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Data Center > 640-916 DCICT > Flashcards

640-916 DCICT Flashcards

0
Q

What are the different virtualization techniques?

A

Full, partial, paravirtualization.

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1
Q

How do LANs do flow control?

A

The transmitter sends packets to the receiver until the receiver can’t handle them any more so the receiver drops some packets and tries to signal to the transmitter to slow down.

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2
Q

How do SANs do flow control?

A

Uses Fiber Channel as a form of Flow Control. The receiver controls the situation instead of the transmitter. Credit based system where the transmitter won’t send info unless it has “credits” from the receiver.

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3
Q

What are two types of the Full Virtualization techniques?

A

Host OS Based

Bare Metal

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4
Q

What are the benefits of server virtualization?

A 
Partitioning
Encapsulation
Isolation
Hardware Abstraction
CapEx/OpEx
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5
Q

What does Type 2 refer to regarding server virtualization?

A

Host OS Based virtualization

Layer 1 - Bare Metal Server
Layer 2 - OS (Such as Windows)
Layer 3 - Virtualization Software
Layer 4 - Virtual Machines

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6
Q

What does Type 1 refer to regarding server virtualization?

A

Bare Metal Based virtualization

Layer 1 - Bare Metal Server
Layer 2 - Virtualization Software
Layer 3 - Virtual Machines

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7
Q

What is not a new feature introduced by the Nexus 1000v?

A

PVLAN - Private Vlan

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8
Q

What command would you use to verify the connection between the VSM and vCenter?

A

show svs connection

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9
Q

What are the two vlans needed to implement a Cisco Nexus 1000v?

A

Control Vlan

Packet Vlan

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10
Q

What is the Control Vlan used for with the Nexus 1000v?

A

Heartbeat messages between the VSM and the VEMs.

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11
Q

What is the Packet Vlan used for with the Nexus 1000v?

A

Things like CDP, IGMP, and other Cisco traditional control traffic.

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12
Q

How do you verify the Software Virtual Switch domain ID?

A

Show svs domain

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13
Q

What are two different types of storage protocols?

A

File-based

Block-based

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14
Q

How do you verify the control and packet vlans?

A

Show svs domain

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15
Q

Name two File-based storage protocols.

A

Common Internet File System (CIFS)

Network File System (NFS)

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16
Q

What kind of environment is CIFS used in?

A

Windows

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17
Q

What kind of environment is NFS used in?

A

Unix/Linux

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18
Q

What are 3 versions of NFS and their details?

A

NFSv2
32-bit
Stateless

NFSv3
64-bit
Stateless

NFSv4
64-bit
Stateful
Added security

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19
Q

Name some Block-based storage protocols.

A
  • SCSI
  • iSCSI
  • Fibre Channel
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20
Q

What network port provides congestion control and in order delivery of error free data in an iSCSI environment?

A

TCP 3260

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21
Q

What are the different Fibre Channel topologies?

A

Point to Point
Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop FC-AL
Fibre Channel Switch

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22
Q

What is a NP-Port used for?

A

NP-Port - Node Proxy Port - For connecting multiple N-Port connections through one NP-Port to one F-Port. Connects to F-Port.

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23
Q

What are the Standard Fibre Channel Port types and what are they used for?

A

N-Port - Node port - For connecting a node to a host or disk. Connects to F-Ports.

F-Port - Fabric Port - For connecting to peripheral devices. Connects to N-Ports.

E-Port - Expansion Port - For connecting FC Switches to other FC Switches. Connects to other E-Ports.

FL-Ports - For connecting FC switch to Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop (FC-AL)

NL-Ports - For connecting Node devices to the FC-AL.

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24
Q

What is a TE-Port used for?

A

TE-Port - Trunking Expansion Ports - For connecting MDS to another MDS. Connects to other TE-Ports.

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25
Q

What is a TF-Port used for?

A

TF-Port - Trunking Fabric Port - For connecting to a device that has the ability to send tagged frames for VSANS. Connects to TN-Port.

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26
Q

What is a TN-Port used for?

A

TN-Port - Trunking Node Port - For connecting to a device that has the ability to send tagged frames for VSANs. - Connects to TF-Ports.

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27
Q

What is a SD-Port used for?

A

SD-Port - SPAN Destination port - For connecting a device that does SPAN to an MDS.

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28
Q

What is an FX-Port used for?

A

FX-Port - Fabric X Port - X is a variable. Can operate as an F-Port or an FL-Port. It will act as an F-Port when an N-Port is connecting to it. It will act as an FL-Port when connecting an FC-Switch to an FC-AL.

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29
Q

What is a B-Port used for?

A

B-Port - Bridge Port - For connecting another geographically dispersed device from another SAN that is far away to the MDS.

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30
Q

What is an Auto-Mode Port used for?

A

Auto-Mode Port - Can operate as any port type.

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31
Q

What is a Fibre Channel ID?

A

A dynamically acquired address that is routable within the switch fabric.

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32
Q

How many Domain IDs are available in Fibre Channel?

A

239.

01-EF are available giving us 239. 00 and FO-FF are reserved for internal switch services.

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33
Q

How big is a Fibre Channel ID (FCID) in bits and what are the three things that the FCID contains?

A

24 bits consisting of 3 parts:

  1. Domain ID
  2. Area ID
  3. Port ID
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34
Q

What are the 5 Layers that make up the Fibre Channel Architecture and their functions?

A

FC-0 - Defines the physical interface stuff, like cabling, connectors, etc.
FC-1 - Defines the line coding of signals.
FC-2 - Defines Framing and flow control matters.
FC-3 - Defines generic services required for fabric management.
FC-4 - Upper layer protocol mapping

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35
Q

What are the generic services that are required for Fibre Channel management defined by the FC-3 layer of the Fibre Channel Architecture?

A

FC-3 - Defines generic services required for fabric management such as:

  • Name Service
  • Login Service
  • Address Manager
  • Alias Server
  • Fabric Controller
  • Management Server
  • Key Distribution Server
  • Time Server
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36
Q

What is the intelligence used to handle the synchronization of the distributed databases across devices called in regards to the Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS)?

A

RSCN - Registered State Change Notification

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37
Q

What are the 3 things that must happen before N-Ports can begin exchanging data?

A
  1. The N-Ports must log into their attached F-Ports (FLOGI Process)
  2. The N-Port must log into its target N-Port. This is referred to as the Port Login Process or PLOGI Process
  3. The N-Ports must exchange information about the upper layer protocols. They need to ensure the intiator in the target process can communicate properly. This is known as the Process Login (PRLI).
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38
Q

What is the Discover Address (ADISC) used for?

A

To confirm the address of another port or to discover whether the other port has a hard coded address.

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39
Q

What is the Discover Fabric (FDISC) used for?

A

To verify the Cisco fabric service parameters that are in use in your fabric.

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40
Q

What is the Discover Port (PDISC) used for?

A

To verify the service parameters that exist for another N-Port.

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41
Q

What is the protocol used in Fibre Channel to route frames and assure order delivery and avoid loops?

A

FSPF - Fabric Shortest Path First

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42
Q

What command could you use if your MDS (Multilayer Director Switch) fails to boot?

A

Install all

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43
Q

What command could you use if you wanted to do a non-disruptive upgrade to your MDS (Multilayer Director Switch)?

A

Install all

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44
Q

What are the two licensing types that are used on MDS (Multilayer Director Switch)?

A

Feature Based
Module Based
(or both simultaneously)

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45
Q

What model(s) of MDS does not use Module based licensing at all?

A

MDS 9000 Series

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46
Q

How long is the grace period for a temporary license on a Multilayer Director Switch?

A

120 days.

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47
Q

How long is the grace period for a temporary license on a Nexus Switch?

A

120 days

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48
Q

What command do you use to install a license on the MDS switch?

A

install license

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49
Q

What command shows you vsan information on the MDS?

A

show vsan

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50
Q

What command shows you what ports belong to the various vsans?

A

show vsan membership

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51
Q

What command do you use to see the port names and node names that have successfully logged into the MDS?

A

show flogi database

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52
Q

What command is used to see what devices have registered with the FCNS (Fibre Channel Name Server)?

A

show fcns database vsan .

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53
Q

How do you edit names in the MDS database?

A

device-alias database from global config then
device-alias

Show device-alias database to verify.

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54
Q

What command shows zoning configurations on an MDS?

A

show zoneset vsan

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55
Q

Which command would you use in order to view which logged in hosts are functioning as Fibre Channel targets?

A

show fcns database vsan

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56
Q

What are the three layers of the Data Center Model?

A

Core
Aggregation
Access

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57
Q

What is a Collapsed Core?

A

The Aggregation Layer and the Core Layer are combined so there is really only the Core and Access layer.

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58
Q

What is considered Unified Fabric?

A

FCoE - Fibre Channel over Ethernet.
DCB - Data Center Bridging
iSCSI

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59
Q

Which two layers result in the collapsed core design?

A

Access

Core

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60
Q

What are two features we might find in a data center aggregation layer?

A

Security
Access control
Various Services

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61
Q

How many supervisor slots are in the Nexus 7010?

A

2 - There are two in all of the Nexus 7000 series.

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62
Q

How many I/O module slots are there in a Nexus 7009?

A

7

The 9 in the 7009 is the number of total slots. 2 are for the Supervisors.

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63
Q

How many I/O module slots are there in a Nexus 7010?

A

8

The 10 in the 7010 is the number of total slots. 2 are for the Supervisors.

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64
Q

How many I/O module slots are there in a Nexus 7018?

A

16

The 18 in the 7018 is the number of total slots. 2 are for the Supervisors.

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65
Q

What Nexus 7000 series switch models are FCoE and DCB ready and support layer 3 functionality?

A

All
7009
7010
7018

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66
Q

What are the 4 power supply redundancy options for the Nexus 7000 series?

A

Combined
Power Supply Redundancy N+1
Input Source Redundancy (Grid Source Redundancy)
Complete

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67
Q

What models of the Nexus 5000 series switches are layer 3 capable?

A

5548
5596
(Basically any model that starts with a 55)

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68
Q

How many server ports does the Nexus 2148, 2224, 2248, and 2232 have?

A

2148 - 48 - 1G Ports
2224 - 24 - 1G Ports
2248 - 48 - 1G Ports
2232 - 32 - Fiber Optic Ports

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69
Q

How many host port-channels can be done on the Nexus 2148?

A

None

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70
Q

What model of Nexus 2000 series switch does not support port-channel for the host ports?

A

Nexus 2148

71
Q

What model of the Nexus 2000 series switch supports FCoE and DCB?

A

Nexus 2232

72
Q

How many Fabric ports does the Nexus 2148, 2224, 2248, and 2232 have?

A

2148 - 4 - 10G Ports
2224 - 2 - 10G Ports
2248 - 4 - 10G Ports
2232 - 8 - 10G Ports

73
Q

Which supervisor module for the MDS supports Fibre Channel over Ethernet?

A

Supervisor 2A

74
Q

What are the console port settings to connect to a Nexus or MDS?

A 
Baud Rate - 9600 bps
Data bits - 8
Parity - None
Stop bits - 1
Flow Control - None
75
Q

What does LUN stand for?

A

Logical Unit Number

76
Q

Does a FabricPath interface run STP?

A

No

77
Q

What are some features of OTV?

A

Control Plane MAC learning
Dynamic Encapsulation
Native and automated dual homing.

78
Q

What are the 3 options for storage virtualization?

A
  1. Host Server
  2. Disk System (Array Based)
  3. Network
79
Q

How do you control access to a logical disk to keep multiple servers from writing to it simultaneously?

A

LUN Masking or LUN Mapping.

LUN Mapping is only found in Fibre Channel environments.

80
Q

What does OVF stand for?

A

Open Virtualization Format

81
Q

What storage technology was created by Cisco to control initiator to target communications in a Fibre channel network.

A

LUN Zoning

83
Q

What does OVA stand for?

A

Open Virtualization Appliance

84
Q

What are the requirements for implementing Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

A
  • Jumbo Frames - Entire FC frame needs to be in the payload of a single Ethernet frame.
  • Layer 2 naming - Need to map pWWNs to MAC addresses
  • FIP - Fibre Channel over Ethernet Initialization Protocol - Handles login of FC devices over unified Fabric
  • No packet loss
  • 10 Gbps minimum
85
Q

What is the EtherType value used to identify and Fibre Channel frame?

A

0x8906

86
Q

What are the two differences between a Fibre Channel Ethernet frame VS a normal Ethernet frame?

A

FCoE frame has:

  • EtherType of 0x8906
  • a 4-bit version field
  • Encapsulated Fibre Channel info
87
Q

What is the maximum size of a Fibre Channel frame?

A

2148 Bytes

88
Q

What should the default MTU for the Unified Fabric environment be set to?

A

2240 Bytes

89
Q

What two layers of the Fibre Channel architecture needs to be replaced to support FCoE?

A

FC0 and FC1

  • Replaced with Ethernet -Physical Layer,
  • Media Access Control (MAC) Layer
  • FCoE Logical Endpoing
90
Q

What does CNA stand for and what is it for?

A

Converged Network Adapter. Needed to speak FCoE.

91
Q

What is an ENode?

A

An Initiator with a CNA.

92
Q

What is the port called on an ENode?

A

VN-Port (Virtual N-Port)

93
Q

What is a VN-Port?

A

A Port on an ENode.

Connects to a VF-Port.

94
Q

What is a VF-Port?

A

Virtual Fabric Port - Port on an MDS that connects to a VN-Port.

95
Q

What is a FCoE Switch and what is another name for it?

A

A switch that can switch FC traffic and Ethernet traffic. It is also called a Fibre Channel Forwarder or FCF.

96
Q

What is FIP and what does it stand for?

A

Fibre Channel over Ethernet Initialization Protocol - Handles login of FC devices over unified Fabric.

97
Q

What is a VE-Port used for?

A

VE-Port - Virtual Expansion Ports - For connecting a Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF) to another FCF. Connects to other VE-Ports.

98
Q

What are the Data Center Bridging (DCB) standards set by the IEEE?

A
  • PFC - Priority Flow Control
  • ETS - Enhanced Transmission Selection
  • QCN - Quantized Congestion Notification
  • DCBX - Data Center Bridging Exchange
99
Q

What does PFC stand for, what is its IEEE standard, and what is its purpose?

A

Priority Flow Control
802.1Qbb
Ensures that there’s a system in place where there’ll be lossless delivery of FCoE frames.

100
Q

What does ETS stand for, what is its IEEE standard, and what is its purpose?

A

Enhanced Transmission Selection
802.1Qaz
Provides bandwidth management and priority selection of traffic on the network.

101
Q

What does QCN stand for, what is its IEEE standard, and what is its purpose?

A

Quantized Congestion Notification
802.1Qau
Provides congestion awareness and avoidance.

102
Q

What does DCBX stand for, what is its IEEE standard, and what is its purpose?

A

Data Center Bridging Exchange
802.1Qab
Ability to exchange information about what particular features they support.

103
Q

You have a FCoE host connecting to a FCF that connects to another FCF. What is the link called between the FCFs?

A

VE to VE

104
Q

What 10G SFP only works between a Nexus 2000 and a Nexus 5000 and must be the same on both sides?

A

FET-10G

105
Q

What does VIC stand for and what is it used for?

A

Virtual Interface Card.

It is used as a Fabric Extender to a server.

106
Q

What are some features of a VIC?

A
  • Single PCIe to multiple VMs presented as vNICs
  • Traffic segregated in hardware.
  • Can be a vNIC or vHBA.
107
Q

What IEEE Standard does a VIC use?

A

802.1Qbh

108
Q

Can a VIC and a Nexus 1000v exist in the same environment?

A

Yes

109
Q

What are some benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric?

A
  • Reduced Cabling
  • Centralized Management
  • Consolidation

-Increased scalability (Lammle)

110
Q

What are the 2 main benefits of the Nexus 2232 FEX?

A
  1. Scalability - One 2232 could accommodate up to 32 physical servers.
  2. Cabling
    - Intrarack is shorter, vertical, copper ToR cables from 2K to Servers
    - Interrack is longer, horizontal, fiber EoR cables from 5K to 2Ks.
111
Q

What is the maximum number of Nexus 2232 switches you can have connected back to your Nexus 5000?

A

8 to 24 depending on the 5K configuration (mainly L3 card).

112
Q

What are the 3 different deployment models that can be used between Nexus 2000 and Nexus 5000 and a description of each?

A
  1. Straight-through Static Pinning - Links between 5K and 2K are not bundled. Traffic from servers on 2K will always use specific uplink.
  2. Straight-through Dynamic Pinning - Links between 5K and 2K are bundled. Traffic from servers on 2K will end up somewhere on the bundle depending on hashing algorithm used.
  3. Active/Active Pinning - Increased scalability because multiple 2Ks are redundantly connected to multiple 5Ks.
113
Q

The Nexus 7000 can support the Straight-through Static Pinning deployment model. T/F?

A

False, it only supports the Straight-through Dynamic Pinning model.

114
Q

What is the technology that is added to a particular packet between the Nexus 5K and Nexus 2K?

A

VNTag - Virtual Network Tag

Glue that binds the Logical Network Port and the Host Port together.

115
Q

What are main attributes found in an 802.1Qbh frame?

A
  • Destination MAC
  • Source MAC
  • VN Tag
  • 802.1Q Tag
116
Q

What are the bits found in a VNTag within an 802.1Qbh frame?

A
  • Direction bit
  • Pointer bit
  • Looped bit (or loop filter)
117
Q

What can the Direction bit be set to in a VNTag?

A

0 if we are talking about host to network forwarding.

1 if we are talking about network to host forwarding.

118
Q

When is a Pointer bit set inside of a VNTag?

A

Only when dealing with a multicast frame that requires egress replication.

119
Q

When is the Looped bit set inside a VNTag?

A

Only if sending back to a source Nexus 2K FEX.

Contains Source VIF and Destination VIF.

120
Q

How do you verify if you are dealing with a FEX interface?

A

The “show interface brief” command. If you see mode as “Fabric” then it is a FEX interface.

121
Q

How do you verify the state of both physical and logical interfaces and pinning mode in use on a FEX?

A

“show fex” or “show fex detail”

122
Q

What is the difference between a VIC and a VIF?

A

VIC is on a C-Series server and the VIF is on the Nexus 5K/7K.

123
Q

How many ports are on the UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A

20 Fixed 10 GE and FCoE ports. You configure how many will be 10 GE and how many will be FCoE.

124
Q

How many additional ports can you get with the expansion module in a UCS 61X0XP Fabric Interconnect?

A

8 Fibre Channel or 6 10 GE ports.

125
Q

How many servers and B-Series Chassis does the UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect support?

A

160 Servers or 20 B-Series Chassis.

126
Q

What runs the UCS Management software?

A

The Fabric Interconnect.

127
Q

How many ports are on the UCS 6140XP Fabric Interconnect?

A

40 Fixed 10 GE and FCoE ports. You configure how many will be 10 GE and how many will be FCoE.

128
Q

How expansion module slots exist in the UCS 6140XP Fabric Interconnect?

A

2 Expansion Module slots.

129
Q

How many servers and B-Series Chassis does the UCS 6140XP Fabric Interconnect support?

A

320 Servers or 40 B-Series Chassis.

130
Q

What ports can operate as either 1 GE or 10 GE on the 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A

Ports 1 - 8

131
Q

What ports can operate as either 1 GE or 10 GE on the 6140XP Fabric Interconnect?

A

Ports 1 - 16

132
Q

What are the models of Mezzanine cards that are virtual (VICs)?

A
  • 1240
  • 1280
  • M81KR
133
Q

What are the models of the Mezzanine cards that are not virtual?

A

M51KR-B

134
Q

How many connections can you use to connect IOMs on the B-Series to the FIs?

A

1, 2, 4, or 8 depending on IOMs and FIs in use.

Must be multiples of 2 if using redundant connections.

135
Q

Can you connect a single IOM on a B-Series server to multiple FIs?

A

No. If you have redundant Fabric Interconnects (FIs) then you must connect the IOMs in multiples of 2 to each FI.

136
Q

What are some benefits to using 2nd Generation Fabric Interconnects such as the 6248?

A

-Ability to configure port-channels which gives you combined bandwidth, redundancy, automatic and dynamic load-balancing, and simplifies link failures.

137
Q

What is does IOM stand for and what is it used for?

A

Input Output Module

Often referred to as a FEX, it interconnects the B-Series server to the Fabric Interconnects (FIs).

138
Q

What are the 3 main components of an IOM and what does each do?

A
  1. I/O Multiplexer - Responsible for multiplexing traffic from uplinks that go to the Fabric Interconnects to the server blades.
  2. CMS - Chassis Management Switch - Responsible for carrying management traffic to the CMC - Chassis Management Controller.
  3. CMC - Chassis Management Controller - Critical for component discovery inside the chassis. Key for monitoring particular sensors, controlling fan speed, etc.
139
Q

What are the 3 important management functions built in to the CIMC?

A
  1. Keyboard, video and mouse over IP (KVM)
  2. Serial over LAN (SoL)
  3. IPMI - Intelligent Platform Management Interface
140
Q

What are the 3 port states available to a port in the UCS System Manager?

A
  1. Unconfigured (default)
  2. Server Port
  3. Uplink Port
141
Q

What does FSM stand for and what is its purpose?

A

Finite State Machine - Allows you to watch major processes that are occurring and if they are successful or failing within the UCS System Manager.

142
Q

What are some things you would monitor with the FSM?

A
  • Server discovery
  • UCS Backups
  • Firmware downloads
  • Service Profile work
  • Upgrading components
  • Importing backups

Server booting is something you would NOT monitor. You could do this from the CIMC if you wanted to.

143
Q

Where does the UCS Manager software live?

A

On the Fabric Interconnects.

144
Q

What are the 3 ways in which an administrator would interact with the UCS Manager?

A
  1. GUI
  2. CLI
  3. 3rd Party
145
Q

Where does the UCS Manager store all of its information?

A

In the UCS Management Database.

146
Q

How does the UCS Manager administration tools interact with the UCS Management database?

A

Using an XML API.

147
Q

What are some non-primary, alternative administrative options for the UCS Manager?

A
  • SNMP
  • KVM over IP
  • IPMI (Intelligent Platform Management Interface)
  • SMASH CLP (Server Hardware Command Line Protocol)
  • CIM (Common Information Model) XML Standard
  • SoL (Serial over LAN)
  • Cisco Call Home
148
Q

What is Hardware Abstraction and what is Cisco’s term for it?

A

Allows you to take things such as World Wide Names (WWNs), MAC addresses, Firmware, etc. and store them in software (profiles).

Called Stateless Computing

149
Q

What is a Pool in the Cisco UCS Manager environment?

A

Can assign things such as Unique Universal IDs (UUIDs) for servers so that way that information can be abstracted from the application server.

150
Q

What is a Service Policy used for in the Cisco UCS Manager environment?

A

Dictate how the particular servers we deploy are going to react. For example:
-Boot policy could control how a particular server when it boots such as, will it boot from a CD first and then Hard drive and then LAN, etc.

  • Can apply Firmware
  • Can apply QoS
151
Q

What is a Service Profile used for in the Cisco UCS Manager environment?

A

Brings together Pools and Policies in the UCS environment. Assigns things such as:

  • UUIDs
  • How to connect to LAN
  • How to connect to SAN
  • Boot order
  • etc.
152
Q

What is a Template used for in the Cisco UCS Manager environment?

A

Standard set of settings that we can copy and tweak if needed using Service Profiles.

153
Q

What component of UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?

A

UCS 2104XP

154
Q

What is FabricPath?

A

It is Cisco’s enhancement of TRILL, created to replace spanning-tree. Layer 3 routing intelligence is brought to layer 2 using a layer 2 version of IS-IS. Routes using shortest path from A to B.

155
Q

What does TRILL stand for and what is it used for?

A

Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links. It is the old term for Cisco’s FabricPath.

156
Q

Why did Cisco rename TRILL to FabricPath?

A

Because they enhanced it by adding things suchs as Conversational Learning when it comes to MAC addresses which means that it only learns MAC addresses that are being actively used (sending traffic back and forth).

157
Q

What are some of the required components of the Nexus 1000v deployment.

A
  • License key
  • Virtual Ethernet Module (VEM)
  • Virtual Supervisor Module (VSM)
  • Control Vlan (Recommended)
  • Packet Vlan (Recommended)
158
Q

What type of interface is formed on the Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to a FEX?

A

VIF (Virtual Interface)

159
Q

What is a configuration element selected during initial setup of Nexus 7000 Series switches?

A

Default interface layer

160
Q

Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?

A

vPC Peer Link

161
Q

What is a function of the data center access layer?

A

QoS Marking

162
Q

What data center devices can participate in FabricPath?

A
  • Nexus 5500 Series Switches

- Nexus 7000 Series Switches

163
Q

How many bits are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE in the IEEE 802.1p CoS field?

A

3

164
Q

What configuration elements selected during initial setup is unique to MDS 9000 series Fibre Channel switches?

A
  • Enforce password complexity

- Default switchport mode F

165
Q

A high-availability mesh can hold as many as what number of ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances?

A

8

166
Q

What is the default Predictor in the Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?

A

Round Robin

167
Q

What protocol is encapsulated in FCoE?

A

SCSI

168
Q

What are some features of the SAN core-edge design?

A
  • Easy to analyze and tune performance
  • Cost effective for large SANs
  • Deterministic Latency
169
Q

What is the largest number of active zone sets on MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?

A

1 with all licenses

170
Q

What does FCF stand for and what does it do?

A

Fibre Channel Forwarder which is another name for an FCoE Switch. An FCF is a switch that can switch Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic.

171
Q

What is another name for an FCoE Switch and what does it do?

A

Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)

An FCF is a switch that can switch Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic.

172
Q

Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives?

A

RAID 6

173
Q

On a Fibre Channel network, what is an example of a control between initiators and targets?

A

Zoning

174
Q

Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?

A

Pooled Identities

175
Q

What is the maximum number of peers a UCS Fabric Interconnect cluster can hold for redundancy?

A

2

176
Q

What are the tabs in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI?

A
  • Equipment
  • Servers
  • LAN
  • SAN
  • VM
  • Admin
177
Q

Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a UCS Fabric Interconnect?

A

Restore, Setup

Data Center (1 decks)

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