7.1 SAE II - Quizzes Flashcards

Review end of chapter quizzes from System Architect Essentials II.

1
Q

________ are the building blocks of an application.

A

Rules

(Rules are an important component of an application that are used to build applications via the individual object building blocks such as data elements, UI screens, and process flows.)

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2
Q

A class is a _______ for rules.

A

container

(Classes are used to organize related artifacts in Pega 7. As such, they are sometimes referred to as containers.)

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3
Q

As you move down the class structure rules get more ______.

A

Specialized

(In a typical class structure, the more specialized rules are organized towards the bottom of the class structure.)

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4
Q

(True or False) The Application layer contains the most specialized version of a rule.

A

True

(The application layer is typically the top-most layer in the application’s class structure. Rules in this layer are typically designed for re-use throughout the sub-layers of the application.)

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5
Q

______ inheritance allows you to utilize the objects provided by standard packaged classes.

A

directed

(Of the two types of inheritance available in Pega 7 (pattern and directed), directed inheritance allows for inheriting from classes not related to the object’s class.)

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6
Q

Complete these characteristics that define a ruleset.

1 - A ruleset is considered a ____________ unit for a set, or group of related rules.

2 - Every ruleset has a _____ and a _________ number.

A

1 - deployment

(Use a ruleset to identify, store, and manage a set of related rules that define an application or a major portion of an application. Every instance of every rule type belongs to a ruleset. A ruleset’s primary function is to group rules together for deployment.)

2 - name and a version number.

(Every ruleset has a name which must start with a letter and contain only letters, digits, and dashes, and a version which consist of three two-digit numbers representing major:minor:patch)

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7
Q

Name two factors in rule resolution?

A

1 - Applicability

(During rule resolution, one of the filtering criteria is to discard those rules that are not applicable; the system considers the operators ruleset list and discards those rules that do not apply to the ruleset list.)

2 - Purpose

(During rule resolution, Pega 7 gathers a list of all rules that match the name and purpose of the rule called for; without any filtering.)

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8
Q

The Application Explorer is used to navigate ______.

A

class structure

(The Application Explorer provides a quick and easy view into the application’s class structure.)

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9
Q

What are two possible consequences of not following the best practices of developing with Pega 7? (Name Two)

A

1 - Your application contains incorrectly implemented features.

(When not following best practices, you are more likely to implement a feature that does not work correctly.)

2 - You incur increased development time.

(When not following best practices, you are more likely to spend time re-creating existing functionality, or spend time debugging a component that is not well designed.)

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10
Q

The two components of a guardrail are _________ level and __________ type.

A

1 - Severity level

(Each guardrail warning has an associated severity that indicates the extent of variance from the recommended practices and the potential risks the condition poses to the application.)

2 - Warning type

(All guardrail warnings are categorized by type, which classifies the warning into a category such as Best Practice, Compatibility, Functionality or Data Integrity.)

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11
Q

The three levels of severity are? (Name Three)

A

1 - Moderate

(Moderate is one of the three severity levels in a guardrail warning.)

2 - Severe

(Severe is one of the three severity levels in a guardrail warning.)

3 - Caution

(Caution is one of the three severity levels in a guardrail warning.)

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12
Q

(True or False) There are only three warning types for guardrails.

A

False

(Some examples of warning types include Best Practice, Class Mismatch, Missing Configuration, and Compatibility.)

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13
Q

What is the primary difference between a case and a process?

A ________ represents a business transaction.

A _______ defines how to resolve that business transaction.

A

case. process.

(A case represents a business transaction and a process defines the tasks that must be accomplished to resolve that business transaction.)

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14
Q

What are some of the advantages of an all-in-the-model design approach?

1 - Provides for a shared ______________ of the business transaction.

2 - Takes less time to _________ a working application.

3 - Reduces _______ due to misinterpreted requirements.

A

1 - understanding

(If we define the business transaction the way business people discuss – and understand – that business transaction, it makes it much easier to capture their vision.)

2 - produce

(Using an “all-in-the-model” approach provides greater visibility into what is already defined in the application, which allows for greater reusability.)

3 - errors

(When business people and technologists share an understanding of the business transaction, errors due to misinterpreted requirements are greatly reduced.)

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15
Q

A Business Process is the ______ a case takes as it is completed.

A

path

(A process defines the sequence of processing an application applies to work items.)

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16
Q

(True or False) Engaging the business and keeping them engaged throughout the build effort should be a first priority.

A

True

(When business people are engaged in the project, it is much easier for everyone to align towards the outcomes they are looking to achieve.)

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17
Q

What is the difference between case management and process management?

______ management provides a holistic view of a business transaction.

______ management provides a way to adapt to changing business conditions.

A

Case. process.

(Case management provides for a more holistic view of a business transaction. Process management provides a way of ensuring a business transaction can be adapted to frequently changing business conditions.)

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18
Q

A case type can be defined as:

1 - ______ and ________ needed to complete a business transaction.

2 - A collection of _________ artifacts used to implement the tasks for a case.

3 - Representing a ________ business transaction.

A

1 - Tasks and decisions

(A case type is defined using processes, which are made up of tasks and decisions needed to complete a business transaction.)

2 - Pega-related

(A case type is defined using various Pega-related artifacts such as process flows, UI screens, properties, and data pages.)

3 - specific

(A case type is said to represent a business transaction that needs to be resolved.)

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19
Q

A Resolution stage is used to ______________.

A

Visually represent the stage(s) in which a case may be closed (resolved).

(The Resolution stage acts as a visual indicator of the end of the lifecycle of the case.)

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20
Q

Stages:

1 - Should use names most meaningful and relevant to _________ users.

2 - Typically indicate a _________ of authority.

3 - Should be limited to a __________ number per case type.

A

1 - business users.

(When it comes to identifying and naming stages, business stake-holders usually already have these identified and named in a way that makes it easy to understand the intent of any given stage.)

2 - transfer

(A transfer of authority is considered one way of defining and organizing stages.)

3 - maximum

(As a best practice, cases should not exceed nine stages.)

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21
Q

Primary path stages:

1 - Are sometimes referred to as the “______ ____.”

2 - Can have an automatic or manual __________.

3 - Represent a _______ course of events when describing a case.

A

1 - “happy path.”

(The term “happy path” is a common way of referring to the normal course of events when describing a case.)

2 - transition.

(You can configure automatic or manual transitions to the next stage a Change Stage smart shape, flow actions or activities.)

3 - normal

(Primary path stages represent the tasks needed to complete work associated with a case.)

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22
Q

(True or False) Alternate stages can have an automatic or manual transition.

A

False

(You must configure at least one step in an alternate stage to manually transition to a next stage or complete the processing of the case.)

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23
Q

Alternate stages ______________________. (Name Two)

A

1 - Represent alternate stages in no specific order.

(Alternate stages can only be accessed manually, and therefore, are not in sequence relative to other stages.)

2 - Can be used as resolution stages.

(Both primary and alternate stages can be used as resolution stages. Resolution stages act as visual indicators of the end of the lifecycle of the case.)

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24
Q

(True or False) An application can contain one or more case types.

A

True

(In Pega 7, applications are agile solutions for automating business transactions. Each type of business transaction is represented as a case type.)

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25
Q

Stages typically represent ___________. (Name Two)

A

1 - A significant change in status of the case

(While there are no hard rules for defining stages, a significant change in status of the case can be used as criteria for defining stages.)

2 - A transfer of authority

(While there are no hard rules for defining stages, a transfer of authority from one part of the organization to another can be used as criteria for defining stages.)

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26
Q

Case types ____________________. (Name Three)

A

1 - Define the tasks needed to complete a business transaction.

(In it’s simplest form, a case type defines the tasks and decisions needed to complete a business transaction.)

2 - Are organized into primary and alternate stages.

(A stage is a first level of organizing all the different tasks required to complete a business transaction. There are two types of stages: primary and alternate.)

3 - Are a collection of Pega-related artifacts used to implement a case.

(In it’s simplest form, a case type defines the tasks and decisions needed to complete a business transaction. These tasks and decisions are represented in Pega 7 using various artifacts such as UI screens and decision tables.)

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27
Q

(True or False) A case type can have one or more “Resolution” stages.

A

True

(Any stage can be a resolution stage, which acts a visual indicator the case can be resolved in that stage.)

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28
Q

“Alternate” stages ______________. (Name Two)

A

1 - Represent exceptions to the normal course of events

(You may require alternate stages that are not part of “normal” processing, but must be available under certain circumstances.)

2 - Can only be accessed manually

(Alternate stages can only be accessed manually, and therefore, are not in sequence relative to the other stages.)

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29
Q

Consider using no more than _____ connectors (flow actions) on any given assignment.

A

5.

(While guardrails are considered guidance, not absolute requirements, Guardrail #6 of the Ten Guardrails to Success recommends presenting a max of five flow actions for any individual assignment.)

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30
Q

Limiting the number of steps on any given flow rule __________________.

(Name Three)

A

1 - Helps reduce the chance of modeling errors

(Guardrails are considered guidelines that guide the development team to the highest project success, including optimal reuse, maintainability, and system performance.)

2 - Makes maintenance easier

(Guardrails are guidance, not absolute requirements. You have reasonable flexibility to respond to business requirements. Consider user needs, maintainability, implementation risk, performance, and other factors.)

3 - Makes it easier to communicate the intent of the process

(Guardrail 6 is based on scientific evidence about computer users’ input behavior, accuracy, and productivity.)

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31
Q

What is considered a best practice for identifying how a flow ends?

A

Use a separate End shape for each end result and set the Work Status accordingly

(As a best practice, include at least one End shape in every process flow, and connect each ending shape to it. Avoid creating flows that have execution end at other shapes, as this can be a source of (human reader) confusion.)

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32
Q

As a best practice, which flow shape should you use to send an email notification?

A

A Send Email smart shape

(As with all smart shapes, the Send Email smart shape is quickly and easily implemented, and provides only the settings you need to send an email.)

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33
Q

(True or False) Draft mode flows will run in a production environment.

A

False

(A flow that is in draft mode will not run in the production environment (when the system’s production level is set to 5.)

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34
Q

(True or False) Pega recommends no more than seven shapes be used in any given flow.

A

False

(Pega recommends no more than 15 shapes in any given flow.)

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35
Q

What is the maximum number of connectors Pega recommends with flow actions?

A
  1. Guardrail #6 of the Ten Guardrails to Success recommends presenting 5 or less connector flow actions for any individual assignment. If you need more than that, consider redesigning the process flow.
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36
Q

Data that is used to make decisions in a process is known as __________.

A

Flow data

(Flow data is the information needed by an application to determine what to perform and who should perform it.)

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37
Q

A __________ cares about the data needed for reporting, metrics and analysis.

A

Process analyst

(Process, or Business Analyst are typically concerned with performance metrics.)

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38
Q

The ____________ has a task level view of the data in the application as he or she is responsible for entering data into the application.

A

Process participant

(Business data provides context for a given task for a given participant.)

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39
Q

Data entered by a user is known as ____________.

A

Business data

(Business data provides context for a given task for a given participant.)

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40
Q

The __________ looks at the data from an implementation point of view and what data structures should be used to support the needs of the other views.

A

Process designer

(The process designer typically views the data in an application from an overall implementation point of view.)

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41
Q

A data model is commonly created by ________.

A

Entire Organization

(Creating a data model is typically a cross-organizational effort.)

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42
Q

(True or False) Data classes are templates for how data should be structured.

A

True

(Data classes use properties to represent the data elements in a data object.)

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43
Q

Which of the following are acceptable property names? (Name Two)

A

1 - EmailAddress1

2 - StreetAddress1

(Class names should be simple and descriptive. Use camel case with the first letter of each word capitalized.)

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44
Q

A work class uses a ________ property to use a data class.

A

Page

(A page contains multiple values that are derived from a data class.)

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45
Q

(True or False) All data shares the same location as its system of record.

A

False

(In most companies data can be spread out in many different places throughout the enterprise.)

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46
Q

Which of the following statements are true about data table columns? (Name Two)

A

1 - Columns must be single values.

(Data tables must have a single field that represents a unique key. Other fields must reference single valued properties.)

2 - One column must represent a unique identifier.

(Data tables must have a single field that represents a unique key. Other fields must reference single valued properties.)

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47
Q

Data pages act as a level of abstraction from the _______.

A

data layer

(Data pages store data that the system needs to populate work item properties for calculations or for other processes. Developers don’t have to create, populate, or otherwise manage data page instances.)

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48
Q

Which aspect of data management is NOT controlled via the data page rule?

A

Whether a given user has access to see a specific portion of the data.

(Access to the application, including data, is set in the operator ID’s record form.)

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49
Q

Which of the following are valid places a data page can source data from? (Name Two)

A

1 - Data Table

(Data tables provide simple lookup capability to retrieve data from local storage.)

2 - Report Definition

(Report definitions are a common way to source data pages.)

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50
Q

(True or False) Data Propagation is used to automatically copy values from a parent case to a subcase.

A

True

(In case management applications, where cases are nested in a parent/child configuration, it is often necessary to initialize the subcases with data coming from the parent case. In order to do this we use the Data Propagation feature.)

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51
Q

When are values copied from a parent case to a subcase?

A

When the subcase is created.

(Data Propagation happens when subcases are initially created. Remember, if you propagate a property from the Parent case to a child case, and the property value later changes on the Parent Case, the property on the child case does not get updated.)

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52
Q

To use conditional logic to determine which data should be propagated you need to use a _________.

A

data transform

(Data transforms allow us to define logic to determine what data to propagate, such as the need to loop through a list to see what is selected.)

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53
Q

What are two goals for designing a data model? (Name Two)

A

1 - Create reusable entities that can be used by other applications.

(A good data model should define entities that can represent business objects in a way that can be reused by other applications.)

2 - Create a model that is intuitive to architects and business users.

(The model should be understood by both architects and business users. In the end, the model is the roadmap for the classes and properties that are used by the rest of the application.)

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54
Q

What is a good use of a data table?

A

You have a small set of reference data that does not change very often.

(Small sets of reference data is exactly the use case data tables are intended for - a simple structure used to store reference data outside of the application.)

55
Q

Which reload strategy would you use if you need to conditionally refresh the data based on properties in your application?

A

Do not reload when

(“Do Not Reload When” uses a When rule to determine when to refresh the data page. If the condition evaluates to true, the data page is refreshed. If the condition evaluates to false, the data page is not refreshed.)

56
Q

What is the output of the Database Table Class Mapping tool? (Name Two)

A

1 - Data Class

(When using the Database Table Class Mapping wizard you create a data class that contains a data mapping and database table instance that references the external table.)

2 - Database table instance

(When using the Database Table Class Mapping wizard you create a data class that contains a data mapping and database table instance that references the external table.)

57
Q

If we need to access a table with more advanced SQL such as a complex join we need to use _____________.

A

a Connector

(Use a Connector when more advanced queries against the database table are needed.)

58
Q

A _____________ is responsible for mapping properties to columns when a request is made.

A

data class

(By creating a database table to data class mapping you create a pass-through from our application to a database table of our choosing. You are then able to use the data contained in that external database as if it were within our application.)

59
Q

Two ways to limit the size of reference data received from a database include ________________. (Name Two)

A

1 - Using a filter in a report definition.

(By filtering the amount of data that is returned you can help optimize the performance of our application.)

2 - Mapping only the columns your application needs in the Database Table Class Mapping tool.

(By mapping extra columns you are adding unnecessary data to our application.)

60
Q

(True or False) Property names created from the Database Table Class Mapping tool do not need to conform to property naming best practices.

A

False

(Best practices should always be followed, regardless of what component is being built.)

61
Q

When accessing an external database the best practice is to use a _______.

A

Database Table Class Mapping Tool

(When accessing databases it is the best practice to use the Database Table Class Mapping tool to configure access. The artifacts built by the Database Class Mapping tool are all that we need for almost all our use cases.)

62
Q

Creating reusable UI sections allow you to ______________. (Name two)

A

1 - Share a common set of data elements across multiple screens

(When designing UIs, one requirement most often encountered is the need to display a common set of data elements across multiple screens. Reusable sections make fulfilling this requirement easy and quick.)

2 - Build applications that are scalable and extensible

(Building reusable UI components in an application allows for building user interfaces that are always consistent in structure and layout, and an application that is scalable and extensible.)

63
Q

What are three important factors when designing for reusability? (Name three)

A

1 - Naming conventions

(When designing for reusability, the importance of naming conventions cannot be overstated. Provide meaningful and relevant names for all user interface components.)

2 - The “Applies To” class

(The “Applies To” class for any given rule helps determines its scope of reusability.)

3 - Documentation

(Well documented rules allows them to be more easily reused as they provide other developers a clear description of how and why to use a rule.)

64
Q

What is the most appropriate “Applies To” class for a section that contains data elements related to a data class?

A

The ORG-Application-Data- that contains the data elements

(If the section contains data elements relevant to more than one case type, then apply that section to the ORG dash application dash work class.)

65
Q

Flow Actions should be applied to ______________. (Name Two)

A

1 - ORG-Application-Work-

(When creating flow actions, consider how likely it is to be used by more than one case type. If the action needed to be taken is unique to a case type, then apply the flow action to the appropriate case type.)

2 - ORG-Application-Work

(When creating flow actions, consider how likely it is to be used by more than one case type. If the action needed to be taken is the same regardless of the case type, then apply the flow action to the ORG-Application-Work class.)

66
Q

What rule is NOT a UI rule type?

A

Layout

(A layout is not a rule type. It is contained within a section and is used to structure the content (fields) within that section.)

67
Q

A harness is used to ____________.

A

Set the context for processing an action

(A harness sets the context for processing an action. It defines the behavior of a work form.)

68
Q

Which rule type can be referenced in a flow action?

A

Section

(A flow action references a single section.)

69
Q

Which rule type contains the data elements that display on the screen?

A

Section

(A section should contain related bits of data, such as a customer’s personal information, maybe a billing address, and maybe a shipping address.)

70
Q

What statement best describes the most likely reason an organization should care about the usability of an application?

A

Usability can enhance user satisfaction and productivity

(Usability can help make an application visually apparent and forgiving, giving users a sense of control. They can quickly see the breadth of their options, grasp how to achieve their goals, and can settle down to do their work.)

71
Q

Which statement best defines “application usability?”

A

Usability is defined by how easy it is for users to perform their tasks

(Usability is about how quickly users can see the breadth of their options, grasp how to achieve their goals, and can settle down to do their work.)

72
Q

Which feature would you NOT use as a Best Practice for application usability?

A

Memorization

(Recognition rather than recall is another key principle to try to enforce. The basis of this principle is NOT to have users remember, or memorize, information from one part of the interaction to another.)

73
Q

Which statement best conforms to UI design principles?

A

Error messages should present clear, remedial action

(Either eliminate error-prone conditions or check for them and present users with a confirmation message before they commit to the action. This is even better than good error messages. Indeed, you cannot totally eliminate error messages from your application.)

74
Q

Which two statements best describe the most likely reasons why an organization should care about its applications usability? (Name two)

A

1 - Usability can help increase acceptance and adoption of the application

(The usability of an application affects users productivity, acceptance, accuracy, and satisfaction and so is a critical factor in the success of an implementation.)

2 - Usability can enhance, if not increase, employee satisfaction and productivity

(The usability of an application affects users productivity, acceptance, accuracy, and satisfaction and so is a critical factor in the success of an implementation.)

75
Q

When designing a user interface, which of the following criteria would you less likely use to measure the usability? (Choose One)

  • Easy to understand
  • cool
  • simple
  • clean
A

Cool

(Usability is a key attribute needed to make an application useful. It matters little how cool an application is if users cannot use the application because the user interface is too difficult to use.)

76
Q

Which control would be most suitable when selecting from a very small set of options? (Name Two)

A

1 - Radio Buttons

(If the business requirement specifies the need to make a single selection from a set, use radio buttons. Depending on the number of options, radio buttons are usually best presented in one or more rows.)

2 - Checkbox

(Checkboxes allow users to select one or more options from a set. It is usually best to present checkboxes in a vertical list. More than one column is acceptable as well if the list is long enough that it might require scrolling or if a comparison of terms might be necessary.)

77
Q

What is NOT a valid option for the autocomplete control?

A

Orientation

(“Orientation” (aligning the display either horizontally or vertically) is not one of the configurable options for an autocomplete control.)

78
Q

Which configuration options are available for radio buttons but not for dropdowns and autocomplete? (Name Two)

A

1 - Items per column/row

(When using a radio button control, you can specify if you want to display radio buttons vertically or horizontally and how many items you want in each column or row. This type of configuration is not available for the autocomplete control.)

2 - Orientation

(When using a radio button control, you can specify if you want to display radio buttons vertically or horizontally and how many items you want in each column or row. This type of configuration is not available for the autocomplete control.)

79
Q

When a Modal Dialogs is launched from a control it references which rule type?

A

Flow action

(A “flow action” controls how users interact with user forms to complete assignments. After selecting one flow action, users may fill in a section of the form to complete (perform) the assignment.)

80
Q

Where can you find configuration examples of UI components?

A

UI Gallery

(Use the UI Gallery to get an overview of available components.)

81
Q

The DropDown and AutoComplete controls can be sourced: (Name Three)

A

1 - As defined on a property

(One way to source a DropDown or AutoComplete control is to use a static, or local list as defined on a property. Choose this option when the contents of the list rarely change, and are the same for all users.)

2 - A clipboard page

(One way to source a DropDown or AutoComplete control is to use an existing clipboard page. Choose this option when the contents of the list are subject to frequent changes, but is the same for all users.)

3 - Using a data page

(One way to source a DropDown or AutoComplete control is to use a data page. Choose this option when the contents of the list are subject to frequent changes, but is the same for all users.)

82
Q

If the values in a selectable list control are subject to frequent change:

A

Consider keeping the list values in a database table and using a data page to source the list.

(The advantage of this approach is the data is separated from the application. This means if the list values change, the application itself does not need to be updated.)

83
Q

(True or False) Radio Buttons and Checkboxes CANNOT be used for selectable lists.

A

False

(Radio Buttons and Checkboxes are two of the most common ways of presenting selectable lists to end users; especially if the number of available choices is rather small.)

84
Q

What are the two types of events in Pega’s dynamic UI model? (Name Two)

A

1 - User-based events

(A user-based event fires when an end-user actually takes some action on the page like selecting an option or clicking on a link.)

2 - Property-based events

(Property-based events are fired either when a data value changes or specifically when a value meets a specific criteria.)

85
Q

A property-based event fires when______________. (Name Two)

A

1 - When a property value meets specified criteria

(Property-based events are fired either when a data value changes or specifically when a value meets a specific criteria.)

2 - A property value changes

(Property-based events are fired either when a data value changes or specifically when a value meets a specific criteria.)

86
Q

A user-based event fires when______.

A

The user takes a certain action on a page

(A user event fires when an end-user actually takes some action on the page like, pressing a key, selecting an option or clicking on a link.)

87
Q

A “Click” event cannot be placed on which of the following UI elements?

A

Section

(Sections represent the (HTML) structure of a page such a DIV, SECTION and FORM tags. Sections do not support any of the HTML DOM Events.)

88
Q

What can be used for client-side validation? (Name Two)

A

1 - Form Controls

(Use form controls to control how properties appear on user input forms, for both display and for accepting valid user input.)

2 - Property data type

(The property data type determines the kind of data that values of the property represent, and can affect the format and allowable characters in the value.)

89
Q

A __________ can be used to limit the length of submitted data?

A

A property rule or a form control

(The property’s definition can be used to set a maximum length in bytes for the value. A “Text Input” control can be used to limit the length of the field. The field will not accept entries beyond the maximum number of characters allowed, and will not allow the form to be submitted unless at least the minimum number of characters is present.)

90
Q

Validating user input against a range of values is best accomplished:

A

Using a Validate rule

(Use validate rules to help users enter valid property values into an HTML form or to validate data received from another system or source. A validate rule can test input values against conditions defined as part of the rule.)

91
Q

Which statements are correct regarding customization of inline styles in cell properties? (Name Two)

A

1 - Cross-browser compatibility is achieved more easily with auto-generated HTML

(Pega 7’s auto-generated HTML is designed for cross-browser independence and compatibility.)

2 - Defining presentation attributes in the skin ensures greater consistency and promotes reuse

(By defining presentation attributes in the skin, we separate the content from its presentation. This ensures greater consistency and promotes reuse.)

92
Q

When you design a user interface, who is the most important person to keep in mind?

A

The End-User, who will be running the application

(First, and probably most important, design with the end user in mind. Business and user requirements should be the driver, not opinion. Involve the users in the design process. They will feel invested in the application.)

93
Q

(True or False) Pega encourages frequent use of customization when designing controls.

A

False

(Customize thoughtfully. Do not use UI features simply because they are available. When choosing to customize UI components, make sure they support intent-driven processes and enhance the ability of a user to complete a task.)

94
Q

Which rules can be delegated?

A

Any rule can be delegated

(Any rule can be delegated. Doing so can help promote an agile response to ever changing business conditions – what is true today can quickly change. It can also help reduce the workload for architects of minor, low risk maintenance items and provide a degree of empowerment to those closest to the day-to-day operations.)

95
Q

Delegating business rules can ________________. (Name three)

A

1 - Provide a level of empowerment to business users

(Delegating rules can provide a degree of empowerment to those closest to the day-to-day operations - the business users.)

2 - Promote an agile response to constantly changing business conditions

(Delegating rules can help promote an agile response to ever changing business conditions – what is true today can quickly change.)

3 - Be self-sustaining if appropriate documentation and training is provided

(It is important to recognize that new people may step into the role of updating delegated rules. Providing appropriate training and documentation can help make the rule delegation program self-sustaining.)

96
Q

Delegated business rules can be managed _____________.

A

in any type of environment

(Rule delegation can occur in any environment. However, it is important to remember that each environment has its own set of pros and cons. Careful consideration must be given to deciding in which environment rules will be delegated.)

97
Q

The primary purpose of a service level is to ______.

A

Help ensure timely completion of assignments

(Service Levels, also known as Service Level Agreements or… SLAs, are used to ensure work is completed within the expected time intervals.)

98
Q

What statement best describes how milestone urgency values are used?

A

When a milestone is reached, the specified urgency value is added to the assignment’s current urgency value.

(At each milestone, we can adjust an assignment’s urgency. The urgency is typically a value from ten to one hundred; the higher the value, the higher the assignment’s urgency.)

99
Q

Select the statement that best describes how to use the Escalation Action option in a Service Level.

A

You can use as many Escalation Actions as are needed in each milestone.

(Transferring work, sending email messages or invoking separate flows are among the many options available in the Escalation Action field for each milestone.)

100
Q

What role would best represent the person that creates a case?

A

Originator

(The “Originator” is considered to be the person who creates the case.)

101
Q

What is NOT a correspondence type provided in Pega 7?

A

Phone Call

(Making phone calls are not one of the four available correspondence types in Pega 7.)

102
Q

(True or False) Correspondence records can only contain plain text.

A

False

(Correspondence records contain HTML as well as plain text. Pega 7 also provides a Rich Text Editor for composing correspondence.)

103
Q

What is not a use of work parties?

A

Integrations

(Work parties allow you to define which party roles can participate in a work item. Integrating with external systems is handled very separately using integration-type rules.)

104
Q

What flow shapes can be used to send an automatic correspondence? (Name Three)

A

1 - Utility

(Use a “Utility” shape to send an automatic correspondence anywhere in the process flow. Place the “Utility” shape in the sequence where the correspondence needs to be sent.)

2 - Send Email smart shape

(The “Send Email” smart shape provides a quick and easy way to send email to one or more email addresses or parties.)

3 - Assignment

(Use an “Assignment” shape to send an automatic correspondence when the assignment is started.)

105
Q

The most appropriate rule for recording simple yes/no business policies is a ______.

A

When condition rule

(A when condition rule evaluates a Boolean logical statement involving comparisons among values of properties, to return true or false.)

106
Q

When you delegate a rule to a user, it means that user ____________.

A

Can change the rule as required outside of the normal development release cycle

(A delegated rule is a favorite that is visible to a specific user or group of users with a specific access group. The purpose of rule delegation is to facilitate rule management outside of the development environment.)

107
Q

Automating policy-based decisions allows ________________.

A

Business users to focus on more nuanced decisions that require business expertise

(Recording and automating policy-based decision-making that is often done by humans, allows business users to focus on more nuanced decisions that require human expertise.)

108
Q

Which decision rule is most appropriate when the value of one property determines what other properties must be evaluated?

A

Decision Tree

(Use a decision tree to record if .. then logic that calculates a value from a set of test conditions organized as a tree structure.)

109
Q

What provides a declarative form or property validation?

A

Constraint

(A “Constraint” allows you to define and enforce comparison relationships among property values. Constraints are tested every time the property’s value is “touched”, rather than the explicit validation provided by the property definition or validation rules.)

110
Q

What is true of declarative rules?

A

In general, no other rules explicitly reference declarative rules.

(Your use of a property that is referenced in an expression or constraint rule causes the expression or constraint to execute.)

111
Q

Which declarative rules do not establish a dependency on specific properties? (Name Two)

A

1 - Data Page

(A “Data Page” creates a clipboard page. Although a data page is considered a declarative rule, its use is not dependent upon specific properties.)

2 - Declare Trigger

(A “Declare Trigger” will cause specified processing to occur automatically when an instance of a specific class is saved or deleted.)

112
Q

(True or False) Declarative rules can be evaluated by the end user when needed to satisfy certain conditions.

A

False

(The primary benefit of declarative processing is that the computations are made automatically, rather than relying upon explicit instructions built into our application.)

113
Q

When creating correspondence records, what is the most likely issue caused by using inline styles or scripts?

A

Maintenance and update difficulties

(Including HTML styles inline makes it difficult to maintain consistency over time. And maintenance becomes much more difficult and time consuming.)

114
Q

Why should you never justify a logic conflict in a decision table or decision tree?

A

The returned result may be inconsistent or unexpected

(When building decision tables and trees, it is possible to create a logic conflict where a subsequent row is unreachable. This warning is an alert that the decision record may not work as intended.)

115
Q

(True or False) The value in the short description field should only be meaningful for the developer.

A

False.

(The “Short Description” in any record should always be meaningful to everyone, including the end-users.)

116
Q

______ represent the data that is defined when properties are created in the data model.

A

Business metrics

(Business metrics represent the data that YOU defined when you created the properties.)

117
Q

___________ are statistics automatically tracked by Pega.

A

Process metrics

(Process metrics - or statistics – are tracked by Pega and include how long it takes to complete an assignment, how often a path is followed in a flow or how often Service Level Agreements (or SLAs) are violated.)

118
Q

When data is entered in an application it is initially stored in __________.

A

the clipboard

(The data entered or displayed in applications is initially stored in memory on what’s known as the clipboard (which is not visible to the end user.) When an end user clicks OK or Submit to save changes, the data is then written to the database.)

119
Q

The use of a BLOB field to store all of the data for a case offers the following advantages. (Name Three)

A

1 - There are no physical size constraints on BLOB fields, so they can hold any amount of information.

(One advantage of BLOB fields is that there are no physical size constraints, so they can hold any amount of information.)

2 - The case data stored by the BLOB is highly optimized for performance and flexibility in operations on individual cases.

(Pega 7 simply reads a single record out of the database, decompress the BLOB field value and loads the data, which is already structured in the format required by the rest of the application, into memory and onto the clipboard.)

3 - The BLOB is faster to retrieve a case and place all of its information in memory on the clipboard for use by the application, and also faster to save changes to that information.

(BLOBs typically deliver high read/write performance because the decompressing and compressing of information is handled by the application.)

120
Q

The two types of reports are _____________.

A

1 - List

(List reports display requested information in a spreadsheet style. On each row of the report detailed information about an individual case, status, product, or other type of data displays.)

2 - Summary

(Summary reports show on each row of the report; counts, totals, averages, or other data summarized from multiple cases or work items.)

121
Q

(True or False) The Pega standard reports require no extra configuration before using them.

A

True

(Pega provides hundreds of reports. Many of these are designed for use by developers and show information about the design of the application. Many of them are designed for use by business analysts and managers, to help them monitor and analyze their business processes.)

122
Q

The Report Browser allows users to _________. (Name Two)

A

1 - Create reports

(The Report Browser lets you not only browse and search for existing reports but create new reports and modify copies of existing reports as well.)

2 - Run reports

(The Report Browser provides easy access to all reports available to you, including report definitions, list views, and summary views.)

123
Q

(True or False) You cannot create a report using a non-optimized property.

A

False

(You can create reports using non-optimized properties. However, it is important to remember doing so will trigger guardrail warnings that doing so may affect the application’s performance.)

124
Q

Which phase of creating a report would you determine who is going to use the report?

A

Think

(One of the questions to ask when “thinking” about a report is who will use the report. Remember to ask other questions such as how are the report consumers organized and are there any security considerations.)

125
Q

Which phase of creating a report would you have end users look at the report you have created?

A

Iterate

(It is important that you continually iterate over the report to make sure it is presenting the information needed. This should involve the business users that will use the report when development is done. The goal is to build the report, run it, review it, find areas for improvement, then build it again.)

126
Q

Which phase of creating a report would you determine what chart type to use?

A

Plan

(When planning reports, one of the questions to ask is what sort of charts, if any, would be useful to report consumers. Other questions include what information should appear in the report and are there any existing reports you can use as a starting point?)

127
Q

The two components of a guardrail are ________________. (Choose Two)

A

1 - Severity level

(Each guardrail warning has an associated severity that indicates the extent of variance from the recommended best practices and the potential risks the condition poses to the application.)

2 - Warning type

(All guardrail warnings are categorized by type, which classifies the warning into a category such as Best Practice, Compatibility, Functionality or Data Integrity.)

128
Q

The three levels of severity are ___________________.

A

1 - Caution

2 - Moderate

3 - Severe

129
Q

(True or False) When developing an application you should only go to the Guardrails Landing page at the end of a project.

A

False

(While implementing an application you should continuously check the guardrail landing page for warnings in your application. Guardrails ensure you and your team use Pega 7 according to their guidance, and help you avoid troublesome situations.)

130
Q

Two application development best practices are ______________________.

A

1 - Use inheritance

(If the same rule applies to two different classes, move it to a shared parent class so both child classes can inherit from it. If the same record applies to two classes, with tiny differences, move the shared logic to a record in a shared parent. Overwrite the extension points as needed in the subclass and include the subtle differences there.)

2 - Don’t duplicate logic

(For example, if the same set of steps is used in two places, capture the steps in a single data transform and call that record from both places where the steps are needed.)

131
Q

Name two examples of a specification?

A

1 - Collect employee information

(A specification represents a small processing unit performed by one or more actors for a given case type within an application.)

2 - Hiring manager can assign assets to an employee

(A specification represents a small processing unit performed by one or more actors for a given case type within an application.)

132
Q

Name two examples of a requirement?

A

1 - System needs to have 2-3 seconds screen to screen interaction

(A requirement is an inventory or events, conditions or functions that need to be satisfied and tracked by the application.)

2 - System shall support two-digit version numbers

(A requirement is an inventory or events, conditions or functions that need to be satisfied and tracked by the application.)

133
Q

A system architect interacts with specifications by ___________ them . (Name Two)

A

1 - implementing

(System architects are responsible for implementing specifications, although it is not uncommon for business architects to be involved in the implementation effort as well.)

2 - updating

(As part of the implementation of an application, and a key principle of DCO, it is very important to continually keep the specifications and requirements up to date in Designer Studio.)

134
Q

Name two advantages of keeping specifications up to date.

A

1 - Helps to limit any surprise requirements or implementation

(It is very important to continually keep the specifications and requirements up to date in Designer Studio. First by keeping everything up to date we help manage expectations of all the stakeholders involved in the project. This helps to limit any surprises from any of the stakeholders over what will be completed as part of the application.)

2 - Helps to reduce scope creep

(It is very important to continually keep the specifications and requirements up to date in Designer Studio. First by keeping everything up to date we help manage expectations of all the stakeholders involved in the project. This helps to limit any surprises from any of the stakeholders over what will be completed as part of the application.)