6.1 Contracts Homework Questions Flashcards
Question CPA-01072
Green was adjudicated incompetent by a court having proper jurisdiction. Which of the following statements is correct regarding contracts subsequently entered into by Green?
- All contracts are valid.
- All contracts are enforceable.
- All contracts are v0id.
- All contracts are v0idable.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘c’’ is correct. Contracts entered into by one who has been adjudicated mentally incompetent are v0id rather than v0idable. Thus, choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. Note that choices ‘‘a’’ (all contracts are valid) and ‘‘b’’ (all contracts are enforceable) are the same answer. Since both cannot be correct, both must be wrong.
Question CPA-01076
Which of the following actions if taken by one party to a contract generally will discharge the performance required of the other party to the contract?
- Tender.
- Assignment of rights.
- Material breach of the contract.
- Delay in performance.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘c’’ is correct. A material breach generally will discharge the nonbreaching party.
Choice ‘‘d’’ is not as good an answer as ‘‘c’’. While a delay in performance could cause a discharge, it will do so only in a UCC Sales contract, a contract stating that time is of the essence, or if the delay otherwise materially breaches the contract.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. Generally if a party tenders performance, the other party will also have to perform. Tender of performance does not discharge the other party.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. Generally, contracts are assignable, and an assignment of rights will not discharge the other party from performing.
Question CPA-01079
If a person is induced to enter into a contract by another person because of the close relationship between the parties, the contract may be v0idable under which of the following defenses?
- Undue influence.
- Duress.
- Unconscionability.
- Fraud in the inducement.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘a’’ is correct. Undue influence is when a person in a position of trust or confidence takes unfair advantage of the relationship such that the other party’s free will to contract is overcome.
Question CPA-01109
Under the Sales Article of the UCC, when a written offer has been made without specifying a means of acceptance but providing that the offer will only remain open for ten days, which of the following statements represent(s) a valid acceptance of the offer?
- An acceptance sent by regular mail the day before the ten-day period expires that reaches the offerer on the eleventh day.
- An acceptance faxed the day before the ten-day period expires that reaches the offerer on the eleventh day, due to a malfunction of the offerer’s printer.
- II only.
- I only.
- Both I and II.
- Neither I nor II.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘c’’ is correct. Under UCC 2-206, an offer that does not specify the means of acceptance may be accepted by any means reasonable under the circumstances; thus the attempt to accept by mail or fax was a proper means. Generally under the mailbox rule, an acceptance will be effective on dispatch (including sending a fax) unless the offer specifies that acceptance will be effective only upon receipt. Here, the offer merely says that it will remain open for 10 days; it does not require receipt of the acceptance within 10 days. Thus, the mailbox rule applies and both the letter and the fax are valid acceptances.
Question CPA-01117
Which of the following facts must be proven for a plaintiff to prevail in a common law negligent misrepresentation action?
- The misrepresentations were in writing.
- The defendant made the misrepresentations with a reckless disregard for the truth.
- The misrepresentations concerned opinion.
- The plaintiff justifiably relied on the misrepresentations.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. To make out an action for negligent misrepresentation, the plaintiff must show both actual and justifiable reliance on the misrepresentation.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. In negligent misrepresentation, the misrepresentation can arise out of conduct that is negligent (i.e., simple carelessness); reckless disregard for truth is considered the equivalent of fraud and is a much higher standard of misconduct.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. Misrepresentations need not be in writing to give rise to a cause of action.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. The misrepresentation must be of a material fact; misrepresentation of an opinion generally will not support a cause of action for negligent misrepresentation.
Question CPA-01121
A building subcontractor submitted a bid for construction of a portion of a high-rise office building. The bid contained material computational errors. The general contractor accepted the bid with knowledge of the errors. Which of the following statements best represents the subcontractor’s liability?
- Liable because the errors were material.
- Not liable because the contractor knew of the errors.
- Not liable because the errors were a result of gross negligence.
- Liable because the errors were unilateral.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘b’’ is correct. Unilateral mistake is a defense to a contract if the nonmistaken party knew or should have known of the mistake. Here, the contractor knew of the error.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. Whether the mistake was due to ordinary negligence or gross negligence is irrelevant in determining whether the mistake will constitute a contract defense.
Choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. Unilateral mistake is a defense to a contract if the nonmistaken party knew or should have known of the mistake.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. While mistake is grounds for a defense only if the mistake is material, materiality is not all that is necessary. When the mistake is unilateral, as it is here, the nonmistaken party must also have known of the mistake (or had cause to know of the mistake).
Question CPA-01130
Grove is seeking to av0id performing a promise to pay Brook $1,500. Grove is relying on lack of consideration on Brook’s part. Grove will prevail if he can establish that:
- Brook’s asserted consideration is only worth $400.
- Brook’s only claim of consideration was the relinquishment of a legal right.
- The consideration to be performed by Brook will be performed by a third party.
- Prior to Grove’s promise, Brook had already performed the requested act.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. A contract generally must be supported by valid consideration. Valid consideration will be present if there is a bargained for exchange of something of legal value. If the act promised has already been performed, the bargain element fails. Thus, it is said that past consideration is no consideration.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. A contract generally must be supported by valid consideration. Relinquishment of a legal right constitutes something of legal value. Thus, this is not a good defense for Grove.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. As long as the consideration is not a sham, the courts will not inquire into the adequacy of the consideration exchanged. $400 is not sham consideration; thus, the large disparity in value of the consideration exchanged here is not a defense.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. The benefits of a contract need not flow to the parties to constitute consideration, the mere giving of a benefit or receipt of a detriment is sufficient.
Question CPA-01144
One of the criteria for a valid assignment of a sales contract to a third party is that the assignment must:
- Be supported by adequate consideration from the assignee.
- Not be rev0cable by the assignor.
- Not materially increase the other party’s risk or duty.
- Be in writing and signed by the assignor.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘c’’ is correct. Generally, all contracts are assignable unless the assignment would result in a change in the obliger’s risk.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. An assignment need not be supported by consideration; assignments may be gratuitous.
Choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. There is no requirement that an assignment of a contract for the sale of goods be in writing.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. An assignment may be rev0cable or irrev0cable.
Question CPA-01155
Under a personal services contract, which of the following circumstances will cause the discharge of a party’s duties?
- Illegality of the services to be performed.
- Bankruptcy of the party who is to receive the services.
- Death of the party who is to receive the services.
- Cost of performing the services has doubled.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘a’’ is correct. Illegality of the services to be performed always results in a discharge of duties. This assumes that the services were legal at the time the contract was formed. If the services had been illegal at the time of attempted formation, there would be no contract.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. The death of the party who is to receive the services does not usually result in discharge of duties under a personal services contract. However, death might make performance impossible therefore causing a discharge (e.g., if doctor contracts to perform a bypass operation on patient and patient dies before the operation can be performed, doctor is discharged from performing).
Choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. A party can be discharged from a contract for impossibility or commercial impracticability, but a mere increase in costs does not make a performance impossible or impracticable.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. Mere bankruptcy of the party to receive the services will not result in a discharge, although discharge is possible if the bankruptcy constitutes anticipatory repudiation, such as when it makes it very unlikely that the person receiving the services will be able to pay.
Question CPA-01160
Ordinarily, in an action for breach of a construction contract, the statute of limitations time period would be computed from the date the:
- Contract is negotiated.
- Contract is breached.
- Construction is begun.
- Contract is signed.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘b’’ is correct. The statute of limitations for breach of contract usually begins to run on the occurrence of the breach.
Question CPA-01208
Egan, a minor, contracted with Baker to purchase Baker’s used computer for $400. The computer was purchased for Egan’s personal use. The agreement provided that Egan \/1/0uld pay $200 down on delivery and $200 thirty days later. Egan took delivery and paid the $200 down payment. Twenty days later, the computer was damaged seriously as a result of Egan’s negligence. Five days after the damage occurred and one day after Egan reached the age of majority, Egan attempted to disaffirm the contract with Baker. Egan will:
- Be able to disaffirm only if Egan does so in writing.
- Be able to disaffirm despite the fact that Egan was not a minor at the time of disaffirmance.
- Not be able to disaffirm because the computer was damaged as a result of Egan’s negligence.
- Not be able to disaffirm because Egan had failed to pay the balance of the purchase price.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘b’’ is correct. A minor has a reasonable time after reaching the age of majority to disaffirm contracts. One day after reaching majority is within a reasonable time, and so Egan could disaffirm.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. There is no requirement that a minor who wishes to disaffirm must do so in writing.
Choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. A minor may disaffirm a partially executed contract. The minor will only have a right to get back what he has paid.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. A minor may disaffirm even if the subject matter of the contract has been destroyed; the minor’s only duty is to return whatever is left.
Question CPA-01240
Teller brought a lawsuit against Kerr ten years after an oral contract was made and eight years after it was breached. Kerr raised the statute of limitations as a defense. Which of the following allegations \/1/0uld be most important to Kerr’s defense?
- The action was not timely brought because the contract was entered into ten years prior to the commencement of the lawsuit.
- The contract was oral.
- The contract could not be performed within one year from the date made.
- The action was not timely brought because the contract was allegedly breached eight years prior to the commencement of the lawsuit.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. Generally, the statute of limitations runs from the time the contract was breached, not from the time the contract was entered (if the time the contract was entered were used, there \/1/0uld be no remedy for breaches that occurred late in long-term contracts). Consequently, choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. Whether a contract is oral or written is most relevant to whether it is enforceable under the Statute of Frauds.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. Whether a contract could be performed within a year is most relevant to the Statute of Frauds.
Question CPA-01246
To prevail on the defense of fraud in the inducement, a victim must prove that the:
- Defrauder was in a fiduciary relationship with the victim.
- Defrauder was an expert with regard to the misrepresentations.
- Misrepresentations were in writing.
- Defrauder made the misrepresentations with knowledge of their falsity and with an intention to deceive.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. The common law defense of fraud requires a showing of intent to deceive. Fraud in the inducement (as opposed to fraud in the execution) merely means that the victim was deceived as to the reason for the transaction.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. A person need not be an expert concerning the subject matter of the deceit to be liable for misrepresentation. The person need only knowingly lie.
Choices ‘‘c’’ and ‘‘a’’ are incorrect. Fraud in the inducement means that the victim was deceived as to the reasons for entering into the fraudulent transaction; there is no requirement that the misrepresentation have been made in writing, so ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. Similarly, there is no requirement of a fiduciary relationship, so ‘‘a’’ is incorrect.
Question CPA-01250
Which of the following offers of proof are inadmissible under the parol evidence rule when a written contract is intended as the complete agreement of the parties:
- Proof of the existence of a subsequent oral modification of the contract.
- Proof of the existence of a prior oral agreement that contradicts the written contract.
- I only.
- Both I and II.
C. II only.
d. Neither I nor II.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘c’’ is correct. The parol evidence rule prohibits evidence of prior oral or written agreements that seek to contradict the terms of a fully integrated contract (i.e., one intended as the complete agreement). Thus, II is prohibited. However, the parol evidence rule does not prohibit introduction of subsequent agreements; thus, I is not prohibited.
Question CPA-01252
Ames Construction Co. contracted to build a warehouse for White Corp. The construction specifications required Ames to use Ace lighting fixtures. Inadvertently, Ames installed Perfection lighting fixtures, which are of slightly lesser quality than Ace fixtures, but in all other respects meet White’s needs. Which of the following statements is correct?
- White will not be able to recover any damages from Ames because the breach was inadvertent.
- Ames did not breach the construction contract because the Perfection fixtures were substantially as good as the Ace fixtures.
- Ames must install Ace fixtures or White will not be obligated to accept the warehouse.
- White’s recovery will be limited to monetary damages because Ames’ breach of the construction contract was not material.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. Contracts governed by the common law, especially construction contracts, do not allow rescission for minor breaches, but limit the nonbreaching party to recovery of damages.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. Contract law generally does not differentiate between intentional and inadvertent breaches; damages are recoverable for both.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. First, the facts say that Perfection fixtures were of a lesser quality than Ace fixtures, and even if this were not true, there still would be a breach; the contract called for Ace fixtures and so only the use of Ace fixtures would constitute full compliance with the contract.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. Contracts governed by the common law, especially construction contracts follow the doctrine of substantial performance. A party who receives substantially all of the benefit of the bargain is bound to the contract and can seek only damages for any minor breaches.
Question CPA-01254
All of the following are effective methods of ratifying a contract entered into by a minor, except:
- Ratifying the contract before reaching the age of majority.
- Failing to disaffirm the contract within a reasonable time after reaching the age of majority.
- Expressly ratifying the contract after reaching the age of majority.
- Impliedly ratifying the contract after reaching the age of majority.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘a’’ is correct. A minor can disaffirm any contract until a reasonable time after reaching the age of majority. Thus, a ‘‘ratification’’ prior to reaching majority can be rev0ked and is not effective.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. Express ratification after reaching the age of majority is one way to ratify a contract.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. Failing to disaffirm a contract within a reasonable time after reaching the age of majority constitutes a ratification.
Choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. Impliedly ratifying after reaching the age of majority (e.g., by retaining the benefits of the contract or failing to timely disaffirm) effectively ratifies a minor’s contract.
Question CPA-01259
Which of the following statements correctly applies to a typical statute of limitations?
- The statute prohibits the admission into evidence of proof of oral statements about the meaning of a written contract.
- The statute provides that only the party against whom enforcement of a contract is sought must have signed the contract.
- The statute limits the right of a party to recover damages for misrepresentation unless the false statements were intentionally made.
- The statute requires that a legal action for breach of contract be commenced within a certain period of time after the breach occurs.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. A statute of limitations requires that actions to enforce rights under a contract be brought within a certain time after breach has occurred.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. The Statute of Frauds, not statute of limitations, is concerned about who has signed a contract.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. The right to recover if there was an intentional false statement inv0lves the concept of scienter.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. Oral statements offered to prove the meaning of a written contract inv0lves the parol evidence rule.
Question CPA-01263
On February 1, Bums contracted in writing with Nagel to sell Nagel a used car. The contract provided that Bums was to deliver the car on February 15 and Nagel was to pay the $800 purchase price not later than March 15. On February 21, Bums assigned the contract to Ross for $600. Nagel was not notified of the assignment. Which of the following statements is correct?
- By making the assignment, Bums impliedly warranted Nagel would pay the full purchase price.
- By making the assignment, Bums impliedly warranted a lack of knowledge of any fact impairing the value of the assignment.
- The assignment to Ross is invalid because Nagel was not notified.
- Ross will not be subject to any contract defenses Nagel could have raised against Burns.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘b’’ is correct. Essentially, by the assignment, Bums sold the contract right to collect the $800 from Nagel. In such a case, the assignor warrants that he does not know of anything that would impair the value of the assignment; otherwise, people would attempt to assign contracts whenever they knew of a problem.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. There is no implied warranty that the promiser will perform.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. The obliger need not be given notice to effectively assign a contract right. However, until the obliger receives notice, no liability is incurred by paying the assignor.
Choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. An assignee generally is subject to all of the defenses that the promiser would have against the assignor relating to the contract (e.g., that the car was stolen).
Question CPA-01286
Master Mfg., Inc. contracted with Accur Computer Repair Corp. to maintain Master’s computer system. Master’s manufacturing process depends on its computer system operating properly at all times. A liquidated damages clause in the contract provided that Accur pay $1,000 to Master for each day that Accur was late responding to a service request. On January 12, Accurwas notified that Master’s computer system failed. Accur did not respond to Master’s service request until January 15. If Master sues Accur under the liquidated damage provision of the contract, Master will:
- Win, because under all circumstances liquidated damage provisions are enforceable.
- Lose, because liquidated damage provisions violate public policy.
- Lose, because Accur’s breach was not material.
- Win, unless the liquidated damage provision is determined to be a penalty.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. A liquidated damages clause is enforceable if at the time of contracting it appears that the amount of damages in case of breach would be difficult to assess and the amount is a reasonable approximation of damages and not a penalty.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. A liquidated damages clause is not enforceable if it constitutes a penalty, if actual damages would be easy to assess at the time the contract was made, or if the liquidated damages amount is not a reasonable approximation of actual damages.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. The agreement of the parties made time of the essence under the contract, since Master could not operate without its computer system and this fact was made clear to Accur. Thus, the delay is a material breach.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. Liquidated damages provisions do not violate public policy if at the time of contracting it appears that the amount of damages in case of breach would be difficult to assess and the amount is a reasonable approximation of damages and not a penalty.
Question CPA-01289
On September 10, Harris, Inc., a new car dealer, placed a newspaper advertisement stating that Harris \/1/0uld sell 10 cars at its showroom for a special discount only on September 12, 13, and 14. On September 12, King called Harris and expressed an interest in buying one of the advertised cars. King was told that five of the cars had been sold and to come to the showroom as soon as possible. On September 13, Harris made a televised announcement that the sale would end at 10:00 PM that night. King went to Harris’ showroom on September 14 and demanded the right to buy a car at the special discount. Harris had sold the 10 cars and refused King’s demand. King sued Harris for breach of contract. Harris’ best defense to King’s suit would be that Harris’:
- Television announcement rev0ked the offer.
- Offer had not been accepted.
- Offer was unenforceable.
Advertisement was not an offer
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. Advertisements are generally not offers, but invitations to negotiate. An advertisement is an offer only if it is a promise to perform a very specific act conditioned upon acceptance. If Harris’ ad had stated that Harris would sell 10 specifically identified cars for a specified price during the sale, Harris’ advertisement \/1/0uld be an offer. Harris’ actual advertisement is too vague to be an offer.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. The advertisement here is too vague to be considered an offer since it does not specify which cars or what the special discount is.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. The announcement did not rev0ke an offer because the original ad was too vague to be considered an offer since it does not specify which cars or what the special discount is. Moreover, generally rev0cations must be made through the same means as the offer. If the newspaper ad were an offer, a television announcement would not be a sufficient way to rev0ke it.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. The advertisement here is too vague to be considered an offer since it does not specify which cars or what the special discount is. Thus, there was no offer to be accepted or not accepted. Moreover, even if the ad were an offer, because all 10 cars had already been sold by the time King came in to accept, any attempted acceptance was too late; the offer had terminated because all 10 cars were sold.
Question CPA-01291
On April 1, Fine Corp. faxed Moss an offer to purchase Moss’ warehouse for $500,000. The offer stated that it would remain open only until April 4 and that acceptance must be received to be effective. Moss sent an acceptance on April 4 by overnight mail and Fine received it on April 5. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A contract was formed when Fine received Moss’ acceptance.
- A contract was formed when Moss sent the acceptance.
- No contract was formed because Fine received Moss’ acceptance after April 4.
- No contract was formed because Moss sent the acceptance by an unauthorized method.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘c’’ is correct. Generally, under the mailbox rule, acceptance is effective when sent. However, an offerer may opt out of the mailbox rule by stating that the acceptance must be received by a certain date to be effective. Fine’s offer here required receipt by April 4. Moss’ acceptance was received after the April 4th deadline.
Choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. The offer did not require any particular method of acceptance, only receipt within a specified time. Thus, any reasonable means of acceptance was authorized.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. Since the offerer required that the acceptance be received to be effective, the mailbox rule would not be applicable.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. The offer stated that an acceptance had to be received by April 4 and the attempted acceptance here was received on April 5. Thus, it was ineffective because the offer had already terminated on the date attempted acceptance was received.
Question CPA-01293
In which of the following situations does the first promise sen,e as valid consideration for the second promise?
- A police officer’s promise to catch a thief for a victim’s promise to pay a reward.
- A builder’s promise to complete a contract for a purchaser’s promise to extend the time for completion.
- A debtor’s promise to pay $500 for a creditor’s promise to forgive the balance of a $600 disputed debt.
- A debtor’s promise to pay $500 for a creditor’s promise to forgive the balance of a $600 liquidated debt.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘c’’ is correct. Anything having legally recognized value can constitute consideration. If parties legitimately disagree as to the amount owed under their contract, a promise to compromise, such as the parties are doing here, has legal value and constitutes consideration since both parties are giving up the right to litigate the dispute.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. A promise to do something that one is already obligated to do has no legal value and is not valid consideration under the preexisting legal duty rule. A police officer has a preexisting legal duty to catch thieves; therefore, this promise cannot sen,e as consideration.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. A promise to do something one is already obligated to do has no value and is not valid consideration under the preexisting legal duty rule. Here, the builder already owed a duty to complete the contract, and so his second promise to do so is not valid consideration.
Choice ‘‘d’’ is incorrect. If parties legitimately disagree as to the amount owed under their contract, a promise to compromise has legal value and constitutes consideration since both parties are giving up the right to litigate the dispute. However, here the amount owed is liquidated, which means that it is not in dispute. A promise to compromise here has no legal value and cannot sen,e as consideration since there is no legitimate right to litigate a liquidated claim.
Question CPA-01295
West, an Indiana real estate broker, misrepresented to Zimmer that West was licensed in Kansas under the Kansas statute that regulates real estate brokers and requires all brokers to be licensed. Zimmer signed a contract agreeing to pay West a 5°/o commission for selling Zimmer’s home in Kansas. West did not sign the contract. West sold Zimmer’s home. If West sued Zimmer for nonpayment of commission, Zimmer would be:
- Liable to West for the full commission.
- Liable to West only for the value of services rendered.
- Not liable to West for any amount because West did not sign the contract.
- Not liable to West for any amount because West violated the Kansas licensing requirements.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. The buyer Zimmer is not liable to West, the unlicensed real estate broker, because West violated Kansas licensing requirements. Failure to have a license required to protect the public (as opposed to merely raise revenue) renders the contract v0id. Real estate broker licenses are required to protect the public.
Choices ‘‘b’’ and ‘‘a’’ are incorrect, because this licensing law was not designed to raise revenue and, therefore, the contract is v0id and a party cannot be held liable on a v0id contract.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. Under the Statute of Frauds, certain contracts must be signed by the party sought to be bound to be enforceable. The contract here-to provide brokerage services-probably is not within the Statute since it is for services and can be performed within a year. But even if the contract were within the Statute, it still would be enforceable against Zimmer since Zimmer signed it; it is irrelevant that West did not sign.
Question CPA-01296
Carson agreed orally to repair Ives’ rare book for $450. Before the work was started, Ives asked Carson to perform additional repairs to the book and agreed to increase the contract price to $650. After Carson completed the VI/Ork, Ives refused to pay and Carson sued. Ives’ defense was based on the Statute of Frauds. What total amount will Carson recover?
a.
$450
b.
$0
C.
$650
d.
$200
Explanation
Choice ‘‘c’’ is correct. The contract here is for services (repair of a book) and so is governed by the common law. The common law requires modifications to be supported by consideration on both sides. There is consideration on both sides here since Carson agreed to perform additional repairs and Ives agreed to pay more. The Statute of Frauds is not a problem here since the contract is for services and can be performed within a year (the examiners were trying to trick you by taking the contract over the $500 threshold, but that threshold applies only to contracts for the sale of goods). Thus, the oral contract is enforceable as modified.
Choices ‘‘b’’, ‘‘d’’, and ‘‘a’’ are incorrect, per the above answer.
Question CPA-01325
In an action for breach of contract, the statute of limitations time period \/1/0uld be computed from the date of the:
- Commencement of the action.
- Breach of the contract.
- Signing of the contract.
- Negotiation of the contract.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘b’’ is correct. In an action for breach of contract, the statute of limitations time is computed from the date of the breach. Otherwise, in a long-term contract, the statute could run before the breach occurs. Therefore, ‘‘c’’, ‘‘d’’, and ‘‘a’’ are incorrect.
Question CPA-01327
Which of the following, if intentionally misstated by a seller to a buyer, would be considered a fraudulent inducement to make a contract?
- Nonexpert opinion.
- Prediction.
- Immaterial fact.
- Appraised value.
Explanation
Choice ‘‘d’’ is correct. Fraud requires misrepresentation of a material fact. Ordinarily, opinions or statements of value do not constitute misrepresentations of material facts unless made by experts. Appraised value would constitute a misrepresentation of a material fact because it was made by an expert.
Choice ‘‘a’’ is incorrect. Fraud requires misrepresentation of a material fact. Opinions are not facts.
Choice ‘‘b’’ is incorrect. Predictions are not material facts but rather are mere guesses as to what the future may hold. Therefore, they cannot be the basis for fraud.
Choice ‘‘c’’ is incorrect. Immaterial facts cannot be the basis for a fraud defense since they are not very relevant to the contract decision-making process.