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737 Type Rating Oral Study > 737 ATP > Flashcards

737 ATP Flashcards

1
Q

Runway Slope

A

+/- 2%

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2
Q

Max tailwind / crosswind

A

15 / 36 (max demonstrated crosswind

w/winglets=33 knots)

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3
Q

Max Speed

A

320/.82

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4
Q

Turbulent Speed

A

280/.78

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5
Q

Max Altitude

A

41,000 ft.

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6
Q

Max Takeoff & Landing Altitude

A

8,400 ft.

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7
Q

Max Ramp Weight

A

174,700 lbs. (IGW) 156,000 lbs. (STD)

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8
Q

Max Takeoff Weight (MTOW)

A

174,200 lbs. (IGW) 155,500 lbs. (STD)

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9
Q

Max Landing Weight (MLW)

A

144,000 lbs.

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10
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)

A

136,000 lbs.

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11
Q

Max Cabin Differential Pressure

A

9.1 PSI

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12
Q

APU Bleed and Electrical

A

10,000 ft.*

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13
Q

APU Bleed Only

A

17,000 ft.

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14
Q

APU Electrical Only

A

41,000 ft.

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15
Q

Min Altitude for A/P ON after Takeoff

A

400 ft.

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16
Q

Min Altitude for A/P ON During Non-Pre App

A

50 ft below minimums

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17
Q

Maximum Engine Limits

A

Redline

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18
Q

Minimum Engine Limits

A

Redline

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19
Q

Caution Limits

A

Amber

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20
Q

Engine Ignition Must be ON For

A

Takeoff, Landing, Heavy Rain, Anti-Ice

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21
Q

Max Flap Extension Altitude

A

20,000 ft.

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22
Q

Min Altitude For Speed Brake Use

A

1,000 ft.

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23
Q

Alternate Flap Duty Cycle (down & up)

A

Flaps 1 thru 15 = 5 min; Flaps >15 = 25 mins

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24
Q

Fuel System Minimum Temperatures

A

-43 degrees C or fuel freeze plus 3 degrees C

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25
Q

Fuel System Maximum Temperatures

A

+49 degrees C

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26
Q

Fuel IMBAL For Taxi/Takeoff or Landing

A

1,000 lbs.

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27
Q

Icing Condition Temperature

A

10C / 50F

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28
Q

ADIRU Alignment Must Not be Attempted at

Latitudes Greater than

A

⇒ 78 degrees 15 minutes
⇒ *Under Captain’s Emergency Authority, APU
has demonstrated the capability to supply
both bleed air and electrical power up to
20,000 feet altitude.

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29
Q

What do you have left when on standby power?

A

?

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30
Q

What engine instruments are left on standby?

A

?`

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31
Q

What engine instruments are self generating?

A

?

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32
Q

If start engine valve does not close, what do you

do and why?

A

?

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33
Q

What is difference between LE flaps transit light
on fwd panel and transit yellow lights on aft
overhead?

A

?

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34
Q

Hydraulic discussion

A

⇒ What to look for on gauges for quantities?
⇒ What do you see if a leak in A or B occurs?
⇒ Discussion of Landing Gear Transfer Unit
⇒ Do system A and B mix fluid?

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35
Q

What is the alternate flap limit (1 cycle)?

A

⇒ What is 1 cycle? 15° or 40°?, therefore don’t
normally have to worry about time limit on
alternate flaps
⇒ Discussion of why time limit.
a. 0 - 15 = more lift
b. 15 - 30 = more drag
c. therefore more effort for motor to drive
flaps down

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36
Q

Discuss DC meter selector switch - what does it

do?

A

?

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37
Q

Discuss bus transfer switch - what does it do?

A 
⇒ Why are there two switch positions?
a. AUTO - provides 3 items – BTBs, DC bus
tie relay, TR3 transfer works
automatically
b. OFF-Prevents automatic transfer
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38
Q

What does flight recorder off light mean?

A

⇒ Can you go without F.R.? (MEL)

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39
Q

Discussion of duct overheat lights

A

⇒ What if in conjunction w/ bleed trip off?

a. What to do? I.e. warm up, cool off?

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40
Q

L Wing body overheat light on.

A

⇒ Where are sensors?

⇒ What do they do?

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41
Q

Pressurization - what power sources?

A 
⇒ What indicators do you have with electrical
failure?
a. Cabin rate of climb
⇒ How to control pressure normally and
manually?
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42
Q

Discussion of fire warning system

A

⇒ What do you see?
⇒ What do you see on test?
⇒ Discussion of where fuel valves are and what
opens or closes them
a. Fire switch @ fuel control
b. Start lever @ strut
⇒ Mentioned to watch for fuel valve closed
light to indicate that valve actually closed
(Look for this in sim check)

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43
Q

Discussion of zero fuel weights

A

?

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44
Q

With the Flight Recorder switch in NORMAL, when
does the flight recorder operate?
On the ground?
In the air?

A

⇒ Oil pressure on first engine started

⇒ Any electrical power available

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45
Q

What does an illuminated OFF light mean

adjacent to the Flight Recorder switch?

A

⇒ Power failure, loss of input data or electronic

malfunction, test failed

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46
Q

What are some of the things that the flight

recorder monitors?

A

⇒ Altitude
⇒ Heading
⇒ Acceleration
⇒ Airspeed

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47
Q

Where is the flight recorder located?

A

⇒ Aft cabin ceiling

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48
Q

What does the Crew Oxygen gage indicate?

A

⇒ Crew O2 pressure at the bottle

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49
Q

What is normal crew O2 pressure?

A

⇒ 1,850 psi

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50
Q

What is the normal minimum crew O2 pressure for

dispatch?

A

⇒ According to table in performance inflight

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51
Q

Where is the crew O2 bottle located?

A

⇒ Aft end of the E&E compartment

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52
Q

How is the crew O2 bottle accessed?

A

⇒ Thru the forward cargo compartment

forward bulkhead access panel

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53
Q

What happens if the crew O2 bottle becomes

overheated and thermally discharges?

A

⇒ Green disk will be gone (on pre-flight

inspection)

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54
Q

What kind of crew O2 do you get in NORMAL

operation of the crew mask?

A

⇒ Air/O2 mix on demand

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55
Q

What kind of crew O2 do you get in 100%?

A

⇒ 100% oxygen on demand

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56
Q

What kind of crew O2 do you get in EMERGENCY?

A

⇒ 100% oxygen under pressure

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57
Q

Where is the passenger O2 supply stored?

A

⇒ Each individual PSU unit

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58
Q

With the switch in the guarded NORMAL position,

when will the passenger O2 masks be presented?

A

⇒ Approximately 14,000 feet cabin pressure

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59
Q

What is the function of the ON position of the

PASS O2 switch?

A

⇒ Manual activation of pax oxy doors

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60
Q

How many masks are connected to each

passenger O2 generator?

A

⇒ 4 at passenger seats, 2 at flight attendants

and lavatories

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61
Q

What is indicated by the illuminated PASS OXY

ON light?

A

⇒ System activated

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62
Q

With the PASS OXY ON light illuminated, what

other light might you expect to see ON?

A

⇒ Auto fail light
⇒ MC lights
⇒ Overhead annunciator (ALT Horn @ 10,000
feet cabin altitude)

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63
Q

When does the passenger O2 generator actually

start to manufacture oxygen?

A

⇒ First mask pulled down on each bank of seats

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64
Q

How long will passenger O2 flow through the

passenger masks, once activated?

A

⇒ 12 minutes

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65
Q

Can the passenger O2 be shut off after flow is

initiated?

A

⇒ No

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66
Q

What can you do if a passenger oxygen mask

compartment does not open when activated?

A

⇒ Manually open

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67
Q

Should passengers use oxygen when the cabin

altitude is below 14,000 ft.? Why not?

A

⇒ No, air is mix of O2 and cabin air

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68
Q

What is available with the Service Interphone in

the OFF position?

A

⇒ Flight deck to cabin

⇒ Cabin to flight deck

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69
Q

What is available with the Service Interphone in

the ON position?

A

⇒ Connects all external jacks

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70
Q

With the Service interphone switch in the OFF
position, is communication between flight deck
and cabin possible?

A

⇒ Yes

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71
Q

Is there an exterior service interphone switch?

Where?

A

⇒ No, there is an external flight interphone jack

located on the external power panel

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72
Q

What does PSEU stand for?

A

⇒ Proximity Switch Electronic Unit

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73
Q

What does the PSEU monitor?

A

⇒ Air/Ground sensors
⇒ Configuration status/alerts
⇒ Overwing exit locks

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74
Q

When is the PSEU light inhibited?

A

⇒ In flight (takeoff power to 30 sec after

landing)

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75
Q

Should you be concerned with the PSEU light if it

is illuminated on the ground?

A

⇒ Yes

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76
Q

Should you be concerned with the PSEU light if it

illuminates during recall?

A

⇒ No, if it will cancel by pushing the MC light, it

is ok to go

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77
Q

Are there any limitations on the use of the

windshield wipers?

A

⇒ Don’t use on a dry windshield

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78
Q

Why is it important not to use wipers on a dry

windshield?

A

⇒ Will destroy rain repellant coating

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79
Q

What sort of rain repellant system do we use?

A

⇒ Rain repellant coating (like Rain-X)

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80
Q

In the ARMED position, when will the emergency

lights come on?

A

⇒ Loss of DC bus 1 or AC power has been

turned off

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81
Q

What do the EMERGENCY LIGHTS illuminate?

A

⇒ Aisle lights; entry/exit lights; escape path
lighting; dome light; locator
⇒ signs; area lighting; exterior area lighting

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82
Q

Where is the other EMERGENCY LIGHT switch?

A

⇒ AFT flight attendants panel

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83
Q

Will the AFT flight attendant panel Emergency

Light switch override the cockpit switch?

A

⇒ Yes

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84
Q

What cockpit light(s) are controlled by the

emergency light switch?

A

⇒ Flt deck CAPT dome light

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85
Q

What does the blue light on the audio control

panel indicate?

A

⇒ Ground or cabin is trying to call

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86
Q

Can you call the personnel on the ground?

A

⇒ Yes

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87
Q

How is this accomplished?

A

⇒ Thru the ground call button and nosewheel

well horn

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88
Q

Where is the CVR circuit breaker located?

A

⇒ Behind the captain’s seat

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89
Q

When does the CVR start recording?

A

⇒ Anytime 115V AC is applied to the A/C

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90
Q

How long is the CVR recording?

A

⇒ 120 minutes (older than 120 min is auto

erased)

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91
Q

How do you erase what is on the CVR?

A

⇒ On ground, parking brake set, hold 2 sec

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92
Q

What is unique to the EQUIP door light?

A

⇒ Only door light that has two doors associated

with it

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93
Q

What does the Lights test position do?

A

⇒ illuminates (at full brightness) all system
lights on center pedestal, overhead panel,
and most lights on instrument panel.

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94
Q

Which NAV modes will display TCAS traffic?

A

⇒ Map, center map, VOR or APP modes

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95
Q

What does a TA look like?

A

⇒ Solid amber circle

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96
Q

What does a RA look like?

A

⇒ Solid red square

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97
Q

What does pitch guidance on the PFD look like

during a RA?

A

⇒ Restrictive red bands

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98
Q

What does vertical speed guidance on the IVSI

look like during a RA?

A

⇒ Red-do not fly to / Green-fly to

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99
Q

In the TA/RA mode, when is an RA inhibited?

A

⇒ Stall
⇒ Windshear
⇒ GPWS
⇒ Less than 1,000 FT RA

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100
Q

What are the sources of bleed air?

A

⇒ engines, APU, ground air

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101
Q

What is bleed air used for?

A

⇒ Anti-ice, air cond, press of water, HYD
pressurization, engine start, (and aspirated
TAT probe if installed)

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102
Q

What is indicated by an illuminated DUAL BLEED

light?

A

⇒ APU bleed open with #1 eng bleed switched
position or APU bleed open with #2 eng
bleed open and isolation valve open

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103
Q

What would cause an Engine Bleed tripoff?

A

⇒ Excessive pressure or temperature

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104
Q

How does the Isolation Valve work in AUTO?

A

⇒ Valve is closed when all engine bleeds and

pack switches are on

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105
Q

What would cause a L WING BODY OVERHEAT

light to illuminate?

A

⇒ Duct leak left side (eng strut, wing leading
edge, air conditioning bay, keel beam, or APU
duct)

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106
Q

What would case a R WING BODY OVERHEAT light

to illuminate?

A

⇒ Duct leak on right side

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107
Q

Can a BLEED TRIP OFF be reset?

A

⇒ Yes

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108
Q

Can a WING BODY OVERHEAT be reset?

A

⇒ No

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109
Q

Equipment cooling is for the most part automatic.
When would you have to interact with the
system?

A

⇒ When the OFF light illuminates

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110
Q

What does the Equipment Cooling OFF light

indicate?

A

⇒ Loss of air flow due to fan failure

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111
Q

How many Supply fans are there? Exhaust fans?

A

⇒ Two, two

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112
Q

Where is equipment exhaust air drawn from?

A

⇒ Flight deck displays, overhead and AFT
electronic panels, circuit breaker panels and E
& E bay

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113
Q

Where is equipment cooling air exhausted?

A

⇒ Overboard exhaust valve (when open)

⇒ Outflow valve when OEV closed

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114
Q

If a supply or exhaust fan should fail when on the

ground, what indication would you get?

A

⇒ MC Light with an Overhead annunciation and

a nosewheel well horn

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115
Q

Is a single PACK capable of supplying all of the air
conditioning and pressurization requirements of
the airplane?

A

⇒ Yes

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116
Q

What is indicated by a PACK light?

A

⇒ Pack trip (overheat) or dual controller failure

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117
Q

When would you get HIGH flow if both packs were

in AUTO?

A

⇒ Both engine bleeds off and APU bleed on

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118
Q

If on downwind at 5 flaps and you had a pack to

fault, would the remaining pack go to high flow?

A

⇒ No, not with flaps out

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119
Q

Is it recommended to operate two packs from a

single bleed?

A

⇒ No

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120
Q

When would it be feasible?

A

⇒ on the ground with the APU

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121
Q

What sort of flow does the APU produce when a

pack is in HIGH on the ground?

A

⇒ Max rate

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122
Q

What is indicated by a CONT CAB zone temp light?

A

⇒ Duct temp overheat or dual controller failure

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123
Q

What is indicated by a FWD CAB zone temp light?

A

⇒ Duct temp overheat

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124
Q

What is indicated by a AFT CAB zone temp light?

A

⇒ Duct temp overheat

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125
Q

Can the AFT CAB zone temp light be reset?

A

⇒ Yes

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126
Q

If both the primary and secondary controllers for

a pack fail, will the pack continue to operate?

A

⇒ Yes

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127
Q

Why would the engineers design an air
conditioning system that is so seemingly difficult
to understand?

A

⇒ To make it simple to operate

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128
Q

When you move a zone temperature control up,

what are you asking the system to do?

A

⇒ Add warm trim (bleed) air

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129
Q

What do recirculation fans do?

A

⇒ Reduce pack workload and bleed air demand

which saves fuel

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130
Q

How would you achieve maximum cooling on the

ground?

A

⇒ Packs in auto, APU bleed open, & engine

bleeds closed

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131
Q

Which windows do the air vent controls defrost?

A

⇒ The #1 windows only

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132
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure?

A

⇒ 9.1 PSI

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133
Q

What is indicated by an AUTOFAIL light

illuminated by itself?

A

⇒ Dual controller failure

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134
Q

What is indicated by an AUTOFAIL light

illuminated along with the ALTN light?

A

⇒ Single controller failure

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135
Q

What is indicated by the OFF SCHED DESCENT

light?

A

⇒ Aircraft descended prior to (.25 PSI) reaching

cruise altitude

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136
Q

What is the result of changing the FLT ALT setting

after takeoff?

A

⇒ Inhibits auto return feature

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137
Q

How does the operation of the outflow valve in

manual compare with the operation in AUTO?

A

⇒ Slower (20 seconds-full closed to full open)

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138
Q

What condition would cause an AUTO FAIL light

to illuminate?

A 
⇒ Excessive rate of cabin change (+/- 2000 FPM)
⇒ Loss of DC power
⇒ Controller fault
⇒ Outflow valve problem
⇒ High cabin pressure (>8.75 PSI)
⇒ High cabin altitude (15,800 FT)
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139
Q

What does the HIGH ALT LDG Option Switch do?

A

⇒ Reprograms initiation of cabin altitude

warning horn from 10,000 ft to 12,500 ft.

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140
Q

What does ENG VALVE CLOSED mean when bright

blue?

A

⇒ In transit or disagreement

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141
Q

What does ENG VALVE CLOSED mean when dim

blue?

A

⇒ Valve closed

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142
Q

What does SPAR VALVE CLOSED mean when

bright blue?

A

⇒ In transit or disagreement

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143
Q

What does SPAR VALVE CLOSED mean when dim

blue?

A

⇒ Valve closed

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144
Q

What is the position of the engine valve or spar

valve if the lights are extinguished?

A

⇒ Open

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145
Q

Which valve is controlled by the start lever,

engine valve or spar valve?

A

⇒ Both, Spar valve and engine valve

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146
Q

Which one of these valves is controlled by the

engine fire switch?

A

⇒ Both

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147
Q

Which one of these valves is controlled by the

respective EEC?

A

⇒ Engine valve

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148
Q

What is the maximum fuel temperature?

A

⇒ 49C

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149
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature?

A

⇒ -43C or fuel freeze +3C (whichever is higher)

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150
Q

What is indicated by a FILTER BYPASS light?

A

⇒ Impending filter bypass (contaminated fuel)

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151
Q

Could the Filter Bypass light be ice? Why not?

A

⇒ Not likely. Fuel is warmed prior to entering

filter

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152
Q

If a fuel valve is in transit, is it bright or dim?

A

⇒ Bright

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153
Q

Is the fuel crossfeed from tank to tank or tank to

engine?

A

⇒ Tank to engine

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154
Q

How many valves are controlled with the

crossfeed switch?

A

⇒ One

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155
Q

What electrical power is needed to operate the

crossfeed valve?

A

⇒ Battery bus

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156
Q

Are the Center Tank FUEL LOW PRESS lights

always armed to indicate low pressure?

A

⇒ No, only in ON position

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157
Q

What does the Center Tank FUEL LOW PRESS

lights mean?

A

⇒ Pumps are on with output either LOW or NO

pressure

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158
Q

If only one Center Tank LOW PRESS light is on, will

the Master Caution light illuminate?

A

⇒ Yes, it only takes one LOW PRESS light to give
you the MC lights and FUEL ANNUNCIATOR
on the center tanks

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159
Q

With one Center Tank pump OFF, will illumination
of the opposite low press light illuminate the MC
light?

A

⇒ Yes

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160
Q

What is the electrical power source for the center

tank pumps?

A

⇒ AC Power

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161
Q

What is the electrical power source for the main

tank fuel pumps?

A

⇒ AC Power

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162
Q

What does illumination of a AFT/FWD fuel LOW

PRESS light mean?

A

⇒ Low output press or switch is off

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163
Q

What sort of indication would you get with the
illumination of just one LOW PRESS light in the
center tank?

A

⇒ Master caution and fuel annunciator on recall

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164
Q

What indication would you get with illumination

of both LOW PRESS lights in the same tank?

A

⇒ Master caution and fuel annunciator lights

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165
Q

How many fuel sticks are there in a Main Tank?

A

⇒ six

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166
Q

How many fuel sticks are there in the Center

Tank?

A

⇒ four

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167
Q

Which fuel is used first, Center Tank or Main

Tank?

A

⇒ Center tank fuel

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168
Q

Do Center Tank pumps produce the same

pressure as Main Tank pumps?

A

⇒ No, higher output

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169
Q

Engines have mechanical fuel pumps. Can they

suck fuel?

A

⇒ Yes

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170
Q

Can fuel be suctioned from the Main Tanks? Why?

A

⇒ Yes. They have a bypass valve

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171
Q

Can fuel be suctioned from the Center Tank?

Why?

A

⇒ No. No bypass valve

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172
Q

The Center Tank has a fuel scavenge jet pump.

What does it do?

A

⇒ Transfers remaining center tank fuel to #1
main tank when #1 main tank is
approximately half full and #1 fwd boost
pump is running

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173
Q

Where is the fuel temperature sensor located?

A

⇒ #1 main tank

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174
Q

Which tank can supply the APU?

A

⇒ Any tank with the appropriate pump on and

crossfeed position

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175
Q

Which tank can the APU suction feed from?

A

⇒ #1 main tank

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176
Q

What is the total capacity of the fuel system?

A

⇒ 46,000 lbs

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177
Q

How much fuel can the Center Tank hold?

A

⇒ 28,800 lbs

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178
Q

What does LOW indicate on the main tank gages?

A

⇒ Fuel quantity less than 2.000 lbs

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179
Q

Can you get a LOW indication on the Center Tank

gage?

A

⇒ no

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180
Q

What does CONFIG indicate on the Center Tank

gage?

A

⇒ Center tank quantity >1600 lbs with low or

no pump pressure and engine is running

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181
Q

What does IMBAL indicate on the Main Tank

gage?

A

⇒ Mains differ by more than 1000 lbs

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182
Q

The APU is located where on this airplane?

A

⇒ In the tail, fireproof compartment

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183
Q

If you tried to start the APU and had no luck, is

there anything you could check?

A

⇒ Battery switch on, fire handles in cockpit and

in the wheelwell

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184
Q

How long can it take the APU to start?

A

⇒ Up to 120 seconds

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185
Q

What are some requirements to start the APU?

A

⇒ BATT switch must be on and inlet door must

be fully open

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186
Q

What happens if the APU has not started by the

end of the start cycle?

A

⇒ Auto shutdown

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187
Q

What happens if the APU GEN OFF BUS light has

not illuminated by the end of the start cycle?

A

⇒ Auto shutdown & fault light illuminates

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188
Q

If a fault is sensed by the APU, what happens?

A

⇒ Auto shutdown

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189
Q

What are some of the things that will cause an

auto shutdown of the APU?

A 
⇒ Fire
⇒ Low oil pressure
⇒ High oil temperature
⇒ Overspeed
⇒ Fuel control unit fail
⇒ High EGT temperature
⇒ Other ECU faults
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190
Q

How long should the APU be operated before

using it as a bleed source?

A

⇒ One minute

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191
Q

Why is it recommended waiting one minute

before selecting bleed source after APU start?

A

⇒ To increase the service life

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192
Q

Is it mandatory to wait one minute after APU start

to select as bleed source?

A

⇒ No, but it is recommended. As soon as the
APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates it is ready
to take a load

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193
Q

When the APU switch is moved to OFF, does the

APU shut down immediately?

A

⇒ No

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194
Q

How could you shut the APU down immediately?

A

⇒ APU fire handle or BATT switch

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195
Q

During engine start will the APU ECU favor bleed

air or electrical load?

A

⇒ Bleed air

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196
Q

At other times is this APU load logic the same?

A

⇒ No, electrical load is favored

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197
Q

Does the battery switch have to be ON in order to

start the APU?

A

⇒ Yes

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198
Q

How do you know if the APU is ready to accept a

bleed air or electrical load?

A

⇒ APU GEN off bus light illuminates

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199
Q

What is indicated by the MAINT light?

A

⇒ Maintenance should be notified

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200
Q

Can you operate the APU with the MAINT light

on?

A

⇒ You can still use the APU if required

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201
Q

What is indicated by the APU LOW OIL PRESS

light?

A

⇒ Startup or shutdown due to low oil pressure

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202
Q

Can you operate the APU with the LOW OIL PRESS

light on?

A

⇒ No, this will cause an auto shutdown

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203
Q

What is indicated by the APU FAULT light?

A

⇒ Some fault caused auto shutdown

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204
Q

What is indicated by the APU OVERSPEED light?

A

⇒ APU RPM limit exceeded with a

corresponding auto shutdown

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205
Q

What is indicated by an APU OVERSPEED light on

shutdown?

A

⇒ Feature has failed a self-test during a normal

APU shutdown

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206
Q

Will an APU LOW OIL PRESSURE alert shut the APU

down before the start cycle is complete?

A

⇒ No

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207
Q

Approximately how long does it take for the APU

inlet door to open or close?

A

⇒ 20 seconds

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208
Q

What does an illuminated STBY HYD LOW

QUANTITY light indicate?

A

⇒ Low quality (approx 50%)

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209
Q

Is this STBY HYD LOW QUANTITY light always

armed?

A

⇒ Yes

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210
Q

What does an illuminated STBY HYD LOW

PRESSURE light indicate?

A

⇒ Low pressure

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211
Q

Is the STBY HDY LOW PRESSURE light always

armed?

A

⇒ No

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212
Q

When is the STBY HDY LOW PRESSURE light

armed?

A

⇒ When the standby system is armed or

operating

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213
Q

What does an illuminated STBY RUD ON light

indicate?

A

⇒ The standby rudder system is commanded
on to pressurize the standby rudder power
control unit

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214
Q

When does illumination of the STBY RUD ON light

take place?

A

⇒ When the force fight monitor (FFM) detects
opposing pressure between A and B
actuators (this may occur if either system A or
B is jammed or disconnected) or if Stby
rudder switch is on (A or B)

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215
Q

What is indicated by an electric pump OVERHEAT

light?

A

⇒ Associated pump has overheated
⇒ (Abex electric motor driven hydraulic pump
option)
⇒ If an overheat is detected in either pump, the
related overheat light illuminates
⇒ (Vickers electric motor driven hydraulic pump
option)
⇒ If an overheat is detected in either pump, the
related overheat light illuminates, power is
removed from the pump and the low
pressure light illuminates

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216
Q

What is indicated by a LOW PRESSURE light?

A

⇒ Output pressure is low

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217
Q

When is the engine LOW PRESSURE light

deactivated?

A

⇒ When the associated engine fire handle is

pulled

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218
Q

When is the electric pump LOW PRESSURE light

deactivated

A

⇒ Never

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219
Q

What happens when you turn OFF an engine

pump switch?

A

⇒ Blocks output pressure (by way of a blocking

solenoid)

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220
Q

What happens in the hydraulic system when you

pull and engine fire switch?

A

⇒ Shuts off fluid to the pump and deactivates

the low pressure light

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221
Q

What is the normal hyd system pressure?

A

⇒ 3,000 PSI

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222
Q

What is the maximum hyd system pressure?

A

⇒ 3,500 PSI

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223
Q

What is the minimum hyd system pressure?

A

⇒ 2,800 PSI

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224
Q

What does an RF mean adjacent to the hydraulic

quantity gage?

A

⇒ Refill

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225
Q

When is a RF indicated adjacent to hyd qty?

A

⇒ Quantity less than 76%

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226
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the:

A 
Gear A
TE Flaps + LE Devices B
Alternate Brakes A
Normal Brakes B
Flight Spoilers ½ by A
(2 out of four ea. wing) ½ by B
Autopilot A A
Autopilot B B
Ailerons A&B
Rudder A&B
Elevator A&B
Thrust reverser #1 A
Thrust reverser #2 B
PTU A
LGTU B
Ground Spoilers A
Yaw Damper B
Nose wheel steering A
Alt Nose wheel steering B
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227
Q

How does the output of an electric pump compare

with the engine driven pump?

A

⇒ Engine driven pump output volume 4 times

greater

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228
Q

Where are the heat exchangers for the (electric)

hydraulic fluid located?

A

⇒ Main fuel tanks

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229
Q

How much fuel is required in the tanks for ground

operation of the electric hyd pumps?

A

⇒ 1675 lbs

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230
Q

What are the consequences of a leak in System A

engine pump or lines?

A

⇒ Fluid Leaks to standpipe (approx 20% left at

standpipe)

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231
Q

What are the consequences of a leak in System A

electric pump?

A

⇒ Complete fluid loss

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232
Q

What are the consequences of a leak in System B?

A

⇒ Fluid loss to standpipe (still allows PTU

operation)

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233
Q

What are the consequences of a leak in the STBY

System?

A

⇒ Complete fluid loss (B system to 72%)

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234
Q

What does the PTU do?

A

⇒ LED extension and retraction; autoslat

operation (airborne, flaps

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235
Q

What does the LGTU do?

A

⇒ B system transfers fluid to A system to help

raise the gear

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236
Q

What does the STBY Hydraulic system power?

A

⇒ Standby rudder, thrust reversers, leading
edge devices, and Stby yaw damper (manual
reversion)

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237
Q

How is the STBY HYD System activated manually?

A

⇒ STBY rudder or ALT flaps master SW

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238
Q

How is the STBY HYD System activated

automatically?

A

⇒ Loss of system A or B, flaps not up, 60 KTS

or greater or airborne or FFM activated

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239
Q

What is the purpose of the overhead gear lights?

A

⇒ Redundant, do not need view ports

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240
Q

What is indicated by a three-green indication on
the overhead gear lights and only two-green
indication on the center forward panel?

A

⇒ Gear is down and locked

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241
Q

Does the same set of circuits operate both sets of

lights on the overhead & center forward panel?

A

⇒ No

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242
Q

What is the OFF gear handle position for?

A

⇒ Removes hydraulic pressure from landing

gear system

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243
Q

What is the gear handle trigger for?

A

⇒ Allows landing gear to be raised, bypassing

the lever lock

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244
Q

What normally releases the lever lock on the

landing gear?

A

⇒ Air/ground sensing

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245
Q

When the gear handle is raised on takeoff, what

takes place?

A

⇒ Hydraulic pressure releases uplocks, brakes
stop tire rotation, retraction is accomplished,
mechanical uplocks engage to hold gear up

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246
Q

When the gear handle is moved to the DOWN

position, what happens?

A

⇒ HYD press releases uplocks
⇒ Gear extends by HYD press, airloads and
gravity
⇒ Overcenter mechanical and HYD locks hold
the gear at full extension

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247
Q

What is indicated by a red gear light?

A

⇒ Not down and locked throttle(s) idle & less
than 800 ft RA or disagreement with lever (intransit
of unsafe)

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248
Q

What is indicated by all lights extinguished?

A

⇒ Gear is up and locked

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249
Q

Which hydraulic system is used for alternate nose

wheel steering?

A

⇒ System B

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250
Q

Is alternate nose wheel steering ever

automatically selected?

A

⇒ No

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251
Q

In the normal mode, which hydraulic system is

providing power for steering?

A

⇒ System A

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252
Q

In the alternate mode, which hydraulic system is

providing power for steering?

A

⇒ System B

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253
Q

What does pressing the landing gear warning

horn button accomplish?

A

⇒ Silences landing gear warning horn

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254
Q

Does pushing the landing gear warning horn

button always cancel the configuration horn?

A

⇒ No

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255
Q

When does the landing gear warning horn button

not cancel the configuration horn?

A

⇒ Flaps 15 or greater with landing gear up

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256
Q

What does RTO refer to?

A

⇒ REJECTED TAKEOFF MODE

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257
Q

When do you get autobrakes when this mode is

armed?

A

⇒ THROTTLES IDLE ABOVE 90 KNOTS

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258
Q

What happens if you reject the takeoff below 90

knots?

A

⇒ No autobrakes are activated and RTO remains

armed

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259
Q

What conditions must exist in order to arm RTO?

A

⇒ On the ground anti-skid and autobrakes
operational RTO selected at less than 60
knots idle power

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260
Q

What happens to the RTO mode when airborne?

A

⇒ It is automatically disarmed

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261
Q

What happens to RTO switch when airborne?

A

⇒ It does not move from RTO

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262
Q

What happens if you land in the RTO mode?

A

⇒ No autobrake action occurs

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263
Q

What happens when you first select an autobrake

mode for landing?

A

⇒ Does a self-test

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264
Q

What is indicated by a successful self-test?

A

⇒ Autobrake Disarm light illuminates for one

second then extinguishes

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265
Q

What is indicated by an unsuccessful self-test?

A

⇒ Autobrake disarm light remains illuminated

and system does not arm

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266
Q

How many levels of deceleration can be selected

with Autobrakes?

A

⇒ Four

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267
Q

What kind of braking do you get in the MAX

Autobrake mode?

A

⇒ Less than produced by full pedal braking

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268
Q

What is different about selecting MAX?

A

⇒ You must pull the switch out and rotate

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269
Q

After landing, when does autobrake application

begin?

A

⇒ Both thrust levers to idle main wheels spinup

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270
Q

Can landing autobrake selections be made after

landing?

A

⇒ Yes

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271
Q

When can you select after landing

A

⇒ Any time above 60 knots

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272
Q

Will the autobrake system completely stop the

airplane?

A

⇒ Yes

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273
Q

How can the pilot disarm the autobrake system?

A

⇒ Move the selector switch to off
⇒ Speed brake lever to the down detent
⇒ Advancing a throttle momentarily
⇒ Manual braking

274
Q

Will autobrakes operate with alternate brake

system?

A

⇒ No

275
Q

Will autobrakes operate with accumulator

pressure?

A

⇒ No

276
Q

Do Alternate brakes have anti-skid protection?

A

⇒ Yes

277
Q

What is different about anti-skid protection with

alternate brakes?

A

⇒ Paired wheels

278
Q

What kind of protection is available with normal

brakes?

A

⇒ Individual wheels

279
Q

If the anti-skid light is ON, does anti-skid work?

A

⇒ No

280
Q

What types of anti-skid are available?

A

⇒ Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and

hydroplane

281
Q

What does an illuminated ANTI-SKID light

indicate?

A

⇒ A system fault exists

282
Q

What is normal brake pressure?

A

⇒ 3,000 PSI

283
Q

What is maximum brake pressure?

A

⇒ 3,500 PSI

284
Q

What is the normal brake precharge pressure?

A

⇒ 1,000 PSI

285
Q

Which system pressurizes the brake accumulator?

A

⇒ System B

286
Q

With accumulator only what braking is available?

A

⇒ Several applications and parking brake

287
Q

What light might you see on the forward panel if

there is a fault in the parking brake system?

A

Anti-skid inop light

288
Q

What is being tested when this stall test switch is

pushed?

A

⇒ SMYD (Stall Management & Yaw Damper

Computer)

289
Q

When can you perform the test of the stall

warning system?

A

⇒ On the ground

290
Q

What electrical power must be available for the

stall test?

A

⇒ AC power

291
Q

When is the stall warning system armed for

operation?

A

⇒ In flight

292
Q

Will the FO’s stick shaker be felt on the Captain’s

control column?

A

⇒ Yes

293
Q

What does the amber color on the Leading Edge

Device annunciator represent?

A

⇒ LED in transit

294
Q

What does the green color on the Leading Edge

Device annunciator represent?

A

⇒ LED in extend or full extend position

295
Q

What color is the annunciator for an LED in

transit?

A

⇒ Amber

296
Q

What color is the annunciator for an LED in a

proper position?

A

⇒ Green or Extinguished (retracted)

297
Q

What is wrong if all lights on the LED are

extinguished?

A

⇒ Nothing

298
Q

Why do leading edge flaps have just two positions

on the annunciator?

A

⇒ They are either retracted or extended

299
Q

Why do leading edge slats have three positions

on the annunciator?

A

⇒ Retracted, Extended or Full Extended

300
Q

When might a green light be an indication of an

abnormal condition?

A

⇒ LED jammed or in an improper or

uncommanded position

301
Q

If this panel was inoperative, where could you

monitor LED’s in transit?

A

⇒ Forward Instrument Panel LE flaps in transit

light

302
Q

Is autoslat movement displayed on the LED

annunciator panel?

A

⇒ Yes

303
Q

Is autoslat movement displayed on the LE FLAPS

TRANSIT light on the Center Forward Panel?

A

⇒ No, this light is inhibited during autoslat ops

304
Q

What happens when you press the test switch?

A

⇒ All lights on the annunciator panel illuminate

305
Q

Do the LED annunciator lights test with the
MASTER LIGHTS TEST switch on the forward
panel?

A

⇒ Yes

306
Q

At what flap setting do slats move to the EXTEND

position?

A

⇒ Flaps 1, 2, & 5

307
Q

At what flap setting do the leading edge flaps

move to FULL EXTEND?

A

Flaps 1 or greater

308
Q

At what flap setting do slats move to the FULL

EXTEND position?

A

⇒ Flaps 10 or greater

309
Q

How many ailerons are there?

A

⇒ Two

310
Q

How many elevators are there?

A

⇒ Two

311
Q

How many rudder sections are there?

A

⇒ One

312
Q

How are the ailerons operated normally?

A 
⇒ Cables connect control wheels to the
hydraulic PCUs (power control units)
313
Q

How are the ailerons operated with the loss of

Hyd. System A or B?

A

⇒ No change from normal

314
Q

How are the ailerons operated with loss of both

Systems A and B?

A

⇒ Manually by cables

315
Q

What is installed on the ailerons to aid with

manual reversion flight?

A

⇒ Balance tab

316
Q

How are the elevators operated normally?

A

⇒ Cables connect control columns to PCUs

317
Q

Are the elevators interconnected?

A

⇒ Yes, by a torque tube

318
Q

How are the elevators operated with the loss of

System A or B?

A

⇒ No change from normal

319
Q

How are the elevators operated with the loss of

both systems A and B?

A

⇒ Manually by cables

320
Q

What is installed on the elevators to aid with

manual reversion flight?

A

⇒ Balance tabs

321
Q

How is the rudder operated normally?

A

⇒ Cables connected to hydraulic PCUs

322
Q

Are the rudder pedals interconnected?

A

⇒ Yes

323
Q

Which hydraulic system normally powers the

main rudder PCU?

A

⇒ Both A and B

324
Q

Which hydraulic system normally powers the

main yaw damper?

A

⇒ System B

325
Q

How is the rudder operated with the loss of

System A?

A

⇒ System B and STANDBY rudder PCU

326
Q

How is the rudder operated with the loss of

System B?

A

⇒ System A and STANDBY rudder PCU

327
Q

How is the rudder operated with the loss of both

Systems A and B

A

⇒ STANDBY rudder PCU

328
Q

What happens if the FLT CONTROL A switch is

moved to OFF?

A

⇒ Flight control shutoff valve closes isolating

flight controls from system A hydraulics

329
Q

What happens if the FLT CONTROL A switch is

moved to STBY RUD?

A

Activates the standby pump and opens the

standby rudder shutoff valve

330
Q

What happens if the FLT CONTROL B switch is

moved to OFF?

A

⇒ Flight control shutoff valve closes isolating

flight controls from the system B hydraulics

331
Q

What happens if the FLT CONTROL B switch is

moved to STBY RUD?

A

⇒ Activates the standby pump and opens the

standby rudder shutoff val

332
Q

What happens if both FLT CONTROL switches are

moved to OFF?

A

⇒ Pressure from both A and B systems is
removed from the elevators, ailerons, and
the rudder

333
Q

What happens if both FLT CONTROL switches are

moved to STBY RUD?

A

⇒ Standby rudder PCU is still powered, flight
controls revert to manual ops, & standby yaw
damper is enabled (turn switch on)

334
Q

Would the operation of the primary flight controls

be affected by a loss of System A or B?

A

⇒ No

335
Q

Would the operation of the primary flight controls

be affected by the loss of Systems A and B?

A

⇒ Yes

336
Q

On the modified rudder system, what does the

STBY RUD ON light mean?

A

⇒ It indicates the standby rudder system is
commanded on to pressurize the standby
rudder power control unit

337
Q

What limits full rudder authority in flight after

takeoff and before landing?

A

⇒ At speeds above approx 135 KTS, both hyd
system A and B pressure are reduced by 25%
each

338
Q

What is the purpose of the Force Fight Monitor

(FFM)?

A

⇒ It detects opposing pressure (force fight)
between A and B actuators in the main
rudder PCU

339
Q

What happens if opposing pressure is detected?

A

⇒ The FFM automatically turns on the standby
hydraulic pump, opens the standby rudder
shutoff valve, and illuminates the STBY
rudder on, MC, and flight control light

340
Q

How is the Captain’s control column connected to

the primary flight controls?

A

⇒ Cables to the aileron PCUs

341
Q

How is the FO’s control column connected to the

primary controls?

A

⇒ Cables to the spoiler PCUs

342
Q

Are the Captain’s and FO’s control wheels

connected?

A

⇒ Yes – by a cable drive system

343
Q

Would control forces be higher during manual

reversion flight?

A

⇒ Yes – friction & airloads

344
Q

What happens if an aileron or spoiler becomes

jammed?

A

⇒ Aileron transfer mechanism allows operating
controls to be separated from non-operating
controls

345
Q

How are the ailerons trimmed?

A

⇒ Electronically repositioning the aileron feel &

centering unit

346
Q

Where is the aileron trim indicated?

A

⇒ Top of the control column

347
Q

Do the control wheels move when the ailerons are

trimmed?

A

⇒ Yes

348
Q

Can the aileron trim be used during manual

reversion?

A

⇒ Yes

349
Q

Should the aileron trim be used with an autopilot

engaged? Why or why not?

A

⇒ No! Abrupt roll if not in trim when the A/P is

disengaged

350
Q

What happens if an elevator becomes jammed?

A

⇒ Transfer mechanism allows separation of
control columns to breakout operating
control column

351
Q

What system is still available to assist with a

jammed elevator?

A

⇒ Stab trim

352
Q

How are the elevators trimmed

A

⇒ Only by mach trim above .615 mach

353
Q

How is pitch trim accomplished?

A

⇒ Stab trim

354
Q

How many speeds does the stabilizer trim motor

have?

A

Two

355
Q

When do these two speeds of stabilizer trim

motor operate?

A

⇒ High speed with flaps extended and low

speed with flaps retracted

356
Q

How is the rudder trimmed?

A

⇒ Electronically and hydraulically repositioning

the rudder Feel & Control Unit

357
Q

When the rudder trim is used, are the rudder

pedals displaced?

A

⇒ Yes

358
Q

What is indicated by a FLT CONTROL LOW

PRESSURE light?

A

⇒ Just that

359
Q

Is this LOW PRESSURE light ever deactivated?

When?

A

⇒ Yes, when standby rudder is on

360
Q

In normal operation, would crew members be

concerned with operating the SPOILER switches?

A

⇒ No

361
Q

For what purpose are the SPOILER switches used?

A

⇒ Maintenance

362
Q

How do spoilers aid with roll control of the

airplane?

A

⇒ Spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron
when control wheel is displaced more than
10 degrees

363
Q

How many spoiler panels are used as flight

spoilers

A

⇒ 8

364
Q

From what hydraulic system do flight spoilers

receive pressure?

A

⇒ Half from A, half from B

365
Q

What purpose other than roll control are the

spoilers used?

A

⇒ Speedbrakes

366
Q

When is flight spoiler activation initiated?

A

⇒ Approx 10 degrees of control wheel

displacement

367
Q

Which hydraulic system normally powers the

main rudder PCU?

A

⇒ A and B systems

368
Q

Which hydraulic system normally powers the

main yaw damper?

A

⇒ B system

369
Q

What condition would illuminate the yaw damper

light?

A

⇒ B flt control switch off or stby rudder, or the

SMYD computer senses a system fault

370
Q

If hydraulic System B fails will the yaw damper

switch move to OFF automatically?

A

⇒ No

371
Q

Will the yaw damper switch ever move to OFF

automatically?

A

⇒ Yes (B flt control switch to Off or stby

rudder)

372
Q

Can the yaw damper switch be turned ON after a

loss of System B hydraulics (only)?

A

⇒ No

373
Q

When can the yaw damper switch be turned ON

after an automatic disengagement?

A

⇒ A & B flight control switches in stby rudder

374
Q

How are the Trailing Edge flaps normally

operated?

A

⇒ Hydraulically from system B

375
Q

What is the backup system for operation of the TE

flaps if the B system fails?

A

⇒ Electrically through the alternate flaps

position switch

376
Q

What happens when you move the ALT FLAPS

MASTER switch to ARM?

A

⇒ Activates the standby pump
⇒ Arms alt flaps position switch
⇒ Closes the trailing edge flap bypass valve

377
Q

How then are the TE flaps extended?

A

⇒ By an electric motor

378
Q

Can the TE flaps be retracted with the ALT FLAPS

POS switch?

A

⇒ Yes

379
Q

What feature normally available would not be

available during alternate flap operation?

A

⇒ Asymmetry and skew protection

380
Q

What happens to the LED’s when you activate the

ALT FLAPS POS switch?

A

⇒ All LEDs go to full extend

381
Q

Can the LED’s be retracted with this switch?

A

⇒ No

382
Q

Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held

down until LED’s arrive at the desired position?

A

⇒ No

383
Q

Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held
down until the TE flaps arrive at the desired
position?

A

⇒ Yes

384
Q

Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held in

the up position?

A

⇒ No (magnetically held UP)

385
Q

What is the alternate flap duty cycle time for flap

positions 1 to 15?

A

⇒ 5 Minutes off

386
Q

What is the alternate flap duty cycle time for flap

positions greater than 15?

A

⇒ 25 Minutes off

387
Q

What would the illumination of the FEEL DIFF

Pressure light indicate?

A

⇒ Excessive pressure differential

388
Q

Which hydraulic systems send signals to the

Elevator Feel Computer?

A

⇒ A and B Systems

389
Q

Would the illumination of the FEEL DIFF
Pressure light mean that a hydraulic system has
failed?

A

⇒ Possibly

390
Q

Could a problem with the elevator feel pitot

tube cause FEEL DIFF Pressure light to illuminate?

A

⇒ Yes

391
Q

What would the Speed Trim Fail light mean?

A

⇒ System failure (both channels)

392
Q

What if the Speed Trim Fail light did not

illuminate until recall?

A

⇒ Single channel failure

393
Q

If the Speed Trim Fail light illuminated during

recall, could it be reset?

A

⇒ Yes

394
Q

What is the purpose of the Speed Trim?

A

⇒ To return the airplane to a trimmed speed

condition

395
Q

What are some of the conditions for Speed

Trim operation?

A

⇒ Airspeed between 100 KIAS and MACH 0.5,
10 sec after takeoff; 5 sec following release of
trim switches
⇒ Autopilot not engaged
⇒ Sensing of trim requirements

396
Q

What does the Speed Trim system trim?

A

⇒ The stabilizer

397
Q

What is the purpose of the Elevator Feel Shift

Module (EFS)?

A

⇒ Along with the speed trim and yaw damper
help identify and prevent further movement
into a stall condition

398
Q

How does it prevent further movement?

A

⇒ Increases forward control column force to

approx four times normal feel pressure

399
Q

What would the MACH TRIM FAIL light mean?

A

⇒ System failure (both computers)

400
Q

What if the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated

only during recall?

A

⇒ Single channel failure

401
Q

If the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated

during recall, could it be reset?

A

⇒ Yes

402
Q

When is mach trim automatically

accomplished?

A

⇒ Above .615 MACH

403
Q

With failure of the mach trim system, what is

your speed restriction?

A

⇒ 280 KTS/ .82 MACH

404
Q

What does the Mach Trim system trim?

A

⇒ The elevators

405
Q

What is the purpose of the Mach Trim System?

A

⇒ Provides speed stability at higher MACH

numbers (by preventing mach tuck)

406
Q

What would the illumination of the AUTO

SLAT FAIL light mean?

A

⇒ System failure (both computers)

407
Q

What if the AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminated

only during recall?

A

⇒ Single SMYD channel failure

408
Q

If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminated only
on recall, would it extinguish when recall was
reset?

A

⇒ Yes

409
Q

If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light were ON, would

autoslats work

A

⇒ No

410
Q

If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light were ON, would

autoslats work with PTU power?

A

⇒ No

411
Q

What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM

light mean?

A

⇒ Abnormal condition or test inputs to

automatic speed brake system

412
Q

What does the SPEED BRAKE ARMED light

mean?

A

⇒ A valid automatic speed brake system input

413
Q

When is the STAB OUT OF TRIM light armed?

A

⇒ (A/P ops) Auto-pilot engaged

414
Q

What does the STAB OUT OF TRIM light mean?

A

⇒ Auto-pilot is not trimming stabilizer properly
(may be on momentarily with large power or
configuration changes)

415
Q

What does the YAW DAMPER indicator

display?

A

⇒ Yaw damper movement of the rudder

416
Q

Does the YAW DAMPER indicator display

rudder pedal input?

A

⇒ No

417
Q

What can be determined from the Trailing

Edge (TE) Flap indicator?

A

⇒ Flap position, Asymmetry or skew condition

418
Q

What electrical power is needed for the flap

position indicator?

A

⇒ 28V AC (transfer bus #2)

419
Q

How would you be able to determine an

asymmetry condition?

A

⇒ A split needle of the TE Flap indicator

420
Q

What does the illumination of the LE FLAPS

TRANSIT light indicate?

A

⇒ Any LED in transit
⇒ Any LED not in programmed position
⇒ Slat skew or asymmetry (inboard 3 only)
⇒ During alternate flap extension until reaching
TE flaps 10

421
Q

Does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light work during

autoslat extension?

A

No

422
Q

What causes the LE FLAPS EXT light to

illuminate?

A

⇒ All LED’s extended (full ext with flaps 10 thru

40)

423
Q

What other indicator can you use to

determine position of the LED’s?

A

⇒ LED annunciator panel

424
Q

What is indicated by the illumination of the

SPEED BRAKES EXT light

A

⇒ In flight: beyond armed and TE flaps >10, or

RA

425
Q

Does the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to be

armed to get spoilers on an RTO?

A

⇒ No

426
Q

Why doesn’t the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to

be armed during an RTO to get spoilers?

A

⇒ During an RTO, auto speed brake system
works when: Wheel Spin – up (60 knots),
reverse thrust is selected

427
Q

Does the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to be

armed to get spoilers on landing?

A

⇒ Yes

428
Q

When does the SPEEDBRAKE system operate

on landing?

A

⇒ Armed (light on); both throttles to idle; flight
spoilers deploy: Wheel spin – up (60 knots);
ground spoilers deploy: right main gear strut
compresses RA

429
Q

In flight, what is controlled by the speed brake

lever?

A

⇒ Flight spoilers symmetrically

430
Q

What are the cautions concerning the use of

the speedbrake lever in flight?

A

⇒ Caution should be exercised in a turn since it
greatly Increase roll rate
⇒ Moving the Speed Brake lever past the flight
detent causes buffeting and is prohibited in
flight

431
Q
  1. What is the significance of the green band on

the Stabilizer Trim Scale?

A

⇒ Allowable range for takeoff

432
Q

Why are gates on the Flap Lever positioned at

the 1 and 15 degree settings?

A

⇒ Go-around flap settings

433
Q

What do you have to do to get past the gates

on the Flap Lever?

A

⇒ Push the handle down as you move it

434
Q

What are normal landing flap settings?

A

⇒ Flaps 30 and flaps 40

435
Q

When the flap handle is at 5 degrees, where

are the LED’s?

A

⇒ Leading edge flaps: full extend

⇒ Leading edge slats: extend

436
Q

When the flap handle is at 15 degrees, where

are the LED’s?

A

⇒ Leading edge flaps: full extend

⇒ Leading edge slats: full extend

437
Q

Does the flap handle move during autoslat

operation?

A

⇒ No

438
Q

Does the flap handle move during flap blowup

operation?

A

⇒ No

439
Q

Should the flap lever be moved during

alternate flap operation?

A

⇒ Yes, as called for in the checklist

440
Q

What does the takeoff configuration system

monitor?

A 
⇒ Parking Brake (if it is set)
⇒ Trim (takeoff range)
⇒ Speed Brake (handle down detent)
⇒ Spoilers (All boards down)
⇒ Flaps (takeoff configuration)
⇒ LE devices (not in takeoff configuration)
441
Q

Can you cancel the takeoff configuration

warning?

A

⇒ No

442
Q

When will you get a configuration warning?

A

⇒ On the ground and either or both thrust

levers are advanced for takeoff

443
Q

What is the purpose of the Stab Trim Cutout

switches?

A

⇒ Disconnect stab trim during a runaway

444
Q

Which of the Stab Trim Cutout switches will

cause disengagement of the A/P if engaged?

A

⇒ Stab trim A/P cutout

445
Q

How is aileron trim accomplished?

A

⇒ Electrically through aileron F&C Unit

446
Q

Do the ailerons move when they are trimmed?

A

⇒ Yes

447
Q

Can the autopilot trim the ailerons?

A

⇒ No

448
Q

Can you trim the ailerons with the autopilot

engaged?

A

⇒ Yes, but you should NOT

449
Q

Where is aileron trim indicated?

A

⇒ Top of yoke

450
Q

How is the rudder trim accomplished?

A

⇒ Through the rudder feel & centering unit

451
Q

Do the rudder pedals move when the rudder is

trimmed?

A

⇒ Yes

452
Q

Can the autopilot trim the rudder?

A

⇒ No

453
Q

Does the rudder have trim tabs?

A

⇒ No

454
Q

Where is rudder trim indicated?

A

⇒ Aft pedestal indicator

455
Q

Can the rudder be trimmed with a loss of

hydraulics?

A

⇒ No

456
Q

What is the purpose of the Stab Trim Override

switch?

A

⇒ Bypasses the control column actuated stab
trim cutout switches (under floor) to restore
power to the stabilizer trim switches

457
Q

Is the Stab Trim Override switch electrical or

mechanical?

A

⇒ Electrical

458
Q

What does IDG stand for?

A

Integrated drive generator

459
Q

How many IDG’s does this aircraft have?

A

Two

460
Q

Do the AC power sources normally operate

paralleled or isolated?

A

⇒ Isolated

461
Q

What does BAT DISCHARGE light mean?

A

⇒ Excessive battery discharge

462
Q

What does TR UNIT light mean on the ground? In

flight?

A

⇒ Any TR has failed; TR 1 OR TR 2 and TR 3 have

failed

463
Q

What does the ELEC light mean?

A

⇒ fault in DC or STBY power systems

464
Q

Will you see the ELEC light in flight?

A

⇒ No, It is a ground only light

465
Q

When is the ELEC light inhibited?

A

⇒ In flight

466
Q

What is the normal IDG frequency?

A

⇒ 400 CPS

467
Q

What is the normal IDG voltage?

A

⇒ 115 volts

468
Q

What is the normal battery voltage?

A

⇒ 24 (22-30 volt range)

469
Q

If under normal conditions the battery switch is

turned OFF, would the Battery Bus be powered?

A

⇒ No

470
Q

If under normal conditions the battery switch is
turned OFF, would the Switched Hot Battery Bus
be powered?

A

⇒ No

471
Q

What does the STANDBY PWR OFF light mean?

A

⇒ STBY AC, STBY DC, or Battery Bus are not

powered

472
Q

What does the DRIVE light mean?

A

⇒ Low oil pressure in the IDG

473
Q

What items make up the Standby Power System?

A 
⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus
⇒ Standby AC
⇒ Standby DC
⇒ Static inverter
474
Q

With the standby power switch in BATT, what is

available?

A 
⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus
⇒ Standby AC
⇒ Standby DC
⇒ Static inverter
475
Q

With the standby power switch in AUTO, what is

available?

A

⇒ All busses

476
Q

With the standby power switch in OFF, what is

available?

A

⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus

477
Q

Can an IDG be automatically disconnected?

A

⇒ Yes, due to high oil temperature

478
Q

What is the covered Disconnect Switch used for?

A

⇒ When QRH procedure calls for a disconnect

479
Q

An illuminated GRD POWER AVAILABLE light

means what?

A

⇒ Acceptable ground power is available

480
Q

What checks the incoming EXT PWR for quality?

A

⇒ Bus power control unit

481
Q

Does the EXT PWR light have a bright blue/dim

blue feature?

A

⇒ No

482
Q

When you connect external power to the airplane

electrical system, are both TB’s powered?

A

⇒ Yes

483
Q

If the APU is powering the TB’s and EXT PWR is

selected ON, how many busses will EXT power?

A

⇒ All

484
Q

What does a TRANSFER BUS OFF light mean?

A

⇒ Transfer bus not powered

485
Q

What does a GEN OFF BUS light mean?

A

⇒ IDG not supplying power to the TB

486
Q

What does a SOURCE OFF light mean?

A

⇒ Respective IDG not powering bus or

previously selected source no longer powering bus

487
Q

What does the BUS TRANSFER switch do?

A

⇒ Enables or disables auto bus switching

488
Q

What does the APU GEN OFF BUS light mean?

A

⇒ APU GEN available but not powering any

busses

489
Q

If the APU is supplying power to both TB’s and
one APU GEN switch is moved to OFF, what
happens?

A

⇒ That source off light illuminates and both

transfer busses remain powered

490
Q

What happens in flight if an IDG fails?

A

⇒ Auto bus transfer allows other IDG to power

failed side IDG’S TB

491
Q

How many TR’s are there?

A

⇒ Four (TR #1, TR #2, TR #3, and Battery

Charger

492
Q

What normally supplies power to the standby AC

bus; if AC power is not available?

A

⇒ TB #1; inverter

493
Q

Is it possible to power one TB from EXT and one

TB from APU?

A

⇒ No

494
Q

Is it possible to power one TB from EXT or APU

and one TB from an IDG?

A

⇒ Yes

495
Q

Is ground service available without powering all

of the airplane busses?

A

⇒ Yes

496
Q

How is the ground service available without

powering all the a/c busses accomplished?

A

⇒ Ground service switch on fwd FA panel

497
Q

What happens if you takeoff with the APU

powering both TB’s and the APU fails?

A

⇒ Auto connect to engine IDG’S one time only

flight only

498
Q

For single generator operation, is load shedding

automatic or manual?

A

⇒ Automatic

499
Q

Which components are shed automatically?

A

⇒ (Galley Switch Option) galleys on txfr bus 2,
then galleys on txfr bus 1, then main bus #2,
then main bus #1
⇒ (CAB/UTIL Switch Option) galleys and main
bus on txfr bus #2, then galleys and main bus
on txfr bus #1, then IFE busses

500
Q

In flight, if the APU is the only available power

source do you have to manually load shed?

A

⇒ No

501
Q

How is the load shed when the APU is the only

power source?

A

⇒ (CAB/UTIL Switch Option) in flight, all galley
and main busses are shed. If load still too
high, the IFE busses are shed (Galley Switch
Option) all galleys are shed first; if load is still
too high, all main busses are shed

502
Q

On the ground, will the APU load shed?

A

⇒ The APU attempts to carry the full electrical

load except during engine start

503
Q

Is load restoration automatic or manual?

A

⇒ Automatic

504
Q

Can you manually restore galley power? How?

A

⇒ maybe, cycle galley switch and see

505
Q

What would an IDG automatically disconnect for?

A

⇒ High IDG oil temperature

506
Q

Can a disconnected IDG be reconnected in flight?

A

⇒ No

507
Q

What normally powers:

⇒ DC BUS #1?

A

a. TR 1, 2, and 3

508
Q

What normally powers: DC BUS #2?

A

TR 1, 2, and 3

509
Q

What normally powers: STBY AC BUS?

A

a. TB #1

510
Q

What normally powers: STBY DC BUS?

A

TR1, or all TRs.

511
Q

What normally powers: BATT BUS

A

TR #3

512
Q

What normally powers: HBB

A

BATT CHG/TR

513
Q

What normally powers: SHBB

A

BATT CHG/TR

514
Q

Normally, are DC BUS #1 and DC BUS #2 isolated?

A

⇒ No

515
Q

When are the main DC BUSSES isolated

automatically?

A

⇒ At glideslope intercept

516
Q

How can you isolate the DC BUSSES manually?

A

Bus transfer switch off

517
Q

How long will a fully charged battery be able to

supply standby power?

A

⇒ 30 minutes (single battery option)

⇒ 1 hour (dual battery option)

518
Q

Does STANDBY POWER include one attempt at

starting the APU (fully charged battery)?

A

⇒ Yes (not recommended above FL250)

519
Q

What busses are powered by the battery after loss

of both generators?

A 
⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus
⇒ Standby AC
⇒ Standby DC
⇒ Static inverter
520
Q

What does the OVERHEAT light mean?

A

⇒ An overheat has been detected

521
Q

What does it mean if the Window Heat ON light is

extinguished with the switch ON?

A

System failure or an overheat has been

detected

522
Q 
Which window (s) is/are heated with the FWD
switch?
A

⇒ #1 window (thru a temperature controller)

523
Q 
Which window (s) is/are heated with the SIDE
switch?
A 
⇒ #2 (thru a temperature controller) & #5 and
#4
524
Q

What is the function of the OVHT position of the

Window Heat test switch?

A

⇒ simulate an overheat condition

525
Q

What is the function of the Window Heat POWER

TEST?

A

⇒ To verify operation when on light is off

526
Q

Which windows are heated?

A 
⇒ #1, #2, #4, and #5 (there is an option to heat
#3)
527
Q

If a Window Heat ON light was out, what would

you do?

A

⇒ Do a power test

528
Q

If a POWER TEST confirmed that the window was

not getting heat, what are your restrictions?

A

⇒ Cannot exceed 250 knots below 10,000 ft.

MSL

529
Q

What is indicated by an amber Probe Heat light?

A

⇒ Probe is not heated

530
Q

If the ELEV PITOT heat amber light is ON, what

other light would you expect?

A

Elev feel diff press

531
Q

Are the static ports heated electrically?

A

⇒ No

532
Q

How are the static ports heated?

A

By the warm air that is circulated around the

cargo compartment

533
Q

Below what temperature would you use WING

A/I?

A

10C/50F

534
Q

What is anti-iced by the wing anti-ice system?

A

⇒ Inboard three LE slats

535
Q

Will the wing anti-ice work on the ground?

A

⇒ Yes

536
Q

How is wing anti-ice inhibited on the ground?

A

Overtemp in ducts or high power setting

blue light is bright

537
Q

What happens to the wing anti-ice switch on

takeoff?

A

⇒ It trips off at liftoff

538
Q

After selecting wing anti-ice ON how are the

minimum speed bars affected?

A

⇒ Min maneuvering speed and stickshaker

logic are increased

539
Q

Once turned on in flight, will the stickshaker logic
return to normal when the wing anti-ice is turned
OFF?

A

⇒ No

540
Q

Is the wing anti-ice effective in any slat position?

A

⇒ Yes

541
Q

Will the LT VALVE OPEN or RT VALVE OPEN
position indicate bright then dim if the valves
cycle with thrust movement on the ground?

A

⇒ Yes

542
Q

What is anti-iced on the engine?

A

⇒ The cowl lip

543
Q

What is indicated by a COWL ANTI-ICE amber

light?

A

⇒ Overpressure condition in the duct

544
Q

What is indicated by a COWL VALVE OPEN bright

light?

A

⇒ Valve in transit or disagrees with the switch

545
Q

What is the TAI green indication above the N1

gages?

A

⇒ Valve open

546
Q

What is the TAI amber indication above the N1

gages?

A

⇒ Not in agreement with the switch

547
Q

At what temperature would you use engine antiice?

A

⇒ 10C/50F or less, visible moisture present or

anticipated

548
Q

How are the minimum speed bars affected when

engine anti-ice is turned ON?

A

⇒ Min maneuvering speed and stickshaker

logic are increased

549
Q

Do the speed bars return to normal when engine

anti-ice is turned OFF?

A

⇒ Yes

550
Q

How can you silence a fire warning bell?

A

Press bell cutout or fire warning light

551
Q

Some simple faults will not illuminate the Master
Caution Light and a system annunciator until
RECALL. How can you reset the annunciator and
the system light?

A

⇒ Press MC light

552
Q

What is the power source for fire detection?

A

⇒ Battery bus (BB

553
Q

What is the power source for fire protection?

A

⇒ Hot battery bus (HBB)

554
Q

What is the power source for wheel well fire

detection?

A

⇒ #2 AC transfer bus (TB)

555
Q

What happens when you pull an engine fire

handle?

A

⇒ Arms one discharge squib on each engine
fire extinguisher
⇒ Closes the fuel, hydraulic and engine bleed
air valves
⇒ Disables the thrust reverser
⇒ Trips generator control relay & breaker
⇒ Deactivates ENG HYD low pressure light
⇒ Allows rotation of the fire switc

556
Q

Where are the engine fire bottles located?

A

⇒ Wheel well

557
Q

What are the indications of an APU fire?

A

⇒ Fire warning bell sounds
⇒ Both fire warning lights illuminate
⇒ APU fire warning switch illuminates
⇒ APU automatically shuts down
⇒ Wheel well fire warning horn sounds (on
ground only) & wheel well light flashes

558
Q

Where is the APU fire bottle located?

A

⇒ At the APU compartment

559
Q

What happens when you pull the APU fire handle?

A 
⇒ Arms the APU extinguisher circuit
⇒ Closes fuel shutoff valve, APU bleed air valve,
and APU inlet door
⇒ Trips Gen control relay and breaker
⇒ Allows the APU fire switch to rotate
560
Q

How many lights should you get on a normal test?

A

⇒ Five: Two green, Two red & an amber

561
Q

Will you get a fire warning bell and FIRE WARN

lights?

A

⇒ Yes

562
Q

In flight, if a DETECTOR FAULT light illuminates,

what has happened?

A

⇒ Both loops in one or both cargo

compartments have failed

563
Q

What if a DETECTOR FAULT light illuminates

during a test?

A

⇒ One or more detectors in the loop(s) has

failed

564
Q

What does an illuminated ENGINE CONTROL light

mean?

A

⇒ Engine control system is not dispatchable

due to a fault

565
Q

Should you takeoff with an ENGINE CONTROL

light illuminated?

A

⇒ No

566
Q

Will you see an ENGINE CONTROL light in flight?

A

⇒ No, ground only light

567
Q

Each EEC has how many independent channels

(computers)?

A

⇒ Two

568
Q

If an EEC channel fails, how do you select an

operating channel?

A

⇒ You don’t, EEC channel switching is

automatic

569
Q

What will the EEC do for you if you shove the

throttle to the forward stop (firewall)?

A 
⇒ The EEC will provide N1 and N2 redline
overspeed protection (not EGT)
570
Q

What engine protection will the EEC give you?

A

⇒ N1 & N2 redline overspeed protection

571
Q

The EEC has how many control modes?

A

⇒ Two

572
Q

What are these modes?

A

⇒ Normal

⇒ Alternate

573
Q

The EEC has how many alternate modes?

A

Two

574
Q

What are the EEC alternate modes?

A

Soft

⇒ Hard

575
Q

How does the EEC operate in the soft ALTN mode

A

⇒ EEC uses the last valid flight conditions to
define engine parameters: Limits may change
if conditions do

576
Q

What do the switches and lights look like in the

soft ALTN mode?

A

ON light and amber ALTN light

577
Q

How does the EEC operate in the hard ALTN

mode?

A

⇒ ALTN thrust schedule, factory preprogrammed

hard data

578
Q

What do the switches and lights look like in the

hard ALTN mode?

A

⇒ ALTN light only (push button)

⇒ ON light and ALTN light (pull throttle to idle)

579
Q

Will you get full rated power in the hard alternate

mode?

A

⇒ Hard alternate mode thrust is always equal to
or greater than normal mode thrust for the
same lever position

580
Q

Does the EEC provide N1 and/or N2 redline

overspeed protection?

A

Yes

581
Q

Does the EEC provide EGT redline exceedence

protection?

A

No (except on ground starts only)

582
Q

What are the IDLE phases the EEC can select?

A

⇒ Ground min.
⇒ Flight min.
⇒ Approach

583
Q

When is APPROACH idle automatically selected?

A

Flaps in LDG CONFIG or ENG ANTI-ICE ON

584
Q

In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC from receiving
flap or anti-ice signals, when is APPROACH idle
selected?

A

⇒ Below 15000 feet MSL

585
Q

What does an illuminated amber REVERSER light

mean?

A

⇒ Fault in the reverser system

586
Q

What are four things that can cause the REVERSER

light to illuminate?

A 
⇒ Auto restow system active
⇒ Translating sleeve not in commanded
position
⇒ Isolation valve not in the commanded
position
⇒ Synchronization shaft lock circuitry problem
587
Q

When do the REVERSER lights come on in normal

operation?

A

⇒ When stowing the reversers

588
Q

For how long do the REVERSER lights illuminate?

A

⇒ When stowing the reversers. 10 seconds

589
Q

When will you get a MC light & ENG annunciator

in the case of REVERSER light illuminated?

A

⇒ When reverser light stays on past 12 seconds

590
Q

What is the function of the engine start switches

GRD position on the ground?

A

⇒ Open start valve, closes bleed valve, arms

ignition

591
Q

How does ignition operate in CONT?

A

⇒ Selected igniter operates engine running

592
Q

How does ignition operate in FLT?

A

⇒ Both igniters operate if engine failure is

sensed with start lever in idle

593
Q

What is the power source for the LEFT igniters?

A

⇒ associated AC transfer bus

594
Q

What is the power source for the RIGHT igniters?

A

⇒ Standby AC

595
Q

When must the engine start switches (with the

OFF option) be in CONT?

A

⇒ takeoff, landing, heavy precip, anti-ice in use

596
Q

What is the difference between the OFF option

and the AUTO option on the start switches?

A

⇒ When eng is running and flaps are not up
below 18,000 ft, or engine anti-ice is on, you
get ignition from the selected igniters

597
Q

How many autothrottle actuators are there?

A

⇒ One servo motor for each throttle

598
Q

What has to happen before reverse thrust can be

selected?

A

⇒ Throttles must be at idle position

599
Q

Can the throttles be advanced while in reverse

thrust?

A

⇒ No

600
Q

What does an overspeed warning sound like?

A

⇒ Clacker

601
Q

Can you test the overspeed warning system in the

air?

A

⇒ No

602
Q

If the mach / airspeed warning were to activate,

could you cancel it?

A

⇒ Yes, slow down

603
Q 
What system or component sends the signal to
the aural warning module to sound the clacker?
A

⇒ ADIRU (Air Data Inertial Reference Unit)

604
Q

What does an illuminated GPS light mean?

A

⇒ Failure of both GPS sensor units

605
Q

What does an illumination of the GPS light mean

on RECALL?

A

⇒ Failure of a single GPS unit

606
Q

What does an illuminated ALIGN (steady) light

mean?

A

⇒ IRS operating in ALIGN, INITIAL, ATT or

SHUTDOWN cycle

607
Q

What does an illuminated ALIGN (flashing) light

mean on the IRU panel?

A

⇒ Difference in position entered or no position

entered

608
Q

Does an extinguished ALIGN light on the IRU

panel mean that the system is OFF?

A

⇒ No

609
Q

Does an extinguished ALIGN light mean that the

system is in NAV and aligned?

A

⇒ No, could be in ATTITUDE

610
Q

What does an illuminated FAULT light mean on

the IRU panel?

A

⇒ ATT or NAV fault is detected in IRS

611
Q

What does an illuminated ON DC light mean?

A

⇒ Momentary self test when first turned on or

AC power not normal

612
Q

What does an illuminated DC FAIL light mean?

A

⇒ DC power not normal

613
Q

Are the IRU’s the only source of attitude and

heading information?

A

⇒ No, integrated standby flight instruments
(ISFD) or standby instruments and STBY
compass

614
Q

If the airplane’s present position cannot be
entered through the MCDU, how can it be
entered?

A

⇒ IRS Display Unit (ISDU)

615
Q

Must the airplane remain stationary during

alignment?

A

⇒ Yes

616
Q

How long should an alignment normally take?

A

⇒ 5 to 17 minutes (7 to 10 at our latitudes)

617
Q

Where can you see how much time is remaining in

the alignment process?

A

⇒ ISDU-HDG/Status Pos

618
Q

When the IRU mode selector is first positioned to

NAV, the ON DC light comes on. Why?

A

Self Test

619
Q

What is the normal power source for IRU #1?

Backup?

A

⇒ Standby AC; Switched hot battery bus

620
Q

What is the normal power source for IRU #2?

Backup?

A

⇒ AC Transfer bus #2, Switched hot battery

621
Q

If the IRU does not like the airplane position
entered, what message will be displayed on the
MCDU?

A

⇒ Verify Position

622
Q

How do you initiate a fast realignment on short

turnarounds?

A

⇒ Align, Enter Position, NAV or Align, NAV,

Enter Position

623
Q

How long will a fast realignment take?

A

⇒ 30 Seconds (aircraft must remain stationary)

624
Q

What happens if the airplane is moved during a

fast realignment?

A

⇒ IRS automatically begins a full alignment

process when the aircraft stops moving

625
Q

Can IRU alignment be lost if the mode selector is

moved out of the NAV position?

A

⇒ Yes

626
Q

If alignment is lost in flight, can it be regained

before landing?

A

⇒ No

627
Q

What would the IRU’s be good for if alignment

was lost in flight?

A

⇒ Attitude Reference

628
Q

How long would it take to reestablish attitude

reference?

A

⇒ 30 Seconds straight & level flight

629
Q

What must be done by the crew to reestablish the

heading reference?

A

⇒ Enter actual heading

630
Q

What should the crew be concerned about when

using IRU heading reference?

A

⇒ Updating it from time to time

631
Q

What alert would you get if an IRU was left ON

and the battery was the only source of power?

A

⇒ Horn in Nose wheel well

632
Q

If an IRU was to fail, could the affected pilot

benefit from the operating IRU?

A

⇒ Yes, IRS transfer switch

633
Q

Which IRU is the default IRU?

A

⇒ Left for Left, Right for Right

634
Q

If the aircraft reverted to STANDBY power, what

lights would you see on the IRS panel?

A

⇒ On DC light on the right, no lights on the left

635
Q

How long will the ON DC light remain illuminated

on the right?

A

⇒ 5 Min, then it will shut down

636
Q

What does NORMAL position of the IRS/VHF

NAV/FMC switching allow?

A

⇒ Default Operation

637
Q

What does L/R position of the IRS/VHF NAV/FMC

switching allow?

A

⇒ Switches both to left or right units

638
Q

On the Displays-Source Panel what does SOURCE

refer to?

A

⇒ Displays electronic unit (DEU)

639
Q

When you switch ALL to 1 or 2, on the Displays-

Source Panel what are you switching?

A

⇒ Single DEU control of all displays

640
Q

In AUTO which displays are controlled by

DEU 1?

A

⇒ Capt outboard
⇒ Capt inboard
⇒ Upper

641
Q

In AUTO which displays are controlled by

DEU 2?

A

⇒ FO outboard
⇒ FO inboard
⇒ Lower

642
Q

In AUTO, if DEU 1 failed, what would happen to

the affected displays?

A

⇒ DEU 2 controls

643
Q

In AUTO, if DEU 2 failed, what would happen to

the affected displays?

A

⇒ DEU 1 controls

644
Q

What does CONTROL PANEL refer to?

A

⇒ Displays or EFIS control panel

645
Q

How is the NORMAL position of the switch

different from BOTH on 1 or 2?

A

⇒ Left controls Capt’s display and right controls

FO’s display

646
Q

What modes are Weather Radar available in?

A

⇒ ARC or MAP

647
Q

On EFIS Displays-Source Panel what modes is

TCAS display available?

A

⇒ MAP or ROSE

648
Q

On the Mode Control Panel when is the Altitude

Alert inhibited?

A

⇒ Glideslope capture, flaps >25

649
Q

What is the default airspeed of the Mode Control

Panel when first powered up?

A

⇒ 100 KTS

650
Q

What is the default altitude of the Mode Control

Panel when first powered up?

A

⇒ Displays previously selected altitudes

651
Q

Is it possible to have BELOW G/S lights
illuminated with other aural and visual alerts
active?

A

⇒ Yes

652
Q

When would this light illuminate?

A

⇒ Excessive GS deviation (1.3 DOT)

653
Q

When can you inhibit the Below G/S Inhibit alert?

A

⇒ Below 1,000 ft RA

654
Q

What would the Display Switches be used for?

A

⇒ Switching displays on respective display units

655
Q

Moving the Captain’s main DU to MFD will give

you what kind of display?

A

⇒ Displays PFD on outboard display. Inboard

display is blank until eng or sys is selected

656
Q

What does an amber A/P light mean?

A

⇒ Light test switch held in #1 position

657
Q

What does a flashing red A/P light mean?

A

⇒ Auto-pilot disengagement

658
Q

What does a steady red A/P light mean?

A

⇒ Stab out of trim below 800 ft RA on a dual
A/P approach, ALT ACQ inhibited on
⇒ A/P GO-AROUND if stab not trimmed for
single A/P operation

659
Q

What does a FMC light mean?

A

⇒ test #1 or #2 or a message exists for both

MCDU’S

660
Q

How long will the ISFD operate after the main

battery (batteries) has been depleted?

A

⇒ 150 minutes

661
Q

How long will the total time be for ISFD operation

with a single battery?

A

⇒ 180 minutes

662
Q

What does the AUTO position mean on the Engine

Display Control Panel?

A

⇒ Both reference bugs set by the FMC

663
Q

What does the BOTH position mean on the

Engine Display Control Panel?

A

⇒ both reference bugs set manually

664
Q

What does the 1 or 2 position mean on the Engine

Display Control Panel?

A

⇒ respective engine N1 reference bug and

readout set manually

665
Q

What does the Fuel Flow Reset position do on the

Engine Display Control Panel?

A

Resets fuel used to zero/displays fuel used
momentarily, decreases to zero then displays
fuel flow

666
Q

What does the Fuel Flow Used position do on the

Engine Display Control Panel?

A

⇒ Displays fuel used since last reset; after 10

secs display auto reverts to fuel flow

667
Q

What happens if Fuel Used switch is held longer

than 30 seconds?

A

⇒ Fuel Used readout is deactivated for

remainder of the flight

668
Q

What does the AUTO position of the SPD REF

switch do?

A

⇒ FMC sets speeds and weights

669
Q

What does the V1 position do on the Engine

Display Control Panel?

A

⇒ Manually sets V1 on the ground / in-flight

gives “V1 Invalid Entry” message

670
Q

What does the VR position do on the Engine

Display Control Panel?

A

Manually sets VR on the ground / in-flight

gives “VR Invalid” message

671
Q

What does the WT position do on the SPD REF

selector?

A

⇒ Allows manual entry or reference gross

weight

672
Q

What does the VREF position do on the Engine

Display Control Panel?

A

⇒ Manually sets ref speed in flight / on the

ground displays “VREF Invalid Entry” message

673
Q

What does the SET position do on the Engine

Display Control Panel?

A

⇒ Removes the digital readout above the

airspeed indication

674
Q

What does the MFD engine switch display?

A

⇒ Secondary engine indications on the lower
DU or upper or inboard DU (Depending on
the position of the display select panel
selector)

675
Q

What does the SYS position do on the Engine

Display Control Panel?

A

⇒ Displays hydraulic pressure and quantity on
the lower DU (will also display brake temp
and control positions if your aircraft has
those options)

676
Q

What are the three windows of the Flight Mode

Annunciator (FMA)?

A

⇒ Autothrottle, roll, pitch

677
Q

How would you move the Captains Inboard

display to another location?

A

⇒ Display select panel switch

678
Q

What is the purpose of the Weather Radar TEST

button?

A

⇒ When activated it tests the radar system

operation without transmitting

679
Q

What does the WX button do?

A

⇒ Shows weather radar returns at the selected

gain level

680
Q

What about the WX-T button?

A

⇒ Also shows turbulence within 40 miles

737 Type Rating Oral Study (2 decks)

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