7. Defences Involving Other People Flashcards

1
Q

What is the legislation/defence regarding compulsion

s24

A

A person who commits an offence under compulsion by threats of immediate death or grievous bodily harm from a person who is present when the offence is committed is protected from criminal responsibility if he believes that the threats will be carried out and if he is not a party to any association or conspiracy whereby he is subject to compulsion

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2
Q

What is required to rely on a defence of compulsion

s24

A
  • the belief in the threat must be genuine
  • the threats of GBH/harm must be “immediate” and from a person present at the time
  • they must not be a party to any association or conspiracy involved in carrying out the threats
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3
Q

R v Joyce

A

The Court of Appeal decided that the compulsion must be made by a person who is present when the offence is committed

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4
Q

What is held regarding mistake as a defence

A

“except in the cases where proof of mens rea is unnecessary, bona fide mistake or ignorance as to matters of fact is available as a defence”.

There is no obligation on the part of a defendant to prove that they had reasonable grounds for the belief they had

eg. growing cannabis from seeds thought to be tomato seeds

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5
Q

What is the definition of entrapment

A

Occurs when an agent of an enforcement body deliberately causes a person to commit an offence, so that the person can be prosecuted

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6
Q

Can entrapment be used as a defence

A

No, instead it is up to the trial judge to exclude evidence that would operate unfairly against the defendant

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7
Q

Police v Lavelle

A

It is permissible for undercover officers to merely provide the opportunity for someone who is ready and willing to offend, as long as the officers did not initiate the person’s interest or willingness to so offend

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8
Q

What is the legislation regarding self-defence

s48

A

Everyone is justified in using, in the defence of himself or another, such force as, in the circumstances as he believes them to be, it is reasonable to use

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9
Q

What is the subjective/objective test around the degree of force permitted for self defence

A
  • what are the circumstances that the defendant genuinely believes exist
  • do you accept that the defendant genuinely believes those facts
  • is the force used reasonable in the circumstances believed to exist
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10
Q

Who decides whether evidence is the basis for self defence

A

Judge

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11
Q

Can a pre-emptive strike be raised as self defence and what is the relevant case law and example of this

A

Yes it can

R v Ranger
Defendant stabbed de facto in shoulder killing him after an argument in which he hit her and threatened to kill her and her son and reached under the bed where he kept his guns

She got a knife and stabbed, he did not have any gun in his possession at the time but there was evidence he stored guns under the bed

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12
Q

What is the definition of “Alibi”

A

The plea in a criminal charge of having been elsewhere at the material time, the fact of being elsewhere

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13
Q

If the defendant intends rely on an alibi what notice is required to be given

A

The defendant must provide the prosecutor with written notice of an alibi particulars within 10 working days after the defendant is given notice under s20

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14
Q

Under s22(3)(a) of the criminal disclosure act, in respect of giving notice of an alibi witness, what information must be included in the notice

A
  • name and address of the witness
  • if name and address is not know at the time of notice, any matter known by the defendant that might be of material assistance in finding that witness
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15
Q

What procedure should be followed if the prosecutor request the OC to interview an alibi witness

A
  • advise defence counsel of the proposed interview and give them reasonable opportunity to be present
  • if defendant is not represented endeavour to ensure the witness is interviewed in the presence of some independent person, not a police member
  • make copy of witness’s signed statement taken viable to defence counsel thought the prosecutor. Information reflecting on the credibility of the alibi witness can be withheld s16(1)(o)
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16
Q

If the defendant intends to call an expert witness, what must they disclose to the prosecutor

A

They must give notice of expert evidence and must

  • disclose a brief of evidence or report for the witness
  • summary of evidence to be given if brief or report is not available
  • to be given at least 14 days before the date is fixed for the trial
17
Q

What is held regarding consent as a defence

A

Someone accused of an offence may defend their actions by saying that they had the complainants consent to do what they did

The general rule is that acts are criminal only when they are done against the will of the person affected or the owner of the property concerned

18
Q

The defence of consent to assault cannot be used in what 6 instances

A
  • indecency offences
  • criminal actions
  • suicide
  • bodily harm likely to cause breach of the peace
  • injury likely to cause death
  • putting someone in a situation where they are at risk of death or bodily harm
19
Q

What are the 5 guidelines in respect of consent regarding assault

DUFFS

A
  • everyone has the right to consent to a SURGICAL operation
  • everyone has the right to consent to the infliction of FORCE not involving bodily harm
  • no one has the right to consent to their DEATH or injury likely to cause death
  • no one has the right to consent to bodily harm in such a manner as to amount to breach of peace or in prize FIGHT/exhibition
  • it is UNCERTIAN to what extent any person has a right to consent to their being put in danger of death or bodily harm by the act of another
20
Q

What held in R v Cox

A

Consent must be free, voluntary, full and informed. Freely and voluntary given by a person in a position to form a rational judgement