fire handle?
⇒ Arms the APU extinguisher circuit ⇒ Closes fuel shutoff valve, APU bleed air valve, and APU inlet door ⇒ Trips Gen control relay and breaker ⇒ Allows the APU fire switch to rotate
How many lights should you get on a normal test?
⇒ Five: Two green, Two red & an amber
Will you get a fire warning bell and FIRE WARN
lights?
⇒ Yes
In flight, if a DETECTOR FAULT light illuminates,
what has happened?
⇒ Both loops in one or both cargo
compartments have failed
What if a DETECTOR FAULT light illuminates
during a test?
⇒ One or more detectors in the loop(s) has
failed
What does an illuminated ENGINE CONTROL light
mean?
⇒ Engine control system is not dispatchable
due to a fault
Should you takeoff with an ENGINE CONTROL
light illuminated?
⇒ No
Will you see an ENGINE CONTROL light in flight?
⇒ No, ground only light
Each EEC has how many independent channels
(computers)?
⇒ Two
If an EEC channel fails, how do you select an
operating channel?
⇒ You don’t, EEC channel switching is
automatic
What will the EEC do for you if you shove the
throttle to the forward stop (firewall)?
⇒ The EEC will provide N1 and N2 redline overspeed protection (not EGT)
What engine protection will the EEC give you?
⇒ N1 & N2 redline overspeed protection
The EEC has how many control modes?
⇒ Two
What are these modes?
⇒ Normal
⇒ Alternate
The EEC has how many alternate modes?
Two
What are the EEC alternate modes?
Soft
⇒ Hard
How does the EEC operate in the soft ALTN mode
⇒ EEC uses the last valid flight conditions to
define engine parameters: Limits may change
if conditions do
What do the switches and lights look like in the
soft ALTN mode?
ON light and amber ALTN light
How does the EEC operate in the hard ALTN
mode?
⇒ ALTN thrust schedule, factory preprogrammed
hard data
What do the switches and lights look like in the
hard ALTN mode?
⇒ ALTN light only (push button)
⇒ ON light and ALTN light (pull throttle to idle)
Will you get full rated power in the hard alternate
mode?
⇒ Hard alternate mode thrust is always equal to
or greater than normal mode thrust for the
same lever position
Does the EEC provide N1 and/or N2 redline
overspeed protection?
Yes
Does the EEC provide EGT redline exceedence
protection?
No (except on ground starts only)
What are the IDLE phases the EEC can select?
⇒ Ground min.
⇒ Flight min.
⇒ Approach
When is APPROACH idle automatically selected?
Flaps in LDG CONFIG or ENG ANTI-ICE ON
In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC from receiving
flap or anti-ice signals, when is APPROACH idle
selected?
⇒ Below 15000 feet MSL
What does an illuminated amber REVERSER light
mean?
⇒ Fault in the reverser system
What are four things that can cause the REVERSER
light to illuminate?
⇒ Auto restow system active ⇒ Translating sleeve not in commanded position ⇒ Isolation valve not in the commanded position ⇒ Synchronization shaft lock circuitry problem
When do the REVERSER lights come on in normal
operation?
⇒ When stowing the reversers
For how long do the REVERSER lights illuminate?
⇒ When stowing the reversers. 10 seconds
When will you get a MC light & ENG annunciator
in the case of REVERSER light illuminated?
⇒ When reverser light stays on past 12 seconds
What is the function of the engine start switches
GRD position on the ground?
⇒ Open start valve, closes bleed valve, arms
ignition
How does ignition operate in CONT?
⇒ Selected igniter operates engine running
How does ignition operate in FLT?
⇒ Both igniters operate if engine failure is
sensed with start lever in idle
What is the power source for the LEFT igniters?
⇒ associated AC transfer bus
What is the power source for the RIGHT igniters?
⇒ Standby AC
When must the engine start switches (with the
OFF option) be in CONT?
⇒ takeoff, landing, heavy precip, anti-ice in use
What is the difference between the OFF option
and the AUTO option on the start switches?
⇒ When eng is running and flaps are not up
below 18,000 ft, or engine anti-ice is on, you
get ignition from the selected igniters
How many autothrottle actuators are there?
⇒ One servo motor for each throttle
What has to happen before reverse thrust can be
selected?
⇒ Throttles must be at idle position
Can the throttles be advanced while in reverse
thrust?
⇒ No
What does an overspeed warning sound like?
⇒ Clacker
Can you test the overspeed warning system in the
air?
⇒ No
If the mach / airspeed warning were to activate,
could you cancel it?
⇒ Yes, slow down
What system or component sends the signal to the aural warning module to sound the clacker?
⇒ ADIRU (Air Data Inertial Reference Unit)
What does an illuminated GPS light mean?
⇒ Failure of both GPS sensor units
What does an illumination of the GPS light mean
on RECALL?
⇒ Failure of a single GPS unit
What does an illuminated ALIGN (steady) light
mean?
⇒ IRS operating in ALIGN, INITIAL, ATT or
SHUTDOWN cycle
What does an illuminated ALIGN (flashing) light
mean on the IRU panel?
⇒ Difference in position entered or no position
entered
Does an extinguished ALIGN light on the IRU
panel mean that the system is OFF?
⇒ No
Does an extinguished ALIGN light mean that the
system is in NAV and aligned?
⇒ No, could be in ATTITUDE
What does an illuminated FAULT light mean on
the IRU panel?
⇒ ATT or NAV fault is detected in IRS
What does an illuminated ON DC light mean?
⇒ Momentary self test when first turned on or
AC power not normal
What does an illuminated DC FAIL light mean?
⇒ DC power not normal
Are the IRU’s the only source of attitude and
heading information?
⇒ No, integrated standby flight instruments
(ISFD) or standby instruments and STBY
compass
If the airplane’s present position cannot be
entered through the MCDU, how can it be
entered?
⇒ IRS Display Unit (ISDU)
Must the airplane remain stationary during
alignment?
⇒ Yes
How long should an alignment normally take?
⇒ 5 to 17 minutes (7 to 10 at our latitudes)
Where can you see how much time is remaining in
the alignment process?
⇒ ISDU-HDG/Status Pos
When the IRU mode selector is first positioned to
NAV, the ON DC light comes on. Why?
Self Test
What is the normal power source for IRU #1?
Backup?
⇒ Standby AC; Switched hot battery bus
What is the normal power source for IRU #2?
Backup?
⇒ AC Transfer bus #2, Switched hot battery
If the IRU does not like the airplane position
entered, what message will be displayed on the
MCDU?
⇒ Verify Position
How do you initiate a fast realignment on short
turnarounds?
⇒ Align, Enter Position, NAV or Align, NAV,
Enter Position
How long will a fast realignment take?
⇒ 30 Seconds (aircraft must remain stationary)
What happens if the airplane is moved during a
fast realignment?
⇒ IRS automatically begins a full alignment
process when the aircraft stops moving
Can IRU alignment be lost if the mode selector is
moved out of the NAV position?
⇒ Yes
If alignment is lost in flight, can it be regained
before landing?
⇒ No
What would the IRU’s be good for if alignment
was lost in flight?
⇒ Attitude Reference
How long would it take to reestablish attitude
reference?
⇒ 30 Seconds straight & level flight
What must be done by the crew to reestablish the
heading reference?
⇒ Enter actual heading
What should the crew be concerned about when
using IRU heading reference?
⇒ Updating it from time to time
What alert would you get if an IRU was left ON
and the battery was the only source of power?
⇒ Horn in Nose wheel well
If an IRU was to fail, could the affected pilot
benefit from the operating IRU?
⇒ Yes, IRS transfer switch
Which IRU is the default IRU?
⇒ Left for Left, Right for Right
If the aircraft reverted to STANDBY power, what
lights would you see on the IRS panel?
⇒ On DC light on the right, no lights on the left
How long will the ON DC light remain illuminated
on the right?
⇒ 5 Min, then it will shut down
What does NORMAL position of the IRS/VHF
NAV/FMC switching allow?
⇒ Default Operation
What does L/R position of the IRS/VHF NAV/FMC
switching allow?
⇒ Switches both to left or right units
On the Displays-Source Panel what does SOURCE
refer to?
⇒ Displays electronic unit (DEU)
When you switch ALL to 1 or 2, on the Displays-
Source Panel what are you switching?
⇒ Single DEU control of all displays
In AUTO which displays are controlled by
DEU 1?
⇒ Capt outboard
⇒ Capt inboard
⇒ Upper
In AUTO which displays are controlled by
DEU 2?
⇒ FO outboard
⇒ FO inboard
⇒ Lower
In AUTO, if DEU 1 failed, what would happen to
the affected displays?
⇒ DEU 2 controls
In AUTO, if DEU 2 failed, what would happen to
the affected displays?
⇒ DEU 1 controls
What does CONTROL PANEL refer to?
⇒ Displays or EFIS control panel
How is the NORMAL position of the switch
different from BOTH on 1 or 2?
⇒ Left controls Capt’s display and right controls
FO’s display
What modes are Weather Radar available in?
⇒ ARC or MAP
On EFIS Displays-Source Panel what modes is
TCAS display available?
⇒ MAP or ROSE
On the Mode Control Panel when is the Altitude
Alert inhibited?
⇒ Glideslope capture, flaps >25
What is the default airspeed of the Mode Control
Panel when first powered up?
⇒ 100 KTS
What is the default altitude of the Mode Control
Panel when first powered up?
⇒ Displays previously selected altitudes
Is it possible to have BELOW G/S lights
illuminated with other aural and visual alerts
active?
⇒ Yes
When would this light illuminate?
⇒ Excessive GS deviation (1.3 DOT)
When can you inhibit the Below G/S Inhibit alert?
⇒ Below 1,000 ft RA
What would the Display Switches be used for?
⇒ Switching displays on respective display units
Moving the Captain’s main DU to MFD will give
you what kind of display?
⇒ Displays PFD on outboard display. Inboard
display is blank until eng or sys is selected
What does an amber A/P light mean?
⇒ Light test switch held in #1 position
What does a flashing red A/P light mean?
⇒ Auto-pilot disengagement
What does a steady red A/P light mean?
⇒ Stab out of trim below 800 ft RA on a dual
A/P approach, ALT ACQ inhibited on
⇒ A/P GO-AROUND if stab not trimmed for
single A/P operation
What does a FMC light mean?
⇒ test #1 or #2 or a message exists for both
MCDU’S
How long will the ISFD operate after the main
battery (batteries) has been depleted?
⇒ 150 minutes
How long will the total time be for ISFD operation
with a single battery?
⇒ 180 minutes
What does the AUTO position mean on the Engine
Display Control Panel?
⇒ Both reference bugs set by the FMC
What does the BOTH position mean on the
Engine Display Control Panel?
⇒ both reference bugs set manually
What does the 1 or 2 position mean on the Engine
Display Control Panel?
⇒ respective engine N1 reference bug and
readout set manually
What does the Fuel Flow Reset position do on the
Engine Display Control Panel?
Resets fuel used to zero/displays fuel used
momentarily, decreases to zero then displays
fuel flow
What does the Fuel Flow Used position do on the
Engine Display Control Panel?
⇒ Displays fuel used since last reset; after 10
secs display auto reverts to fuel flow
What happens if Fuel Used switch is held longer
than 30 seconds?
⇒ Fuel Used readout is deactivated for
remainder of the flight
What does the AUTO position of the SPD REF
switch do?
⇒ FMC sets speeds and weights
What does the V1 position do on the Engine
Display Control Panel?
⇒ Manually sets V1 on the ground / in-flight
gives “V1 Invalid Entry” message
What does the VR position do on the Engine
Display Control Panel?
Manually sets VR on the ground / in-flight
gives “VR Invalid” message
What does the WT position do on the SPD REF
selector?
⇒ Allows manual entry or reference gross
weight
What does the VREF position do on the Engine
Display Control Panel?
⇒ Manually sets ref speed in flight / on the
ground displays “VREF Invalid Entry” message
What does the SET position do on the Engine
Display Control Panel?
⇒ Removes the digital readout above the
airspeed indication
What does the MFD engine switch display?
⇒ Secondary engine indications on the lower
DU or upper or inboard DU (Depending on
the position of the display select panel
selector)
What does the SYS position do on the Engine
Display Control Panel?
⇒ Displays hydraulic pressure and quantity on
the lower DU (will also display brake temp
and control positions if your aircraft has
those options)
What are the three windows of the Flight Mode
Annunciator (FMA)?
⇒ Autothrottle, roll, pitch
How would you move the Captains Inboard
display to another location?
⇒ Display select panel switch
What is the purpose of the Weather Radar TEST
button?
⇒ When activated it tests the radar system
operation without transmitting
What does the WX button do?
⇒ Shows weather radar returns at the selected
gain level
What about the WX-T button?
⇒ Also shows turbulence within 40 miles
