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7 Level > 7 Level > Flashcards

7 Level Flashcards

1
Q

The military chain of command is designed to resolve problems at the lowest level

A) True
B) False

A

A)True

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2
Q

Who is the wing focal point responsible for manning services provided by AOF personnel

A) AOF/CC
B) CCTLR
C) NATCT
D) NSE

A

A) AOF/CC

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3
Q

Who is responsible for managing the overall ATC radar and tower facilities

A) AOF/CC
B) CCTLR
C) WS
D) NSE

A

B) CCTLR

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4
Q

Who is responsible for developing and managing the air traffic control training program

A) CCTLR
B) NATCT
C) NSE
D) WS

A

B) NATCT

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5
Q

Who is primarily responsible for administrating the air traffic control certification and rating program

A) A/NSE
B) NATCT
C) NSE
D) WS

A

C) NSE

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6
Q

The TSN is responsible for the ATC training and standardization/evaluation programs at locations where only one 1c1x1 position is authorized in the flight support element

A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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7
Q

Who serves at the USAF executive agents for terminal area airfield operations matters?

A) AFFSA
B) FAA
C) MAJCOM
D) both a and b

A

A) AFFSA

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8
Q

Who provides direct oversight and assistance to facilitate operations activities/operations of unit level airfield operations flight

A) AFFSA
B) CCTLR
C) CFM
D) MFM

A

D) MFM

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9
Q

Which agency is responsible for developing and managing the USAF unit effectiveness inspection (UEI)

A) each airfield operations flight
B) AFFSA
C) FAA
D) MAJCOM

A

B) AFFSA

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10
Q

Who is responsible for implementing the UEI program within their MAJCOM

A) AOF/CC
B) CCTLR
C) CFM
D) MFM

A

D) MFM

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11
Q

Who must complete the functional review of all LOPs directing airfield operations services, training, and/or operations with host nation agencies prior to implementation

A) AOF/CC
B) CCTLR
C) FAA
D) MAJCOM OPR

A

D) MAJCOM OPR

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12
Q

What is the minimum number of days needed for familiarization prior to the implementation of an lop

A) 20
B) 30
C) 60
D) 180

A

B) 30

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13
Q

LOAs are established between USAF units or agencies on a particular base and a non-USAF agency from the base or agency from another location

A) True
B) False

A

A) true

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14
Q

Who is responsible for developing suitable ready reference files or displays tailored for each operating position

A) AOF/CC
B) CCTLR
C) TSN
D) WS

A

B) CCTLR

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15
Q

DALR must only be used for access and editing recordings made with DALR equipment

A) True
B) False

A

B) False

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16
Q

Compact disks-rewritable (CD-RWs), DVDS, or any type of flash media are authorized or use on the DALR system

A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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17
Q

When preparing tape transcripts, each transmission must be preceded with the time of the transmission began and the identity of the transmitting source

A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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18
Q

What meets the criteria for an item to be considered a NOTAM

A) temporary in nature
B) hazard to flight safety
C) published or qualify for publication in a FLIP
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

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19
Q

NOTAMS should not be allowed to remain in the system for more than ____ days

A) 60
B) 90
C) 120
D) 180

A

B) 90

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20
Q

Airfield management may delay transmitting NOTAMS concerning NAVAIDS that are not part of the NAS for up to 1 hour if which if the following exists

A) during daylight hours
B) ceiling of 3,000 feet or greater
C) visibility of 5 miles or greater
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

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21
Q

Cipher locks or other suitable locking devices should be installed at which of the following areas?

A) main entry point of control towers
B) main entry point of rapcon
C) initial entry point for tower and rapcon
D) both a and b

A

D) both a and b

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22
Q

Watch supervisors are responsible for facility security during their watch

A) true
B) false

A

A) true

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23
Q

Who is responsible for establishing procedures for reporting and coordinating ATCALS interruptions and malfunctions

A) AOF/CC
B) CCTLR
C) OG/CC
D) WS

A

A) AOF/CC

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24
Q

Watch supervisors must not allow maintenance personnel to perform work that disrupts the signal of a NAVAID unless

A) wing flying is complete
B) aircraft in the pattern are not using the NAVAID
C) the facility is removed from service and the identification feature is turned off
D) all of the above

A

C) the facility is removed from service and the identification feature is turned off

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25
Q

Which forms may be used to document equipment outages

A) AF IMT 3616
B) AF IMT 3622
C) AF IMT 3624
D) AF IMT 3616 and 3624

A

D) AF IMT 3616 and 3624

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26
Q

The term awaiting hot check is a valid means of reporting/determining equipment operational status

A) true
B) false

A

B) false

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27
Q

If someone other than the watch supervisor makes an entry on the AF IMT 3616 what must they also include

A) their first name initial and last name
B) their first and last name initials
C) their operating initials
D) none of the above

A

C) their operating initials

28
Q

How does a watch supervisor who accepts responsibility for a facility document the AF IMT 3616

A) 1520 PG OFF, JS ON AS WS
B) 1520 PG OFF, J DOE ON AS WS
C) 1520 J DOE OFF, JD ON AS WS
D) 1520 J DOE OFF, P GRIFFEN ON AS WS

A

C) 1520 J DOE OFF, JD ON AS WS

29
Q

Chief controller la may authorize the use of AF IMT 3616 to document

A) position times
B) equipment outages
C) both a and b
D) none of the above

A

C) both a and b

30
Q

All ATC facilities, including RFC must have a CCTLR

A) true
B) false

A

B) falsehood

31
Q

When unforeseen events such as emergency leave or unexpected loss of personnel occur controller may be recalled to duty after how many hours of off duty time

A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12

A

B) 8

32
Q

The unit manning document is used to track

A) current/available staffing position
B) controllers in upgrade training
C) controllers is EDIT
D) none of the above

A

A) current/available staffing position

33
Q

The UMPR is used in conjunction with the UMD and shows which individuals are filling alloyed positions

A) true
B) false

A

A) true

34
Q

SORTS is used for

A) assessing readiness
B) analyzing readiness trends
C) supporting readiness decisions
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

35
Q

What is not a type of flight inspection

A) commissioning
B) surveillance
C) certifying
D) periodic

A

C) certifying

36
Q

The purpose of training in the ATC career field is to qualify air traffic controllers for

A) Facility ratings
B) position certification
C) skill level advancements
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

37
Q

Who determines where controllers of all skill levels will enter the training program

A) AIF/CC
B) CCTLR
C) NSE
D) WS

A

B) CCTLR

38
Q

Controllers are authorized _____ to use as individual training records

A) AF Form 623
B) AF form 623B
C) three ring binders
D) all of the above

A

A) 623

39
Q

What is not a requirement for individuals to complete to be awarded the 7 level

A) complete ADLS course
B) training requirements in the craftsman STS
C) 12 month upgrade training, 6 month re trainee
D) 12 months upgrade training, 9 month re trainee

A

D) 12 months upgrade training, 9 month re trainee

40
Q

Seis are established to identify special experience and training not otherwise identified within the PDS

A) true
B) false

A

A) true

41
Q

Which form is used to submit individuals for skill level upgrades and seis

A)623a
B) 988
C) 2096
D) 3616

A

C) 2096

42
Q

Which condition is not a requirement for SDAP

A) dual facility rated
B) perform at least 24 hours a month as WS
C) ATC serving on air staff
D) CCTLR NATCT NSE

A

A) dual rated

43
Q

What is not an ATC withdrawal category

A) medical
B) failure to maintain proficiency
C) failure to obtain or maintain rating
D) failure to maintain qualification

A

B) proficiency

44
Q

If a controller professes a fear of controlling, the OSS commander will

A) suspend the individuals ATC certificate
B) refer the individual to the flight surgeon
C) all of the above
D) none of the above

A

C) all of the above

45
Q

What is not a required TRB agenda item

A) 5-level upgrade training
B) 3-level upgrade training
C) controller proficiency
D) qualification training

A

B) 3 level upgrade training

46
Q

Watch supervisors may limit or disapprove operations based on the individual controller training and experience capabilities

A) true
B) false

A

A) true

47
Q

The newcomer indoc checklist must be completed within how many days of assignment

A) 20
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60

A

B) 30

48
Q

Annual physicals may be deferred for how many months when a controller is at a location that does not have the ability to conduct one

A) 1
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12

A

C) 6

49
Q

An “S” will be annotated on a controller 3622 for failure to meet proficiency requirements

A) true
B) false

A

B) false

50
Q

The core concepts of CRM DO NOT include

A) workload management
B) situational w
C) stress awareness
D) decision making

A

D) decision making

51
Q

What is not a type of stress in CRM

A) physical
B) emotional
C) physiological
D) psychological

A

D) psychological

52
Q

You are required to document the result of a rating when a controller

A) passes a position certification
B) fails a position certification
C) passes a facility rating
D) all of the above

A

C) passes a facility rating

53
Q

What is the proper documentation when a controller rating are suspended due to safety of flight reasons

A) document “c” on the 3622
B) document “s” on 3622
C) document “c” and the effective date on 3622
D) document “s” and effective date on 3622

A

D) document “s” and effective date on 3622

54
Q

Supervisors must ensure task evaluations are conducted on newly assigned personnel within ___ days of initial assignment

A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 60

A

D) 60

55
Q

Facility evaluations must be conducted on all crews at least every 60 days

A) true
B) false

A

B) false

56
Q

At facilities without established crews conduct ___ random evaluations at least every ___ days

A) two; 60
B) two; 90
C) three; 60
D) thee; 90

A

D) thee; 90

57
Q

UEI evaluations are conducted every __ months plus or minus __ months

A) 12;10
B) 12;12
C) 24;10
D) 24;12

A

D) 24;12

58
Q

The purpose of the HATR program

A) assess individual blame
B) prevent aviation accidents
C) identify unsafe control practices
D) all of the above

A

B) prevent aviation accidents

59
Q

Who is responsible for managing the base flight safety program

A) wing safety
B) OSS/CC
C) OG/CC
D) AOF/CC

A

A) wing safety

60
Q

Military deviation reports should be filed within ___days of the occurrence

A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20

A

B) 10

61
Q

Which agency is responsible for producing annual trend and analysis reports on programs such as ATEPS HATRS CMAV BASH

A) FAA
B) HQ AFFSA
C) MAJCOM
D) wing safety

A

B) HQ AFFSA

62
Q

Who is responsible for developing facility mishap notification procedures

A) AOF
B) CCTLR
C) NATCT
D) NSE

A

B) CCTLR

63
Q

The AN/TPN 19 landing control central can be configured as a

A) GCA only facility
B) complete RAPCON with RCC
C) complete RAPCON with ASR only
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

64
Q

What is the vehicle mounted shelter containing ATC equipment and space for three controllers to perform aircraft launch and recovery operations

A) AN/MPN-14k
B) AN/MPN-25
C) AN/MSN-7
D) AN/TRN-26

A

C msn7

65
Q

Which UTC provides ATC tower operators to augment mobile fixed control tower facilities

A)7FVL4
B) 7FVL5
C) 7FVL6
D) 7FVLZ

A

C) 7FVL6

66
Q

Which terminology is not associated with deployment/mobility

A) ACO airspace control order
B) ACP airspace control plan
C) AOR area of responsibility
D) AWS airspace warning System

A

D) AWS airspace warning System

67
Q

The Air Force aligns war fighting capabilities into a baseline of ___AEFa

A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20

A

B) 10

7 Level (1 decks)

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