Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

5th 6th month final > 5th 6th month final > Flashcards

5th 6th month final Flashcards

1
Q

Acid rain is formed by the evaporation of acid waters from mine drainage.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the link between water demands and pumping costs is a driving force behind water conservation programs

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

both plant life and animal life depend on water for survival

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sources of contamination include

A

intrusion of seawater
mineral residue from irrigation
acid rain
tce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sources of groundwater contamination include

A

human activities
intrusion of seawater
seepage from septic tanks and leaching systems
agricultural drainage systems
sanitary landfills and dumps
surface runoff into poorly constructed wells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tress basic types of water rights

A

riparian
appropriative
prescriptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

surface water supplies may be divided into which of the following classes

A

lakes
reservoirs
rivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

diseases that may spread through a water supply

A

dysentery
giardiasis
typhoid fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

clear water is safe drinking water

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

running water purifies itself

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

some cities draw drinking water from a stream or river into which the treated wastewater from upstream cites has been discharged

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

lake and reservoirs are susceptible to algal blooms when

A

temperature is right

enough nutrients are in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the general water quality characteristics of surface water supplies

A

suspended solids

turbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

before selecting a location and constructing a water supply intake in a river or stream, careful consideration must be given to

A

the stream bottom
degree of stream scour
the settling out of silt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the process by which water vapor is released to the atmosphere by living plants

A

transpiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

typical use of reclaimed water

A

food crop and nonfood crop irrigation
landscape irrigation industrial reuse
landscape impoundments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

laboratories are able to adequately detect all potentially toxic chemicals

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when conducting a sanitary survey, which of the following items would pertain to a ground water supply

A

distance of local sources of pollution
nature of soil
slope of water table ground surface
well construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when conducting a sanitary survey, which of the following items would pertain to a water supply in a lake

A 
safe yield 
algae growth potential
detention time
protective measures according to the use of the watershed
drift of pollution
wind direction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

items requiring protective measures in watershed that serve as the source of a water supply include control of

A 
disposal of brines
fishing
swimming
ice cutting
sanitary landfills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

precipitation is high in bacteria count

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

agents which alter the quality of water as it moves over or below the surface of the earth may be classified under four headings

A

physical
chemical
biological
radiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the amber color in water could indicate the presence of

A

acid waters from mine drainage

humic substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

turbidity can be characterized as

A

suspended material
finely divided organic material
plankton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

color in water is mainly objectionable from the standpiont of health

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most individuals find that water having a temp between _____ is most pleasing

A

50–60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

specific disease producing organisms present in water are not easily isolated and identified

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a public water system is

A

has at least 15 service connections which are used at least 60 days out of the year

serve an average of at least 25 people at least 60 days out of the year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

in the operation of water treatment plants, three basic objectives are

A

production of safe drinking water

production of aesthetically pleasing drinking water

production or drinking water at a reasonable cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

when referring to a clock
under generation = ____
over generation = _____

A

slow time error

fast time error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

all load can be divided into two types

A

non motor load ( non spinning load)

motor load ( spinning load)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

according to the load/frequency relationship, a 1% change in frequency will lead to what approx. magnitude of load change in a typical 10000mw system

A

9800mw (2% change in total)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

if the voltage falls enough it will cause the motor to speed up

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

electric generators use ___ to control shaft speed

A

governor control systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

list three types of utility generators that use governor control systems

A

hydro turbines
combustion turbines
steam turbines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

_____ is common on older generating unit

A

centrifugal ballhead governors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

a governor with 0% speed droop is called ____

A

isochronous control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

steam turbine generators typically have better response than hydro-electric generatos

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the north american power system is divided into areas called interconnections

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is not a control mode for agc operation

A

isochronous control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

a control areas frequency bias setting is equal to

A

the control areas frequency response characteristics
the natural response of the control area
the agc system bias value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

a control area has a bias of -150mw . frequency falls to .5hz due to an external disturbance. how many mw will the control area provide towards the disturbance

A

+150mw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

if the system frequency ran at 60.02hz for 2hrs, how much positive time error would occur

A

2.4 seconds. 1.2 seconds per hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what element of power system is typically most susceptibe to damage from prolonged operation at frequencies above or below 60hz

A

the long blades of low pressure steam turbines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

in which stage of a generators response to a system disturbance is the powerflow supported primarily by the generators excitation system

A

the electromagnetic energy state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

complex power is a vectorial difference

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

a transmission line is rated at 1000mva. the power flow is 0mw and 1001mvar. is the line overloaded

A

yes

mva = √(〖0MW)〗^2+(〖1001MVAR)〗^2=1001MVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A distribution line is rated at 50MVA. The line’s power flow is 50MW and -50MVAR. The distribution line is overloaded.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The Greek letter Theta with no subscript Θ is used to represent:

A

phase angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The larger the power angle (up to approx. 90°) the larger the active power flow between two points.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

. A synchroscope is used to compare what three things:

A
  1. Frequency
  2. Phase
  3. Magnitude
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Three factors affecting active power flow:

A
  1. Power angle
  2. Voltage magnitude
  3. Path impedance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A phase shifting transformer’s primary function:

A

b) Adjust system active power flows.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

. MVAR flow is influenced more by system and torque angles than by reactive power

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

At what line power angle does MW transfer across a transmission path equal ½ of the path’s PMAX ?

A

c) Power angle of 30 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

. Max continuous active power transfer between two buses:

A

d) Power angle of 90 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Maximum MVAR flow occurs at an angle:

A

e) Power angle of 180 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Thermal limits are the direct result of:

A

a) The thermal capability of power system equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Angle stability limits are the result of:

A

b) High power and torque angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The TTC (Total Transfer Capability) has been determined to be 1000MW from east to west. 500MW is sold of the TTC. What is the ATC (Available Transfer Capability)?

A

c) 500MW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

100MW total flow and path A-B has 10% distribution factor (figure 3-27). How many MW is the distribution factor:

A

d) 20MW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. Methods of managing lakes and reservoirs used for domestic water supplies vary widely depending on:
A

a) Local situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. The amount and type of public use allowed on reservoirs has been standardized by laws and regulations:
A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. Many of the conditions which adversely affect water quality in domestic water supply reservoirs result from overuse of the environment
A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The impact of our activities within a given reservoir’s drainage area affects the water quality by:

A

a) Agricultural run off
b) Grazing of livestock
c) Drainage from mining areas
d) Run off from urban areas
e) Logging operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

a) Nutrients act as a ___ in a lake.

A

a) Fertilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

b) Reservoirs and lakes that are rich in nutrients and thus very productive in terms of aquatic animal and plant life:

A

b) Eutrophic

68
Q

Common water quality problems in domestic water supply reservoirs:

A

a) Taste and odor problems
b) Shortened filter runs increased PH
c) Dissolved oxygen depletion
d) Organic loading

69
Q

Objectionable tastes and odors in the domestic water supply are often related to algal blooms.

A

True

70
Q

Chlorination can either reduce or increase the taste and odor in the water supply.

A

True

71
Q

. Many conventional water treatment plants are capable of reducing or eliminating tastes and odors when properly operated

A

True

72
Q

Overturn in water supply reservoirs can cause:

A

a) Algal blooms
b) Plankton
c) Hydrogen sulfide

73
Q

Algae can die of oxygen starvation

A

True

74
Q

Fish kills can result from algae clogging the gills of fish.

A

True

75
Q

The organic loading resulting from algal blooms is often associated with high trihalomethane levels following free residual chlorination

A

True

76
Q

In a monolithic lake, the water temperature during winter months is uniform from top to bottom.

A

True

77
Q

Mixing occurs between the epilimnion and hypolimnion zones in thermally stratified lakes.

A

False

78
Q

Anaerobic conditions in the hypolimnion of a reservoir can cause:

A

a) Fish kills
b) Iron and manganese problems
c) Rotten egg odors

79
Q

. Purpose of reservoir management programs:

A

a) Improvement and maintenance of fishery, recreational and property values
b) Reduction of water treatment costs
c) Control frequency and intensity of algal blooms
d) Control dissolved oxygen depletion

80
Q

Proper lake management can increase recreational values of a reservoir by:

A

a) Controlling man’s activity on the water shed
b) Reduce large mats of algae
c) Reduce scums of algae
d) Remove vegetation before flooding

81
Q

trees and brushes should be removed from areas to be flooded by reservoirs to reduce the:

A

a) Nutrient loading

b) Organic loading

82
Q

once vegetation is accomplished regrowth must be controlled by mechanical means until the reservoir is filled.

A

True

83
Q

. Factors affecting watershed management programs:

A

a) Size
b) Topography
c) Vegetative conditions
d) Water quality problems

84
Q

In most cases, the best tool for managing watershed is probably the regulatory process.

A

True

85
Q

Watershed practices that can affect water quality in a water quality supply reservoir:

A

a) Septic tank leeching systems
b) Fertilization practices
c) Oil and gas explorations
d) Livestock grazing

86
Q

Destratification always increases the number of algal bloom in reservoirs.

A

False

87
Q

important water quality indicators that should be considered in a lake destratification program include:

A

a) Dissolved oxygen

b) Temperature

88
Q

With complete destratification, temperatures in a reservoir will be nearly uniform from top to bottom.

A

True

89
Q

Through proper design and operation, destratification systems can be used to adjust temperatures as well as dissolved oxygen levels

A

True

90
Q

The small system operator must be able to manage a water supply as well as a large system operator

A

True

91
Q

Water quality lab analysis which may be best performed by commercial labs include:

A

a) Trihalomethanes
b) Radio activity
c) Pesticides
d) Temperature

92
Q

Records are very valuable only when they are completed and filed by lab personnel.

A

False

93
Q

Intake facilities should be constructed in such a manner that they prevent:

A

a) Algal scums

b) Fish

94
Q

The single level intake is usually located in the deepest portion of the stream or reservoir so that water service can still be provided even when the body of water is down to its minimum operating level

A

True

95
Q

Anaerobic water entering the inlet may contain high concentrations of:

A

a) Iron
b) Manganese
c) Hydrogen sulfide

96
Q

Various types of screens include:

A

a) Vee wire
b) Woven wire
c) Slotted plates

97
Q

Techniques for cleaning screens:

A

a) Bristle brushes
b) High pressure water spray
c) Reverse flow

98
Q

What are the two types of power produced by system generators

A

active power and reactive power

99
Q

Given a purely inductive load, what can be said about the MVA this load draws from the power system

A

draws only MVAR

100
Q

Name 4 common causes of low voltage

A

heavy power transfers
transmission line outages
reactive equipment outages
failure to get ahead of the voltage

101
Q

a 345kv transmission line operates at various voltage levels throughoutthe day. at what voltage level will the transmission line produce more reactive power

A

360kv

102
Q

A transmission lines ____ is the MW loading at which the Mvar from the line’s natural capacitance is equal to the mvar the line needs to suppor its voltage

A

surge impedance loading

103
Q

Generators are the primary means of controlling power system voltages

A

true

104
Q

what is the mavr production of a 50mvar shunt capacitor that is energized at 90% of its nominal voltage

A

mvar output = 50mvar * (.90 rated votage)squared

40.5 mvar

105
Q

Excessively high voltages on the power system are less dangerous then low voltages

A

false

106
Q

three general time frames for overvoltage

A

long term overvoltage
short term overvoltage
transient over voltage

107
Q

The sudden loss of a major load can lead to short term excessive generator production of active and reactive power

A

true

108
Q

a 5% change in voltage will lead to what change in total load magnitude

A

3%

109
Q

Transformers are very susceptible to damage from sustained _____ hig voltages

A

high

110
Q

a transformer can be overexcited if exposed to

A

high voltages

low frequency

111
Q

A transmission line has 50ohms of inductive reactance. 25ohms of capacitive reactance is inserted. what is the line’s series compensation

A

[((50Ω-25Ω))/50Ω ]×100=50%

112
Q

what is the approximate mvar/mile production for a 345kv overhead line

A

3/4mvar per mile

113
Q

what is the approximate mvar/mile production for a 500kv overhead line

A

2mvar per mile

114
Q

a generator with spare mvar is always a source of dynamic reactive reserve

A

false

115
Q

how are dams classified

A

according to their use, hydraulic design or the materials in which they are constructed

116
Q

what is the purpose of a detention dam

A

to retard flood run off and minimize the effect of sudden floods

117
Q

what is the membrane of a rock filled dame made of

A

upstream facing of impervious soil, a concrete slab, asphaltic concrete paving, steel plates, other impervious elements or interior thin core of impervious soil

118
Q

why is a timber dam not economical for construction

A

the amount of labor involved along with the short life of the structure makes it uneconomical for modern construction

119
Q

The investigation for a potential dam site primarily consists of three stages or areas of study, what are they

A

appraisal, feasibility and design investigations.

120
Q

what is the primary criteria for rip-rap

A

quality and size

121
Q

why is it important to have an effective reservoir geologic map

A

for planning and conducting investigations

122
Q

in construction of foundation and earth work for dams, why are the physical properties of soil important

A

of primary importance are the physical properties of soil such as unity weight, permeability, shear strength, compressibility, and the soil’s interaction with water.

123
Q

in field classification, if the soil is gravel it can be identified as clean or dirty, what does dirty mean

A

containing an appreciable amount of fines

124
Q

what are the mechanisms that develop soil deposits on the surface of soils

A

water, ice and wind action for transported soils; mechanical-chemical action of weathering for residual soils.

125
Q

what are the non accessible exploration methods for subsurface materials

A

auger, rotary and core drilling

126
Q

why is the earthfill dam the most common type of dam

A

its construction involves using material in their natural state with little processing

127
Q

what is the purpose of grouting a dam foundation

A

grouting acts as a binder and fills in the voids in the foundation

128
Q

what is the purpose of toe drains

A

to collect seepage discharging from the embankment and foundation of a dam and discharge it at an elevation below the dam

129
Q

what are the methods of treating silt and clay foundations based on

A

soil type, location of water table, and the density of the soil

130
Q

in reference to dams, what does the term freeboard mean

A

the vertical distance between the crest of the embankment and the reservoir water surface

131
Q

what type of rock should be used for rip rap

A

metamorphic, igneous, limestone and sandstone.

132
Q

what are the three conditions that must occur before a rock fill dam can prove to be exonomical

A

large quantities of rock are readily available, earthfill materials are difficult to obtain and short construction seasons prevail

133
Q

does uplift pressures and erosion caused by seepage through rockfill dam generally cause problems

A

no

134
Q

name three materials that are used as impervious material in rockfill dam

A

earth materials, concrete , steel, asphaltic concrete and wood

135
Q

name two advantages of using an internal membrane in a rockfill dam

A

less total area exposed to water and protection from the effects of weathering and external damage

136
Q

what type of foundation requirements are the most desirable for a rockfill dam

A

bedrock foundations that are hard and erosion resistant

137
Q

how are outlet works classified

A

purpose, physical and structural arrangement and their hydraulic operation

138
Q

why is the outlet works position in relation to the reservoir storage level so important

A

in order to obtain required discharge capacity, the outlet must be placed sufficiently below the minimum reservoir operating level to provide the head required for outlet works flow

139
Q

if a trash rack is accessible for cleaning, what can the ft/sec be through the trashrack

A

5ft/sec

140
Q

what is the formula to calculate flow

A

q=cdl square root 2gh

141
Q

what is the most accepted shape for earthen canals

A

trapezoidal in shape

142
Q

what range of permissible velocities is considered for sizing of a canal water section

A

1.5 feet per second for smaller laterals and 3fps for the larger canals

143
Q

why are steel flumes seldom used today

A

costly maintenance

144
Q

where are concrete bench flumes most commonly used

A

mostly on difficult steep sidehill terrain

145
Q

what shape of flumes gives the maximum velocity for a given area

A

one which has a bottom width of twice the water depth

146
Q

what are the most common types of construction for siphon services

A

buried precast concrete pipe, monolithic concrete pipe, and overhead or elevated steel pipe on concrete piers

147
Q

why is concrete pipe predominately used for canal siphons

A

hydrostatic heads encountered are generally less than 150ft bridges supporting canal sections across drainage channels, over highways and railroads are generally more expensive. sizes from 12 to 96 inches are available for most localities

148
Q

when is monolithic construction generally considered

A

for siphons larger than 96 inches in diameter

149
Q

what essential design features, in additions to the pipe itself must be considered for inverted siphons

A

inlet and outlet transitions, blow off structures

150
Q

what purpose do the inlet and outlet transition serve

A

allow appreciable change in velocities to occur at inlet and outlet of the siphon. minimizes head losses and erosion damage

151
Q

name three types of blow off structures

A

pump type, gravity type, and pressure turnout type

152
Q

when feasible where should blow offs be located

A

low points of siphon where water is drained inot natural drainage channels.

153
Q

what is the purpose of a chute (drop)

A

to convey water over relatively steep slopes in order to lower the water surface in canals

154
Q

what purpose do the controlled notch of stoplogs serve in the inlet transitions of drops and chutes

A

to prevent drawdown velocities at the entrance of the chute that would result in erosion of the canal banks

155
Q

what is the preferred shape of a monolithic reinforced concrete chute

A

rectangular

156
Q

besides stoplogs, what device are used to control water levels at the inlet transition of monolithic reinforced concrete drops and chutes

A

a series of notch controls or a check structure

157
Q

what purpose do cross drain structures serve

A

to protect canals and laterals from damage from storm waters

158
Q

when are culverts used for cross drainage

A

where the canal is carried across the drainage channel upon an embankment

159
Q

for large canals, what storm frequency is used to develop culvert size

A

100 year storm frequency

160
Q

what purpose do pipe collars serve in culvert construction

A

to prevent seepage from the canal from piping along the top of the culvert and causing the canal bank to fail. also to prevent burrowing animals from making tunnels along the culvert

161
Q

what is the purpose of an overchute

A

it is an elevated flume for carrying drainage water over canals

162
Q

what basic functions must a turnout provide

A

flow control and flow measurement

163
Q

what devices are generally employed for flow control at turnouts

A

vertical lift cast iron gates are usually used for the control gates for pipe turnouts and radial steel gates are used for larger turnouts

164
Q

what two measuring structures are predominately used in small turnouts

A

the parshall flume and weir and the ciplletti weir

165
Q

what purpose do checks serve

A

to control the water level in the canal and to maintain proper levels to make turnout deliveries

166
Q

describe two general types of checks used in small canals

A

flashboards for regulation and combination of flashboard and gates for regulation

167
Q

do radial gates checks of the California aqueduct employ overflow wirs? why?

A

no. controlled volume concept of aqueduct operations requires total regulation of water flows through known openings that cannot be achieved utilizing overflow weirs

5th 6th month final (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions