7.1 Safety Precautions Flashcards
What is the accident book considered in terms of legal requirements?
a) An optional record
b) A legal requirement
c) A voluntary safety measure
b) A legal requirement
Who is responsible for filling out the accident book?
a) The employer
b) The local authorities
c) The employee
c) The employee
What is the accident book used for in the workplace?
a) For tracking employee performance
b) To record workplace accidents and incidents
c) For monitoring employee attendance
b) To record workplace accidents and incidents
What does FOD stand for?
a) Flight Operational Documentation
b) Foreign Object Damage/Debris
c) Flight Operations Directive
b) Foreign Object Damage/Debris
What is FOD?
a) Any article or substance which is alien to an aircraft, or system, which could potentially cause damage
b) A technical document for aircraft maintenance
c) A system for tracking flight schedules
a) Any article or substance which is alien to an aircraft, or system, which could potentially cause damage
What is the correct order of methods for accident prevention in aviation?
a) Eliminate the hazard, Remove the hazard, Guard equipment, wear PPE, complete safety training
b) Guard equipment, Eliminate the hazard, Complete safety education
c) Complete safety education, Guard equipment, Wear personal protection
a) Eliminate the hazard, Remove the hazard, Guard equipment, wear PPE, complete safety training
Which of the following is required under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974?
a) Organizations must comply with the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974
b) Employees must create their own safety protocols
c) Employers are not responsible for workplace hazards
a) Organizations must comply with the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974
What does the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 require from employers?
a) Employers must ensure the safety of employees and members of the public
b) Employers must provide training on all job tasks
c) Employers must hire safety officers for every department
a) Employers must ensure the safety of employees and members of the public
According to the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, what responsibility do employees have?
a) Employees must only follow employer instructions
b) Employees must take care of their own safety and that of others
c) Employees are not required to follow safety protocols
b) Employees must take care of their own safety and that of others
What responsibility does the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 place on certain self-employed individuals?
a) Self-employed individuals must ensure their safety and the safety of others
b) Self-employed individuals are only responsible for their own safety
c) Self-employed individuals are not subject to the Health and Safety at Work Act
a) Self-employed individuals must ensure their safety and the safety of others
What is the role of the HSE, and how does it aim to prevent death, injury, or ill health in the workplace?
a) The HSE regulates and enforces health and safety laws, aiming to prevent death, injury, or ill health, and enforces laws when deliberately ignored.
b) The HSE provides workplace insurance and aims to compensate employees for injuries or ill health.
c) The HSE focuses only on creating safety policies without enforcing laws.
a) The HSE regulates and enforces health and safety laws, aiming to prevent death, injury, or ill health, and enforces laws when deliberately ignored.
What is the correct order of the steps in managing for health and safety?
a) Plan, Do, Check, Act
b) Act, Do, Check, Plan
c) Do, Plan, Act, Check
a) Plan, Do, Check, Act
When is it a legal requirement to have a health and safety policy in place?
a) When there are more than 5 employees
b) When there are more than 10 employees
c) When there are more than 20 employees
a) When there are more than 5 employees
Where can you find further information on carrying out risk assessments?
a) HSE website
b) INDG 163 - Guide to Controlling Risks in the Workplace
c) Health and Safety Executive Manual
b) INDG 163 - Guide to Controlling Risks in the Workplace
What is the document for PPE at work?
a) INDG 174
b) HSE 123
c) PPE Guide 2020
a) INDG 174
Whose job is it to provide PPE, and whose job is it to wear it?
a) Employer’s job to provide, employee’s job to wear
b) Employee’s job to provide, employer’s job to wear
c) Employer’s job to wear, employee’s job to provide
a) Employer’s job to provide, employee’s job to wear
What does PUWER stand for, and what year was it introduced?
a) Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998
b) Provision of Universal Work Equipment Regulations 2000
c) Provision and Use of Work Equipment Rules 1995
a) Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998
What does LOLER stand for, and what year was it introduced?
a) Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations 1998
b) Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Rules 2000
c) Lifting Operations and Loading Equipment Regulations 1995
a) Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations 1998
What does COSHH stand for, and which document provides further information on it?
a) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH), INDG 136
b) Control of Safety Hazards to Health, HSE 123
c) Control of Substances Harmful to Health, INDG 150
a) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH), INDG 136
What does MSDS stand for?
a) Material Safety Data Sheet
b) Material Standard Data Sheet
c) Managed Safety Data Sheet
a) Material Safety Data Sheet
Is the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) used for hazardous or non-hazardous substances?
a) It is only for hazardous substances
b) It is only for non-hazardous substances
c) It is for both hazardous and non-hazardous substances
a) It is only for hazardous substances
How many sections are there in a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
a) 10 sections
b) 12 sections
c) 16 sections
c) 16 sections
What do the Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992 explain?
a) How to avoid, assess, and reduce the risk of injury from manual handling
b) How to transport hazardous materials safely
c) The legal penalties for improper manual handling
a) How to avoid, assess, and reduce the risk of injury from manual handling
What does “manual handling” refer to?
a) Transporting or supporting a load by hand or bodily force
b) Moving machinery using manual labor
c) Storing items in a warehouse
a) Transporting or supporting a load by hand or bodily force
When were the Manual Handling Operations Regulations introduced?
a) 1990
b) 1992
c) 1995
b) 1992
When were the Electricity at Work Regulations introduced?
a) 1985
b) 1989
c) 1992
b) 1989
What should you avoid when working with electricity?
a) Using electronics with wet hands
b) Wearing rubber gloves
c) Using a surge protector
a) Using electronics with wet hands
What is a key safety precaution when handling electrical wiring?
a) Tail wire through oils and water
b) Never tail wire through oils and water
c) Use metal tools to secure wiring
b) Never tail wire through oils and water
What does compressed gas store?
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Chemical energy
b) Kinetic energy
What must be checked about compressed gas containers?
a) Their weight
b) Their ‘safe life’ and date
c) Their size
b) Their ‘safe life’ and date
What must be done to hoses before using compressed gases?
a) Store them securely
b) Purge them in both directions to clean pipes
c) Inspect them visually
b) Purge them in both directions to clean pipes
What must be checked before using compressed gases?
a) Calibration date and correct unit (PSI, bar)
b) Hose length
c) Container color
a) Calibration date and correct unit (PSI, bar)
What is the recommended pressure in the workshop for compressed gases?
a) 80 psi
b) 100 psi
c) 60 psi
a) 80 psi
What must be used when not using compressed gases?
a) Protective caps
b) Calibration tools
c) Extra hoses
a) Protective caps
What should you always do before replacing expendable components, such as drill bits, on a power tool?
a) Disconnect the compressed air supply
b) Check the calibration of the power tool
c) Tighten the drill bit without disconnecting
a) Disconnect the compressed air supply
Why should oils and grease be avoided when working with oxygen?
a) They can spontaneously combust
b) They can freeze
c) They can evaporate quickly
a) They can spontaneously combust
What type of solutions should be used for oxygen leak tests?
a) Oil-based solutions
b) Oil-free solutions
c) Grease-based solutions
b) Oil-free solutions
What does the smell of rotten eggs in the air indicate before using oxygen?
a) The oxygen is contaminated
b) The oxygen is pure
c) The oxygen is low in pressure
a) The oxygen is contaminated
What should not be used during an oxygen leak test?
a) Soapy water
b) Oil-free solutions
c) oil-free lubricants
a) Soapy water
What defines a confined space in terms of safety hazards?
a) Any enclosed area with limited ventilation
b) Any space of an enclosed nature with a risk of death or serious injury from hazardous substances or dangerous conditions
c) Any outdoor area with heavy machinery
b) Any space of an enclosed nature with a risk of death or serious injury from hazardous substances or dangerous conditions
What is a potential danger in confined spaces due to atmospheric conditions?
a) Lack of oxygen
b) Excessive natural light
c) High humidity
a) Lack of oxygen
Which of the following hazards can be present in confined spaces?
a) Poisonous gas, fume, or vapour
b) Excessive noise levels
c) High wind speeds
a) Poisonous gas, fume, or vapour
What risk is associated with flammable vapours in confined spaces?
a) Fire and explosions
b) Flooding
c) Electrical shock
a) Fire and explosions
Why are residues left in fuel tanks hazardous in confined spaces?
a) They can release toxic fumes
b) They can cause structural collapse
c) They can attract pests
a) They can release toxic fumes
How can hot conditions in confined spaces affect workers?
a) They can lead to a dangerous increase in body temperature
b) They can improve ventilation
c) They can reduce the need for protective clothing
a) They can lead to a dangerous increase in body temperature
What is the correct order of steps to take when responding to a chemical spill?
a) Alert & evacuate, Secure the space, Confine the chemical, Clean up
b) Secure the space, Alert & evacuate, Confine the chemical, Clean up
c) Clean up, Alert & evacuate, Secure the space, Confine the chemical
a) Alert & evacuate, Secure the space, Confine the chemical, Clean up
What are the three essential components required for a fire to ignite and sustain itself?
a) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen
b) Heat, Fuel, Nitrogen
c) Light, Fuel, Oxygen
a) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen
What does DSEAR stand for, and in which year was it enacted?
a) Dangerous Substances and Explosive Atmospheres Regulations, 2002
b) Dangerous Substances and Explosive Atmospheres Regulations, 1999
c) Dangerous Substances and Explosive Atmospheres Regulations, 2010
a) Dangerous Substances and Explosive Atmospheres Regulations, 2002
What are the principles of fire extinguishers?
a) Exclude oxygen and remove heat.
b) Increase oxygen and add fuel.
c) Cool the fire and introduce flammable gases.
a) Exclude oxygen and remove heat.
What materials are involved in Class A fires?
a) Combustible solids (e.g., wood, paper, fabric)
b) Flammable liquids (e.g., petrol, oils, lubricants)
c) Flammable gases
a) Combustible solids (e.g., wood, paper, fabric)
Which materials are associated with Class B fires?
a) Combustible solids (e.g., wood, paper, fabric)
b) Flammable liquids (e.g., petrol, oils, lubricants)
c) Flammable gases
b) Flammable liquids (e.g., petrol, oils, lubricants)
Class C fires involve which type of materials?
a) Combustible solids (e.g., wood, paper, fabric)
b) Flammable liquids (e.g., petrol, oils, lubricants)
c) Flammable gases
c) Flammable gases
What materials are involved in Class D fires?
a) Combustible solids (e.g., wood, paper, fabric)
b) Flammable liquids (e.g., petrol, oils, lubricants)
c) Combustible metals (e.g., sodium, potassium)
c) Combustible metals (e.g., sodium, potassium)
Which materials are associated with Class F fires?
a) Combustible solids (e.g., wood, paper, fabric)
b) Flammable liquids (e.g., petrol, oils, lubricants)
c) Cooking oils and fats
c) Cooking oils and fats
What type of fires are Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) extinguishers suitable for?
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Electrical fires
b) Class B fires
Which extinguishing agent is effective for Class A, B, and C fires but not recommended for enclosed spaces?
a) Water
b) Dry powder
c) Halon
b) Dry powder
Halon 1211 (BCF) is primarily used in which type of fire extinguishers?
a) Portable extinguishers
b) Fixed systems
c) Total flooding systems
a) Portable extinguishers
Halon 1301 (BTM) is commonly used in which type of fire suppression systems?
a) Portable extinguishers
b) Total flooding systems
c) Cooking oil suppression systems
b) Total flooding systems
What are the two main types of firefighting foam concentrates used for extinguishing Class B fires involving flammable liquids?
a) Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF) and Protein Foam
b) Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP) and High-Expansion Foam
c) Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF) and Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
c) Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF) and Film-Forming Fluoroprotein (FFFP)
What classes of fires are effectively extinguished by Halon 1211 and Halon 1301 fire extinguishers?
a) Class A, B, and C
b) Class B and C
c) Class A and B
b) Class B and C
At what voltage levels are dry powder fire extinguishers effective for extinguishing electrical fires?
a) Up to 0.5 kV
b) Up to 1 kV
c) Up to 2 kV
b) Up to 1 kV
What colour are foam fire extinguishers bottles?
A) Blue
B) Red
C) Cream
C) Cream
What colour are dry powder bottles?
A) blue
B) red
C) yellow
A) blue
What shouldn’t you use on electrical fires?
A) dry powder
B) Carbon dioxide
C) water
C) water
- What do INDG and HSG documents provide?
a) Legal requirements
b) Technical specifications
c) Guidance
c) Guidance
What status do ACOPs (Approved Codes of Practice) have?
a) Voluntary guidelines
b) Legal status
c) Informational resources
b) Legal status
Who is responsible for carrying out a risk assessment?
a) Employees
b) Employers
c) Health and Safety Inspectors
b) Employers
What are the four hazard types listed in an MSDS?
a) Health, Fire, Reactivity, and Environmental hazards
b) Physical, Electrical, Biological, and Chemical hazards
c) Heat, Pressure, Toxicity, and Flammability hazards
a) Health, Fire, Reactivity, and Environmental hazards
How often are Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) updated, unless significant new data arises?
a) Every year
b) Every two years
c) Every three years
c) Every three years
What should you do with all relevant circuit breakers (CBs) before starting work?
a) Inspect them visually
b) Pull and tag them
c) Turn them off temporarily
b) Pull and tag them
How much pressure can be deadly in the wrong circumstances?
a) 6 psi (0.4 bar)
b) 12 psi (0.8 bar)
c) 20 psi (1.4 bar)
b) 12 psi (0.8 bar)
What can the injection of an air bubble into the bloodstream cause?
a) Heart attack
b) Stroke
c) Fatal embolism
c) Fatal embolism
Why must oxygen-specific tools be used?
a) Normal tools contain grease and oils
b) Normal tools are too heavy
c) Normal tools are not sharp enough
a) Normal tools contain grease and oils
Which of the following are considered confined spaces?
a) Aircraft fuel tanks, cockpit
b) Stabiliser bay, galley
c) Cargo bilge areas, Aircraft fuel tanks, Stabiliser bay
c) Cargo bilge areas, Aircraft fuel tanks, Stabiliser bay
What should be done to prevent substances from washing away and contaminating local water supplies?
a) Place warning signs around the area and make sure it’s reported
b) Cover any drains in the area with drain seals
c) Use absorbent materials only
b) Cover any drains in the area with drain seals
What is the primary function of a foam fire extinguisher?
a) Cool the fire
b) Starve the fire of oxygen by creating a layer of foam
c) Suppress smoke
b) Starve the fire of oxygen by creating a layer of foam
Where are explosion-proof tools typically used?
a) Open maintenance areas
b) Confined spaces
c) Outdoor operations
b) Confined spaces
