66 Deck 1.0 Flashcards
In order to calculate an investor’s holding period return, it is necessary to know: I.value of the portfolio at the beginning of the period.
II.value of the portfolio at the end of the period.
III.income received during the period.
IV.capital appreciation or depreciation over the period.
1, 2 & 3; An investor’s holding period return is the total return received over the specified holding period. That return includes any income plus or minus any gain or loss. Once you know the original and ending value, you know the capital appreciation or depreciation.
Which of the following are features of Class C mutual fund shares? I.Typically charge no front-end load
II.Typically charge a front-end load
III.Typically impose lower CDSCs than Class B shares for a shorter period
IV.Typically convert to Class A shares after they are held for a defined period
1 &3; Class C shares generally have the following features: no front-end sales charge, lower CDSCs than Class B shares for a shorter period, and no conversion to Class A shares regardless of how long they are held. Because of these features, Class C shares may be less expensive for investors with shorter investment horizons. They may be more expensive for investors who plan to hold their shares for a long time, since the level load never discontinues.
An investor who is long XYZ stock would consider going long an XYZ call to:
A) hedge the long position.
B)protect against an increase in the market price of XYZ stock.
C)obtain income from the premium.
D)protect against a decrease in the market price of XYZ stock.
2; Going long a call means that you have bought it. Only sellers of options generate income. If you wish to hedge your long stock position, you buy a put, not a call. That leaves us with two choices that are polar opposites. Good test taking skills teach us that, in almost all cases, when we see that, one of those must be the right answer. Buying a call is bullish. Forget the first part (you are long the stock). You would buy a call so that, if the price of the stock went up, you could exercise at the lower strike price of your call option.
The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 would consider it a fraudulent and prohibited business practice for an order ticket for a transaction in shares of a common stock to exclude all of the following EXCEPT:
A)an indication as to whether the order was solicited, unsolicited, or discretionary.
B)the customer’s name.
C)if a sale, whether long or short.
D)the account number.
2; Order tickets do not include the name of the customer. The account number is the appropriate identifier.
The USA exempts investment advisers from state registration who: I.have no place of business in the state and limit clientele to other investment advisers.
II.have no place of business in the state and limit clientele to banks and insurance companies.
III.is an out-of-state investment adviser and directed business communications to fewer than 12 clients in the state in the past 12-month period.
IV.have no place of business in the state and limit clientele to broker-dealers.
1, 2 & 4; An adviser is exempt from state registration if it has no place of business in the state and limits clientele to other investment advisers, banks and insurance companies, or broker-dealers. There is a de minimis exemption, but it is for no more than five (not 12) clients during a 12-month period.
The price-to-earnings ratio
A)is higher for value stocks than for growth stocks
B)reflects how liberal the company’s dividend policies are
C)indicates current cash flows
D)shows how much investors value the stock as a function of earnings to the company’s market price
4; The 2 components of the price-to-earnings ratio are the current market price and the earnings per common share. When a company has a high P/E ratio, it means that investors are placing greater value on expected growth in earnings. That is one of the reasons why growth stocks carry higher P/E ratios than do value stocks.
Which of the following pieces of customer information must an agent attempt to obtain when opening a new account? I.Emergency contact person
II.Financial condition
III.Investment objective
IV.Education
2 & 3; When opening a new account, the agent normally would request information about the customer’s financial condition, investment objectives, and other relevant personal information.
If a client in the 30% marginal income tax bracket can earn an after-tax rate of return of 7% when the estimated inflation rate during the holding period of an investment is 4%, the client’s real rate of return is:
A)less than 7%.
B)more than 7%.
C)7%.
D)10%.
1; Real return reduces nominal return by an inflation factor. Thus, the client’s real return must be less than 7%.
An individual has been employed by a broker-dealer to solicit new subscriptions for the firm’s free monthly stock market report. The individual is paid a salary plus bonus based on his success rate with signing up subscribers. Under the USA, this person would:
A)only be allowed to contact existing clients of the broker-dealer.
B)not have to be registered as an agent of the broker-dealer.
C)have to be registered as an investment adviser representative.
D)have to be registered as an agent of the broker-dealer.
2; Agents of broker-dealers are in the business of securities-related transactions on behalf of clients of the firm. A free market report is not a security, so this individual is not soliciting securities business.
When constructing a portfolio, one of the goals is to increase diversification. Which of the following pairs offers the most diversification?
A)U.S. equity securities and foreign equity securities.
B)Municipal GO bonds and long-term U.S. Treasury bonds.
C)Large-cap stock/blue-chip stock.
D)Corporate debentures/convertible bonds.
1; Diversification is generally accomplished by adding securities that don’t have a high degree of correlation. Large-cap and blue-chip are essentially the same thing. Most convertible bonds are debentures. Only in the case of domestic and international stocks will we find a low correlation.
Which of the following would NOT be included in the definition of a security under the Uniform Securities Act?
A)Whole life insurance policies issued by the Dividend Mutual Life Insurance Association of America.
B)Preferred stock in the Colonel Corn Processing Corporation.
C)Debentures issued by the XYZ Retirement Planning Company.
D)Common stock in the Shining Silver Mining Company.
1; Nonvariable contracts issued by insurance companies are not securities.
In the securities industry, when a person is acting in an agency capacity, the form of compensation received is
A)markup or markdown
B)commission
C)fees
D)account maintenance charges
2; Broker-dealers act in the capacity of brokers (agency); they earn commissions. When acting in the capacity of a dealer (principal), the compensation comes from markup or markdown. Compensation in the form of fees is most common for investment advisers.
A broker-dealer is NOT considered an investment adviser if the:
A)firm is registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
B)investment advisory services are incidental to the broker-dealer’s business and no special compensation is received.
C)firm’s investment advice is limited to 10 or fewer people.
D)firm has less than 15 advisory accounts totaling less than $1 million.
2; Excluded from the definition of investment adviser are financial institutions, publishers, investment adviser representatives, and certain professionals, including broker-dealers, whose advice is incidental to their profession and who are not compensated for it.
Which of the following may NOT be used to fund an individual retirement account (IRA)?
A)Bank accounts.
B)Life insurance.
C)Mutual funds.
D)Stocks.
2; There are many funding options available to investors who open an IRA. IRA contributions can be invested in stocks, mutual funds, bank accounts, and annuities. They cannot be invested in life insurance, however.
In an efficient market:
A)information is disseminated slowly.
B)any information that could affect a stock’s value is quickly reflected in its price.
C)investors have a good chance of beating the market.
D)it is fairly easy to predict major market swings.
2; An efficient market is one in which every individual can quickly obtain and use information about new events in the marketplace. Because information is disseminated quickly, any new information that could affect a stock’s value is quickly reflected in its price.
Included in the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 are a number of different recordkeeping requirements. Wealth Preservation Specialists is a covered adviser that is organized as a partnership. If the firm were to dissolve, partnership agreements must be kept for
A)five years after the dissolution
B)three years after the dissolution
C)five years from the date of organization
D)the lifetime of the firm
2; Both the Investment Company Act of 1940 (applicable here because this is a covered adviser) and the NASAA Model Rule on Recordkeeping require that investment advisers maintain certain records, such as partnership agreements and corporate articles of incorporation, for a period of no less than three years after dissolution.
Prohibited business practices under the Uniform Securities Act would include: I.failure to state material facts.
II.trading on inside information.
III.failing to forward a complaint letter to the agent’s supervisor.
IV.sharing commissions with an agent of a nonaffiliated broker-dealer.
1, 2, 3 & 4; Failure to state material facts and trading on inside information are prohibited business practices. Forwarding complaint letters to your supervisor is required; sharing commissions with an agent licensed with the same or affiliated broker-dealer, but not one with which there is no affiliation, is permitted.
Foster Advisers, based in New Jersey, manages $135 million in funds for New Jersey- based clients. As a result of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, which of the following statements best describes the registration requirement for Foster Advisers?
A)Foster Advisers is required to register as an adviser with the SEC and notify the Administrator of the New Jersey Department of Securities of its operation.
B)Foster Advisers is required to register with the Administrator of the New Jersey Department of Securities.
C)Foster Advisers is required to register as an adviser with the SEC and has no requirement to notify the Administrator of the New Jersey Department of Securities.
D)Foster Advisers is required to register with both the SEC and the Administrator of the New Jersey Department of Securities.
1; Since the enactment of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, investment advisers with $110 million or more in assets under management more must register with the SEC. These advisers are called federal covered advisers. Investment managers who manage less than $100 million must register with the state Administrator. Advisers with at least $100 million but less than $110 million of assets under management have the option to register with either their state Administrator or with the SEC. Once the $110 million level is reached, registration with the SEC is mandatory. With $135 million under management, Foster Advisers must register with the SEC. Foster Advisers is subject to the additional requirement of notifying the administrators of the securities departments of states in which it maintains offices or clients of its operations. At the state level, a notification fee (but not registration) is generally required. One aim of the NSMIA was to eliminate dual registration of investment advisers with the states and the SEC. Investment advisers are not required to register at both state and federal levels.
An investor purchases zero-coupon bonds issued by the U.S. Treasury due to mature in 18 years at $100,000. Which of the following might describe the primary reason for selecting that investment vehicle?I. The investor is 65 years old and needs the reliability of current income.
II. The investor is 45 years old and has purchased these in an IRA rollover account and wants the assurance of funds for retirement.
III. The investor is 30 years old and has a newborn child and wishes to assure funds for a college education.
IV. The investor is 20 years old, has just received an inheritance, and wishes to shelter income for as long as possible.
2 & 3; Zero-coupon bonds maturing in 18 years would assure the 45-year-old of the face value at age 63. Being in an IRA, there would be no current taxation and, upon maturity, if desired, the funds could be distributed without the 10% penalty. Zero-coupon bonds are one way to guarantee funds for college education. However, with no current income, they would not be suitable for the 65-year-old and would not offer any tax shelter to the 20-year-old.
Transactions meeting certain conditions are exempt from the Uniform Securities Act’s registration and advertising filing requirements. Which of the following transactions does NOT meet those conditions to qualify as an exempt transaction?
A)A sale of securities by the executor of an estate.
B)An offer of a security for which a registration statement has been filed but has not yet become effective.
C)A sale of stock through a rights offering to existing shareholders of the issuing corporation if no commission is paid.
D)The sale of U.S. government securities to a retail client’s IRA by a registered government securities dealer.
4; In the sale of U.S. government securities to a retail client, the security is exempt, but the transaction is not. Had the sale been to an institutional client, it would have been exempt. An offer is not a transaction.
Typical broker-dealer fees that must be disclosed as part of a fee disclosure document would include I.a charge when a client requests that a stock certificate be issued in his name
II.a commission charge when a client buys a security on a listed exchange
III.the interest charged by the firm on money owed by customers in their margin accounts
IV.fees for providing advisory services to high net worth individuals
1 & 3; If we know what charges are not included in the fee disclosure, it is easy to recognize those that are. There are 3 primary expenses involved with brokerage accounts that are not included in the fee disclosure template. Those are: 1.commissions;
- markups and markdowns; and
- advisory fees for those firms that are also registered as investment advisers.
Which of the following statements regarding the properties of duration is NOT true?
A)Duration measures the effect of an interest rate change on the price of a bond or bond portfolio.
B)Duration is a weighted-average term-to-maturity of a bond’s cash flows.
C)Duration measures a bond’s price volatility by weighting the length of time it takes for a bond to pay for itself.
D)Duration measures the holding period return on a bond.
4; Duration does not measure the holding period return on a bond, it measures the effect of an interest rate change on the price of a bond or bond portfolio. Duration measures a bond’s price volatility by weighting the length of time it takes for a bond to pay for itself. Duration is also a weighted-average term-to-maturity of a bond’s cash flows.
Which of the following must be disclosed during a transaction recommendation under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940?
A)All facts in the prospectus
B)All facts needed to assess the risks of an investment.
C)All facts.
D)All material facts.
4; It is a violation of the act for any person willfully or knowingly to make untrue statements of a material fact or omit to state a material fact in connection with a securities recommendation by an adviser. A material misstatement is one that may have an effect on an issuer’s future financial prospects or the market value of its securities or may influence the decision of a customer.
A client with limited assets seeking additional income in retirement would probably find which of the following investment choices to be the least suitable?
A)Treasury bonds
B)ETNs
C)ETFs
D)Insured bank CDs
2; The question describes an individual with a low risk tolerance, so the Treasury bonds and CDs would certainly be considered appropriate. Because ETNs are a debt security backed solely by a single issuer while an ETF based on a specific index of debt securities represents a large group of issuers, they are only suitable for those who can understand and take the risks involved.