64 gunnery Flashcards
1
Q
Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. Neutralization of a target occurs when it suffers ___ or more casualties or damage
A
10%
2
Q
________________ is caused by the motion of the helicopter as the projectile leaves the weapon
A
Angular rate error
3
Q
What are the four types of ballistics?
A
Interior, exterior, aerial and terminal
4
Q
Rockets are most accurate when fired IGE or OGE?
A
OGE
5
Q
Angular rate error is an example of what type of ballistic?
A
Aerial
6
Q
Maximum effective range is defined as?
A
The longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target
7
Q
Is the hellfire missle affected by angular rate error?
A
No, guided weapons are not affected by angular rate error
8
Q
what are the two types of fire?
A
Direct and indirect
9
Q
what are the three modes of fire?
A
Hover, running and diving
10
Q
what are the four “T”s associated with aircraft control(fire techniques) during rocket engagements?
A
Target, torque, trim, target
11
Q
Trajectory shift and projectile drift combine to create what?
A
Port-starboard effect
12
Q
Rockets will accelerate as they leave the launcher. The crosswind force acting upon the fins which causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind is known as what?
A
Relative wind effect
13
Q
Gravity, Yaw and wind drift are what type of ballistics?
A
Exterior
14
Q
What are the three factors that effect dispersion?
A
Vibrations, sights, boresights.
15
Q
Angle of impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic?
A
Terminal
16
Q
what is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?
A
Thrust misalignment, rocket spin
17
Q
Firing rockets at maximum ranges increases/decreases dispersion and increases/decreases accuracy
A
Decreases and increases
18
Q
yaw is the angle between the centerline of a projectile and its trajectory, which results in a changing trajectory and an increase in what?
A
Drag?
19
Q
Where would a projectile have its maximum yaw?
A
Near the muzzle
20
Q
What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?
A
Time of flight and wind speed acting on the cross-sectional area of a projectile
21
Q
The exterior ballistic which causes a clickwise spinning projectile to move to the right is called what?
A
Projectile drift
22
Q
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a ___ radius
A
4 meter
23
Q
What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?
A
2640fps
24
Q
What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?
A
Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings
25
What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round?
Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings
26
Arming of the Hellfire missile is based on a 10g acceleration and occurs between __________ after launch
150 to 300 meters
27
maximum velocity of the Hellfire missile is
950mph
28
During running fire align the helicopter into firing constraints with the ______ while maintaining the aircraft in _____
Cyclic, trim
29
Running fire is preformed at airspeeds _________ and offers a good miz of aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy
Above ETL
30
To avoid fratricide, do not engage when target area _________________________________
Inter-visability is lost or target confirmation is questionable
31
Fire delivered on a target, which cannot be seen by the firing unit, is known as what?
Indirect fire
32
the bursting radius of the M151 HE "10 pounder" is _______ and can produce lethality radius in excess of _______
10 meters, 50 meters
33
The M789 HEDP can penetrate in excess of ____ of RHA at _____ meters
2 inches, 2500 meters
34
You fire a burst of 30mm at a target which misses to the left about 10 meters, you then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target and fire again hitting the target. what technique did you use?
The recognition method which is also known as kentucky windage
35
When planning a running fire engagement, how far should the intial point be from the target?
About 8 to 10 km
36
When conducting running fire engagements what airspeed does the ATM and why?
Predicted maximum rate of climb airspeed. This will provide a stable delivery platform while maintaining optimum power available for evasive maneuvers or emergencies.
37
Harmonization procedures should be accomplished ____ to___ meters from the target
500 to 1500
38
When conducting AWS harmonization, the CPG positions the GUN DH reticle of the mean point of impact(MPI) of the rounds the presses the ...
Store/update switch to store (ORT LHG)
39
The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of_____
1200 rounds
40
The 30mm gun turret azimuth and elevation limits are what?
+/- 86 degrees azimuth, +11 elevation(+9 within +/- 10 degrees of centerline, and -60 degrees depression
41
what is the gun duy cycle?
Six 50 round bursts with five seconds between burst followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst settings other than 50, no more than 300 rounds fired within 60 seconds followed by a 10 minute rest period
42
What is the "WARNING" associated with the 30mm?
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in a catastophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death
43
What is the software limit that the WP will provide fire control solutions for the 30mm?
4200m
44
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ______ in elevation to prevent _____ during landing
+11 degrees, dig-in
45
What is the warning regarding 30mm stoppage?
If 300 or more rounds have been fired in teh preceding 10 min, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the acft for 30 min. crew should remain in the acft and continue positive gun control.
46
The M789 HEDP 30mm round is an ________ and ________ round, and will penetrate ___ of RHA at ______
anti-material and anti-personnel, 2inches, 2500m
47
The AWS will/will not continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS wixed mode
Will
48
When the AWS is in the fixed mode, the gun will be commanded to ___ in elecation, and forward in azimuth to the helicopter ______
+6 degrees, Armament Datum Line (ADL)
49
In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain in the last commanded position. Gun firing is _____. When de-actioned it will return to the ______ position.
inhibited, stowed
50
The gun will be inhibited from from firing during any wing store pylon weapon launch and for _____ afterword
2 seconds
51
When the 30mm is selected by a crewmember and a pylon weapon is selected by the other crewmember, the gun azimuth limits are ______
Restricted
52
What is the caution associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch on the LMP?
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. The possibility exists that the AWS could be inadvertantly be driven into the ground.
53
the sideloader/ magazine controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions?
Counting of 30mm rounds, control of the carrier drive assembly, control of the laoder assemdbly for uploading and downloading.
54
The 30mm can accomodate a veriety of 30mm ammunition including________,_____,______
HEPD 789, TP 788, ADEN/DEFA
55
What is the rate of fire for the 30mm?
625 +/- 25
56
While in training mode, how many rounds will be displayed?
888
57
When are the pylons automatically commanded to the flight mode ON position?
After takeoff when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than 5 seconds.
58
The PEN button on the rocket control page may be used to defeat bunkers up to _____ thick when the BNK is selected
3 meters
59
With hellfire rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rockets on 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?
A-24, B-8, E-6
60
When rockets are in the cooperative mode the WP will use the _________ and ______ in the fire control solution and will disregard the _______
CPG Sel LOS, range data, PLT LOS
61
Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode?
Yes, although the common page is the CPG's either crewmember can make changes once in CO-OP
62
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than _____ with two _____ launchers every _____ seconds or fire with only ___ outboard launcher installed without restrictions
pairs, two, 3, one
63
The WP limits the fire control solution to a maximum range of _____meters for MK66 motors
7500
64
What is a RAD and what does it do?
Ram Air Decelerator, stops the forward velocity stabilizes the descent of the submunition, and arms the submunition
65
When forward airspeed exceeds ____, do not use M229/M423(17 pounder), warhead/fuse combination for engagement of targets under ____ distance and ensure LOF is clear of obstructions for at least ____
10KTAS, 450ft,450ft
66
Is the use of the MK66 MOD2 motor authorized?
No
67
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ____ from other airborne helicopters
51meters
68
The aerial rocket subsystem can be employed ____ by either crewmember or in the ____ mode
independantly, cooperative
69
How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and gun rounds loaded on preflight?
The load maintenance panel provides the capability. The crew via the load page can override these settings.
70
The pylons are independently controlled through a range of...
+4 to -15 degrees
71
What does the unclusion of a Hazard of Electronic Radiation to Ordinance filter provide for a rocket?
Prevents the rocket from inadvertent ignition due to electromagnetic radiation(radio waves)
72
How high above the launch point will a "K" model missile fly when launched LOBL at a taget 7km away?
600 Ft
73
What is the definition of ripple fire?
Multiple missiles launched with two or more unique laser channel codes
74
What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?
R
75
When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?
NA
76
What does the TME emulate and replicate?
The TME emulates the missile control decision making process, replicates the missile launch mode selection processing, target aquistion and tracking function, BIT routines and thermal management characteristics.
77
How long is the allowable training mode, missile elapsed ON time?
30 minutes
78
What symbol will appear on the RF missile icon if the mazimum allowable elapsed ON time is exceeded?
OT
79
What is transfer alignment?
The transfer of the aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform
80
What are the three acquistion sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile?
TADS, FCR, or RFHP/IDM
81
When wil a centered "T" be desplayed in the missile constraints box?
When the training system is enabled and weapons system actioned
82
Why would the RF missile LOBL inhibit option be used?
To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits mMSL from transmittion on rail, which eliminates RF MSL signature
83
Which page has the command to "arm" the hellfire launchers without pressing the master "arm/safe" button?
WPN UTIL
84
Can the BACKSCATTER inhibit be overridden by the triggers second detent?
NO
85
At what time and for how long is the message "LASE NN TRGT" displayed in the high action display during LOAL SAL missile launches?
Message is displayed for 4 secodns starting at TOF-12 calculated missile TOF
86
What does the message "TARGET DATA?" mean in the HAD?
No target data is available ie. MSL WAS'D, RF MSL selected and TADS is selected LOS
87
The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine withing the laser missile. this selection _____ the tracking capability of the missile
Narrows
88
The minimum altitude is ___ to prevent the RF missile from impacting the ground during launch
15 meters
89
To prevent IAT break lock due to missile launch, the crew should offset the aircraft centerline _____ to the side the sal missile will be launched from
3-5 degrees
90
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within ___ of the gun taget line nor more than ____ from the target centerline
30 degrees, 60 degrees
91
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by____ if the target is 50 to _____ below the aircraft
500 meters 400ft
92
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by _____ if the target is _______ below the aicraft
401-800ft
93
Backscatter is usually caused by what?
A portion of the laser energy reflected off atmospheric particles in the laser path back toward the designator while the remainder of the laser energy penetrates towards the target
94
List the seven laser related missile performance distracters
Underspill, overspill, attenuation, spot jitter, backscatter, boresight error, beam divergence
95
The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the ____ RF missile during a _____ target engagement. Is this button common to both crewmembers?
Yes
96
A RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. What is this called?
Dopplar Beam Sharpening
97
What kind of dbs trajectory will a missile fly if the target is to the left of centerline?
Right
98
List the number of missiles powered at a time by the automatic RF missile power management system.
8 avail., 4. 4-7 avail., 2. 2-3 avail., 1. 1 avail., 1
99
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management, In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at ___ intervals. the does/does not occur when missiles are WAS'd
10 minute, does not
100
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of ____ to ____
1km-2.5km
101
At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of ____ at ____
100meters, 8km
102
the LOAL LO/HI constraints box is always driven by what is desplayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window. True or False?
FALSE
103
What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL DIR SAL "K" missile at zero degrees offset?
1500m
104
When firing a "N" model missle, targets should be a minimum of _____ from the firing point
800m
105
The LOBL missle contraint box is
+/- 20 degrees
106
The LOAL missle constraint box is
+/- 7.5 degrees
107
If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to ____, the allowable constraints angle is _______
1km, 20 degrees
108
If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is less than ___, the allowable constraints angle is _______
1km, 5 degrees
109
When will the missile icon be desplayed in white and flash?
When that missile is selected as the next missile to be launched
110
define the following missile status messages: OT, MU, SF
overtemp, missile unlatched, missile launcher station fail
111
What is the minimum effective range of a "K" LOAL-LO engagement with 0 degrees offset? with 7.5?
2000m,2500m
112
What is the minimum effective range of a "K" LOAL-HI engagement with a 0 degree offset? 7.5?
3500m,3500m
113
Where is the hazard area fr a radiating RF missile located?
1 meter, 45 degrees off missile nose
114
Training missile Emulator(TME) can simulate up to ____ RF missiles for each launcher for training
four
115
What is the DEICE button on the SAL missile page for?
It is used to manually deice SAL missile seekers in preperation for missile launch.
116
What are the three modes the RF missile operates in?
standby, prelaunch, post launch
117
If the selected site is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?
RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present
118
The maximum mask height and minimum standoff destance for a LOAL-LO and LOAL-HI are?
260ft and 600m for LO, 1000ft and 1500m for HI
119
The FCR has been selected as the active sight, The RFHO data has exceeded optimum parameters to a magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD sight status feild will be displayed?
NAV DATA INVALID
120
The FCR will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to ____ roll and _____ to _____ in pitch
20 degrees, -20 to +15 degrees
121
The GTM/ RMAP FOV is what for each FOV?
WFOV:90 , MFOV", MFOV:45, NFOV: 30, ZFOV:15
122
Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?
B
123
Moving ground target symbols become stale after___ and stationary targets become stale after____
5 sec, 30 sec
124
A single scan burst in GTM narrow feild of view will give ___ scans
3
125
When the FCR detects a target moving at distances between ___ and ____ the RF missile will radiate and attempt to_____
.5km, 8km, LOBL
126
___________________ improves STI detection and classification and moving target indicator (MTI) classification
scan to scan correlation
127
What does a flashing ( sec) ANTS symbol indicate?
That the ANTS has out prioritized the frozen NTS
128
___________ switch is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the line of bearing of an emitting threat as dectected by the RFI.
CUED search
129
A cued search may be performed on a fine detect or couse detect to correlate the location of an emitting threat with a ____ _______ ______
FCR detected target
130
a maximum of ___ RFI emitters can be displayed
10
131
RFI number one emitter will be desplayed with a ____ ____ ____ around the threat symbol and target type
home plate symbol
132
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ____ the symbols will change to _____ ______
30 sec, partial intensity
133
The TSD page will desplay ____ type targets inside of the ASE footprint
ASE
134
The TSD page will desplay ___ type targets outside of the ASE footprint
RFI
135
The RFI can detect and process ____, _____ ___, and _____ _____ radar signals
pulse, pulse doppler and continuous wave
136
question 149 in study guide, label the FCR targets.
i got nothing, go look at your study guide
137
What does the message "RFI DATA" mean?
RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available
138
What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?
Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components
139
Which priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage tagets which are on the move?
C
140
What will happen if you press the display Zoom switch on the RH ORT Grip?
The FCR argeting information will be zoomed 6:1 around the NTS
141
question 154 label the following RFI icons.
still nothing. go to study guide.
142
A maximum of _____ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format of IHADDS c-scope formats at any one time.
64 symbols
143
How many terrain sensitivity settings are available?
8
144
___ ___ _____ selection in extreme cold weather (___ or colder) could result in damage to the FCR.
FCR BIT ORIDE, -10c
145
A shot-at symbol will be displayed on top of the target symbols if the target ___ _____ ____ ____ ____ ____
was engaged after the last scan
146
Terrain profile mode wide format displays a 180 degree scan sector when groundspeed __________________. Narrow format displays a 90 degree sector scan when the groundspeed___________________________
decreases below 45kts and until increasing above 55kts, increases above 55kts and until deccreasing below 45kts
147
____ ____ is used to rapidly position the FCR centerline to the azimuth of ________________________
an emitting detector as detected by the RFI
148
Contiuing to press the cued switch will __________________
cycle the cued search through the existing list of detected emitters
149
Friendly emitters are displayed in CYAN and enemy/grey emitters are displayed in _____
yellow
150
Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places ____________________________over that emitter
an inverse video home plate (selected emitter symbol)
151
What does the LRFD in the "last" position do?
WP uses last laser return for solutions
152
What is the maximum PRF laser code frequency that may be entered?
1788
153
Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent provides
ranging and target designation
154
A full SANUC can take up to __________
30 seconds
155
Manual servo drift null may reduce tads slew rates up to ____
50%
156
The aim point should remain in the ________ for ____. If not, the perform______
DTVNFOV 30 sec, manual servo drift null
157
The sanuc button provides access to the controls necessary to perform ___________ on the crewmembers selected FLIR sensor
a scene assisted non uniformity check
158
The full SANUC could take up to _____, while a one touch could take ____
30 seconds, 1 to 2 seconds
159
During a TADS electronic unit failure to pilot may be limited to _____ in azimuth on the PNVS and the message _______ will be displayed in the HAD
+/-75 degees, PNVS DIRECT
160
How does the CPG receive cueing reference?
selection of the acquisition source and the slave button pressed
161
Internal errors can develop in flight due to temp changes within the internal components of the TADS(thermal drift). When should an internal boresight be accomplished?
2 times during 2.5 flt hours or whenever boresight is suspect
162
What range sources are available to the CPG?
laser, range, nav, manual, auto, default, and hmd gun default
163
The maximum allowable registration error is __ at ___, which can be estimated by using the open area of the LOS reticle, which is equivalent to __ at ___
1ft at 90 ft
164
Selecting the TADS INTERNAL button on the MTADS initiates the ______ internal boresight sequence
automated
165
Maximum MTADS turret gimbal movement is ____ right and ____ left in azimuth, ____ up and ___ down in elevation
120, 180, 30 and 60 degrees
166
To check the boresight correctors, the PLT/CPG must access the _______ page initially, then select ____ and the appropriate system
DMS utility, boresight
167
MTADS uses the ____ of a tracked target or the ____ of an object on the target to track the target
edge, edge
168
If the pilot selects TADS, either by the NVS select switch or by linking the TADS to the FCR, while the CPG is sight select TADS, what will happen?
The CPG sight will default to HMD and the weapons will be de-actioned
169
What three things will cause the LOS reticle on the Flight symbology to flash?
crewmember LOS is invalid, PNVS or TADS is at it's limits, or gun is selected and has failed and is not following crewmembers head.
170
During single DP operations, both crewstations share common sybology and imagery on their HMDs. If both crewmembers have NVS mode switches to NORM or FIXED, which symbology and imagery will be presented on the HMD?
Pilot, unless the CPG subsequently presses the NVS switch.
171
question 185, high action display
goto study guide
172
When will the primary track gates flash?
When approaching 50% of the FOV, limited at FOV edge, or when the gates are extremely small
173
The MTADS incorporates an ____ ____ ____ which uses the previous track information to determine _____ _____ _____ if LOS is lost
inertial track filter, predicted target location
174
the MTADS internal boresight aligns the ___ to the laser LOS and the ____ to the ____ LOS
DTV, FLIR to the DTV
175
The internal boresight shall be performed as part of preflight proceedures prior to ____________ when the MTADS is being used as the imaging sensor
any firing of the laser or weapons
176
Can the internal boresight be performed in flight?
yes
177
If the MTADS DTV internal boresight fails, will the FLIR boresight be performed?
No
178
A solid asterisk displayed in front of the range indicates ____________________ ____________________________
The WP is receiving calid range data from the LRFD
179
A flashing asterisk in the *XXXX message indicates _________________ _____ ____
a Multitarget condition is detected in the range data
180
What is the minimum focus ranges for the MTADS DTV and FLIR?
MTADS has no minimum focus range
181
How many bursts of laser energy are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent?
3 bursts of laser energy in one second
182
_____ FOV should be used for target acquisition and the ___ FOV or _____ FOV should be used for target identification and engagement
medium, narrow, zoom
183
The LMC requires a __________ when the aircraft is moving while tracking a target
valid range
184
When storing a target withe the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the LH ORT, a TGT XX message will be displayed where?
in the pilot/CPG weapon inhibit field for four seconds
185
the target and threat file has up to ___ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the _____
25, safe set
186
The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from partial intensity green to _________ when the TADS is lasing
full intesity white
187
What do the TADS FOV gates surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present?
gates indicate FOV that will be displayed in the next narrower FOV. if none are present, you are in zoom
188
When operating in the TESS/ weapons training mode,what is displayed in the weapons status section of the HAD when the system is armed?
training
189
What must be entered on the KU to enable auto range?
A
190
the minimum altitude for auto ranging is approx _________ with a _________ look down angle
33ft AGL, 1 degree
191
Can the flight crew override the "NAV DATA INVALID" message in the weapon inhibit status field of the HAD?
no, safety inhibit
192
Can the flight crew override the "ACCEL LIMIT" message in the weapon inhibit status field of the HAD?
no, safety inhibit
193
A total of ____ locations are available in the IDM shot at file with and additional ____ available for ownship
128, 16
194
CTRLM are numbered __ thru __ and ___ thru ___
51, 99, 100,950
195
FCR target coordinate data is stored in ___ when the CAQ button is used to select and FCR target
T50
196
On the COORD page the _____ VABs are used to make a waypoint, control measure or target threat an acquisition source
L1-L6
197
When you WAS any weapon system, that weapon system ICON will turn ____ video
inverse
198
Describe the crewmember priority(WAS logic) for actioning any weapon system. What is the one exception to this rule?
the last crewmember to WAS has control of that weapon system. however, if the CPG has rockets WASd on the ORT and the pilot also actions rockets, then the rockets will be in COOP mode
199
When the Radar Jammer is transmitting a ______ _____ _____ in the center of the ownship icon will be present
flashing lightning bolt
200
Where will an uncorrelated RWR Detect icon will be displayed?
identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship
201
how do you go to the WAR mode on the AN/ALQ 136
by moving the switch on the face of the unit
202
the configuration of the laser sensors of the laser detecting set provides for ______ of coverage in azimuth and ______ in elevation about the helicopter with substantial overlap
360 degree, +/-45
203
A maximum of _ PFZs and __ NFZs can be displayed on the TSD
8/8
204
When is the "PSN" button displayed?
when the estimated radial position error of the primary EGI is greater than 50 meters
205
When in the TESS TNG mode, what does the MPD advisory "LIVE GUN AMMO" mean?
TESS has determined that live gun ammo is onboard the ACFT
206
What is the maximum range which could be entered manually
50k
207
The CMWS uses ____ and ___ dispenser, Each payload module houses up to _______ munitions. Flare and Chaff cartridges ______ be intermixed in any one payload module
2 flare, 1 chaff, 30 flare or chaff, shall not
208
What is the purpose of the cross hatch symbol coding on the ARM?SAFE status window?
It will indicated that a weapon has been actioned in that crew station
209
T or F: The COLOR button on the VIDEO page serves the same function as the day/night/mono knob of the MPD bezel.
FALSE
210
During single DP operations will the VCR still function?
no, it will not function and a " vcr not available" message will be displayed
211
What happens if you place the SYMB button to the boost position?
the video underlay will darken to boost the apparent brightness of the symbols.
212
Pressing the ZOOM VIEW on the video page will result in?
A 2:1 electronic zoom fo the WIDE image
213
The TSD FCR footprint will change from green to _____ when the FCR is scanning
white
214
You have IDMed the AMC a current farm report. Assuming that you have not changed your callsign, what will happen to the FARM report that you sent to the AMC two minutes earlier?
The older FARm report will be overwritten
215
What are the available size selection for a TRP priority zone? What is the default size?
1, 2, or 3 km. 2km is the default
216
What selections will cause the TSD map to freeze?
BAM page, CAQ, FRZ, and PAN
217
The Bob up box represents approx. a ____ square area on the ground. Maximum desplacement to the edge of the format is approximatly _____________________
12 ft, 40 ft by 40 ft
218
What message would the CPG expect to see in the HAD sight status field if the SAL priority missile channel does not match the LRFD code?
REMOTE
219
Default range for the CPG is _____. for the pilot is ____
3km, 1.5km
220
Describe what will happen to the TADS if the laser spot tracker is in the manual and the LST receives properly coded laser energy?
The thumbforce controller will no longer move the TADS until the LST is turned off.
221
The ___________ is used for the transmission of the FCR NTS via the IDM to another longbow
RFHO button
222
The FCR scan wiper symbol will be ____ when the FCR is conducting a single scan burst. for a continuous scan it will be _____
white, green
223
The FCR page will display __ targets symbols for any given scan. these targets represent the ____ ____ targets detected and classified during the scan.
16, highest priority
224
if the pilot's selected sight is FCR and LINK is selected, the TADS FOV will automatically change to ____ if DTV is the selected sensor, or ____ FOV if FLIR is the selected sensor
wide, medium
225
Is the MTADS laster spot tracker capable of tracking PIM coded laser energy
yes
226
selecting the RJAM button places the radar jammer in the standby mode for a warm up period of __________
3minutes
227
On the ASE page up to ___ RFI detected threats can be displayed on the outside of the ASE footprint and in the staus window. Up to __ RLWR detected threats can be desplayed on the inside of the ASE footprint and in the staus window.
On the ASE page up to ___ RFI detected threats can be displayed on the outside of the ASE footprint and in the staus window. Up to __ RLWR detected threats can be desplayed on the inside of the ASE footprint and in the staus window.
228
An RFI detected emitter which has ceased radiating for _______ will have it's symbol blank
90 seconds
229
Will targets scanned with the FCR appear in an active NGZ on the FCR page? will they appear on the TSD?
targets will not appear on the FCR page, however they will appear on the TSD in the NFZ but cannot be engaged with and RF missile(they are not prioritized)
230
The maximum airspeed for the wing stores jettison is ______ . from a hover to _____ minimize sideslip if possible, from ____ to ____ ball centered if possible
130ktas.45ktas.45ktas, 130ktas
231
The laser firing indicator consists of a ______ displayed with the TADS LOS reticle. the display is solely dependant on the ____________ and not
large X, laser trigger position, actual laser operation
232
The training mode is slected by pressing the TRAIN button on the WPN page. What two conditions must be met to enter and exit the training mode?
The ACFT must be in a SAFE condition and no weapons can be actioned (WASed)
