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5thClass Power Engineering Practice Test > 5th Class Power Engineering Practice Test > Flashcards

5th Class Power Engineering Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

The boilers and pressure vessel act was put into place to protect.

a. )contractors
b. )owners
c. )employeers
d. )employee
e. )the public

A

e.)the public

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2
Q

Which of the following codes have the Canadians jurisdictions adopted i reference to pressure vessel?

a. )CBT V33
b. )CBT V62
c. )CSA B51
d. )CSA B52
e. )CSA B31

A

C.)CSA B51

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3
Q

If a piping system designs is approved, a piping number is stamped on the design such as PP-455-E-03-P.The last P in this number would indicate

a. )the plant owner
b. )the type of plant
c. )the inspection district
d. )the number of the plant
e. )that the design is a pressure piping design

A

b.)the type of plant

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4
Q

The chief boiler inspectors have established _____,in which most provinces participate:

a. )codes
b. )acts
c. )regulations
d. )inspections
e. )a system of standardised exams

A

e.)a system of standardised exams

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5
Q

CSA B51 Code was produce to cover:

a. )refrigeration plants
b. )fish packing plants
c. )natural gas piping
d. )all aspects of a tower plant
e. )boilers and pressure piping

A

e.)boilers and pressure piping

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6
Q

CSA B51 Appendix E covers which of the following sections?

a. )Quality assurance programmers
b. )sample forms
c. )burial of pressure vessels
d. )guidelines for safety/relief valves
e. )inspections of wells in pressure coils

A

b.)sample forms

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7
Q

CSA B52 was produced to cover:

a. )refrigeration plants
b. )heating plants
c. )gas plants
d. )natural gas plants
e. )boiler and pressure piping

A

a.)refrigeration plants

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8
Q

Which of the following ASME Codes is used by an operator to care for an operate a low pressure boiler correctly?

a. )Section II
b. )Section IV
c. )Section VI
d. )Section IX
e. )Section XI

A

C.)Section VI

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9
Q

What is the surface area of a cylinder with a diameter of 4cm and height of 6cm? (include the areas of the ends)

a. )75.4 cm2
b. )cm2
c. )100.5cm2
d. )88.0cm2
e. )1892.5 cm2

A

c.)100.5cm2

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10
Q

What is the volume of a cylinder with a diameter of 9cm and height of 15 cm?

a. )106.0cm3
b. )3817.0cm3
c. )238.6cm3
d. )954.3cm3
e. )1590.4cm3

A

d.)954.3cm3

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11
Q

Find the surface area of a sphere with a radius of 3 m.

a. )452.2 m2
b. )28.26 m2
c. )37.68 m2
d. )7.1 m2
e. )113.1 m2

A

e.)113.1 m2

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12
Q

Which of the following equations correctly expresses the volume of a hemisphere?

a. )a) V = (4 π r3 ) / 3
b) V/2 = (4 π r3 ) / 3
c) V = (2 π r3 ) / 3
d) V = (4π r3/2 ) / 3
e) V/2 =(2/3) π r2

A

e.)V/2=(2/3)π r2

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13
Q

A pressure vessel is in the form of a cylinder with each end in the form of a hemisphere. The vessel operates at 1100 kPa. If the overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m, what is the volume of the pressure vessel?

a) 77.79 m3
b) 113.1 m3
c) 91.9 m3
d) 94.2 m3
e) 84.8 m3

A

d.)94.2 m3

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14
Q

What is the surface area of a pressure vessel in the form of a cylinder with each end in the form of a hemisphere, if the overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m?

a) 113.1 m2
b) 141.3 m2
c) 84.82 m2
d) 98.9 m2
e) 106.3 m2

A

d.) 98.9 m2

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15
Q

Which of the following statements about simple machines is false?

a) The machine receives energy by means of a single applied force
b) the machine produces work by means of a single output force
c) Work output is the product of the load and the distance moved by the load
d) Work input is greater than work output
e) The machine receives energy by means of 2 or more applied forces

A

a.)The machine receives energy by means of a single applied force

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16
Q

A massless bar is 4.6 m long with a pivot (fulcrum) 1.6 m from the right end. A 41 kg mass is placed at the left end, 3.0 m from the fulcrum. Calculate the force (in Newtons) that must be placed at the right end (1.6 m from the fulcrum) so that system is balanced.

a) 754.14 N
b) 76.88 N
c) 27.50 N
d) 123 N
e) 1206.63 N

A

a)754.14 N

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17
Q

An effort of 3 kN is required to move a mass of 2000 kg in a certain simple machine. If the mass is raised 1.5 m while the effort moves 12 m, find the velocity ratio (VR), the actual mechanical advantage (MA), and the efficiency (Eff) of the machine.

a) VR = 8, MA = 0.67, Eff = 5.3%
b) VR = 12, MA = 6.54, Eff = 54.4%
c) VR = 8, MA = 0.67, Eff = 8.3%
d) VR = 8, MA = 6.54, Eff = 81.8%
e) VR = 1.5, MA = 0.67, Eff = 44.7%

A

d) VR = 8, MA = 6.54, Eff = 81.8%

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18
Q

A block and tackle system has 3 pulleys in each of two blocks. If a downward effort of 100 N is applied and the machine has an efficiency of 83.6%, what is the maximum mass that can be moved?

a) 501.6 kg
b) 51.1 kg
c) 5113.1 kg
d) 250 kg
e) 25.6 kg

A

b)51.1 kg

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about incline planes is false?

a) A ramp is an incline plane?
b) Work input = work output + work wasted
c) A screw is an incline plane
d) Work is wasted in friction
e) No work is wasted in producing heat

A

e) No work is wasted in producing heat

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20
Q

Which of the following examples is not an example of a dynamic body?

a) a body that is accelerating
b) a body that is decelerating
c) a body that is orbiting at a constant speed around a planet
d) a body moving at a uniform velocity along a straight line
e) a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a new direction

A

e)a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a new direction

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21
Q

The rate of change of velocity is:

a) mass
b) force
c) acceleration
d) weight
e) displacement

A

c)acceleration

22
Q

Any action on a body that tends to change its size, shape or its state of motion is defined as:

a) displacement
b) acceleration
c) volume
d) force
e) mass

A

d) force

23
Q

Force acting in a direction at right angles to a surface, divided by the surface area of contact, is defined as:

a) acceleration
b) pressure
c) weight
d) surface area
e) friction

A

b)pressure

24
Q

Rate of doing work is defined as:

a) work
b) kinetic energy
c) potential energy
d) work
e) power

A

e)power

25
Q

The amount of heat to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1°C without changing the state of the substance is defined as:

a) latent heat
b) saturation temperature
c) specific heat
d) absolute zero
e) radiation

A

c) specific heat

26
Q

Which of the following statements about heat is true?

a) If there is a temperature difference between the heat source and a cooler object in contact with the source, heat will be transferred to the cooler object.
b) Heat can be transferred from cold bodies to hot bodies without using an external supply of work.
c) Specific heat is the same for every substance.
d) Specific heat capacity is the same for every state of matter of the same substance.
e) 1 J is less than 1N.m of work

A

a) If there is a temperature difference between the heat source and a cooler object in contact with the source, heat will be transferred to the cooler object.

27
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Water will only expand when its temperature is increased.
b) Liquids will not contract when their temperatures lower.
c) Coefficients of expansion for liquids change in value as the temperature changes.
d) In general coefficients of expansion of solids are greater than those of liquids.
e) Solids generally contract when their temperatures rise.

A

c) Coefficients of expansion for liquids change in value as the temperature changes.

28
Q

How much energy is required to raise 6.3 kg of ice at 0oC to saturated steam at 100oC. Specific heat capacity of water 4.2 kJ/kg K. Specific latent heat of ice 335 kJ/kg. Specific latent heat of steam 2257 kJ/kg.

a) 35490 kJ
b) 21775 kJ
c) 53107 kJ
d) 189756 kJ
e) 273097 kJ

A

c)53107 kJ

29
Q

Columns 8, 9 and 10 of Table 1 of the Steam Table deal with which type of energy?

a) internal energy
b) enthalpy
c) entropy
d) specific energy
e) potential energy

A

b) enthalpy

30
Q

If a 1 kg sample of steam has 0.2 kg of water droplets in it, then it would have:

a) an enthalpy of 98 kJ
b) an entropy of 98 kJ/K
c) a dryness fraction of 80% or 0.8
d) a wetness fraction of 80%
e) none of the above

A

c) a dryness fraction of 80% or

31
Q

In the case of a simple ice box, which of the following heat transfers is correct:

a) air loses latent heat, ice does not gain any heat
b) air loses sensible heat, ice does not gain any heat
c) air loses sensible heat, ice gains sensible heat
d) air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat
e) air loses latent heat, ice gains latent heat

A

d) air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat

32
Q

What is the function of the condenser?

a) to vaporise the liquid refrigerant
b) to change high pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid
c) to pressurise low pressure refrigerant vapour
d) to vent off vaporised refrigerant
e) to lower the liquid refrigerant pressure

A

b) to change high pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid

33
Q

Which of the following statements about high-side pressure and temperature is true?

a) the heat flow is from the cooling medium to the hot refrigerant.
b) the condensing temperature of the vapour is 15° - 20°C higher than the temperature of the medium used in the condenser.
c) the condensation temperature of the refrigerant will be lower if the pressure of the vaporised refrigerant is lowered.
d) the condenser functions by taking latent heat from the surrounding air and adding it as sensible heat to the refrigerant.
e) none of the above

A

b) the condensing temperature of the vapour is 15° - 20°C higher than the temperature of the medium used in the condenser.

34
Q

Which of the following materials would be classified as a Class B fire:

a) wood
b) paper
c) sodium
d) television
e) gasoline

A

e) gasoline

35
Q

Which of the following materials would be used to best put out a Class A fire?

a) water
b) sand
c) carbon dioxide
d) dry powder
e) haleen

A

a) water

36
Q

Extinguishers used for a Class C fire are identified by a circle containing the letter ‘C’ with a background colour of:

a) red
b) blue
c) green
d) yellow
e) orange

A

b)blue

37
Q

The extinguisher shells used on foam fire extinguishers must be hydrostatically tested every:

a) year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 7 years
e) 12 years

A

c) 5 years

38
Q

An automatic sprinkler that has a red liquid in its bulb is rated for:

a) 38°C
b) 65°C
c) 92°C
d) 107°C
e) 148°C

A

e) 148°C

39
Q

Which of the following is NOT the operator’s responsibility for safety?

a) inspect the building for safety hazards
b) investigate all accidents
c) train and educate building occupants
d) maintain a safe building
e) hold ultimate responsibility for the performance of the public fire fighting system in an emergency

A

e) hold ultimate responsibility for the performance of the public fire fighting system in an emergency

40
Q

When using a ladder, it should be placed at a safe working angle by having its base ______ of its length from the vertical surface.

a) one-eight
b) one-third
c) one-quarter
d) one-half
e) one-sixth

A

c) one-quarter

41
Q

If an elevator with passengers is stuck between floors, the operator should:

a) contact the owner
b) job the elevator to the nearest floor
c) use the emergency procedures to remove the passengers
d) call the service repair company
e) remove the passengers through the escape hatch in the ceiling of the elevator.

A

d) call the service repair company

42
Q

If a person stops breathing, the brain may be permanently damaged if it is deprived of oxygen for more than:

a) 0 - 2 minutes
b) 2 - 4 minutes
c) 4 - 6 minutes
d) 6 - 8 minutes
e) 8 - 10 minutes

A

c) 4 - 6 minutes

43
Q

Which of the following symptoms is NOT a sign of shock?

a) bleeding
b) cold and clammy skin
c) changes in level of consciousness
d) nausea and vomiting
e) thirst

A

a) bleeding

44
Q

Which of the following can be termed a confined space?

a) backyard
b) home
c) soccer field
d) playground
e) public park

A

b) home

45
Q

In a confined space, the O2 by volume level should not go below:

a) 40%
b) 35%
c) 30%
d) 25%
e) 20%

A

e) 20%

46
Q

Before entering a confined space, the final step would be to:

a) have a safety person at the entrance
b) check the O2 volume level
c) issue a safe work agreement
d) test the area for toxic gases
e) check the structure for safety

A

b) check the O2 volume level

47
Q

Pan-Canadian law means jurisdiction:

a) in all areas of the country except municipalities
b) in off-shore areas only
c) in all provinces and territories
d) over federal areas only
e) in foreign countries

A

c) in all provinces and territories

48
Q

The final component of the WHMIS system is:

a) the supplier label
b) an MSDS
c) a workplace label
d) employee training
e) a decanting procedure

A

d) employee training

49
Q

A Class ‘A’ product would be:

a) a liquid with a flash point of less then 37.8 degrees C
b) a solid that ignites readily and burns with a self-sustaining flame
c) a product that is normally a gas below 50 degrees C
d) any dangerous goods Classed as 4.1 under IDG Regulations
e) dibenzoyl peroxide

A

c) a product that is normally a gas below 50 degrees C

50
Q

Infectious material is a controlled product of Class:

a) B
b) A
c) C
d) F
e) D

A

e) D

51
Q

Relative to graphics, a supplier label must:

a) be square
b) be proportional to the graphics
c) show the graphics in colour
d) have the graphics covering at least 60% of the label
e) be in landscape format

A

b) be proportional to the graphics

52
Q

The first indicator of a products hazard is the:

a) MSDS
b) workplace label
c) colour of the container
d) supplier label
e) supplier identifier

A

d) supplier label

5thClass Power Engineering Practice Test (3 decks)

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