5_Market Equilibrium and the Perfect Competition Model Flashcards

Study MBA 511 Module 7 - Perfect Competition

1
Q

State the assumptions underlying the concept of perfect competition.

A
  1. Large number of buyers and sellers
  2. Standardized product
  3. Producers are price takers
  4. Easy entry and exit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___ is the difference between the total amount that consumers are willing and able to pay for a good or service and the total amount that they actually do pay; the area under the demand curve down to the horizontal line corresponding to the
price being charged.

A

Consumer surplus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

___ is the difference between how much of a good the producer is willing to supply versus how much he receives in the trade; the benefit the producer receives for selling the good in the market.

A

Producer surplus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

___ is a situation in which nothing can be improved without something else being hurt; implies an economic state in which every resource is optimally allocated to serve each individual or entity in the best way while minimizing waste and inefficiency.

A

Economic efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___ is an idealistic market structure which has four characteristics: (1) large number of buyers, (2) large number of sellers, (3) perfect information about the market, (4) unrestricted entry and exit in the long-run.

A

Perfect competition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___ is the gap between total revenue and total cost; the point on a cost curve where marginal cost and marginal revenue intersect.

A

Profit

P=MR=MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Assuming perfect competition, profit in the short-run is ___.

A

Good

Positive economic profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Assuming perfect competition, loss in the short-run is ___.

A

Bad

Negative economic profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If a firm is incurring an economic loss that it believes is temporary, it will ___.

A

Produce at a loss or temporarily shut down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

___ is a cost that has already been committed and cannot be recovered; irrelevant to decision making must be paid whether it produces or shuts down.
I.e., total fixed costs

A

Sunk cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___ is the output at the level where price and average variable costs are equal.

A

Shutdown quantity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___ is the price at which a firm shuts down.

A

Shutdown price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Assuming perfect competition, in the short-run, the supply curve of a firm is ___.

A

Upward sloping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Assuming perfect competition, in the short-run, the supply curve of the market is ___.

A

Horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Assuming perfect competition, in the ___-run, firms are allowed to enter or exit a market.

A

Long-run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Assuming perfect competition, in the ___-run, firms are not allowed to enter or exit a market.

A

Short-run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Assuming perfect competition, if existing firms earn a positive economic profit, new firms enter the market, market supply shifts ___ and price ___.

A

Shifts RIGHT

Price DECREASES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Assuming perfect competition, if existing firms earn a negative economic profit, new firms enter the market, market supply shifts ___ and price ___.

A

Shifts LEFT

Price INCREASES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

___ is revenue minus all costs, including implicit costs like opportunity costs.

A

Economic profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

___ reflects the behavior of buyers in a market while ___ reflects how much a consumer is willing and able to purchase at a given price.

A

Demand

Qd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

___ is reflected by a movement along a demand curve while ___ is a shift in the demand curve.

A

ΔQd

ΔDemand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

___ reflects the behavior of sellers in a market while ___ reflects how much a seller is willing and able to sell at a given price.

A

Supply

Qs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

___ is reflected by a movement along a supply curve while ___ is a shift in the supply curve.

A

ΔQs

ΔSupply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

___ occurs when the Qd equals the Qs; where equilibrium price equals the equilibrium quantity.

A

Market equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

___ occurs when demand is higher than supply.

A

Shortage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

___ occurs when demand is lower than supply.

A

Surplus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

___ is the division of the burden of a tax between the buyer and the seller.

A

Tax incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

___ is the deadweight loss caused by a tax.

A

Excess burden of tax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

___ is when the tax revenue and the deadweight loss are equal.

A

Burden of tax

30
Q

For a given elasticity of supply, the buyer pays a larger share of the tax, the more ___ is the demand for the good.

A

Inelastic

31
Q

For a given elasticity of demand, the seller pays a larger share of the tax, the more ___ is the supply of the good.

A

Inelastic

32
Q

Excess deadweight loss is (larger/smaller), the more inelastic is demand or supply.

A

Smaller

33
Q

Perfectly Inelastic Demand: ___ Pays the whole tax and Efficient

A

Buyer

34
Q

Perfectly Elastic Demand: ___ Pays the whole tax and Inefficient

A

Seller

35
Q

Perfectly Inelastic Supply: ___ Pays the whole tax and Efficient

A

Seller

36
Q

Perfectly Elastic Supply: ___ Pays the whole tax and Inefficient

A

Buyer

37
Q

A ___ or price cap is a government regulation that places an upper limit on the price at which a particular good, service, or factor of production may be traded.

A

Price ceiling

38
Q

If a price ceiling set below market equilibrium, there would be also be a ___; inefficient ceiling.

A

DEADWEIGHT LOSS because of the shortage

39
Q

A ___ is a government regulation that places a lower limit on the price at which a particular good, service, or factor of production may be traded.

A

Price floor

40
Q

If a price floor set below market equilibrium, there would be also be ___; inefficient ceiling.

A

No effect

41
Q

If a price floor set above the market equilibrium level, it is ___.

A

Inefficient

42
Q

A ___ is a price floor in an agricultural market maintained by a government guarantee to buy any surplus output at that price.
I.e., the government buys a surplus when a price floor is below the equilibrium price.

A

Price support

43
Q

A ___ is a payment by the government to a producer to cover part of the cost of production.
I.e., when the government buys a surplus produced by farmers.

A

Subsidy

44
Q

If a price support set below market equilibrium, there would be also be ___; inefficient ceiling.

A

No effect

45
Q

A ___ assumes that even in a monopoly or oligopoly, the existing companies will behave competitively when there is a lack of barriers, such as government regulation and high entry costs, to prevent new companies from entering the market.

A

Contestable market

46
Q

A __ occurs when a company offers a relatively low price to stimulate demand and gain market share.

A

Cost strategy

47
Q

___ is a steady pursuit of new product variants that will be prized by the consumer with the intent of extending the opportunity for an above-normal profit; important to commit early in differentiation.

A

Product differentiation strategy

48
Q

The ___ model allows for some differentiation in a product and the opportunity to charge a higher price because buyers are willing to pay a premium.

A

Monopolistic competition model

49
Q

A ___ endeavors to take advantage of market segmentation.

I.e., focus a strategy geared towards one segment of the market or another.

A

Focus strategy

50
Q

___ assumes a competitive advantage by having the lowest cost of operation in the industry and is driven by company efficiency, size, scale, scope and cumulative experience (learning curve).

A

Cost leadership strategy

51
Q

If a producer is not able to expand its plant capacity immediately, it is

a. bankrupt.
b. operating in the long run.
c. operating in the short run.
d. losing money.

A

c. operating in the short run.

52
Q

Assume the market for organically-grown produce is perfectly competitive. All else equal, as farmers find it less profitable to produce and sell organic produce in this market

a. the supply curve will shift to the right, the demand curve will shift to the left, and the equilibrium price will decrease.
b. the supply curve will shift to the left, the demand curve will shift to the left, and the equilibrium price will increase.
c. the demand curve will shift to the left and the equilibrium price will decrease.
d. the supply curve will shift to the left and the equilibrium price will increase.

A

d. the supply curve will shift to the left and the equilibrium price will increase.

53
Q

Assume that both the demand curve and the supply curve for MP3 players shift to the right but the demand curve shifts more than the supply curve. As a result

a. the equilibrium price of MP3 players will decrease; the equilibrium quantity may increase or decrease.
b. the equilibrium price of MP3 players may increase or decrease; the equilibrium quantity will increase.
c. the equilibrium price of MP3 players will increase; the equilibrium quantity may increase or decrease.
d. both the equilibrium price and quantity of MP3 players will increase.

A

d. both the equilibrium price and quantity of MP3 players will increase.

54
Q

Which of the following would cause an increase in the equilibrium price and an increase in the equilibrium quantity of watermelons?

Select one:

a. an increase in supply and an increase in demand greater than the increase in supply
b. an increase in supply
c. a decrease in demand and an increase in supply
d. an increase in demand and an increase in supply

A

a. an increase in supply and an increase in demand greater than the increase in supply

55
Q

A monopolistically competitive firm will

Select one:

a. charge the same price as its competitors do.
b. always produce at the minimum efficient scale of production.
c. have some control over its price because its product is differentiated.
d. produce an output level that is productively and allocatively efficient.

A

c. have some control over its price because its product is differentiated.

56
Q

An increase in input costs in the production of electric automobiles caused the price of electric automobiles to rise. Holding everything else constant, how would this affect the market for gasoline-powered automobiles (a substitute for electric automobiles)?

a. The demand for gasoline-powered automobiles would increase and the equilibrium price of gasoline-powered automobiles would increase.
b. The demand for gasoline-powered automobiles would decrease because consumers could afford to buy fewer gasoline-powered automobiles.
c. The demand for gasoline-powered automobiles would increase and the equilibrium price of gasoline-powered automobiles would decrease.
d. The supply of gasoline-powered automobiles would increase and the equilibrium price of gasoline-powered automobiles would decrease.

A

a. The demand for gasoline-powered automobiles would increase and the equilibrium price of gasoline-powered automobiles would increase.

Why?

57
Q

A perfectly competitive firm produces 3,000 units of a good at a total cost of $36,000. The fixed cost of production is $20,000. The price of each good is $10. Should the firm continue to produce in the short run?

a. No, it should shut down because it is making a loss.
b. Yes, it should continue to produce because it is minimizing its loss.
c. There is insufficient information to answer the question.
d. Yes, it should continue to produce because its price exceeds its average fixed cost.

A

b. Yes, it should continue to produce because it is minimizing its loss.

Why?

58
Q

Max Shreck, an accountant, quit his $80,000-a-year job and bought an existing tattoo parlor from its previous owner, Sylvia Sidney. The lease has five years remaining and requires a monthly payment of $4,000. Max’s explicit cost amounts to $3,000 per month more than his revenue. Should Max continue operating his business?

a. Max should continue to run the tattoo parlor until his lease runs out.
b. If Max’s marginal revenue is greater than or equal to his marginal cost, then he should stay in business.
c. This cannot be determined without information on his revenue.
d. Max’s explicit cost exceeds his total revenue. He should shut down his tattoo parlor.

A

a. Max should continue to run the tattoo parlor until his lease runs out.

Why?

59
Q

A perfectly competitive firm’s short-run supply curve is

a. perfectly elastic at the market price.
b. horizontal at the minimum average total cost.
c. upward sloping and is the portion of the marginal cost curve that lies above the average variable cost curve.
d. upward sloping and is the portion of the marginal cost curve that lies above the average total cost curve.

A

c. upward sloping and is the portion of the marginal cost curve that lies above the average variable cost curve.

Why?

60
Q

If a typical firm in a perfectly competitive industry is earning profits, then

a. new firms will enter in the long run causing market supply to decrease, market price to rise and profits to increase.
b. the number of firms in the industry will remain constant in the long run.
c. all firms will continue to earn profits.
d. new firms will enter in the long run causing market supply to increase, market price to fall and profits to decrease.

A

d. new firms will enter in the long run causing market supply to increase, market price to fall and profits to decrease.

Why?

61
Q

A perfectly competitive wheat farmer in a constant-cost industry produces 3,000 bushels of wheat at a total cost of $36,000. The prevailing market price is $15. What will happen to the market price of wheat in the long run?

a. The price rises above $15.
b. The price falls to $12.
c. The price remains constant at $15.
d. There is insufficient information to answer the question.

A

b. The price falls to $12.

36,000 / 3,000 = $12

62
Q

The reason that the coffeehouse market is monopolistically competitive rather than perfectly competitive is because

a. barriers to entry are very low.
b. entry into the market is blocked.
c. products are differentiated.
d. there are many firms in the market.

A

c. products are differentiated.

Why?

63
Q

Economists have long debated whether there is a significant loss of well-being to society in markets that are monopolistically competitive rather than perfectly competitive. Which of the following offers the best reason why some economists believe that monopolistically competitive markets benefit consumers despite any loss of well-being?

a. Although consumers may pay a price greater than marginal cost and the product is not produced at minimum average total cost, they benefit from being able to buy a differentiated product more closely suited to their tastes.
b. Although consumers may pay a price greater than marginal cost for a product, the product is produced at the minimum average total cost.
c. Consumers pay a price equal to the marginal cost of producing a product, even though it is not produced at the minimum average total cost.
d. Consumers are better off choosing from a variety of differentiated products, even though product differentiation causes barriers that restrict entry into monopolistically competitive markets.

A

a. Although consumers may pay a price greater than marginal cost and the product is not produced at minimum average total cost, they benefit from being able to buy a differentiated product more closely suited to their tastes.

Why?

64
Q

When a credit card company offers different services with its card, like travel insurance for air travel tickets purchased with the credit card or product insurance for items purchased with the card, the credit card company is trying to

a. shift the demand curve for competing firms to the right.
b. convince customers that its card has greater value than those offered by rival firms.
c. create a barrier to entry for competing firms.
d. create a perfectly competitive market in which to sell its credit card.

A

b. convince customers that its card has greater value than those offered by rival firms.

Why?

65
Q

Juicy Couture has been successful in selling women’s clothing using an unusual strategy.

According to an article in the Wall Street Journal, the key to the firm’s strategy is to “limit distribution to maintain the brand’s exclusive cachet, even if that means sacrificing sales, a brand-management technique once used only for high-end luxury brands.” In 2006, Juicy clothes were sold in only four department stores: Neiman Marcus, Saks, Bloomingdale’s, and Nordstrom. In 2006, its sales have more than quadrupled since 2002.

Source: Rachel Dodes, “From Track Suits to Fast Track,” Wall Street Journal, September 13, 2006.

How does limiting the number of stores in which Juicy’s products are sold contribute to its success?

a. By sacrificing sales, the company was able to focus on producing high quality products.
b. It helps establish Juicy’s products as luxury items favored by the very wealthy.
c. Maintaining the exclusivity of a product increases the demand for the product.
d. It enables Juicy to price its products at a premium and differentiate them from lower priced products.

A

d. It enables Juicy to price its products at a premium and differentiate them from lower priced products.

66
Q

Which of the following statements is true about advertising by a monopolistically competitive firm?

a. Advertising will be more beneficial if a monopolistic competitor colludes with other firms to advertise the products of the industry as a whole rather than an individual firm’s product.
b. Advertising could make the monopolistic competitor’s demand more inelastic, but advertising has no effect on a perfect competitor’s demand.
c. Since the monopolistic competitor, like the perfect competitor, makes zero profit in the long run, it is a waste of resources to advertise its products.
d. Monopolistically competitive firms tend to shun advertising because advertising draws attention to the variety of differentiated products available in the industry.

A

b. Advertising could make the monopolistic competitor’s demand more inelastic, but advertising has no effect on a perfect competitor’s demand.

67
Q

One of your classmates asserts that advertising, marketing research, and brand management are redundant expenditures because a firm can obtain the same information by simply looking at what customers are already buying. Which of the following is not a response you might offer her?

a. Marketing research could allow a firm to identify new market opportunities and at least, in the short run, a firm can make a profit supplying products to this market segment.
b. Advertising and brand management allow a firm to create an entry barrier which will insulate the firm from competition and from undertaking further product innovations.
c. Conducting market research is a good way for firms to keep abreast of changing consumer tastes and preferences.
d. If a firm successfully manages its brand, customers become less price sensitive as they perceive fewer substitutes for the firm’s brand.

A

b. Advertising and brand management allow a firm to create an entry barrier which will insulate the firm from competition and from undertaking further product innovations.

68
Q

A company’s competitive strategy deals with

a. how to compete successfully-its plans for positioning the company in the marketplace, its specific efforts to please customers and improve its competitive strength, and the type of competitive advantage it intends to establish.
b. its plans for under-pricing rivals and achieving product superiority.
c. the specific actions management plans to take to gain a competitive advantage over rivals
d. the specific actions management intends to take to strongly differentiate its product offering from the offerings of rival companies in the industry.
e. how it plans to unify its functional and operating strategies into a cohesive effort aimed at successfully taking customers away from rivals.

A

a. how to compete successfully-its plans for positioning the company in the marketplace, its specific efforts to please customers and improve its competitive strength, and the type of competitive advantage it intends to establish.

69
Q

A competitive strategy of striving to be the low-cost provider is particularly attractive when

a. most rivals are pursuing best-cost or broad differentiation strategies.
b. buyers are not swayed by advertising and are not very brand-loyal.
c. most rivals are trying to differentiate their product offering from those of rivals.
d. there are many ways to achieve higher product quality that have value to buyers.
e. buyers are large, have significant power to bargain down prices, use the product in much the same ways, and have common user requirements.

A

e. buyers are large, have significant power to bargain down prices, use the product in much the same ways, and have common user requirements.

70
Q

To be successful with a differentiation strategy, a company has to

a. outspend rivals on R&D in order to have differentiating attributes that rivals don’t have.
b. have a state-of-the-art value chain and concentrate on providing buyers with a technologically superior product
c. incorporate more differentiating features into its product/service offering than rivals and also charge a price no higher than the prices charged by rivals.
d. study buyers” needs and behavior very carefully to learn what they consider important, what they think has value, and what they are willing to pay for
e. Concentrate on differentiating its product on the basis of superior product quality or personalized customer service.

A

d. study buyers” needs and behavior very carefully to learn what they consider important, what they think has value, and what they are willing to pay for