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Sterile Processing > 7 Chapters Test > Flashcards

7 Chapters Test Flashcards

1
Q

Before being disinfected, patient care equipment should be:
a. Sprayed with water

b. Cleaned with detergent
c. Rinsed with an antiseptic
d. Wiped with a chlorine-soaked cloth

A

b. Cleaned with Detergent

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2
Q

Patient care equipment must be processed:

a.
After each use

b.
When the nurse sends it to CS/SPD

c.
When it is visibly soiled

d.
Once a week

A

A. After each use

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3
Q

The unit calls for a patient-cooling machine. Which of the following would be sent?
Select one:

a.
Intravenous pump

b.
Patient-controlled analgesia pump

c.
Hypo/hyperthermia machine

d.
Continuous passive motion device

A

C. Hypo/hyperthermia machine

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4
Q

Which of the following is not part of the final preparation of patient care equipment for re-use?
Select one:

a.
Checking of the date of the last safety check

b.
Placement of disassembled parts into a plastic bag

c.
Lubrication of movable parts

d.
Checking of cords and plugs for signs of damage

A

B. Placement of disassembled parts into a plastic bag

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5
Q

Which disinfectant is to be used for patient care equipment?
Select one:

a.
The general use disinfectant for cleaning work surfaces

b.
Alcohol based disinfectant

c.
The disinfectant used in the ultrasonic

d.
The disinfectant recommended by the device manufacturer

A

D. The disinfectant recommended by the device manufacturer

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6
Q

Patient care equipment that is soiled needs to be:
Select one:

a.
Inspected before transport

b.
Cleaned before transport

c.
Contained during transport

d.
Disinfected before transport

A

C. Contained during transport

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7
Q

There is a high patient census, and there are no IV pumps available in the CS/SPD department for distribution. Which of the following steps should be taken?
Select one:

a.
Tell the requesting units there are no pumps in the department

b.
Call nursing units to let them know

c.
Wait for the next shift to do rounds

d.
Have staff check the units more frequently

A

D. Have the staff check the units more frequently

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8
Q

What is the best way to transport an IV pump to CS/SPD after patient use?
Select one:

a.
Hand carried to prevent damage

b.
Soaking in enzymatic cleaner

c.
On top of a case cart

d.
In a covered cart or closed plastic bag

A

D. In a covered cart or closed plastic bag.

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9
Q

A small cut is noted in the cord of an IV pump that has been disinfected. Which of the following steps should the CS/SPD technician take?
Select one:

a.
Put into service as long as the cut does not reach the inside wires

b.
Tape with electrical tape

c.
Throw the IV pump away

d.
Send to the biomedical engineering department

A

D. send to the biomedical engineering department

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10
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the process that kills MOST microorganisms but not necessarily spores?

Select one:

a.
High-Level Disinfection

b.
Sterilization

c.
Deionization

d.
Antisepsis

A

A. High Level Disinfection

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11
Q

Which of the following high-level disinfectants requires activation prior to use?

Select one:

a.
Ortho-phthaldehyde

b.
Peracetic Acid

c.
Glutaraldehyde

d.
Hydrogen Peroxide

A

C. Glutaraldehyde

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12
Q

Which of the following medical devices would require only low-level disinfection?

Select one:

a.
Blood Pressure Cuff

b.
Hemostat

c.
Flexible endescope

d.
Metal Basin

A

A. Blood Pressure Cuff

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13
Q

Iodine is used primarily to reduce microorganisms on which of the following?

Select one:

a.
Worksations

b.
SKin

c.
Patient Care equipment

d.
Metals and rubber

A

B. Skin

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14
Q

To obtain maximum effectiveness, disinfectants must be

Select one:

a.
Mixed with a detergent

b.
Kept at a room temperature

c.
used in the proper concentration

d.
Applied two times

A

c.

used in the proper concentration

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15
Q

Chemical disinfectants are frequently misused because

Select one:

a.
There is insufficient time to process

b.
the current instructions for use were not followed

c.
the instructions for use are not printed on the label

d.
The department policy and procedure is outdated

A

B . The current instructions for use were not followed.

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16
Q

When minimum effectiveness testing reveals that the concentration of high-level disinfectant is below the recommended level, you should

Select one:

a.
Continue to use the solution

b.
Add more disinfectant to the basin

c.
discard the solution

d.
Add water to the solution

A

C.

discard the solution

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17
Q

According to Spaulding’s classifications of medical devices, a semi-critical items REQUIRES which form of disinfection?

Select one:

a.
High Level disinfection

b.
Low Level disinfection

c.
Sterilization

d.
Low level disinfection

A

a.

High Level disinfection

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18
Q

Which level of disinfection is needed for the destruction of HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)?

Select one:

a.
Low level disinfection

b.
Intermediate Level disinfection

c.
Sterilization

d.
High Level disinfection

A

A. Low Level Disinfection

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19
Q

The ability of a disinfectant to perform MOST EFFICIENTLY depends on

Select one:

a.
Whether or not it remains wet for the stated amount of time.

b.
Missing it with detergent

c.
A Strong concentration

d.
How quickly it dries

A

A. Whether or not it remains wet for the stated amount of time.

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20
Q

Sodium hypochlorite belongs to which group of disinfectants

Select one:

a.
Alcohols

b.
Halogens

c.
Phenolics

d.
Quaternary ammonium compounds

A

B. Halogens

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21
Q

Alcohol inactivates microorganisms by

Select one:

a.
Denaturing the protiens

b.
Oxidizing the portiens

c.
Alkylation

d.
Evaporation

A

A. Denaturing the proteins

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22
Q

For which of the following chemicals is routine employee monitoring for exposure levels REQUIRED?
Select one:

a.
Tincture of Iodine

b.
Glutaraldehyde

c.
Sodium Hyprochlorite

d.
Ortho-phthaldehyde

A

B. Glutaraldehyde

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23
Q

Which of the following would be obvious on an improperly cleaned instrument that has been disinfected in ortho-phthaldehyde?

Select one:

a.
foul order

b.
Slimy coating

c.
Blue stain

d.
Yellow stain

A

C. Blue Stain

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT required documentation in high-level disinfection records?

Select one:

a.
The time at which the item was immersed in the solution

b.
Confirmation that the item was cleaned

c.
Whether or not the item was completely dry

d.
Results of the MEC (minimum effective concentration test

A

C. Whether or not the item was completely dry

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25
Q

All instruments and devices received from another facility should be:
Select one:

a.
Resterilized as they are received

b.
Completely reprocessed

c.
Rewrapped and sterilized

d.
Used as delivered

A

B. Completely reprocessed

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26
Q

According to AAMI, “The removal of contamination from an item to the extent necessary for further processing or for the intended use” defines:
Select one:

a.
Decontamination

b.
Sterilization

c.
Cleaning

d.
Disinfection

A

C. Cleaning

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27
Q

Which of the following terms refers to disease-producing microorganisms?
Select one:

a.
Pathogen

b.
Biofilm

c.
Bioburden

d.
Pyrogen

A

A. Pathogen

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28
Q

Microorganisms on contaminated items are referred to as:
Select one:

a.
Bioburden

b.
Antagonists

c.
Infection

d.
Contaminants

A

A. Bioburden

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29
Q

The TOSI line of products is used to verify the effectiveness of:
Select one:

a.
Steam guns

b.
Mechanical washers

c.
Steam sterilizers

d.
ETO aerators

A

B. Mechanical Washers

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30
Q

OSHA recommends that contaminated scrub attire be:
Select one:

a.
Laundered by the facility

b.
Thrown away

c.
Laundered at the Laundromat

d.
Laundered at home by the employee

A

A. Laundered by the facility

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31
Q

When a new medical device is purchased and received into SPD, what information must the technician have before processing it?
Select one:

a.
Ask the rep for verbal instructions

b.
Clean the device in the ultrasonic cleaner

c.
Hand-wash the device in an enzymatic solution

d.
Request written instructions for processing from the manufacturer

A

d.

Request written instructions for processing from the manufacturer

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32
Q

Generally, fiberoptic light cables should be cleaned:
Select one:

a.
Using a soft cloth soaked with saline

b.
Using a soft cloth and detergent

c.
In the automated endoscope reprocessor

d.
In an ultrasonic cleaner

A

b.

Using a soft cloth and detergent

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33
Q

A proteolytic enzyme detergent breaks down:
Select one:

a.
Carbohydrates

b.
Fat

c.
Bone Marrow

d.
Blood

A

D.

Blood

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34
Q

Prior to processing instruments in an ultrasonic cleaner:
Select one:

a.
The water should be changed

b.
The gross soil should be removed

c.
The instruments should be placed in a solid metal basket

d.
The temperature of the water should be 75 degrees F

A

b.

The gross soil should be removed

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35
Q

What material can be used as a simple test to check the functioning of the ultrasonic cleaner?
Select one:

a.
Tyvek

b.
Aluminum foil

c.
Plastic

d.
Polyethylene film

A

b.

Aluminum foil

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36
Q

Metal-bristled brushes may be used to clean:
Select one:

a.
Box locks on hinged instruments

b.
Teeth on vascular forceps

c.
Cutting edges of scissors

d.
Tungsten carbide jaws of needle holders

A

d.

Tungsten carbide jaws of needle holders

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37
Q

Powered equipment should be:
Select one:

a.
Cleaned as specified by the manufacturer

b.
Cleaned with saline

c.
Immersed in an enzymatic solution

d.
Processing in an ultrasonic cleaner

A

a.

Cleaned as specified by the manufacturer

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38
Q

A solution having a pH of 9 is:
Select one:

a.
Concentrated

b.
Alkaline

c.
Neutral

d.
Acidic

A

b. Alkaline

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39
Q

The final rinse in the cleaning process should be performed using:
Select one:

a.
Treated water

b.
Saline

c.
Alcohol

d.
Tap water

A

A.

Treated water

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40
Q

Which of the following should never be used to remove gross soil on instruments?
Select one:

a.
Enzymatic foam

b.
Saline

c.
Water

d.
Moist rag

A

d.

moist rag

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41
Q

Before it is manually cleaned, what must be done to a flexible endoscope?
Select one:

a.
It must be brushed with a soft brush

b.
It must be tested for leaks

c.
Alcohol must be suctioned through all channels

d.
It must be ultrasonically cleaned

A

b.

It must be tested for leaks

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42
Q

A solution is considered neutral when the pH is:
Select one:

a.
11

b.
7

c.
5

d.
9

A

b. 7

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43
Q

Enzyme-based detergents contain organic substances that assist in the breakdown of:
Select one:

a.
Hard Water

b.
Magnesium and copper

c.
Disinfectants

d.
Protein soils and blood

A

d.

protein soils and blood

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44
Q

The ventilation system in the decontamination area must be maintained at:
Select one:

a.
Positive Pressure

b.
Negative Pressure

c.
Neutral Pressure

d.
Flexible Pressure

A

b.

negative pressure

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45
Q

What is the first step in the decontamination process?
Select one:

a.
Application of a disinfectant

b.
Soaking in a disinfecting solution

c.
Placing into the sterilizer

d.
Manual and/or automated, mechanical cleaning

A

d.

Manual and/or automated, mechanical cleaning

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46
Q

Before any item with multiple parts is cleaned, it must be:
Select one:

a.
Soaked in an enzymatic solution

b.
Sprayed with a lipolytic gel

c.
Processed in an ultrasonic cleaner

d.
Disassembled

A

d.

disassembled

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47
Q

According to OSHA, the use of physical or chemical means to inactivate bloodborne pathogens from a surface is known as:
Select one:

a.
Decontamination

b.
Sterilizing

c.
Cleaning

d.
Disinfection

A

a.

decontamination

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48
Q

The number of air exchanges in the decontamination area should be:
Select one:

a.
10

b.
20

c.
15

d.
25

A

a.

10

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49
Q

What is the temperature range for enzymatic cleaners?
Select one:

a.
100 to 140 degrees F

b.
155 to 165 degrees F

c.
140 to 150 degrees F

d.
109 to 140 degrees F

A

d.

109 to 140 degrees F

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50
Q

Water that has been contaminated by the feces of humans and other animals is most notably responsible for:
Select one:

a.
Ringworm

b.
Herpes

c.
Respiratory disease

d.
Gastrointestinal disease

A

d.

Gastrointestinal disease

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51
Q

Which concentration is most effective in alcohol hand sanitizers?
Select one:

a.
10% to 35%

b.
75% to 100%

c.
60% to 95%

d.
50% to 75%

A

c.

60% to 95%

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52
Q

The principal living reservoir of human disease comes from:
Select one:

a.
The human body

b.
The bathroom doorknob

c.
The decontamination room

d.
Wild animals

A

a.

the human body

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53
Q

Bloodborne pathogen exposure is regulated by:
Select one:

a.
VRE

b.
CSC

c.
OSHA

d.
FDA

A

c.

OSHA

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54
Q

A confidential medical evaluation must be performed any time:
Select one:

a.
An employee changes jobs

b.
When an employee is first hired

c.
An employee is exposed to blood or body fluid

d.
An employee wants one

A

c.

An employee is exposed to blood or body fluid

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55
Q

Which of the following is not a disease spread by droplets?
Select one:

a.
Measles

b.
Pneumonia

c.
Whooping cough

d.
Influenza

A

a.

measles

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56
Q

Healthcare-acquired infections account for more than:
Select one:

a.
50,000 deaths annually

b.
70,000 deaths annually

c.
90,000 deaths annually

d.
110,000 deaths annually

A

c.

90,000 deaths

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57
Q

The general term for any inanimate object involved in the spread of infection is:
Select one:

a.
Cell

b.
Fomite

c.
Axon

d.
Vector

A

b.

fomite

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58
Q

Living things responsible for causing disease are called:
Select one:

a.
Zygotes

b.
Fomites

c.
Cells

d.
Vectors

A

d.

Vectors

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59
Q

A healthcare-acquired infection is generally termed a:
Select one:

a.
Contagious Infection

b.
Disease-causing infection

c.
Antibiotic-resistant infection

d.
Nosocomial infection

A

d.

Nosocomial infection

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60
Q

Susceptible host?
Select one:

a.
Defense mechanisms

b.
Vehicles

c.
Contact

d.
Vectors

A

b.

Vehicles

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61
Q

The principal route of nosocomial infections is:
Select one:

a.
Door handles

b.
Direct contact

c.
Faulty housekeeping

d.
Commodes

A

b.

Direct Contact

62
Q

One of the most common portals of exit in disease transmission is:
Select one:

a.
Intact skin

b.
The conjunctiva

c.
The spinal cord

d.
The respiratory tract

A

d.

The respiratory Tract

63
Q

The sterile processing technician does NOT have an impact on which of the following elements of the chain of infection?
Select one:

a.
Portal of entry

b.
Portal of exit

c.
Reservoir of infection

d.
Defense mechanism

A

D.

Defense Mechanism

64
Q

Under standard precautions, all blood and other potentially infectious materials are:
Select one:

a.
Discarded as regular trash

b.
Sterilized prior to disposal

c.
Handled as if they were infectious

d.
Handled wearing a respirator

A

C.

Handled as if they were infectious

65
Q

Waterless hand antiseptics are not appropriate when:
Select one:

a.
Changing gloves

b.
Hands are visually soiled

c.
Changing work locations

d.
Handling sterile products

A

b.

Hands are visually soiled

66
Q

Lyme disease is generally transmitted by:
Select one:

a.
Droplet

b.
Fomite

c.
Vehicle

d.
Vector

A

d.

Vector

67
Q

Which of the following are vectors for pathogenic organisms?
Select one:

a.
Surgical instruments

b.
Bandages and dressings

c.
Mosquitoes and flies

d.
Patient care equipment

A

c.

Mosquitoes and flies

68
Q

Unless the water turns off automatically, the water should be:
Select one:

a.
Turned off using a disposable towel

b.
Turned off using your elbow

c.
Left running

d.
Turned off using your right wrist

A

a.

Turned off using a disposable towel

69
Q

An infection caused by a needle stick enters through which portal of entry?
Select one:

a.
Mucous membranes

b.
Skin

c.
The conjunctiva

d.
Parenteral tissue

A

d.

Parenteral tissue

70
Q

CJD is caused by:
Select one:

a.
Viruses

b.
Prions

c.
Protozoa

d.
Bacteria

A

b.

Prions

71
Q

Microorganisms are measured in:
Select one:

a.
Inches

b.
Microns

c.
Molecules

d.
Millimeters

A

b.

Microns

72
Q

Which type of microorganism has the ability to slow down its metabolism and become dormant?
Select one:

a.
Gram-negative virus

b.
Gram-positive bacillus

c.
Gram-positive virus

d.
Gram-negative bacillus

A

b. Gram-Positive Bacillus

73
Q

What is the shape of Cocci?
Select one:

a.
Rod

b.
Corkscrew

c.
Spiral

d.
Round

A

d.

Round

74
Q

Which of the following best describes a prion?
Select one:

a.
An abnormal protein

b.
An aerobic mycobacterium

c.
A single-celled microorganism

d.
A single-celled yeast

A

a.

Abnormal Protein

75
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for bacteria to survive?
Select one:

a.
Warmth

b.
Elimination of waste

c.
Bright light

d.
Water

A

c.

Bright light

76
Q

What color do Gram-Positive microorganisms stain?
Select one:

a.
Red or Pink

b.
Black or Brown

c.
Blue or Purple

d.
Yellow or Green

A

C.

Blue or purple

77
Q

Prions are of concern in health care because they:
Select one:

a.
Are very prevalent

b.
Are difficult to kill by usual sterilization methods

c.
Can reproduce very quickly

d.
Can only be killed by ethylene oxide sterilization

A

b.

Are difficult to kill by usual sterilization methods

78
Q

Bacteria are unicellular and reproduce by:
Select one:

a.
Pasteurization

b.
Metabolism

c.
Binary Fission

d.
Photosynthesis

A

c.

Binary Fission

79
Q

In order to survive, aerobic bacteria require:
Select one:

a.
Light

b.
Oxygen

c.
Cold

d.
Liquids

A

b.

Oxygen

80
Q

Which of the following is used to test the effectiveness of sterilization cycles?
Select one:

a.
Vegetative bacteria

b.
Mycobacteria

c.
Prions

d.
Spores

A

D.

Spores

81
Q

A dehydrated cell with a thick, shell- like wall is known as a:
Select one:

a.
Capsule

b.
Spore

c.
Prion

d.
Fungi

A

b. spore

82
Q

Which of the following requires a living host to multiply?
Select one:

a.
Viruses

b.
Fungi

c.
Prions

d.
Protozoa

A

a. viruses

83
Q

The term pathogenic means:
Select one:

a.
Poisonous Vapor

b.
Disease-Producing

c.
Fermentation

d.
Contagious

A

b. Disease producing

84
Q

Which of the following is true of fungi?
Select one:

a.
They absorb matter through the nucleus

b.
They include single celled yeasts

c.
They are all microscopic

d.
All types have flagella

A

b.

They include single celled yeasts

85
Q

The shape of a Spirochete is:
Select one:

a.
Spherical

b.
Oval

c.
Round

d.
Spiral

A

d.

spiral

86
Q

Protozoa are:
Select one:

a.
Double-celled microorganisms

b.
Multiple-celled microorganisms

c.
Non-celled microorganisms

d.
Single-celled microorganisms

A

d.

Single-celled microorganisms

87
Q

A microorganism that has a slime-like outer covering is called a:
Select one:

a.
Virus

b.
Prion

c.
Spore

d.
Capsule

A

d. capsule

88
Q

Which of the following pathogens is the cause of tuberculosis?
Select one:

a.
Mycobacteria

b.
Prions

c.
Protozoa

d.
Viruses

A

a. mycobacteria

89
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is a:
Select one:

a.
Fungi

b.
Prion

c.
Gram-negative coccus

d.
Gram-positive coccus

A

d. Gram positive coccus

90
Q

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
Select one:

a.
Polio

b.
AIDS

c.
CJD

d.
Herpes

A

CJD

91
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
Select one:

a.
Spiral

b.
Bacilli

c.
Cocci

d.
Flagella

A

b. Bacilli

92
Q

What color do Gram-Negative microorganisms stain?
Select one:

a.
Red or Pink

b.
Blue or Purple

c.
Green or Yellow

d.
Black or Brown

A

A. red or pink

93
Q

Which of the following is a function of the voluntary nervous system?
Select one:

a.
Saliva secretion

b.
Skeletal muscle contractions

c.
Heart rate

d.
Diameter of blood vessels

A

b. skeletal muscle contractions

94
Q

The smallest and most numerous structural units possessing the basic characteristics of life are called:
Select one:

a.
Cells

b.
Tissues

c.
Organs

d.
Systems

A

a. cells

95
Q

Nerves and blood supply are located in which layer of the skin?
Select one:

a.
Hyperdermis

b.
Epidermis

c.
Hypodermis

d.
Dermis

A

d.

Dermis

96
Q

Where is the tympanic membrane located?
Select one:

a.
The throat

b.
The nose

c.
The eye

d.
The ear

A

d.

The ear

97
Q

Which of the following is the largest organ of the body?
Select one:

a.
Heart

b.
Colon

c.
Skin

d.
Liver

A

C.

Skin

98
Q

Smooth muscle cells lack:
Select one:

a.
Peristalsis

b.
Motive power

c.
Involuntary control

d.
Striations

A

d.

Striations

99
Q

Which of the following is not an environmental factor required for the life of a cell?
Select one:

a.
Food

b.
Water

c.
Pressure

d.
Cold

A

d.

Cold

100
Q

The bladder, ureters, and kidneys are part of the:
Select one:

a.
Circulatory system

b.
Skeletal system

c.
Reproductive system

d.
Urinary system

A

d.

Urinary system

101
Q

The femur, tibia, and fibula are bones of the:
Select one:

a.
Pelvic girdle

b.
Pectoral girdle

c.
Upper limbs

d.
Lower limbs

A

d.

Lower limbs

102
Q

Which of the following transports food to the stomach?
Select one:

a.
Tongue

b.
Larnyx

c.
Esophagus

d.
Pharnyx

A

c.

Esophagus

103
Q

The seminal vesicles and bulbourethral glands are part of the:
Select one:

a.
Female reproductive system

b.
Endocrine system

c.
Male reproductive system

d.
Sensory system

A

c.

male reproductive system

104
Q

What connects muscle to bone?
Select one:

a.
Tendons

b.
Cartilage

c.
Fascia

d.
Ligaments

A

a.

tendons

105
Q

The smallest bones of the body are found in the:
Select one:

a.
Foot

b.
Middle Ear

c.
Hand

d.
Vertebrae

A

b.

the middle ear

106
Q

Complex structures with specialized functions within the body are known as:
Select one:

a.
Molecules

b.
Organs

c.
Atoms

d.
Cells

A

b. organs

107
Q

Which of the following are responsible for providing immunity?
Select one:

a.
Hormones

b.
Platelets

c.
White blood cells

d.
Red blood cells

A

c.

White blood cells

108
Q

The humerus, radius, and ulna are bones of the:
Select one:

a.
Pectoral girdle

b.
Lower limbs

c.
Pelvic girdle

d.
Upper limbs

A

d.

upper limbs

109
Q

Which of the following supports the tongue and the functions in swallowing?
Select one:

a.
Hyoid Bone

b.
Thoracic Cage

c.
Vertebrae

d.
Skull

A

a. hyoid bone

110
Q

Red blood cells develop in which part of the body?
Select one:

a.
Spleen

b.
Heart

c.
Bone Marrow

d.
Gall Bladder

A

c. bone marrow

111
Q

Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system?
Select one:

a.
Sensation

b.
Mental functions

c.
Heart rate

d.
Skeletal contractions

A

c. heart rate

112
Q

The entire delicate central nervous system is protected by:
Select one:

a.
Fatty tissue

b.
Muscle

c.
Fluid

d.
Bony encasement

A

d. bony encasement

113
Q

Which branch of science refers to the form and organization of body parts?
Select one:

a.
Physiology

b.
Microbiology

c.
Biology

d.
Anatomy

A

d.

anatomy

114
Q

The nucleus is the cell’s:
Select one:

a.
Brain

b.
Membrane

c.
Skeleton

d.
Protein

A

a.

brain

115
Q

The longest part of the GI tract is the:
Select one:

a.
Esophagus

b.
Small intestine

c.
Large intestine

d.
Stomach

A

b.

small intestine

116
Q

The breathing process removes which of the following gases from body cells?
Select one:

a.
Carbon monoxide

b.
Methane

c.
Carbon dioxide

d.
Hydrogen

A

c.

carbon dioxide

117
Q

The portion of the brain responsible for consciousness is the:
Select one:

a.
Cerebellum

b.
Brain stem

c.
Cerebrum

d.
Cranium

A

c.

cerebrum

118
Q

Which organ produces bile?
Select one:

a.
Gallbladder

b.
Liver

c.
Large intestine

d.
Small intestine

A

b.

liver

119
Q

The skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are part of the:
Select one:

a.
Pectoral girdle

b.
Pelvic girdle

c.
Axial skeleton

d.
Appendicular skeleton

A

c.

axial skeleton

120
Q

Specialized cells responsible for contractions in the body are called:
Select one:

a.
Nerves

b.
Skin

c.
Muscles

d.
Bones

A

c.

muscles

121
Q

DNA is found in which part of the cell?
Select one:

a.
Nucleus

b.
Cytoplasm

c.
Cell Membrane

d.
Cell Wall

A

a.

nucleus

122
Q

Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
Select one:

a.
Sternum

b.
Hyoid

c.
Humerus

d.
Cranium

A

c.

humerus

123
Q

It is important for the SPD technician to learn anatomy and physiology in order to:
Select one:

a.
Recognize where instruments are used

b.
Be aware of the effects of microorganisms

c.
Diagnose illnesses

d.
Know more than their co-workers

A

a.

Recognize where instruments are used

124
Q

Which branch of science refers to the function of specific body parts?
Select one:

a.
Microbiology

b.
Physiology

c.
Anatomy

d.
Biology

A

b. physiology

125
Q

A rule designed to govern behavior is called a:
Select one:

a.
Procedure

b.
Regulation

c.
Recommended practice

d.
Standard

A

b.

regulation

126
Q

An established norm which is based on theory is called a:
Select one:

a.
Standard

b.
Regulation

c.
Recommended practice

d.
Policy

A

a. standard

127
Q

Annual competency testing is required by:
Select one:

a.
AAMI

b.
JCAHO

c.
CDC

d.
OSHA

A

b.

JCAHO

128
Q

Any equipment with a cord that is cracked, frayed, or broken should be:
Select one:

a.
Sent out for repair

b.
Thrown away

c.
Cleaned and distributed

d.
Disinfected and sent out for repair

A

d.

Disinfected and sent out for repair

129
Q

Before a pesticide can be marketed and used in the United States, it must be evaluated and registered by which of the following?
Select one:

a.
EPA

b.
CDC

c.
FDA

d.
OSHA

A

a. EPA

130
Q

Collection of data and identification of issues are part of what kind of program?
Select one:

a.
Quality Assurance

b.
Orientation

c.
SPD Training

d.
Safety

A

a.

quality assurance

131
Q

Compliance with OSHA is:
Select one:

a.
Doing what you want to do.

b.
Required by law.

c.
An opinion of an expert.

d.
Optional.

A

b.

required by law.

132
Q

EPA, FDA, OSHA and state departments of health (DOH) primarily issue:
Select one:

a.
Recommended Practices.

b.
Standards.

c.
Professional Practices.

d.
Regulations.

A

d.

regulations

133
Q

Ethics is the practice of:
Select one:

a.
Dealing with what is bad.

b.
Not recognizing cultural beliefs.

c.
Doing the right thing.

d.
Discussing patient issues with friends.

A

c.

doing the right thing

134
Q

How often should cleaning and sterilization instructions be requested from device manufacturers?
Select one:

a.
Each time the item is purchased

b.
Only the first time the item is purchased

c.
Once a year

d.
Only when the device has changed

A

a.

Each time the item is purchased

135
Q

If healthcare facilities reprocess single-use devices, the devices must be cleared by:
Select one:

a.
EPA

b.
CDC

c.
OSHA

d.
FDA

A

d.

FDA

136
Q

Instrument sets and patient care equipment must be processed and distributed in an accurate and timely manner so that:
Select one:

a.
The cases are on time and you won’t have to pay overtime.

b.
The supervisor has time to check them before they are used.

c.
Patient care is not adversely affected.

d.
The doctor does not get mad at you.

A

a.

The cases are on time and you won’t have to pay overtime.

137
Q

OSHA has a great effect on SPD by its regulation of occupational exposure to airborne contaminants, exposure from blood borne pathogens, and which of the following:
Select one:

a.
Communication of workplace hazards

b.
Approving the chemical products used in CS/SPD

c.
Reporting malfunctioning medical equipment

d.
Reprocessing of single-use devices

A

a.

Communication of workplace hazards

138
Q

Recommended practices are:
Select one:

a.
Principals, laws, or rules designed to govern behavior.

b.
Statements of sound principals of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of experts.

c.
Documents that reflect state and federal regulations.

d.
Established norms determined by opinion, authority research and/or theory.

A

b.

Statements of sound principals of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of experts.

139
Q

Standards for SPD practice is written by:
Select one:

a.
EPA

b.
AAMI

c.
Department of Health

d.
FDA

A

b.

AAMI

140
Q

Steps for performing a task are defined in a:
Select one:

a.
Procedure

b.
Recommended practice

c.
Policy

d.
Standard

A

a.

procedure

141
Q

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act provides for which ethical issue?
Select one:

a.
Confidentiality

b.
Theft of hospital property.

c.
Cultural Diversity

d.
Employee Rights

A

a.

Confidentiality

142
Q

The main role of sterile processing is to:
Select one:

a.
Monitor the processing of needles syringes and gloves.

b.
Provide dependable reliable services to enhance the quality of patient care.

c.
Standardize the sterilization process for nursery formula.

d.
Do what the O.R. Supervisor says.

A

b.

Provide dependable reliable services to enhance the quality of patient care.

143
Q

The Medical Device Reporting regulation requires:
Select one:

a.
Healthcare facilities to report deaths or serious injuries from medical devices.

b.
Healthcare facilities to register single-use devices to be reprocessed.

c.
Sterile Processing employees to report failure to wear personal protective attire.

d.
Sterile Processing employees to report all work-related injuries.

A

a.

Healthcare facilities to report deaths or serious injuries from medical devices.

144
Q

The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard requires that an SDS must be available for:
Select one:

a.
Each chemical in the department.

b.
Chemicals that can harm you.

c.
All packaging material.

d.
All instrument trays.

A

a.

Each chemical in the department.

145
Q

The Right-to-Know Standard requires employers to have which of the following available for employees?
Select one:

a.
Exposure limits for ethylene oxide

b.
Safety Data Sheets for chemicals

c.
Blood borne pathogen exposure plan

d.
Emergency eyewash stations

A

b.

Safety Data Sheets for chemicals

146
Q

To ensure that all employees are learning the same information, training should be :
Select one:

a.
Done by the same person.

b.
Computerized.

c.
Taught in different languages.

d.
Standardized.

A

d.

standardized

147
Q

When should a new employee in SPD become familiar with the SDS?
Select one:

a.
On their first day at work

b.
Before they come to work

c.
After one week on the job

d.
After one month on the job

A

b.

before they come to work

148
Q

Which agency regulates reprocessing of single-use devices?
Select one:

a.
CDC

b.
FDA

c.
OSHA

d.
AAMI

A

b.

FDA

149
Q

Which agency requires that eyewash stations be available for emergency use?
Select one:

a.
CDC

b.
AAMI

c.
OSHA

d.
FDA

A

c.

OSHA

150
Q

Which of the following defines what a department must do?
Select one:

a.
Policies

b.
Standards

c.
Recommended practices

d.
Procedures

A

a.

policies

151
Q

Which of the following establishes sterilization practice standards based on opinion, research, and/or theory?
Select one:

a.
AAMI

b.
OSHA

c.
EPA

d.
FDA

A

a.

AAMI

152
Q

Which of the following regulates and makes sure products are safe and effective before companies put them on the market?
Select one:

a.
CDC

b.
OSHA

c.
FDA

d.
AAMI

A

c. FDA

Sterile Processing (2 decks)

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