Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4th - 6th month exams > 5th six months > Flashcards

5th six months Flashcards

1
Q

T or F

Safety is not the operators responsibility of the supervisor.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T or F
Plant visitors impressed by records showing efficient operation, and their opinions are seldom influenced by the appearance of the plant grounds.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T or F

After finishing this program, you will not have to study water treatment anymore.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T or F

In many water treatment plants the operator must be a jack-of-all-trades”

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T or F

Excessive hardness is removed from waters to prevent the staining of clothes and plumbing fixtures.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The purpose of a water treatment plant is to produce water free of:

A 
Disagreeable tastes
Disease causing organisms
Toxic substances
Undesirable odors
Unpleasant appearances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The MAIN purpose of flocculation is to:

A

Gather together particles to form larger particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Screens are installed in intake structures to remove ___ from the raw water

A

Debris & leaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Water treatment plant operators are responsible for:

A

Explaining purpose of water treatment plant
Keeping accurate records
Maintaining appearance of their plant
Protecting the health and well being of the community
Safety performing their job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An experienced water treatment plant operator may be expected to:

A 
Develop a safety program 
Maintain equipment
Operate treatment processes
Respond to complaints
Train new operators.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Drinking water treatment plant operators have the responsibility of producing:

A

Pleasant drinking water, safe drinking water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The MAIN purpose of prechlorination are to:

A

Help control taste- and odor-causing substances. kill most disease-causing organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Typical duties performed by a water treatment plant operator include:

A 
Collect representative water samples
Conduct safety inspections
Load and unload chemicals
Order repair parts & tools
Start and stop plant equipment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Water treatment plant operators must be able to explain the purpose & operation of their plant to:

A

City council members, civic organizations, officials of regulatory agencies, representative of news media, school children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T or F

The energy crisis and water shortages are linked together,

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T or F

Both animal life and plant life depend on water for survival.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T or F
Large cities may obtain their raw water supply from a stream or river into which the treated wastewater from an upstream city has been discharged.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T or F

Laboratories can easily detect in water samples most of the new chemicals that are developed each ear.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T or F

Acid rain is formed by the evaporation of acid waters from mine drainage.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T or F

Precipitation is high in bacterial count.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T or F

Color in water is objectionable mainly from the standpoint of health.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T or F

Clear water is usually safe to drink.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T or F

Running water usually purifies itself to drinking water within a reasonable distance.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sources of contamination of water supplies include:

A 
Acid rain
Industrial waste changes
Intrusion of sea water into groundwater basins
Mineral residues from irrigation
Salt from de-icing highways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sources of groundwater contamination include:

A

Agricultural drainage
seawater intrusion
Seepage from septic tank leaching systems
Seepage from improper disposal of hazardous wastes
Surface runoff into wells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The basic types of water rights are called:

A

Appropriative
Prescriptive
Riparian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For purpose of discussion, surface water supplies may be divided into which of the following classes?

A

Lakes, reservoirs, rivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Diseases that may be spread through a water supply include:

A

Dysentery, giardiasis, typhoid fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Typical uses of reclaimed water include:

A

Crop irrigation
Industrial reuse
Landscape impoundments
Landscape irrigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When conducting a sanitary survey, which of the following items would pertain to a water supply in a lake?

A 
Adequacy of supply as to quantity
Algae growth potential
Normal period of detention
Protective measures in connection with watershed
Wind direction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Items requiring protective measures in watersheds that serve as the source of water supply include control of?

A 
Disposal of brines
Fishing
Ice cutting
Sanitary landfills
Swimming
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which types of substances may alter the quality of water as it moves over or below the surface of the earth?

A

Biological
Chemical
Physical
Radiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Turbidity in water results from the presence of:

A

Finely divided organic material
Plankton
Suspended material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Most individuals find that water having a temperature of ___ is most palatable.

A

50 degrees to 60 degrees F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The process by which water vapor is released to the atmosphere by living plants is called:

A

Transpiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Water quality characteristics of surface water supplies include:

A

Suspended solids

Turbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lakes and reservoirs are susceptible to algal blooms when:

A

Sufficient nutrients are available

Temperature is right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sources of odors in drinking water include:

A

Growths of algae

Hydrogen sulfide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A public water system according to the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) includes all public or privately owned systems that:

A

Have at least 15 service connections which are used at least 60 days out of the year, serve an average of at least 25 people at least 60 days out of the year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The basic objectives in the operation of a water treatment plant include:

A

Production of a safe drinking water
Production of an aesthetically pleasing drinking water
Production of drinking water at a reasonable cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Before the intake for a water supply is located in a river or stream, a careful study must be made of the:

A

Degree of stream scour
Settling out of silt
Stream bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The amber color in water could indicate the presence of:

A

Acid waters from mine drainage

Humic substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Determine the chlorinator setting in lbs/day if:

Chlorinator feed rate// lbs/day= (2 MGD)(3 md/L)(8.34 lbs/gal)

A

50 lbs/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Estimate the chlorine dose to a drinking water in mg/L if chlorine dose, mg/L= 14lbs/day // (.9333MGD)(8.34 lbs/gal)

A

1.8 mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T or F

Local conditions have little influence on methods of managing lakes and reservoirs used for domestic water supplies.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T or F

The amount and type of public use allowed on reservoirs has been standardized by laws and regulations.

A

Falsa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T or F
Few of the conditions which adversely affect water quality in domestic water supply reservoirs result from the impacts of man’s activities upon the environment.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T or F

Objectionable tastes and odors in domestic water supplies are often related to the occurrence of algal blooms.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T or F
Many conventional water treatment plants are capable of reducing tastes and odors to acceptable levels when operated properly.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T or F

Algae can die of oxygen starvation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

T or F

In a monomictic lake during winter months, the lake temperature is uniform from top to bottom.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T or F

Mixing occurs between the epilimnion and hypolimnion zones in thermally stratified lakes.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T or F

Fish kills can result from algae clogging the gills of fish.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

T or F
Once vegetation removal is accomplished at a reservoir site, regrowth should be controlled until the reservoir is filled.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

T or F

Chlorination of a water supply may either be used for managing watersheds in most cases is the regulatory process.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

T or F
Phosphate- base fertilizers usually do not cause water quality problems caused by nitrogen fertilizers because of the soil- binding characteristics of Phosphate compounds.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

T or F

All algae react the same way to copper sulfate.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T or F

Destratification always increases the of algal blooms in reservoirs.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T or F

With complete destratification, temperatures in a reservoir will be nearly uniform from top to bottom.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

T or F
Through proper design and operation, reservoir destratification systems can be used to manipulate temperatures and dissolved oxygen content to desired levels.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

T or F

The operator of a small water supply system must be able to manage the watershed as well as operators of large systems.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

T or F

Records are very valuable only when they are completed and filed by lab personnel.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

T or F

The inlet to a single level intake is usually located near the water surface.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Nutrients act as a(n) ___ in a lake.

A

Fertilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Reservoirs which are rich in nutrients and very productive in terms of aquatic animal and plant life cure are commonly referred to as:

A

Eutrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What problems may be created for operators by algal blooms in domestic water supply reservoirs?

A 
Dissolved oxygen depletion
increased pH which reduce chlorination efficiency
Increased organic loadings
Shortened filter runs
Tastes and odors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What water quality problems are caused by iron and manganese in drinking water?

A

Dirty water
Staining clothes
Staining porcelain fixtures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Proper management can increase recreational values of a reservoir by:

A

Controlling mans activities on the watershed
Reducing large mats of algae
Reducing scums of algae
Reducing vegetation before flooding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Trees and brush should be removed from areas to be flooded by reservoirs to reduce the ___ loadings.

A

Nutrient

Organic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Anaerobic conditions in the hypolimnion of a reservoir can cause:

A

Fish kills
Iron and manganese problems
Rotten egg odors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Algal blooms in lakes and reservoirs can be controlled by:

A

Chemical methods
Limiting nutrient recycling
Preventing nutrient inflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following water quality indicators have a significant impact on the efficiency of copper sulfate as an algaecide?

A

Alkalinity
pH
Suspended matter
Water temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which chemical is used to make copper sulfate effective in highly alkaline waters (greater than 150mg/L alkalinity)?

A

Citric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The reasons for using destratification programs in domestic water supply reservoirs include improving:

A

Aesthetics
Fisheries
Recreational values
Water quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Important water quality indicators that should be considered in a lake destratification program include:

A

Dissolved oxygen

Temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Factors affecting watershed management programs include:

A

Size of watershed
Topography
Vegetative conditions
Water quality problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following watershed practices can affect water quality in a water supply reservoir?

A 
Control of land use
Livestock grazing
Oil and gas exploration and drilling
Septic tank leaching systems
Soil conservation programs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Water quality laboratory analyses which may be best performed by commercial laboratories include”

A

Pesticides
Radioactivity
Trihalomethanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Intake facilities should prevent ___ from entering a water supply system.

A

Algal scums

Fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Water quality problems caused by anaerobic water entering the intake -inlet including high concentrations of:

A

Hydrogen sulfide
Iron
Manganese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Types of intake screens include:

A

Slotted plates
Woven wine
Vee wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Methods of cleaning intake screens include:

A

Brushing with bristle brushes
Jetting with high pressure water
Reversing the flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Factors that can adversely affect water quality in lakes and reservoirs include:

A 
Agricultural runoff
Drainage from mining areas
Logging operations
Grazing of livestock
Runoff from urban areas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Objectionable tastes and odors in a domestic water supply may be caused by:

A

Algae
Hydrogen sulfide
Overturns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Trihalomethanes are often formed during chlorination by reactions with:

A

Natural organic materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Purposes of reservoir management programs include:

A

Improvement and maintenance of fishery
Improvement and maintenance of recreational
Improvement and maintenance of water quality
Reduction of water treatment costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the surface area of a rectangular settling basin 60ft long and 15ft wide?

A

900sq ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the surface area of a circular clarifier 40ft in diameter?

A

1256sq ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Calculate the volume in cubic ft of a rectangular settling basin 8ft deep, 15ft wide, and 60 ft long?

A

7200 cu ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Calculate the volume in cubic ft of a circular clarifier 7ft deep and 40 f in diameter?

A

8800 cu ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How many lbs of copper sulfate will be needed to dose a reservoir with .5mg/L copper? The reservoir volume is 20 million gallons. The copper sulfate is 25% copper.

A

335 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Thermal limits are the direct result of?

A

The thermal capability of system equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

T or F

Reactive power flow is influenced more by system power and torque angles than reactive power

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

At what line power angle does the MW transfer across a transmission path equal 1/2 of the paths PMAX?

A

30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A transmission line is rated 1000 MVA. The power flow is currently 0MW and 1001 Mvar. Is the transmission line overloaded?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The TTC limit has been determined to be 1000MW from east to west for a particular transmission path. The transmission path operator sells 500 MW of the TTC. What is the paths ATC?

A

500MW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

T or F
A distribution line is rated at 50MVA. The lines power flow is currently 50MW and -50MVAR. This distribution line is overloaded.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Angle stability limits are the result of?

A

High torque and power angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

If the resistance is ignored, the maximum theoretical MW flow across a transmission line will occur at a power angle of:

A

90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

If the resistance is ignored, the maximum theoretical Mvar flow across a transmission line will occur at a power angle of:

A

180 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

200 MW is scheduled to flow from bus “X” to bus “Y”. Transmission line “A-B” has a 10% distribution factor for this schedule. How much of the 200 MW schedule will flow on transmission line “A-B”?

A

20MW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

T or F

Complex power is the vectoral difference of active and reactive powers?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The Greek letter theta (θ) is used to represent what?

A

Phase angle

104
Q

T or F

A synchroscope is used to compare freq., voltage phase angle, and voltage magnitude.

A

True

105
Q

T or F

If two power paths are available, less power will flow on the path with the least impedance?

A

False

106
Q

A phase shifting transformer (PST) primary function is to?

A

Adjust the flow of active power

107
Q

T or F

Three factors that affect power flow are path impedance, voltage magnitude, and current flow

A

False

108
Q

T or F

Dams are classified according to their use, their hydraulic design or the material of which they are constructed.

A

True

109
Q

T or F
The purpose of detention dams are ordinarily constructed to retard flood runoff & increase the effects of sudden floods.

A

False

110
Q

T or F
Earthfill dams are the most common dams used because they are principally constructed of the material from local natural material. Requiring minimum of processing.

A

True

111
Q

What is the membrane of a rockfill dam made of?

A

All of the above; concrete slab, asphaultic concrete paving, steel plates.

112
Q

T or F
Concrete arch dams are suitable for sites where the ratio of the width between abutments to the height is greater and where the foundation at the abutments is not solid rock capable of resisting arc thrust.

A

False

113
Q

T or F
The single arch dam spans a canyon as one structure and is usually limited to maximum crest length to height ratio of 20:1.

A

False

114
Q

T or F
A timber dam is not economical for modern construction because the amount of labor involved in a timber dam, coupled with short life of the structure make this type uneconomical.

A

True

115
Q

What are some of the advantages of a rock foundation for a dam?

A

Both A & B; Free of significant geology defects, are resistant to erosion & percolation.

116
Q

What type of design concerns should be considered if a silt or fine sand foundation is available?

A 
Include non-uniform settlement
Prevention of piping
Excessive percolation losses
Uplift forces
Potential soil collapse upon saturation.
117
Q

The investigation for a potential dam site primarily consists of three stages, or levels of study, what are they?

A

Appraisal, feasibility, design investigations.

118
Q

T or F

The primary criteria for rip rap is quality & size.

A

True

119
Q

Why are stream deposits a good source of concrete aggregate?

A

All of the above; they are easy & inexpensive to excavate or process, streams naturally sort deposits, abrasion caused by stream transportation eliminates some of the weaker material.

120
Q

T or F
It is important to have an effective reservoir geologic map because the map is essential for planning & conducting the investigations.

A

True

121
Q

What do geologic maps identify?

A

Both A & B; surrounding areas, rock units.

122
Q

T or F
Agricultural soil maps are useful for engineering purposes because they provide detailed soil data & information relating to drainage areas.

A

True

123
Q

In construction of foundation & earthwork for dams, why are the physical properties of soil important?

A

Unit weight, permeability, shear strength

124
Q

T or F
What happens if silt & clay have as little as 10% of the particles in sand & gravel & are smaller than the No. 200 sieve size they will become saturated,

A

False

125
Q

T or F
In field classification, if the soil is gravel it can be identified as clean or dirty means that it has an appreciable amount of fines.

A

True

126
Q

T or F
Streak means in reference to rocks that the color of the fine powder of a mineral, obtained by rubbing it on the unglazed portion of the porcelain tile is known as its streak.

A

True

127
Q

What are the mechanisms that develop soil deposits on the surface of soil?

A

Water, ice and wind.

128
Q

T or F
The definition of moderately hard rock is that it can’t be scratched with a knife or sharp pick with light or moderate pressure.

A

False

129
Q

What are the non-accessible exploration methods for subsurface materials?

A

All of the above; auger drilling, core drilling, rotary drilling.

130
Q

T or F

A vane shear test is an in place test to determine the undrained shear strength of a saturated cohesive soil.

A

True

131
Q

T or F
The reason the earthfill dam is the most common type of dam because its construction involves using materials in their unnatural state with more processing.

A

False

132
Q

T or F
The essential requirements of the foundation for an earthfill dam is that it provides stable support for the embankement under all conditions of saturation & loading, and that it provides sufficient resistance to seepage to prevent excessive loss of water.

A

True

133
Q

T or F

The purpose of grouting a dam foundation is to act as a binder and fills in the voids in the foundation.

A

True

134
Q

T or F

The purpose of toe drains is to give the operator an elevation reading.

A

False

135
Q

What are some disadvantages of grout caps?

A

Excavation for the cap may disturb (damage) foundation.

136
Q

T or F
The methods of treating silt & clay foundations are based on the soil type & location of water table and the density of the soil.

A

True

137
Q

Why can’t a designer of an earthfill dam rely on the application of mathematical analysis or formulas to determine the required cross section to the degree that one can for a concrete dam?

A

All of the above; soil occurs in infinite combinations of size graduation, composition and corresponding variations in behavior under different conditions of saturation & loading

138
Q

T or F
In reference to dams, “freeboard” means the vertical distance between the crest of the embankment & the reservoir water surface.

A

True

139
Q

Name some material used for upstream slope protection on earthfill dams.

A 
Steel facing
Soil-cement pavement
Rock riprap
Precast concrete blocks
Concrete pavement
140
Q

Rock for riprap should be hard, dense & durable. It should be able to resist long exposure to weather. What type should be used?

A

A & B, limestone & sandstones

141
Q

What are the conditions that must occur before a rockfill dam can prove to be economical?

A

All of the above; Earthfill materials are difficult to obtain or require extensive processing before use, short construction seasons prevail, the dam is to be raised at a later date.

142
Q

Does uplift pressures and erosion caused by seepage through a rockfill dam generally cause problems?

A

No, rockfill materials do not generally constitue significant design problems.

143
Q

Name materials that are used as impervious material in rockfill dam.

A

Steel, wood, concrete, earth material.

144
Q

T or F
Two advantages of using an internal membrane in a rockfill dam are shorter grout curtain lengths & less total area exposed to water.

A

True

145
Q

T or F

Bedrock foundations that are soft & erosion resistant are the most desirable for a rockfill dam.

A

False

146
Q

T or F
Limited settlement is critical in the construction of rockfill dams because excessive settlement may rupture the upstream membrane or cause joint separation with subsequent water loss.

A

True

147
Q

Name some advantages of asphaltic concrete.

A 
All of the above; 
Flexibility
Can tolerate larger settlement than reinforced concrete
Economical alternative to concrete
Dependable when correctly constructed
148
Q

T or F
Outlet works are classified according to their purpose, their physical & structural arrangement, or their hydraulic operation.

A

True

149
Q

T or F
The outlet works position in relation to the reservoir storage level is so important to attain the required elevation capacity.

A

False

150
Q

What should control devices selection of outlet works arrangement be based upon?

A

Commercially available gates and valves or relatively simple gate design where possible.

151
Q

T or F
If a closed circuit is to be provided and foundation conditions are not suitable for a tunnel, or if the required size of the waterway is too small to justify the minimum sized tunnel, a cut-and-cover conduit should be used.

A

True

152
Q

T or F
An intake structure may be either submerged or extended in the form of a tower above the maximum surface water level when the controls are placed at the headworks.

A

False

153
Q

Where the trashracks are inaccessible for cleaning, the velocity through the racks ordinarily shouldnot exceed 2ft/s. If a trashrack is accessible for cleaning, what can te ft/s be through the trashrack.

A

Up to 5ft/s

154
Q

When open-channel outlet flow is controlled by partly open surface gates, or where top-seal radial gates or submerged slide gates control the flow, what is the formula to calculate this flow?

A

Q= CDL sq root 2gh

155
Q

According to the load/ frequency relationships, a 1% change in frequency will lead to what approximate magnitude of load change in typical 10,000 MW system?

A

200MW

156
Q

A governor with a 0% droop is called:

A

An isochronous governor

157
Q

T or F

Steam turbine generators typically have better governor response than hydro-electric generating units.

A

False

158
Q

A control area’s frequency bias setting is equal to:

A

All of the above: The control area’s frequency response characteristic(FRC), the natural response of the control area, The AGC system’s bias value.

159
Q

All of the following are modes of AGC except;

A

Isochronous control

160
Q

In which stage of a generator’s response to a system disturbance is the power flow supported primarily by the generator’s excitation system?

A

Electromagnetic energy stage

161
Q

If system frequency were to run at 60 Hz for two consecutive hrs, how much positive time error would occur?

A

2.4 sec

162
Q

A control area has a bias of -150 MW. Frequency falls .05Hz due to external disturbance. How many MW would you expect this control area to provide the disturbance?

A

+75

163
Q

An isochronous governor has a droop setting of:

A

0%

164
Q

What element of the power system is typically most susceptible to damage from prolonged operation at frequencies above or below 60 Hz?

A

Low pressure turbine strength blades

165
Q

T or F

The north american power system is divided into areas called interconnections.

A

True

166
Q 
Time error problem:
60Hz= No time error
Time error problem:
60Hz= No time error
Under generation= fast time error
Over generation= Slow time error
A

False

167
Q

T or F

All loads can be divided into two general groups, they are non-motor & motor load.

A

True

168
Q

T or F

If the voltage falls enough it will cause the motor to speed up.

A

False

169
Q

Electric generators use a ___ control system to control shaft speed.

A

Governor

170
Q

T or F

The type of governors that are common on older units is a centrifugal ballhead.

A

True

171
Q

T or F
Two types of utility generators that use govern control systems are steam turbine/generators and hydro turbine/ generators.

A

True

172
Q

What is the Mvar production of a 50 Mvar shunt capacitor that is energized at 90% of its nominal voltage?

A

40.5

173
Q

A 5% change in voltage will typically lead to what change in the total load magnitude?

A

3%

174
Q

A transformer can be overexcited if exposed to:

A

All of the above; high voltage, low frequency, high voltage & low frequency.

175
Q

What is the approximate Mvar/ mile production for a 345kv overhead line?

A

3/4

176
Q

A 345kv transmission line operates at various voltage levels throughout the day. At which voltage level will the transmission line produce more reactive power.

A

360kv

177
Q

A transmission line has 50 ohms of inductive reactance. 25 ohms of series capacitors are inserted in the line. What is the lines % series compensation?

A

50%

178
Q

A transmission lines ___ is the MW loading at which the Mvar from the lines natural capacitance is equal to the Mvar the line needs to support its voltage

A

Surge impedance loading

179
Q

What is the approximate Mvar/mile production for a 500kv overhead line?

A

2.0

180
Q

Given a purely inductive load, what can be said about the MVA this load draws from the power system?

A

The load draws only Mvar

181
Q

T or F

A generator with spare Mvar is always a source of dynamic reactive reserve.

A

False

182
Q

T or F

The two types of power produced by the system generators are active (MW) & reactive (Mvar)

A

True

183
Q

Some common causes of low voltage could be:

A

All of the above; Transmission line outages, motor stalling, reactive equipment outages.

184
Q

T or F

Generators are the primary means of controlling power system voltages.

A

True

185
Q

T or F

Excessively high voltages on the power system are less dangerous than low voltages.

A

False

186
Q

There are three general frames for over voltages:

A

Long term, short term, transient

187
Q

T or F

The sudden loss of a major load can lead to short term excessive generator production of active & reactive power.

A

True

188
Q

T or F

Transformers are very susceptible to damage from sustained low voltages.

A

False

189
Q

Refrigeration is the process of ___ the air defined space.

A

Lowering the temperature of

190
Q

The temperature of a material decreases if the material ___ & nothing else happens that would have the opposite effect.

A

Contacts a cooler material

191
Q

The two kinds of air conditioning are:

A

comfort and process

192
Q

One of the physical states of matter is:

A

gas

193
Q

You can cause matter to change its physical state by:

A

Adding or removing heat

194
Q

Thermal energy that is directly related to the temperature of a material is called ___ heat.

A

Sensible

195
Q

A temperature of 45 degrees is about the same as ___degrees C

A

7

196
Q

Heat can be transferred from one place to another by the process of:

A

Conduction

197
Q

The latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the amount of heat the substance absorbs as it:

A

Evaporates

198
Q

A refrigeration system has been turned off for several days. It contains both liquid refrigerant & vapor. Suddenly a line containing the refrigerant breaks. What happens inside the system?

A

The liquid refrigerant boils.

199
Q

From the compressor, refrigerant flows to the:

A

Condenser

200
Q

The graph below is the pressure temperature chart for a refrigerant. Point ___ represents a condition of superheating.

A

1

201
Q

Compared to a dry expansion evaporator, a flooded evaporator of the same size:

A

Is more efficient

202
Q

The purpose of a cooling medium is to:

A

Remove heat from compressed refrigerant vapor.

203
Q

An automatic expansion vlv is a metering device that maintains a constant pressure in the:

A

Evaporator

204
Q

The properties of air that are important in psychometrics include.

A

Enthalpy

205
Q

In a sling psychometer, the wet bulb temperature is usually lower than the dry bulb. If the difference is very small, you know the air is quite:

A

Humid

206
Q

Air that is saturated is air that is at the:

A

Dewpoint temperature

207
Q

Relative humidity changes if the ___ changes, but the specific humidity does not.

A

Dry bulb temperature.

208
Q

To calculate the enthalpy of a sample of air, you must include:

A

Latent heat of the water vapor.

209
Q

In order to remove the moisture that enters a refrigeration system during repair, you must evaluate the system by using a ___ to make all the moisture vaporize.

A

Vacuum pump

210
Q

One useful method of detecting leaks in a refrigeration system involves using a(n) ___ leak detector.

A

Electronic

211
Q

Relative humidity can be measured directly with a(n):

A

Hygrometer

212
Q

Which of the following is a correct match between an electrical value & the instrument used to measure it?

A

Resistance, ohmeter

213
Q

In the list below, identify the line that correctly match one of the classes of work are a hazard to an example of that class of hazard.

A

Chemical, container of refrigerant.

214
Q

T or F

Trapezoidal is the most accepted shape for earthen canals.

A

True

215
Q

T or F
Side slopes of 3:2 for small canals & laterals and 4:2 for larger canals is generally adequate for most earth materials & should be considered when determining the side slopes of canals.

A

True

216
Q

T or F
3.0fps for smaller canals up to 1.5fps for larger are the range of permissable velocities considered for sizing a canal water section.

A

False

217
Q

What considerations must be made when canal construction is to utilize “cut & fill” methods?

A

All of the above; The water prism should be kept a safe distance into the natural ground, generally the ground water surface above the downhill cut stake should not exceed approximately 1/4 the water depth, on steep sidehills the entire water prism should be entirely in the natural ground for safe construction.

218
Q

T or F

Steel flumes are seldom used today due to high maintenance costs.

A

True

219
Q

T or F

Along uphill terrain cincrete bench flumes are most commonly used.

A

False

220
Q

What shape of flume gives the maximum velocity for a given area?

A

1 that has a bottom width 2 times the depth of the water depth

221
Q

T or F

Encountered falling rick & debris are ideal conditions to make precast concrete pressure pipe for flume service.

A

True

222
Q

T or F

Buried precast concrete pipe & monolithic concrete pipe are considered common types of construction for siphon service.

A

True

223
Q

Why is concrete pipe predominately used for canal siphons?

A

All of the above; Hydrostatic heads encountered are generally less than 150ft, bridges supporting canal sections across drainage channels, over highways,& railroads are generally more expensive, sizes from 12 to 96in are available in most localities.

224
Q

T or F

Monolithic construction is generally considered for siphons smaller than 96in in diameter

A

False

225
Q

T or F
Factors that may dictate construction of elevated steel pipe siphons could be where costly rock excavation is encountered & limited space for handling river flows during construction.

A

True

226
Q

What essential design features, in addition to the pipe itself, must be considered for inverted siphons?

A

Both A & B; Inlet and outlet transitions, blowoff structures

227
Q

T or F

Inlet and outlet transitions serve for the purpose of maximizing head loss & erosion damage.

A

False

228
Q

T or F

A pump type, gravity type, and pressure turnout type, are all considered blowoff structures.

A

True

229
Q

T or F
When feasible, blowoffs should be located at the low points of siphon where water is drained into natural drainage channels.

A

True

230
Q

T or F
To dislodge sediment & debris that may become packed in the discharge line immediately upstream of the blowoff vlvs is the purpose of the high velocity jet utilized in some gravity blowoffs.

A

True

231
Q

T or F
To convey water over relatively steep slopes to lower grades & water surfaces in canals or laterals is the purpose of chute (drop)

A

True

232
Q

What purpose do the controlled notch or stoplogs serve in the inlet transitions of drops and chutes?

A

Prevents drawdown at the entrance that would cause erosion of canal bank

233
Q

T or F

If max velocities are more than 3.5fps, an outlet transition is generally not needed.

A

False

234
Q

T or F
By providing a depressed (submerged) section of pipe ahead of the outlet transition is how supercritical velocites are dissipated in pipe drops.

A

True

235
Q

T or F
Water hammer is a reason why open type stilling pools or impact basins utilized in the design of outlet transitions for pipe chutes.

A

True

236
Q

What is the preferred shape of a monolithic reinforced concrete chute?

A

Rectangle

237
Q

T or F
Besides stoplogs, siphon are devices used to control water levels at the inlet transition of monolithic reinforced concrete drops & chutes.

A

False

238
Q

T or F
The energy dissipated by the blocks constructed along the floor of the chute is how the conventional stilling pool is utlized in the baffled apron drop.

A

False

239
Q

T or F

Cross drainage structures serve the purpose to protect canal from damage due to moss & algae.

A

False

240
Q

T or F
Relative capacity of canal with respect to drainage flows canal water surface with respect to natural ground surface dictates the need of cross drainage.

A

True

241
Q

T or F
Where the canal is carried across a natural drainage channel upon an embankement is when culverts are used for cross drainage.

A

True

242
Q

For large canals, what storm frequency is used to develop culvert size?

A

100 yr storm frequency

243
Q

T or F

The purpose that pipe collars serve in culvert construction is to prevent water hammer in the discharge line.

A

False

244
Q

What conditions dictate use of an over chute?

A

All of the above; where the water surface of the canal is below the natural ground surface, where loss in grade in the canal is not permissible, are generally found economical on large canals where cross drainage flows are small by comparison to canal flows.

245
Q

T or F

When the amount of drainage water is large by comparison to the canal is what makes drainage inlets acceptable.

A

False

246
Q

T or F
Two important factors that dictate the placement of a drainage inlet intake are the intake must be located below the max water surface elevation of the canal & at the natural ground lvl surface.

A

False

247
Q

T or F

Flow control and flow measurements are considered basic functions that a turnout must provide

A

True

248
Q

What devices are generally employed for flow control @ turnouts?

A

Slide gates, lift gates, radial steel gates

249
Q

T or F

Parshall flume & cipalletti weir are 2 measuring structures predominately used in small turnouts.

A

True

250
Q

T or F
Wasteways serve the purpose so that they are utilized to dispose of unwanted excess water from canals & to safely empty canals in case of canal break or other emergencies.

A

True

251
Q

T or F
A sudden decrease in discharge when the siphon primes is detrimental to the waste way channel & would be considered a disadvantage of siphon spillways.

A

False

252
Q

T or F

Overflow spillway without gate control is the type of wasteway construction that is generally preferred.

A

False

253
Q

T or F

Checks serve the purpose to control the flow of water in a canal when it is operating at partial capacity.

A

True

254
Q

T or F

Two general types of checks used in small canals are those utilizing fixed concrete checks & flashboards for regulation.

A

True

255
Q

T or F

Radial gate checks of the california aqueduct always employ overflow weirs.

A

False

256
Q

When conducting a sanitary survey Which of the following items would pertain to a ground water supply?

A 
Distance to sources of pollution
nature of soil
slope of ground surface
slope of water table
well construction
257
Q

T or F

The best tool which can be used for managing watersheds in most cases is the regulatory process.

A

True

4th - 6th month exams (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions