6. gastrointestinal system Flashcards

1
Q

two parts of digestive system

A
  1. digestive tract
  2. accessory organs
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2
Q

what are the accessory organs of the digestive system?

A
  1. liver
  2. pancreas
  3. gallbladder
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3
Q

primary regions of digestive tract

A
  1. oral cavity (mouth)
  2. pharynx
  3. oesophagus
  4. stomach
  5. small intestine
  6. large intestine
  7. rectum/anus
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4
Q

mucosa of GI tract

A

a mucous membrane that lines GI tract and secretes mucus that lubricates and protects the tract.
(epithelium varies by location)

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5
Q

submucosa of GI tract

A

layer of connective tissue that contains blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves

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6
Q

muscularis of GI tract

A

made up of two layers of smooth muscle- one circular and one longitudinal

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7
Q

serosa of GI tract

A

a connective tissue covering that secretes fluid to lubricate the outside of the GI tract

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8
Q

4 layers of GI tract

A
  1. mucosa
  2. submucosa
  3. muscularis
  4. serosa
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9
Q

what are the boundaries of the oral cavity?

A

lips anteriorly
cheeks laterally
palate superiorly
tongue inferiorly

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10
Q

what is the composition of the different parts of the palate?

A

anterior 2/3rds = bone
posterior 1/3rd = skeletal muscle + connective tissue

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11
Q

what are the pharyngeal arches?

A

palatoglossal (PG)
palatopharyngeal (PP)

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12
Q

PG

A

Palatoglossal Muscle (PG):
This muscle helps elevate the tongue and is involved in closing the oropharyngeal isthmus. It originates from the first pharyngeal arch.

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13
Q

PP

A

Palatopharyngeal Muscle (PP):
This muscle helps elevate the pharynx and larynx during swallowing. It is derived from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches.

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14
Q

palatine tonsils

A

lymphoid tissues located on either side of the oropharynx

(develop from second pharyngeal pouch and contribute to immune function of the oral cavity)

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15
Q

fauces

A

the passage between the oral cavity and the pharynx
(space at back of mouth)

*formed by palatoglossal arch (anteriorly) and palatopharyngeal arch (posteriorly); both formed from 1st and 4th pharyngeal arches

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16
Q

uvula

A

small conical structure hanging down from soft palate at back of throat

(develops from the muscles of the soft palate, primarily the levator veli palatini derived from fist pharyngeal arch)

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17
Q

tonsil

A

include palatine tonsils but also other lymphatic structures (lingual tonsils and pharyngeal tonsils- adenoids)

(pharyngeal tonsils develop from 3rd pharyngeal pouch and are involved in immune defence in upper respiratory tract)

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18
Q

what attaches the tongue to the floor?

A

lingual frenulum

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19
Q

what proportion of tongue is moveable vs connected?

A

anterior (oral) 2/3rd
= freely moveable

posterior (pharyngeal) 1/3rd
= connected

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20
Q

what is the connected portion of the tongue connected to?

A
  1. hyoid bone (via muscles)
  2. epiglottis
  3. oropharynx
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21
Q

where is the pharynx connected to respiratory system and where to digestive system?

A

respiratory system at larynx
digestive system at oesophagus

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22
Q

what travels through pharynx?

A

air + food (common passageway)

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23
Q

3 regions of pharynx

A
  1. nasopharynx (behind nasal cavity)
  2. oropharynx (behind oral cavity)
  3. laryngopharynx (behind larynx)
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24
Q

lining of pharynx

A
  • ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium (nasopharynx)
  • moist stratified squamous epithelium (oropharynx and laryngopharynx)
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25
what type of epithelium lines the nasopharynx portion of the pharynx?
ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
26
what type of epithelium lines the oropharynx and laryngopharynx portion of the pharynx?
moist stratified squamous epithelium
27
what is superior and inferior to the oesophagus?
superiorly= laryngopharynx inferiorly= stomach
28
how long/wide is the oesophagus
(muscular tube) 25cm long 2cm wide
29
through what opening in the diaphragm does the oesophagus pass from the thoracic cavity into the abdominal cavity?
oesophageal hiatus
30
what is the oeasophageal hiatus ?
the opening through in the diaphragm through which the oesophagus passes from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity?
31
what is the lining of the oesophagus?
(mucosa) moist stratified squamous epithelium
32
what are the 2 layer of muscles of the oesophagus?
outer longitudinal inner circular
33
which muscle layer of the oesophagus is circular?
inner
34
oesophagus sphincters
structures that regulate the flow of food and liquids into and out of the oesophagus and prevent reflux. 1. upper oesophageal 2. lower oesophageal (cardiac)
35
lower oesophageal (cardiac) sphincter
Prevents gastric contents from refluxing into the oesophagus, protecting against heartburn and acid damage.
36
upper oesophageal sphincter
Prevents air entry into the 0esophagus during breathing, and controls the passage of food from the pharynx into the oesophagus during swallowing.
37
3 main regions of stomach
1. fundus 2. body 3. pyloric region *cardia=smallest region, located near the esophagus where food enters the stomach
38
2 sphincters of stomach
1. cardiac sphincter 2. pyloric sphincter
39
pyloric sphincter
The pyloric sphincter is a muscular valve that controls the passage of partially digested food (chyme) from the stomach into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine)
40
lining of stomach
(mucosa) - simple columnar epithelium - form tube-like gastric pits - gastric pits form entrance into tubular gastric glands - 5 types of epithelial cells in the pit and gland
41
what are the 3 muscle layers of the stomach?
1. outer longitudinal 2. middle circular 3. inner oblique
42
peritoneum
continuous sheet of serous membrane
43
layers of peritoneum
1. parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities 2. visceral peritoneum covers most abdominal organs (peritoneal cavity= potential space between two peritoneum)
44
peritoneal cavity
potential space between two peritoneum
45
retroperitoneal vs intraperitoneal
behind peritoneum inside the peritoneum
46
parietal peritoneum
lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities
47
visceral peritoneum
covers most abdominal organs
48
function of peritoneal folds
connect organs to each other or the abdominal wall
49
what are peritoneal folds also known as?
mesenteries
50
what percentage of nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine?
90%
51
length of small intestine
>6m; from pyloric sphincter of stomach to ileocecal junction
52
3 continuous subdivisions of small intestine and their lengths
1. duodenum (~30cm) 2. jejunum (~2.5m) 3. ileum (~3.5m)
53
smallest subdivision of intestine
duodenum (~30cm)
54
duodenum
- extends from pyloric sphincter to jejunum - c-shaped structure adjacent to head of pancreas - short superior part (only section of duodenum peritonised, i.e. within peritoneal lining) - descending part; major and minor duodenal papillae
55
which part of duodenum is peritonised?
short superior part [peritonised= within peritoneal lining]
56
jejunum
- extends from duodenojejunal flexure to the ileum - completely peritonised
57
ileum
- extends from the jejunum to the large intestine to the ileocecal junction - completely peritonised
58
what do the mucosa and submucosa of small intestine form?
plicae circularis (circular folds)
59
what are the projections of plicae circularis in the small intestine?
villi
60
rugae vs plicae circulares
Rugae and plicae circulares are both folds or plicae found in different parts of the digestive system, and they serve to increase the surface area for digestion and absorption. RUGAE: temporary folds in the stomach that allow for expansion and mixing of food PLICAE CIRCULARES: permanent circular folds in the small intestine that enhance nutrient absorption by increasing surface area
61
rugae
- found in stomach - temporary, longitudinal folds in the mucosal layer of stomach - visible when stomach is empty and allow it to expand - composed of gastric mucosa (epithelial cells), involved in secreting gastric juices that aid in digestion
62
plicae circulares
- found in small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, part of ileum) - permanent circular folds of the mucosal and submucosal layers of small intestine - function to increase surface area for absorption - composed of the mucosa and submucosa and contain numerous villi which further increase surface area
63
what are the glands in submucosa of duodenal which secrete more mucus?
brunner glands
64
lymphoid follicles of submucosa of ileum?
peyer patches
65
what epithelium cover villi?
simple columnar epithelium
66
what are the 4 types of epithelium which cover villi?
1. absorptive (digestive enzymes) 2. goblet (mucus) 3. granular/Paneth (lysozyme) 4. endocrine (hormones)
67
where are the epithelium which cover villi of small intestine produced?
intestinal glands
68
which types of epithelium cover the surface of villi?
1. absorptive 2. goblet
69
which types of epithelium remain at bottom of villi?
1. granular 2. endocrine
70
lacteal
blood capillary network and lymphatic capillary of villi
71
functions of large intestine
1. reabsorbs water 2. compacts intestinal contents into faeces 3. absorbs vitamins 4. houses >700 species of bacteria 5. storage of faecal material
72
how many species of bacteria in large intestine?
>700
73
structure of large intestine
- extends from ileocecal junction to anus - opening between ileum and large intestine guarded by fold of mucous membrane (ileocecal sphincter/valve)
74
what guards the opening between ileum and large intestine?
ileocecal sphincter/valve (a fold of mucous membrane)
75
cecum
- first part of large intestine, situated at junction between ileum (small intestine) and ascending colon - serves as reservoir for material received from ileum and is where initial water and salts absorption begins; also has appendix attached to it
76
ileocecal valve
- between ileum and cecum (right side of abdomen) - control flow of chyme (partially digested food) from ileum into cecum; prevents backflow of material from cecum into ileum
77
appendix
- attached to cecum (lower right part of abdomen) - unclear function (play a role in immune system/store beneficial gut bacteria??)
78
ascending colon
- runs upward on the right side of the abdomen from cecum to right hepatic flexure - absorbs water, salts, some nutrients; stores remaining waste before it moves to transverse colon
79
right hepatic flexure
- sharp bend in colon where ascending colon turns to become the transverse colon - facilitates transition of contents from ascending colon to transverse colon
80
transverse colon
- runs horizontally across abdomen from right hepatic flexure to left splenic flexure - continues process of absorbing water and salts and stores remaining waste material; houses beneficial bacteria which help with fermentation of undigested food
81
left splenic flexure
- bend where the transverse colon turns down into descending colon - marks transition from the more absorptive, wider portion of the colon to the part responsible for further processing waste
82
descending colon
- runs downward on left side of the abdomen from left splenic flexure to sigmoid colon - continues absorbing water and electrolytes, stores solid waste material until it is ready to move to rectum
83
sigmoid colon
- s-shaped section of colon, located between descending colon and rectum - stores faecal material until its ready to be eliminated
84
rectum
- final section of large intestine, leading from sigmoid colon to anal canal - stores faecal matter until it is ready to be excreted through anal canal; plays role in regulating passage of stool by sensing pressure and stretch
85
anal canal
- short terminal part of digestive tract - contains internal and external anal sphincters which control release of faeces
86
internal vs external sphincter of anal canal
internal sphincter is involuntary external sphincter is voluntary *allowing for conscious control of defecation
87
summarise the order of the large intestine
ileocecal valve cecum (appendix) ascending colon right hepatic flexure transverse colon left splenic flexure descending colon sigmoid colon rectum anal canal
88
mucosa of large intestine
- simple columnar epithelium - no villi/plicae - mucosal lining formed into straight tubular glands (crypts)
89
3 cell types in crypts of large intestine
1. absorptive 2. granular 3. goblet (predominate)
90
what epithelium type lines large intestine?
simple columnar epithelium
91
what is mucosal lining of large intestine formed into?
crypts (straight tubular glands)
92
musculature of large intestine
- outer longitudinal and inner circular layer - longitudinal forms 3 bands- taeniae coli - taeniae coli contractions gather colon into poches; haustra - haustra permit expansion and elongation of intestine
93
outer and inner layer of muscle of large intestine
outer longitudinal inner circular
94
what does the longitudinal muscular layer of large intestine form?
3 bands (taeniae coli)
95
what do taeniae coli contractions gather into?
haustra (pouches)
96
what do haustra of large intestine permit?
expansion and elongation of intestine
97
what does serosa of large intestine contain?
epiploic (omental) appendages *fat-filled pouches
98
serosa of intestine
Most part of the intestine is lined on its outer surface by a sheath of protective layer, the serosa, which consists of a continuous sheet of squamous epithelial cells, the mesothelium, separated from the underlying longitudinal muscle layer by a thin layer of loose connective tissue. The serosa (or serous membrane) is a smooth tissue that forms the outer membrane of the intestines. Adjacent to the serosa, the muscularis externa or muscular layer propels foodstuffs and wastes unidirectionally by peristalsis. The next layer, the submucosa, supports blood and lymph vessels as well as lymphoid tissue.
99
how long is the rectum?
12 cm
100
rectal valves
transverse rectal folds
101
rectal mucosa
simple columnar epithelium with tubular glands housing large numbers of mucus-secreting goblet cells
102
rectum's muscular tunic
thick muscular tunic of rectum- thick layer composed of both inner circular and outer longitudinal smooth muscle, which is crucial for peristalsis and fecal storage/expulsion.
103
length of anal canal
2-3cm
104
mucosa of anal canal
- superior part: simple columnar epithelium arranges in longitudinal folds (anal columns- arteries and veins) - anal sinuses between columns exude mucus - inferior part stratified squamous epithelium
105
epithelium of superior vs inferior anal canal
superior = simple columnar epithelium inferior = stratified squamous epithelium
106
function of anal sinuses between columns of superior part of anal canal
exude mucus
107
what does the circular layer of muscularis of rectum thicken to form?
internal (involuntary) anal sphincter
108
what muscle type forms the voluntary eternal anal sphincter?
skeletal muscle
109
what gives rise to the sphincters/valves of GI tract?
thickening of the inner circular muscle layer (muscularis)
110
4 major sphincters of GI tract
1. upper oesophageal sphincter 2. pyloric sphincter 3. ileocecal valve 4. internal anal sphincter
111
what are the functions of GI secretions?
1. chemical digestion 2. lubrication 3. signalling 4. protection 5. activation of enzymes 6. excretion of waste
112
exocrine vs endocrine glands
exocrine = produce and secrete substances onto an epithelial surface by way of a duct endocrine = secrete their products, hormones, directly into the blood rather than through a duct
113
gastric secretions
acid, pepsin, gastric lipase
114
liver/gallbladder secretions
secretion, storage and modification of bile
115
salivary glands secretions
secretion of lubricating fluid containing enzymes that break down carbohydrate
116
pancreas secretions
exocrine cells secrete buffers and digestive enzymes, endocrine cells secrete hormones
117
small intestine secretions
secretion of digestive enzyme
118
what type of glands are major salivary glands?
exocrine glands (secrete saliva via a duct)
119
how many pairs of major salivary glands are there?
3
120
how many minor salivary glands?
600-1000
121
what type of gland are minor salivary glands?
each (600-1000) is an individual exocrine gland with its own duct
122
where are minor salivary glands?
in mucosal lining of oral cavity, particularly the lips, cheeks, palate
123
composition of saliva
99.4% water remaining 0.6% contains - mucins - electrolytes (Na+, Cl-, HCO3-) - antibodies - enzymes (amylase and lingual lipase)
124
function of saliva
1. buffer (ions keep pH at ~7) 2. keeps mucosa moist (protects against mechanical damage and essential for speech) 3. solvent (dissolves chemicals in food to aid detection by taste receptors)
125
what percentage of saliva is water?
99.4%
126
serous vs mucous
saliva can be more watery (serous) or more viscous (mucous)
127
serous cells
secrete a watery, enzyme-rich fluid that helps in the digestion of food, particularly amylase, which begins the breakdown of starches in the mouth
128
mixed acinus
some salivary glands, particularly in the submandibular gland, have mixed acini that contain both serous and mucous cells. [the serous cells secrete the watery, enzyme-rich portion, while the mucous cells secrete a thicker, more viscous fluid]
129
serous demilune
in certain mixed acini, the serous cells are arranged in crescent-shaped cluster called serous demilunes.
130
mucous cells
Produce a thicker, more viscous secretion. This secretion contains mucin, a glycoprotein that provides lubrication and protects the oral mucosa.
131
ductal cells
modify the secreted fluid as it passes through the ducts, adjusting the concentration of electrolytes. the epithelial cells lining the pancreatic ducts, which deliver enzymes from acinar cells to the duodenum, and also secrete bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acidity as saliva moves through the intercalated ducts, striated ducts, and excretory ducts, sodium and chloride are reabsorbed; potassium and bicarbonate are secreted
132
secretion of sublingual glands
predominantly mucous secretion (viscous, tich in mucin) *one of the three major salivary glands, located under the tongue in the floor of the mouth.
133
secretion of parotid glands
predominantly serous secretion (watery and enzyme-rich)
134
xerostomia is a sensation of dryness in the mouth often associated with problems in saliva production. What might the symptoms be?
difficulty swallowing, chewing or speaking.
135
function and composition of gastric juice
aids stomach functions - water - hydrochloric acid (HCl) - pepsinogen - intrinsic factor - mucus
136
stomach produces endocrine and exocrine secretions: true/false
true
137
gastric mucosa
innermost layer of stomach involved in production of digestive enzymes, mucus and acids
138
surface epithelium of gastric mucosa
outermost layer of gastric mucosa. consists of simple columnar epithelial cells that secrete mucus to protect stomach lining from harsh acidic environment.
139
lamina propria of gastric mucosa
located beneath surface epithelium. layer of loose connective tissue that contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and immune cells. (provides to epithelium and helps in nutrient absorption)
140
muscularis mucosae of gastric mucosa
thin layer of smooth muscle beneath lamina propria. helps in movement of mucosal layer and enhances the secretion of digestive fluids.
141
submucosa of gastric mucosa
beneath muscularis mucosae. layer of connective tissue containing blood vessels, nerves (part of enteric system), and lymphatics. provides structural support to stomach and also aids in nutrient and electrolyte absorption.
142
enteric system
a large division of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) that can control gastrointestinal behaviour independently of central nervous system (CNS) input.
143
muscularis externa of gastric mucosa
the muscle layer of the stomach responsible for mechanical digestion and peristalsis
144
peristalsis
wave-like muscle contractions that help move food through the digestive tract
145
layer of the muscularis externa of stomach
1. oblique; innermost layer, runs at an oblique angle 2. circular; middle layer, contract and constricts 3. longitudinal; outermost layer; helps in propelling food along
146
serosa of stomach
outermost layer of stomach wall. consists of a thin layer of connective tissue covered by a layer of mesothelial cells that secrete serous fluid to reduce friction between stomach and surrounding structures.
147
parietal cells of stomach
found in gastric glands of stomach, secrete HCl (crucial for digestion), also secrete intrinsic factor which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption in small intestine
148
gastric pit
small indentations in stomach lining that lead to gastric glands; contain cells that secrete various substances important for digestion, (e.g. mucus and enzymes)
149
gastric gland
structures at base of gastric pits within the stomach mucosa.
150
cells of gastric gland
1. chief cells 2. parietal cells 3. enteroendocrine cells
151
chief cells of gastric glands
secrete pepsinogen, inactive enzyme which is converted into pepsin in the acidic environment of stomach and helps breakdown proteins
152
enteroendocrine cells of gastric glands
hormone-producing cells located in gastric glands. secrete gastrin and other hormones that regulate gastric acid secretion and overall digestive function. e.g. G cells secrete gastrin, which stimulates acid production by parietal cells
153
what 2 things do parietal cells secrete?
1. HCl 2. intrinsic factor
154
why is intrinsic factor secretion by parietal cells in stomach important?
needed for absorption of vitamin b12
155
why is secretion of HCl by parietal cells into stomach important?
pH~1-3 kills microbes denatures proteins activates enzymes
156
what 2 things do chief cells in gastric gland secrete?
1. pepsinogen 2. gastric lipase
157
function of pepsinogen and gastric lipase secreted by chief cells in gastric gland?
pepsinogen; converted to pepsin (active form), breaks certain peptide bonds gastric lipase; splits short-chain triglycerides into fatty acids and monoglycerides
158
at what pH do you think pepsinogen is activated to pepsin?
Pepsinogen is activated to pepsin in the acidic environment of the stomach. The activation occurs when the pH drops below around 3.0. More specifically, pepsinogen is converted into its active form, pepsin, when it encounters hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by parietal cells. Pepsinogen undergoes a conformational change in response to the low pH, leading to the exposure of its active site and the conversion to pepsin. Pepsin, once activated, works most effectively in a highly acidic environment, with its optimal pH for enzymatic activity being around 1.8 to 3.5. This low pH is crucial for protein digestion and helps to denature proteins, making them easier for pepsin to break down.
159
mucous cells of gastric gland
secrete mucus (forms protective barrier + has alkaline properties) superficial epithelia mucous neck cells The various mucus-secreting cells in the stomach, including superficial epithelial cells, mucous neck cells, and mucous cells in the gastric glands, work together to create a protective alkaline barrier that shields the stomach lining from the harsh acidic environment and mechanical damage.
160
examples of mucous cells of gastric glands
superficial epithelia mucous neck cells
161
what percentage of pancreatic cells secretions are endocrine vs exocrine?
endocrine = 2% of cells exocrine = 98% of cells
162
endocrine function of pancreas
(2% of pancreatic cells) responsible for producing and secreting hormones that regulate blood sugar levels and other metabolic processes; occurs in specialised cluster of cells known as islets of langerhans. Islets contain different cells types that secrete specific hormones: 1. alpha= secrete glucagon (increases blood glucose by promoting glucose release from liver) 2. beta= secrete insulin (lowers blood glucose levels by facilitating glucose uptake into cells for energy and storage as glycogen) 3. delta= secrete somatostatin (regulates insulin and glucagon) 4. PP= secrete pancreatic polypeptide (involved in regulating pancreatic enzyme secretion and overall digestive system function)
163
exocrine function of pancreas
(98% of pancreatic cells) plays major role in digestion by producing digestive enzymes and an alkaline fluid that helps neutralise stomach acid 1. acinar cells = responsible for producing and secreting digestive enzymes; essential for break down of food in small intestine digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase, proteases, nucleases) 2. duct cells = secrete an aqueous NaHCO3 (sodium bicarbonate) solution to neutralise acidic chyme coming from stomach into duodenum (first part of small intestine). Creates optimal pH environment for digestive enzymes to function effectively.
164
pancreatic duct
digestive enzymes produced by acinar cells travel through pancreatic duct into duodenum to assist in digestion.
165
bile duct from liver
liver produces bile, important for emulsification and digestion of fats. bile travels through bile duct and mixes with digestive enzymes in the duodenum.
166
amylase, lipase, proteases, nucleases digestive enzymes
amylase; breaks down carbs (starches) lipase; breaks down fats proteases; break down proteins nucleases; break down nucleic acids (DNA, RNA)
167
what volume of pancreatic juice is produced per day?
1.2-1.5L
168
what comprises pancreatic juice?
water bicarbonate
169
function of NaHCO2 in pancreatic juice
bicarbonate is alkaline (pH 7.1-8.2) neutralises acid from stomach chyme
170
what does ribonucleoase enzyme digest?
RNA
171
what does deoxyribonuclease enzyme digest?
DNA
172
which pancreatic enzymes are secreted in active form?
1. amylase 2. lipases 3. nucleases *require ions/bile for optimal activity
173
what do amylase, lipases, nucleases pancreatic enzymes require for optimal activity?
ions/bile
174
which pancreatic enzyme is secreted in inactive form?
proteases. secreted in inactive form and activated in duodenum
175
how is trypsinogen activated?
(proteases- pancreatic enzymes) activated to trypsin by brush border enzyme enteropeptidase
176
what activates procarboxypeptidase and chymotrypsinogen ?
trypsin
177
what enzyme activates trypsinogen to trypsin?
enteropeptidase
178
function of alpha cells in pancreas
secrete glucagon in response to a fall in blood glucose (stimulates glycogenolysis and glucogenesis)
179
glycogenolysis
the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose
180
gluconeogenesis
the synthesis of glycogen without using glucose or other carbohydrates, instead using substances like proteins and fats.
181
what does glucagon stimulate?
glycogenolysis and glycogenesis [the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose the synthesis of glycogen without using glucose or other carbohydrates, instead using substances like proteins and fats.]
182
what do pancreatic delta cells secrete?
somatostatin [stimulated by cholinergic innervation. inhibits gastrin release]
183
effect of somatostatin release by delta cell of pancreas in islets of langerhans
inhibits release of gastrin from G cells in stomach. gastrin is a hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by parietal cells. therefore somatostatin reduced gastric acid secretion.
184
stimuli for somatostatin secretion
released by pancreatic delta in the islets of langerhans release is stimulated by cholinergic innervation (parasympathetic nervous system); activated during digestion *increased gastric acid in stomach/food can trigger somatostatin release; providing negative feedback control of digestive process
185
somatostatin effect on insulin + glucagon release
also has effect on pancreas: inhibits release of insulin (from beta cells) and glucagon (from alpha cells) in islets of langerhans. helps maintain blood glucose levels.
186
what do beta cells secrete?
insulin in response to a rise in blood glucose [inhibited by adrenaline in acute stress- allows cells to utilise glucose]
187
what inhibits insulin release by beta cells in acute stress?
adrenaline (allows cells to utilise glucose)
188
what produces bile?
hepatocytes (predominant cell type in liver)
189
hepatocytes-> bile ducts pathway
1. hepatocytes 2. bile canaliculi 3. bile ductules 4. bile ducts
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what is bile essential for?
the digestion and absorption of fats
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function of bile ducts
The main function of bile ducts is to transport bile from the liver to the duodenum for digestion. The bile duct system also leads to the gallbladder, where bile is stored and concentrated until it is needed for fat digestion.
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flow of bile
1. Hepatocytes secrete bile. 2. Bile is collected in the bile canaliculi. 3. From the canaliculi, bile flows into the bile ductules. 4. The bile ductules lead to larger bile ducts, which transport the bile to either the gallbladder (for storage) or the duodenum (for digestion)
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hepatocytes secrete bile. which of the 4 basic tissue types do you think these belong to?
epithelial tissue Epithelial Tissue is characterized by cells that form the linings of organs and body cavities, as well as glands. Hepatocytes are a specialized form of epithelial cells that perform secretory functions (bile production), which is a key characteristic of glandular epithelium.
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antagonist vs agonist
An agonist is a molecule capable of binding to and functionally activating a target. The target is typically a metabotropic and/or ionotropic receptor. An antagonist is a molecule that binds to a target and prevents other molecules (e.g., agonists) from binding. Antagonists have no effect on receptor activity.
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bile canaliculi
Bile canaliculi are tiny, 1- to 2-μm wide tissue spaces formed by the apical membranes of adjacent hepatocytes. They form a delicate intralobular network of channels that drain bile produced by hepatocytes.
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pH of bile
pH 7.6- 8.6
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how much bile is produced per day?
800-1000mL
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excretory product
waste matter (as urine or sweat but especially feces) discharged from the body.
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what type of product is bile?
an excretory product
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composition of bile
bile salts bilirubin cholesterol neural fats phospholipids electrolytes
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function of bile
lipid assimilation elimination neutralise gastric acid provides optimum pH for pancreatic enzymes
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gallbladder
- thin-walled, pear shaped muscular sac on ventral surface of the liver - stores and concentrates bile by absorbing its water and ions - releases bule via cystic duct, which flows into the bile duct
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how does the gallbladder concentrate bile?
by absorbing its water and ions
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where does the gallbladder release bile through?
via cystic duct- flows into bile duct
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ventral surface
The ventral surface of an organism is the lower surface
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where compared to the liver is the gallbladder located?
ventral surface
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cephalic phase
- smell, sight, though, taste of food activated CNS - facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves activated - salivary and gastric glands activated - prepared mouth and stomach for food
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which nerves activated in cephalic phase?
1. facial 2. glossopharyngeal 3. vagus
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glossopharyngeal nerve
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the 9th cranial nerve (CN IX). It is 1 of the 4 cranial nerves with sensory, motor, and parasympathetic functions. It originates from the medulla oblongata and terminates in the pharynx.
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gastric phase
- food distends the stomach and stimulates stretch receptors - chemoreceptors in stomach detect increase in pH - leads to peristalsis and gastric juice secretion - chyme empties into duodenum - decrease in pH and decrease in distension - negative feedback loop
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intestinal phase
- begins when food enters small intestine - inhibits exit of chyme from stomach -> inhibition of gastric motility -> contraction of pyloric sphincter - promotes digestion of food in small intestine - neural enterogastric reflex - hormonal element -> CCK and secretin
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neural enterogastric reflex
The enterogastric reflex is a feedback mechanism that helps regulate the rate of gastric emptying and gastric acid secretion when food enters the small intestine. It slows down gastric processes to allow the small intestine time to process the chyme, ensuring efficient digestion and absorption while preventing irritation or damage to the small intestine from excess acid or food. This reflex is essential for maintaining proper digestive function and intestinal health.
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secretin and CCK in intestinal phase
Secretin primarily helps to neutralize stomach acid, protect the duodenal lining, and create an optimal environment for digestive enzyme activity. CCK coordinates the digestive process by promoting bile and enzyme secretion, while slowing gastric motility to ensure that the small intestine has adequate time for digestion and nutrient absorption.
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Cholecytoskinin (CCK) and secretin are hormones released during the intestinal phase of digestion. What effect do you think this has on gastric secretions?
The combined effects of CCK and secretin in the intestinal phase of digestion inhibit gastric secretions by: Reducing gastric acid production (secretin directly inhibits acid secretion, and CCK slows gastric emptying, leading to less acid production). Slowing gastric motility, allowing for better digestion and absorption in the small intestine.
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how are small molecules absorbed?
small molecules move through an epithelial barrier into underlying blood/lymphatic vessels
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lumen
The lumen (plural: lumina) refers to the space within the body's various tubes, tracts, and cavities. Air, blood, fluids, food, and other substances are transported through the lumen to different parts of the body. Lumina are characterized by their patency, meaning they are open and unobstructed in healthy individuals.
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what percentage of absorption occurs in small intestine?
90%
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where is undigested/unabsorbed material from small intestine passed on to?
large intestine
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mechanical digestion
- chewing (mouth) - churning (stomach) - segmentation (small intestine)
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propulsion digestion
- swallowing (orophraynx) -peristalsis (esophagus, stomach, small + large intestine)
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two types of passive transport
1. simple diffusion 2. facilitated diffusion
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active vs passive transport
Active transport requires energy for the movement of molecules whereas passive transport does not require energy for the movement of molecules. In active transport, the molecules move against the concentration gradient whereas in passive transport, the molecules move along the concentration gradient.
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which type of movement would each of the following have across the membrane?: oxygen, sodium, glucose, fatty acid
oxygen= simple diffusion sodium= facilitated diffusion glucose= facilitated diffusion fatty acid= simple diffusion
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simple vs facilitated diffusion
Simple diffusion is the direct transport of molecules across the cell membrane that is allowed by the cell membrane. Facilitated diffusion, on the other hand, occurs through the action of transmembrane proteins such as carrier proteins, channel proteins, and aquaporins.
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primary active transport
Primary active transport, also called direct active transport, directly uses chemical energy (such as from adenosine triphosphate or ATP in case of cell membrane) to transport all species of solutes across a membrane against their concentration gradient.
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secondary active transport
Secondary active transport is defined as the transport of a solute in the direction of its increasing electrochemical potential coupled to the facilitated diffusion of a second solute (usually an ion) in the direction of its decreasing electrochemical potential.
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primary vs secondary active transport
primary active transport that uses adenosine triphosphate (ATP), and secondary active transport that uses an electrochemical gradient.
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what is key to intestinal absorption?
the Na+/K+ ATPase on basolateral membrane
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NA+/K+ ATPase on basolateral membrane for intestinal absorption
The Na+/K+ ATPase is essential for the electrochemical gradients necessary for nutrient and electrolyte transport, which are critical for efficient intestinal absorption. By actively transporting sodium out of the enterocyte, it creates the conditions for secondary active transport of nutrients, water, and other essential molecules across the apical membrane of enterocytes. The Na+/K+ ATPase uses ATP to pump 3 sodium ions out of the enterocyte (into the extracellular fluid) and 2 potassium ions in (into the enterocyte).
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what can the small intestine absorb?
1. carbohydrates 2. lipids 3. proteins 4. nucleic acids 5. vitamins 6. minerals 7. water 8. drugs
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polysaccharides (carbs)
- long chains of monosaccharides - digestible (e.g. starch) - non-digestible (e.g. fibre, cellulose) - found in rice, pasta, potatoes, cereal etc
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give examples of digestible vs non-digestible polysaccharides
digestible= starch non-digestible= fibre, cellulose
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sugars (carbs)
- shorter chains (mono/disaccharides) - found in fruit, vegetables, dairy etc - sucrose/lactose
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lactose and sucrose
The monosaccharides include glucose, fructose, and galactose. The major disaccharides include sucrose (one glucose molecule and one fructose molecule), lactose (one glucose molecule and one galactose molecule), and maltose (two glucose molecules).
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what are the 3 key areas in GI tract for carbohydrate absorption?
1. mouth: salivary amylase breaks down starch to maltose 2. pancreas: pancreatic amylase breaks down starch to maltose 3. small intestine microvilli: specific oligosaccharides produce monosaccharides
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what do salivary and pancreatic amylase break starch down into?
maltose
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small intestine microvilli role in carbohydrate absorption
specific oligosaccharides produce monosaccharides the microvilli on the surface of enterocytes play a critical role in carbohydrate digestion and absorption by housing enzymes that break down oligosaccharides into monosaccharides, which are then absorbed through specific transporters.
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enterocytes
Enterocytes, or intestinal absorptive cells, are simple columnar epithelial cells which line the inner surface of the small and large intestines
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which form are carbohydrates absorbed in?
After breaking down throughout the digestive system, monosaccharides are absorbed into the bloodstream. [glucose/fructose/galactose] As carbohydrates are consumed, the blood sugar levels increase, stimulating the pancreas to secrete insulin. Insulin signals the body's cells to absorb glucose for energy or storage.
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100% of lactose is broken down to monosaccharides by the enzyme lactase. What might the symptoms be in someone lacking this enzyme?
If someone lacks the enzyme lactase, they cannot properly break down lactose (the sugar found in milk and dairy products) into its two monosaccharide components, glucose and galactose. This condition is called lactose intolerance. bloating, diarrhoea, flatulence, abdominal pain, and nausea after consuming dairy products.
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components of sucrose
glucose and fructose (disaccharide)
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components of lactose
glucose + galactose (disaccharide)
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components of maltose
2 glucose molecules glucose + glucose (disaccharide)
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common monosaccharides
1. glucose 2. fructose 3. galactose
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oligosaccharides
Oligosaccharides typically consist of 3-10 monosaccharide units linked by glycosidic bonds. They can be found in various foods and are important for human nutrition. e.g. raffinose (galactose + glucose + fructose) stachyose (galactose + galactose + glucose + fructose)
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polysaccharides examples
long chains of monosaccharides - starch - glycogen - cellulose - chitin
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why might carbohydrates only be broken down to an absorbable size at the brush border, rather than in the small intestine lumen?
Carbohydrates are broken down to an absorbable size at the brush border rather than in the small intestine lumen because this location allows for more efficient digestion, enzyme specificity, control over the digestion-absorption process, and minimized risk of fermentation in the colon. This localized digestion ensures that only monosaccharides, the absorbable form of carbohydrates, enter the enterocytes, enabling efficient nutrient absorption and preventing digestive disturbances.
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brush border
The brush borders of the intestinal lining are the site of terminal carbohydrate digestions. The microvilli that constitute the brush border have enzymes for this final part of digestion anchored into their apical plasma membrane as integral membrane proteins. in small intestine: The brush border is located on the apical surface of enterocytes in the small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, and ileum). It contains brush border enzymes that play a critical role in the final stages of digestion, particularly carbohydrate digestion.
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which monosaccharides require energy for absorption?
glucose and galactose - require energy for absorption due to secondary active transport with sodium
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which monosaccharides can be transported against an electrochemical gradient?
Glucose and galactose are the main monosaccharides that are transported against their electrochemical gradient in the small intestine. The transport of these sugars into the enterocytes is facilitated by the SGLT1 transporter, which uses the energy from the Na⁺ gradient (created by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump) to move glucose and galactose against their concentration gradients into the cells.
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proteins
- long chains of amino acids (polypeptides) - dietary sources of protein include (meat, fish, dairy, eggs, pulses, cereals) - also absorb proteins from digestive juices and dead mucosal cells
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where other than from dietary sources can we absorb protein from?
1. digestive juices 2. dead mucosal cells
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what are the 3 protein absorbing regions in GI tract?
1. stomach; pepsin produces smaller polypeptide chains 2. pancreas; trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase produce small peptide chains 3. small intestine microvilli; specific peptidases, produce tripeptides, dipeptides and amino acids
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small intestine microvilli role in protein absorption/break down
specific peptidases produce tripeptides, dipeptides and amino acids
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pancreas role in protein break down
trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase produce small peptide chains
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stomach role in protein break down
pepsin produces smaller polypeptide chains
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how does each amino acid class differ?
each amino acid class has a different cohort of transporters
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what type of diffusion for basic amino acids?
facilitated diffusion
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what type of transport for acidic and neutral amino acids and di/tri peptides?
secondary active transport of acidic and neutral amino acids (Na+ gradient) and di- and tri- peptides (H+ gradient)
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what gradient is it for the secondary active transport of acidic and neutral amino acids?
Na+ gradient
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what gradient is it for the secondary active transport of di- and tri- peptides?
H+ gradient
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examples of lipids
1. triglycerides 2. phospholipids 3. cholesterol 4. steroids 5. fat-soluble vitamins
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what parts of GI tract are involves in lipid break-down for absorption?
1. mouth; lingual lipase digests <10% of lipid most important in neonates 2. stomach; gastric lipase small amount, most important in neonates 3. pancreas; pancreatic lipase, majority of lipid digestion in adults
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where is the majority of lipid digestion in adults?
pancreas (pancreatic lipase)
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which two areas of GI tract are involved in lipid digestion but are most important in neonates?
1. mouth (lingual lipase) 2. stomach (gastric lipase)
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what do lipases break triglycerides into?
monoglycerides and fatty acids (short/long chain)
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what type of movement do fatty acids have across the membrane?
simple diffusion
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what happens to lipids in the watery environment of the GI tract?
clump together
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lipid emulsification
- breaks large lipid droplets into smaller droplets (increases surface area) - begins in stomach with churning - bile salts (hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions)
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where does lipid emulsification begin?
in stomach with churning
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bile salt structure to allow emulsification
Emulsification is possible due to the amphipathic properties of bile salts. [1] The hydrophilic portion of the bile salts surrounds the lipid, forcing the lipid to disperse as the negative charges repel each other. Bile salts also allow the products of lipid digestion to be transported as micelles.
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where are large fat globules emulsified by bile salts?
duodenum
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what does digestion of fat by pancreatic enzyme lipase yield?
fatty acids + monoglycerides
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what happens when fat is broken down (monoglycerides and fatty acids) and associate with bile salts?
micelles formed; 'ferry' them into intestinal mucosa
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what happens after micelles made up of fatty acids, monoglycerides and bile salts enter intestinal mucosa?
fatty acids and monoglycerides leave micelles and diffuse into epithelial cells
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what happens when fatty acids and monoglycerides diffuse into epithelial cells?
they are recombined and packages with other lipoid substances and proteins to form chylomicrons
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what do fatty acids and monoglycerides form in epithelial cells?
chylomicrons (they are recombines and packages with other lipoids substances and proteins to form chylomicrons)
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lacteal
A lacteal is a lymphatic capillary that absorbs dietary fats in the villi of the small intestine.
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where in small intestine epithelial cells are lipids recombined?
sER- smooth endoplasmic reticulum
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lipid reassembly in enterocytes
lipids (mainly triglycerides) are reassembled within enterocytes (small intestine epithelial cells) after being broken down into free fatty acids and monoglycerides. They are then packaged into chylomicrons, which contain 90% triglycerides, 5% cholesterol, 4% phospholipids, and 1% proteins. These chylomicrons are transported through the lymphatic system to deliver lipids to the body.
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composition of chylomicrons
1. triglycerides (90%) 2. cholesterol (5%) 3. phospholipids (4%) 4. protein (1%)
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what happens to chylomicrons once they are formed in small intestinal epithelium?
chylomicrons are extruded from the epithelial cells by exocytosis. they enter lacteals and are carried away from intestine by lymph.
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why do chylomicrons enter lymph rather than blood?
they are too large to enter blood. lymphatic capillaries lack a basement membrane and are more permeable to large particles.
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which organic substances cannot be manufactured by the body?
1. vitamin c 2. folic acid 3. thiamine 4. vitamin d 5. vitamin a 6. vitamin b12
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how are fat-soluble vitamins absorbed in the small intestine?
carried by micelles then diffuse into absorptive cells (a, d, e, k)
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how are water-soluble vitamins absorbed in the small intestine?
absorbed by passive/active transporters (b, c)
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how is vitamin b12 absorbed in small intestine?
binds with intrinsic factor and is absorbed by endocytosis *water soluble
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intrinsic factor
The intrinsic factor (IF) is a glycoprotein produced by the parietal cells (oxyntic cells) located at the gastric body and fundus. It plays a crucial role in the transportation and absorption of the vital micronutrient vitamin B12 (cobalamin, Cbl) by the terminal ileum
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endocytosis
Endocytosis is a cellular process in which substances are brought into the cell. The material to be internalized is surrounded by an area of cell membrane, which then buds off inside the cell to form a vesicle containing the ingested materials.
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by which mechanism is vitamin b12 absorbed?
endocytosis *binds with intrinsic factor and is absorbed by endocytosis
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give examples of fat vs water soluble vitamins
fat = A, D, E, K water = C, B (fat-soluble vitamins are carried by micelles and then diffuse into absorptive cells; water-soluble vitamins are absorbed by passive/active transporters)
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vitamin absorption in large intestine
vitamin K and B vitamins from bacterial metabolism are absorbed
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how could a blockage of the bile duct lead to vitamin E deficiency?
Vitamin E is a fat soluble vitamin so must be carried via a micelle. bile duct delivers bile so might cause a deficiency. A blockage of the bile duct prevents bile from being released into the small intestine. Since bile is necessary for forming micelles, and micelles are required for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins like vitamin E, a bile duct blockage leads to impaired absorption of vitamin E, resulting in a deficiency of this important nutrient.
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by what mechanism are electrolytes absorbed?
usually active transport, mostly along the length of small intestine
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how is iron (electrolyte) absorbed?
enters via divalent metal-ion transporter 1*
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what regulates calcium (electrolyte) absorption?
regulated by vitamin D and parathyroid hormone (PTH)
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to what is sodium (electrolyte) coupled for absorption?
Na+ is couples with absorption of glucose and amino acids
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how is potassium (electrolyte) absorbed?
K+ diffuses in response to osmotic gradients
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how much fluid is absorbed per day?
~9L
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where is the majority of water absorbed?
95% is absorbed in small intestine by osmosis
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what leads to water loss?
disturbance in mechanisms leads to water loss
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what is water uptake couples with?
solute uptake
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solute
the minor component in a solution, dissolved in the solvent.
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net osmosis
occurs whenever a concentration gradient is established by active transport of solutes
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causes of malabsorption
1. anything that interferes with delivery of bile or pancreatic juice 2. damaged intestinal mucosa (e.g. bacterial infection) 3. gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac disease); gluten damages intestinal villi and brush border, treated by eliminating gluten from diet (all grains but rice and corn)
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gluten sensitive enteropathy
gluten damages intestinal villi and brush border- can lead to malabsorption treated by eliminating gluten from diet (all grains but rice and corn)
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liver's role in metabolism
glycogen to glucose and vice versa (glycogenesis + glycogenesis), amino acids, synthesises lipoproteins, protein metabolism
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liver's role in glycogenolysis and glycogenesis (metabolism)
glycogenolysis (glycogen to glucose): liver stores glycogen and can break it down to glucose when the body needs energy, especially between meals or during physical activity (glycogenolysis) glycogenesis (glucose to glycogen): when there is an excess of glucose (e.g. after eating), the liver converts glucose into glycogen for storage in a process called glycogenesis. helps maintain blood glucose levels within a healthy range.
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glycogenolysis vs glycogenesis
glycogenolysis = glycogen to glucose glycogenesis= glucose to glycogen
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liver's role in amino acid metabolism
liver plays a critical role in amino acid metabolism by converting excess amino acids into glucose (glyconeogenesis) or fat (lipogenesis). it also de-aminates amino acids, removing the amino group, which can be converted to urea for excretion.
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liver's role in lipoprotein synthesis (metabolism)
liver synthesises lipoproteins, such as very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), which are involved in the transport of lipids (especially triglycerides and cholesterol) through the bloodstream
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liver's role in protein metabolism
liver synthesises many important proteins such as albumin, clotting factors (e.g. fibrinogen), and other plasma proteins essential for maintaining blood volume, osmotic pressure and blood clotting
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detoxification role of liver
alcohol dehydrogenase: liver metabolises alcohol (ethanol) using the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH), converting ethanol into acetaldehyde, which is then further metabolised to acetic acid and eventually eliminated. other toxins: the liver also detoxifies other harmful substances, including drugs, environmental toxins, and waste products (like ammonia, which is converted to urea for excretion by the kidneys)
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liver's role in excretion
bilirubin: liver is responsible for processing haemoglobin from old red blood cells. The heme portion of haemoglobin is converted into bilirubin, which is excreted in the bile and eliminated from the body via faeces. bile production: liver synthesises bile, which is essential for the digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K). Bile also aids in the excretion of cholesterol and bilirubin.
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liver's role in storage
glycogen: liver stored glycogen as an energy reserve- can be converted back to glucose when required by body triglycerides: stores triglycerides (fat) as an energy reserve, especially when there is excess food intake or during periods of fasting. vitamins + minerals: liver stores several vitamins (e.g. A, D, B12) and minerals (e.g. iron, in form of ferritin), released when body needs them
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vitamin role in bile salt synthesis
liver synthesises bile salts from cholesterol. Bile salts are critical for the emulsification of dietary fats in small intestine making them more accessible to digestive enzymes.
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liver's role in cholesterol synthesis
liver synthesises cholesterol, which is essential for building cell membranes, producing certain hormones (e.g. steroids), and synthesising bile salts
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liver's role in blood clotting factors synthesis
liver produces various clotting factors (e.g. prothrombin, fibrinogen) required for proper blood clotting, helping to prevent excessive bleeding
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liver's role in albumin synthesis
albumin, the most abundant protein in plasma, is produced by the liver and is crucial for maintaining osmotic pressure, which helps to retain water within blood vessels and maintain blood volume
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liver's role in angiotensinogen synthesis
liver produces angiotensinogen, which is involved in the regulation of blood pressure and fluid balance. this protein is converted to angiotensin II by enzymes in the blood, leading to vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure.
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liver and Kupffer cells
liver contains specialised macrophages called Kupffer cells, which are part of the reticuloendothelial system. these cells perform phagocytosis, removing old/damaged red blood cells, pathogens, and other debris from the blood that passes through the liver.
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heat production of liver
liver is involved in numerous biochemical reactions, many of which are exothermic (release heat). there include metabolic processes like glycogenolysis and lipid metabolism, contributing to the regulation of body temperature.
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weight of liver
~1.5kg (largest internal organ)
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location of liver
located in upper right quadrant of abdomen (extends into left quadrant) sits underneath the diaphragm and is well protected by rib cage closely related to: -> right kidney posteriorly -> stomach to right -> colon inferiorly
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anatomic lobes of liver
- divided into large right lobe and smaller left lobe by falciform ligament - inferiorly, right lobe also includes the caudate and quadrate lobes
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which lobe of liver is bigger?
right
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which ligament divides the left and right liver lobes?
falciform ligament
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on which surface of liver is the porta hepatis found?
visceral surface
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porta hepatis of liver
(gateway to the liver) main site where structures enter and leave the liver including the: 1. portal triad 2. nerves 3. lymphatics
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which 3 structures make up portal triad?
(part of porta hepatis) 1. hepatic artery (entering) 2. hepatic portal vein (entering 3. bile duct (leaving)
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blood supply of liver
liver has dual blood supply: -> hepatic artery (from coeliac trunk of aorta) -> hepatic portal vein (convergence of veins draining the GI tract) hepatic portal vein is main blood supply to the liver- carries nutrients/toxins absorbed by GI tract hepatic artery is smaller and provides oxygen rich blood
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which blood supply of liver is the main one?
hepatic portal vein (carried nutrients/toxins absorbed by GI tract)
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which blood supply of liver provides oxygen rich blood?
hepatic artery
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which blood supply of the liver is from the coeliac trunk if aorta and which is the convergence of veins draining the GI tract?
hepatic artery- from coeliac trunk of aorta hepatic portal vein= convergence of veins draining GI tract
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venous drainage of liver
once blood has passed through the liver it is drained into the inferior vena cava by 3 hepatic veins (hepatic veins draining liver not to be confused with hepatic portal vein supplying the liver!)
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how many hepatic veins drain the liver?
3 hepatic veins once blood has passed through the liver it is drained into the inferior vena cava by 3 hepatic veins
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hepatic portal system
blood drainage from GI tract, pancreas and spleen is carried to the liver first. key to delivering nutrients/toxins for processing and hormone signalling. *a portal system connects one organ to another without returning to the heart first
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what is a portal system?
a portal system connects one organ to another without returning to the heart first
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what percentage of liver cells are hepatocytes?
75-80% of liver cells are hepatocytes (parenchymal cells)
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hepatocytes
chemical transformation factories; lots of organelles, RER, mitochondria separated from sinusoids (specialised capillaries) by space of Disse (bathes hepatocytes in plasma) membranes of the hepatocytes facing the space of Disse have microvilli= large surface area to facilitate diffusion
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what separates hepatocytes from sinusoids?
space of Disse (bathes hepatocytes in plasma)
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sinusoids
specialised capillaries (liver)
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what structures do membranes of hepatocytes which face the space of Disse have?
microvilli = large surface area to facilitate absorption
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in what state are stellate cells in the space of Disse in healthy conditions of the liver?
inactive
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what do stellate cells in the space of Disse cause in disease states?
fibrosis. (inactive in healthy conditions but store vitamin A and produce collagen when activated)
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kupffer cells in sinusoids
specialised macrophages form part of the reticuloendothelial system which breaks down red blood cells (RBCs)
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how are hepatocytes and vessels of the liver arranged?
in hexagons with branches of the portal triad at each corner and a central vein
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name of the specialised capillaries in which blood from hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein enter
sinusoids (blood from the hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein enters specialised capillaries- sinusoids)
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bile canaliculi
run in a network between the hepatocytes, receiving bile secretions, and join to form small bile ducts
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sinusoids
large, low pressure vessels Drain blood from hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein in to the central vein. Fenestrated endothelium to facilitate transfer of metabolites between plasma and hepatocytes. Contain Kupffer; specialised macrophages that help recycle senescent red blood cells.
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what type of capillary endothelium do sinusoids have?
fenestrated endothelium. (to facilitate transfer of metabolites between plasma and hepatocytes)
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what cells do sinusoids contain?
Kupffer cells (specialised macrophages that help recycle senescent red blood cells)
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function of sinusoids in liver
large, low pressure vessels (specialised capillaries) drain blood from hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein to the central vein
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3 phases of drug metabolism/detoxification by liver
phase I (modification): addition of reactive and polar groups; metabolites. prevents free diffusion across membranes; ready phase II phase II (conjugation): attachment of an ionised group makes the metabolite more water soluble; facilitates transport phase III (excretion): smaller metabolites excreted by the kidney larger metabolites excreted in bile
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phase I of drug metabolism/detoxification of liver
modification addition of reactive and polar groups- metabolite prevents free diffusion across membranes- ready for phase II
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phase II of drug metabolism/detoxification of liver
conjugation. attachment of an ionised group. makes the metabolite more water soluble- facilitates transport
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phase III of drug metabolism by liver
excretion smaller metabolites excreted by kidney larger metabolites excreted by bile
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modification (phase I) of drug metabolism/detoxification
primarily performed by cytochrome p450 enzymes located in smooth endoplasmic reticulum (sER) of hepatocytes. enzymatic incorporation of polar groups: (O/OH) - oxidation - reduction - hydrolysis introduced functional groups (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis) that act as 'handles' for phase II reactions (conjugation) *phase I generally makes drugs more water-soluble for excretion some metabolites may be highly reactive and toxic (e.g. paracetamol)
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cytochrome p450 enzymes in drug metabolism of liver
these enzymes are primarily located in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (sER) of hepatocytes (liver cells). they catalyse a variety of reactions that introduce functional groups into the drug molecule, making them more polar and more water-soluble.
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conjugation (phase II) of drug metabolism/detoxification
addition of an ionised group: -> glutathione -> sulphate -> glycine -> glucuronic acid occurs in cytoplasm of hepatocytes makes metabolite water soluble for transport and inactivates it.
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which ionised groups can be added during phase II of drug metabolism?
conjugation. 1. glutathione 2. sulphate 3. glycine 4. glucuronic acid
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where does conjugation phase of drug metabolism occur?
(phase II) occurs in cytoplasm of hepatocytes
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how does the addition of ionised group during phase II of drug metabolism affect the metabolite?
makes it more water soluble for transport and inactivates it
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phase III of drug metabolism
(excretion) Phase III involves the excretion of metabolites formed during Phase I and Phase II, making them ready for removal from the body. This phase requires active transport by specific transport proteins to move metabolites out of cells and into the urine (via kidneys) or bile (via liver).
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roughly how long do RBCs last in circulation?
~120 days
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what breaks down haemoglobin of RBCs? where does this occur?
mostly broken down by macrophages mostly in the spleen
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spleen
The spleen is a small organ that stores and filters blood. As part of the immune system, it also makes blood cells that protect you from infection.
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what is heme from RBCs broken down to?
bilirubin *bilirubin is released from macrophages into bloodstream and is known as unconjugated bilirubin/free bilirubin
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why is free bilirubin potentially toxic?
lipophilic (fat-soluble) making it potentially toxic due to its solubility in lipids it can cross cell membranes including blood-brain barrier. this can cause damage
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bilirubin and albumin
free bilirubin is bound to albumin in the plasma to be transported through the bloodstream to the liver; albumin serves as a carrier preventing bilirubin from causing toxicity while in circulation
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albumin
a protein in your blood plasma made by liver
372
what occurs once albumin transports bilirubin to liver?
free bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid to form water-soluble conjugated bilirubin (in hepatocytes)
373
how is bilirubin excreted?
conjugated bilirubin is excreted into bile and released into intestines. it is then converted to urobilinogen and either reabsorbed into bloodstream or excreted in the urine and stool.
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what is bilirubin conjugated to in liver? what does this form?
conjugated to glucuronic acid to form bilirubin glucuronide
375
characteristic of conjugated bilirubin?
more water soluble and can be excreted by hepatocyte into biliary canaliculi
376
what causes jaundice?
excess plasma bilirubin (yellowing skin)
377
neonatal jaundice
prior to birth, bilirubin crosses the placenta and is removed by the mother's circulation after birth, the liver conjugates bilirubin which is then excreted into the gastrointestinal tract through the biliary system. in 60% of full term infants, the immature liver does not have sufficient glucuronyl transferase to conjugate bilirubin - hyperbilirubinemia (jaundice) phototherapy oxidises bilirubin to a water soluble form that can be easily excreted by the new-born
378
which liver enzyme to 60% of full term infants not have sufficient amount of leading to neonatal jaundice?
glucuronyl transferase *conjugates bilirubin to be more soluble and more easily excreted
379
what is a treatment for neonatal jaundice?
phototherapy. phototherapy oxidises bilirubin to a water soluble form that can be easily excreted by new-born.
380
which organ relies on blood glucose levels?
the brain is an obligate glucose user
381
what affect does a blood glucose level of <50mg/100ml leads to impaired nervous system function have ?
leads to impaired nervous system function
382
what affect does a blood glucose level of >110mg/100ml have?
complications associated with diabetes
383
what is normal blood glucose level?
~100mg/100ml liver maintains normal blood glucose level during all metabolic phases (digestive/postabsorptive/fasting/strenuous exercise)
384
which organs maintains normal blood glucose levels?
liver. liver maintains normal blood glucose level during all metabolic phases (digestive/postabsorptive/fasting/strenuous exercise)
385
what regulates the liver's maintenance of blood glucose?
insulin- anabolic (biosynthesis, requires energy) glucagon - catabolic (degradation, produces energy)
386
insulin vs glucagon energy requirements
insulin- anabolic (biosynthesis, requires energy) glucagon - catabolic (degradation, produces energy)
387
response to an increase in blood glucose
-> increased glucose uptake by hepatocytes via GLUT2 receptors -> insulin is released from pancreas in response to elevated blood glucose -> glucokinase converts glucose into glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) inside the liver -> glycogen synthase converts G6P into glycogen for storage (glycogenesis) -> when glycogen storage is full, excess glucose is converted into triglycerides through lipogenesis for fat storage
388
which enzyme converts glucose into glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) in the liver?
glucokinase
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glycogenesis
glycogen synthase converts G6P into glycogen for storage
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where is glycogen stored?
in your liver and skeletal muscles (the muscles attached to your bones and tendons), with small amounts in your brain. This stored form of glucose is made up of many connected glucose molecules and is called glycogen.
391
which receptors in hepatocytes take up increased glucose?
GLUT2
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how does insulin promote glucose uptake?
facilitates uptake of glucose into cells, particularly muscle cells, fat cells (adipocytes), and liver cells (hepatocytes) muscle + fat cells: insulin activates GLUT4 glucose transporter which facilitates glucose uptake into these tissues liver cells: insulin promotes glucose uptake through GLUT2 transporters, helping to store glucose as glycogen or convert it into fat if glycogen stored are full
393
response to a decrease in blood glucose
-> glucagon release from pancreas increases when blood glucose is low -> glycogen breakdown in the liver (glycogen phosphorylase) produces glucose-1-phosphate, which is then converted into glucose via phosphoglucomutase and glucose-6-phosphatase -> gluconeogenesis; in absence of sufficient glycogen, the liver synthesises glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors (amino acids and glycerol). This process requires ATP and GTP and involves 11 enzyme-catalysed steps.
394
GTP
Guanosine Triphosphate a molecule that is involved in various cellular processes and serves as an energy source for certain biochemical reactions in the brain.
395
which hormone is released from pancreas during times of low blood glucose?
glucagon
396
how is glycogen broken down to glucose?
(in liver) glycogen -> glucose-1-phosphate = glycogen phosphorylase glucose-1-phosphate -> glucose = phosphoglucomutase and glucose-6-phosphatase
397
which 2 enzymes convert glucose-1-phosphate to glucose?
1. phosphoglucomutase 2. glucose-6-phosphatase
398
which enzyme converts glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate?
glycogen phosphorylase
399
gluconeogenesis
in absence of sufficient glycogen, the liver synthesises glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors (amino acids and glycerol). this process requires ATP and GTP and involves 11 enzyme-catalysed steps.
400
how many enzyme catalysed steps and what is required for gluconeogenesis?
this process requires ATP and GTP and involves 11 enzyme-catalysed steps.
401
lipid metabolism
-> excess glucose to fatty acids: in the liver, acetyl-CoA from glucose is used to synthesise fatty acids which are incorporated into triglycerides -> triglyceride storage and transport: triglycerides are stored in adipose tissue or transported via VLDL to tissues such as muscles and adipose tissue -> phospholipid synthesis: fatty acids and glycerol are used to produce phospholipids, key components of cell membranes -> cholesterol synthesis: the liver produces cholesterol from acetyl-CoA which is used in cell membranes, for the production of steroid hormones, and to form lipoproteins (e.g. LDL, HDL) -> steroid hormones: cholesterol is a precursor for hormones like cortisol (from adrenal glands), testosterone (from gonads), and others
402
what is used to synthesise fatty acids from excess glucose?
in the liver, acetyl-CoA from glucose is used to synthesise fatty acids, which are incorporated into triglycerides.
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triglycerides
Triglycerides are a type of fat, called lipid , that circulate in your blood. They are the most common type of fat in your body.
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triglyceride storage and transport
triglycerides are stored in adipose tissue or transported via VLDL to tissues such as muscles and adipose tissue
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phospholipid synthesis
fatty acids and glycerol are used to produce phospholipids, key component of cell membranes
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cholesterol synthesis
liver produces cholesterol from acetyl-CoA which is used in cell membranes, for the production of steroid hormones, and to form lipoproteins (e.g. LDL, HDL). cholesterol is a precursor for hormones like cortisol (from adrenal glands), testosterone (from gonads) and other steroid hormones)
407
where is cortisol produced from?
Cortisol is a hormone produced by the two adrenal glands, which are located on top of each kidney. The pituitary gland in the brain regulates cortisol production.
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Acetyl-CoA
Acetyl-CoA is a molecule that participates in many biochemical reactions in protein, carbohydrate and lipid metabolism. Its main function is to deliver the acetyl group to the citric acid cycle to be oxidized for energy production.
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protein metabolism in liver
1. synthesis of non-essential amino acids: the liver synthesises all non-essential amino acids through transamination and other metabolic pathways 2. synthesis of plasma proteins: liver produces important plasma proteins (e.g. albumin- for osmotic pressure and transport/ clotting factors - for blood coagulation) 3. deamination: amino acids are deaminated and amino group is removed; this produces ammonia which is toxic and must be removed 4. energy production and gluconeogenesis: liver uses deaminated amino acids to generate energy or to synthesise glucose (via gluconeogenesis), particularly during periods of fasting. 5. urea cycle: liver converts toxic ammonia into urea through urea cycle which is then excreted by kidneys, preventing ammonia toxicity.
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Synthesis of Non-Essential Amino Acids (liver protein metabolism)
The liver synthesizes all non-essential amino acids through transamination and other metabolic pathways.
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Synthesis of Plasma Proteins: liver protein metabolism
The liver produces important plasma proteins, such as albumin (for osmotic pressure and transport) and clotting factors (for blood coagulation).
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Deamination: liver protein metabolism
Amino acids are deaminated, and the amino group is removed. This produces ammonia, which is toxic and must be processed.
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Energy Production and Gluconeogenesis: liver protein metabolism
The liver uses deaminated amino acids to generate energy or to synthesize glucose (via gluconeogenesis), particularly during periods of fasting.
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Urea Cycle: liver protein metabolism
The liver converts toxic ammonia into urea through the urea cycle, which is then excreted by the kidneys, preventing ammonia toxicity
415
liver regulation
mature hepatocytes can undergo cell division; maintains number of healthy hepatocytes severe injury leads to activation of liver progenitor stem cells; can differentiate into other liver cell types chronic disease impairs regenerative ability; cirrhosis
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cirrhosis
Cirrhosis is a condition in which your liver is scarred and permanently damaged. Scar tissue replaces healthy liver tissue and prevents your liver from working normally. As cirrhosis gets worse, your liver begins to fail. chronic disease impairs liver's ability to regenerate which can lead to cirrhosis
417
what does severe liver injury lead to the activation of?
liver progenitor stem cells (can differentiate into other liver cell types)
418
function of urinary system
homeostasis - disposal of waste from body - osmoregulation - regulation of blood volume and pressure - regulation of blood pH - producing hormones
419
structures in urinary system
1. ureters 2. bladder 3. urethra
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ureter
the duct by which urine passes from the kidney to the bladder
421
how much volume does the bladder hold?
700-1000ml
422
what relaxes and what contracts to excrete waste from bladder?
urethral sphincter relaxes detrusor contracts
423
detrusor
The walls of the bladder are mainly formed by detrusor muscle, which allows the bladder to contract to excrete urine or relax to hold urine. At the inferior end of the bladder, the detrusor muscle is continuous with the internal urethral sphincter.
424
where are kidneys located?
- posterior wall of abdomen - retroperitoneal - either side of vertebral column - around level of twelfth rib - lift kidney is slightly higher
425
retroperitoneal
Having to do with the area outside or behind the peritoneum (the tissue that lines the abdominal wall and covers most of the organs in the abdomen). kidneys= retroperitoneal
426
blood supply of renal system (kidneys)
- directly from aorta via renal arteries - returned to inferior vena cava via renal veins - receive 20-25% of resting CO (cardiac output)= ~1200ml/min - This large blood supply is necessary for the kidneys' key functions of filtration, waste removal, and maintaining body homeostasis.
427
what proportion of resting cardiac output do kidneys receive?
The kidneys receive about 20-25% of the resting cardiac output, which is roughly 1,200 mL/min. This large blood supply is necessary for the kidneys' key functions of filtration, waste removal, and maintaining body homeostasis.
428
Renal Capsule:
The renal capsule is a fibrous outer layer that surrounds the kidney, providing protection and maintaining its shape. It helps shield the kidney from trauma and infection.
429
Renal Cortex:
The renal cortex is the outer portion of the kidney. It contains renal corpuscles (which include the glomeruli) and parts of the renal tubules. The cortex is where glomerular filtration occurs, beginning the process of urine formation.
430
Renal Medulla:
The renal medulla is the inner region of the kidney, located beneath the cortex. It is organized into cone-shaped structures called renal pyramids. The medulla plays a key role in the concentration of urine and reabsorption of water and solutes.
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Renal Papilla:
The renal papilla is the tip of the renal pyramid. It is where the renal pyramids empty their urine into the minor calyces. The papilla contains openings called papillary ducts through which urine flows from the renal tubules.
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Fat in Renal Sinus:
The renal sinus is the central cavity of the kidney, and it contains fat as well as blood vessels (like the renal artery, vein, and nerves). This fat helps cushion and protect the kidney. The renal sinus surrounds the renal pelvis, calyces, and other structures.
433
Renal Sinus:
The renal sinus is the central area of the kidney where various structures, including the renal pelvis, calyces, renal artery, renal vein, and fat, are located. It is essentially the space inside the kidney that holds these structures.
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Ureter:
The ureter is a tube that carries urine from the renal pelvis (from the kidneys) to the bladder. The ureters are part of the urinary tract and play a key role in urine transport.
435
Renal Pyramid (in Renal Medulla):
The renal pyramids are cone-shaped structures located in the renal medulla. Each pyramid contains tubules and the collecting ducts that lead to the renal papilla, where urine is collected into the minor calyces. The base of the pyramids faces the renal cortex, and the apex (renal papilla) faces the renal sinus.
436
Renal Vein:
The renal vein carries filtered blood away from the kidney. After the blood has been processed by the kidneys, the renal vein returns it to the inferior vena cava, which then carries it back to the heart.
437
Renal Pelvis:
The renal pelvis is a funnel-shaped structure within the renal sinus that collects urine from the major calyces. The renal pelvis then transports the urine into the ureter for excretion.
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Renal Artery:
The renal artery supplies oxygenated blood to the kidneys. It branches off from the abdominal aorta and enters the kidney through the hilum, where it eventually divides into smaller arteries that feed into the renal tissue.
439
Major and Minor Calyx:
Minor Calyces: These are small, cup-shaped structures that collect urine from the renal papillae of the renal pyramids. Each pyramid drains urine into a minor calyx. Major Calyces: Several minor calyces merge to form a major calyx, which is larger and leads into the renal pelvis. The major calyces collect urine from multiple minor calyces before it moves to the renal pelvis.
440
summarise structures kidney anatomy
Renal Capsule: Protective outer layer of the kidney. Renal Cortex: Outer part of the kidney, where glomerular filtration occurs. Renal Medulla: Inner part of the kidney, containing renal pyramids. Renal Papilla: Tip of the renal pyramid where urine exits into the minor calyx. Fat in Renal Sinus: Cushions and protects the kidney. Renal Sinus: Central space containing the renal pelvis, calyces, blood vessels, and fat. Ureter: Transports urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder. Renal Pyramid: Cone-shaped structures in the renal medulla that contain renal tubules and collecting ducts. Renal Vein: Carries filtered blood away from the kidneys to the inferior vena cava. Renal Pelvis: Funnel-shaped structure that collects urine from the major calyces and drains it into the ureter. Renal Artery: Supplies oxygenated blood to the kidneys. Minor and Major Calyces: Collect urine from the renal papillae and channel it into the renal pelvis.
441
what are the kidney cortex and medulla made up of?
nephrons
442
what are nephrons of the kidney and what are their function?
- functional unit of the kidneys responsible for: -> ultrafiltration of blood -> reabsorption/excretion
443
how many nephrons in each kidney?
~1.3 million
444
what do nephrons consist of?
1. renal corpuscle 2. renal tubule
445
function and location of renal corpuscle
where blood plasma is filtered lies within renal cortex
446
what does the renal corpuscle consist of?
1. glomerulus 2. bowman's capsule
447
glomerulus
a network of capillaries that filter blood and allows small molecules to pass through
448
bowman's capsule
the double-walled structure that surrounds the glomerulus and collects the filtrate from the blood
449
bowman's capsule and glomerulus of renal corpuscle in nephron
blood is filtered in the glomerulus and the resulting filtrate is collected in the Bowman's capsule. larger molecules like proteins and blood cells are retained in the blood, while smaller molecules enter the filtrate.
450
what is unusual about the blood supply to the renal corpuscle?
- renal corpuscle has two capillary beds in series: the glomerulus (for filtration) and the peritubular capillaries (for reabsorption and secretion) - blood enters the glomerulus from the afferent arteriole, then leaves through he efferent arteriole, which is unusual since most organs drain capillaries into venules. - this unique arrangement helps regulate filtration pressure, allowing the kidney to effectively filter blood and maintain body homeostasis.
451
glomerular capsule
Bowman's/glomerular capsule is double-walled cup of epithelial cells
452
layer of Bowman's capsule of renal corpuscle
inner visceral layer: wraps around endothelial cells of glomerular capillaries outer parietal layer: forms outer wall of capsule *space between 2 layers is capsular space
453
what is the space between the inner visceral and outer parietal layer of the Bowman's capsule?
capsular space
454
The renal corpuscle is specialised for filtration. What type of epithelium comprises the visceral layer to achieve this?
simple squamous epithelium (allows quick filtration)
455
what is the first step of urine production?
glomerular filtration
456
where does water and most solutes pass to from glomerular capillaries?
glomerular capsule *glomerular filtrate
457
what volume of blood plasma in filtered per day?
180L
458
how much urine is eliminated per day?
2L
459
where does the glomerular capsule drain into?
renal tubule
460
filtrate from the blood must pass through endothelial cells, a basal lamina and gaps between visceral epithelial cells. which of the following can normally make it through? water, sodium, RBCs, glucose, large proteins, chloride
water, sodium, glucose and chloride can normally pass through the filtration barrier red blood cells and large proteins cannot normally pass through and are retained in the blood
461
what does the renal tubule consist of?
1. proximal convoluted tubule 2. loop of Henle 3. distal convoluted tubule
462
where do convoluted tubules of renal tubule lie?
within renal cortex
463
where does the loop of Henle extend into?
renal medulla
464
what is the renal tubule responsible for?
reabsorption secretion
465
proximal convoluted tubule
largely responsible for reabsorption of glucose, sodium and other solutes (renal tubule)
466
Loop of Henle
counter-current multiplier (renal tubule)
467
distal convoluted tubule
reabsorbs water from filtrate also sodium and choride (renal tubule)
468
renal tubule
renal tubule is part of the nephron where filtration occurs, and further processing of the filtrate (precursor to urine) takes place.
469
Where do DCT's empty into?
Distal convoluted tubules of several nephrons empty into one collecting duct. [The collecting ducts then unite into larger structured called papillary ducts. These drain into minor calyces, which collect the urine produced by kidneys before it moves to major calyces and renal pelvis. ]
470
what do collecting ducts unite into?
papillary ducts. [The distal convoluted tubules (DCT) of several nephrons empty into one collecting duct. The collecting ducts then unite into larger structures called papillary ducts.]
471
what do papillary ducts drain into?
These papillary ducts drain into the minor calyces, which collect the urine produced by the kidneys before it moves to the larger renal structures like the major calyces and eventually the renal pelvis.
472
counter current multiplier system
-> The countercurrent multiplier system helps establish a concentration gradient in the renal medulla, allowing the kidneys to concentrate or dilute urine. -> Active transport in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle pumps ions out of the filtrate, while water is reabsorbed passively in the descending limb. -> The distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct can adjust their permeability to water, depending on the presence of ADH, allowing the kidneys to fine-tune water reabsorption and thus produce either concentrated or dilute urine.
473
what two structures can adjust their permeability to water in the countercurrent multiplier system?
The distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct can adjust their permeability to water, depending on the presence of ADH, allowing the kidneys to fine-tune water reabsorption and thus produce either concentrated or dilute urine.
474
what occurs in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle vs descending?
Active transport in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle pumps ions out of the filtrate, while water is reabsorbed passively in the descending limb.
475
isotonic to plasma
the osmolarity (concentration of solutes) of the solution is equal to that of plasma If the kidneys produce isotonic urine (with an osmolarity equal to that of plasma), this means the body is excreting water but maintaining the balance of solutes (like sodium, chloride, etc.) that match the osmolarity of plasma. This can happen when the body is in normal hydration status, and the kidneys do not need to conserve or excrete large amounts of water.
476
role of ADH in kidneys
anti-diuretic hormone stimulated insertion of aquaporin channels. increases water permeability. more water reabsorbed, urine more concentrated.
477
what does low AHD lead to?
water diuresis (large amounts of dilute urine)
478
water diuresis
Water diuresis is the process of excreting large volumes of dilute urine. It happens when there is excess water intake or when ADH secretion is suppressed, reducing the kidneys' ability to reabsorb water. This results in urine that has a low osmolarity, often much lower than plasma, allowing the body to eliminate excess water.
479
ADH is also known as vasopressin. What other function does this name suggest?
vasoconstriction In addition to regulating water retention in the kidneys, ADH (vasopressin) also plays a crucial role in blood pressure regulation through vasoconstriction
480
ADH / vasopressin
hormone’s ability to constrict blood vessels, which helps increase blood pressure.
481
what is the overall effect of the RAAS on blood pressure?
increase (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system)
482
RAAS
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. -> critical mechanism for maintaining blood pressure, fluid balance, and electrolyte homeostasis. -> through a cascade of events starting with renin release and culminating in the actions of angiotensin II, aldosterone, and ADH, the body increases blood pressure by promoting vasoconstriction, water retention, and sodium reabsorption. -> RAAS is vital for homeostasis in situations where the body needs to conserve water, maintain blood pressure, and regulate electrolyte balance, especially during dehydration or low blood volume conditions.
483
how does RAAS increase blood pressure?
Through a cascade of events starting with renin release and culminating in the actions of angiotensin II, aldosterone, and ADH, the body increases blood pressure by promoting vasoconstriction, water retention, and sodium reabsorption.
484
sympathetic nervous system in regulation of kidneys
can decrease sodium and water excretion can increase angiotensin II formation
485
parathyroid hormone affect in kidney regulation
increase reabsorption of calcium in Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
486
natriuretic peptides role in kidney regulation
arterial natriuretic peptide (ANP); secreted by atrial myocytes in response to distension brain natriuretic peptide (BNP); mainly secreted by ventricles in response to stretch c-type natriuretic peptide (CNP); formed in brain and in vascular endothelium
487
ANP, BNP, CNP
ANP and BNP: Both are involved in reducing blood volume, lowering blood pressure, and promoting the excretion of sodium and water. These peptides help counteract the effects of RAAS, sympathetic nervous system, and aldosterone, which tend to increase blood volume and pressure. CNP: Primarily contributes to vasodilation and regulation of vascular smooth muscle tone, with a weaker natriuretic effect compared to ANP and BNP
488
what secretes ANP?
(atrial natriuretic peptide) secreted by atrial myocytes in response to distension
489
what secretes BNP?
(brain natriuretic peptide) mainly secreted by ventricles in response to stretch
490
where is c-type natriuretic peptide formed?
in brain and in vascular endothelium
491
vascular tone
Vascular tone refers to the degree of constriction experienced by a blood vessel relative to its maximally dilated state
492
what does angiotensin II formation trigger?
Angiotensin II formation triggers a series of responses aimed at increasing blood pressure and maintaining blood volume: -> Vasoconstriction (increased vascular resistance). -> Aldosterone secretion (sodium and water retention). -> ADH secretion (water retention). -> Sympathetic nervous system activation, which amplifies heart rate and vascular resistance, further raising blood pressure.
493
serosa vs adventitia
Serosa and adventitia are both outermost layers of the gastrointestinal tract, but they differ in their location and composition: serosa covers organs within the peritoneal cavity (intraperitoneal), while adventitia covers organs outside the peritoneum (retroperitoneal)
494
brunner glands
Brunner's glands are submucosal glands primarily located in the proximal duodenum, responsible for secreting an alkaline fluid containing mucin. This alkaline secretion helps protect the duodenal lining from the acidic stomach contents. They also produce and secrete "enterogastrone," an enteric hormone that inhibits gastric acid secretion