551 Response to Resistance Flashcards

1
Q

All RTR incidents are reviewed by the _____ ____ ____ and are subject to further review by the______ of ____ & _____ _____, the RTR Review Board, and/or the Internal Affairs Unit, to ensure compliance with JSO policy and training

A

Professional Oversight unit

Director of Personnel & Professional Standards

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2
Q

____ ____: Exists where the facts and circumstances within the officers’ knowledge are sufficient to warrant a reasonable officer to believe an offense has been or is being committed by a particular individual or individuals

A

Probable Cause

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3
Q

____ _____: Exists where the facts or circumstances the officer knows or believes to exist are such as to cause an ordinary and prudent person to act or think in a similar way under similar circumstances

A

Reasonable Belief

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4
Q

_____ ______ A subject refuses to comply or respond. He/she does not make an attempt physically to defeat the actions of the officer but forces the officer to employ physical maneuvers to establish control

A

Passive Resistance

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5
Q

Physical Restraints- There are six classifications of physical control:

A
Restraint Devices
Transporters
Pain Compliance
CEW
Takedowns
Counter moves
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6
Q

Intermediate Weapons: Weapons primarily used to control a subject, such as a ____ or _____ _____ weapons

A

baton

specialty impact

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7
Q

Officers may use deadly force when the officer reasonably believes such force is necessary to prevent _____ ____ or _____ _____ to themselves or another
person

A

imminent death or great bodily harm

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8
Q

Officers may use deadly force to apprehend a fleeing felon only when:

A

(1) There is probable cause to believe the person fleeing committed a violent felony which involved the infliction or threatened infliction of great bodily harm or death,
or the person fleeing escaped while being held in custody as a suspect or prisoner for a violent felony which involved the infliction or threatened infliction of great bodily harm or death; and

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9
Q

Officers may use deadly force to apprehend a fleeing felon only when:

A

(2) The officer reasonably believes the use of deadly force is necessary to prevent escape; and

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10
Q

Officers may use deadly force to apprehend a fleeing felon only when:

A

(3) The officer reasonably believes the failure to immediately apprehend the fleeing person will place the officer, another law enforcement officer, or any other person in imminent danger of death or great bodily harm.

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11
Q

Officers may use deadly force to apprehend a fleeing felon only when:

A

4) The officer’s decision to use deadly force against a fleeing felon will be judged by the reasonableness of the officer’s actions based upon the facts and circumstances available to the officer at the time the force was deployed.

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12
Q

Officers may use deadly force to apprehend a fleeing felon only when:

A

If feasible, prior to the use of deadly force, officers shall give some warning of the possible use of deadly force, unless to do so would jeopardize the safety of the
officer or any other person

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13
Q

Moving Vehicles - Firearms shall NOT be discharged from or at a moving vehicle except under the following conditions;

A

(1) As a last resort when all other opportunities have been exhausted, to prevent death or great bodily harm to the officer or another person, or
(2) As a last resort to prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who poses an imminent threat of death or great bodily harm to the officer or another person, or
(3) When authorized by a watch commander or higher authority.

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14
Q

The firing of a warning shots is ______ ____

A

absolutely prohibited

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15
Q

Should an officer take an action that results in, or is alleged to have resulted in, serious injury or death of another person, the officer and responding supervisors will ___ complete the reports directly involved with the incident.

A

not

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16
Q

Deadly Force: Incidents involving these types of injuries or death will be investigated and reported by the ____ ____ ____ ____ ____.

A

JSO Homicide/Cold Case team

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17
Q

___ ____ ___ are responsible for ensuring officers properly document qualifying incidents when deploying non-deadly force.

A

First line supervisors

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18
Q

Consistent with training, officers will not intentionally strike anyone with an intermediate weapon on the head, neck, and clavicle unless the circumstance justifies the ____ ___ ___ _____.

A

use of deadly force

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19
Q

Anytime an officer uses an intermediate weapon on or against an individual, the officer will check back on the original call for service using the disposition code____ in the primary disposition block and any other applicable codes in the subsequent disposition blocks

A

RTR

20
Q

Only under extreme conditions should a hand held aerosol chemical munition be used at a distance of less than ___feet for the MK-3 and __feet for the MK-9.

A

3 feet MK-3

6 feet MK-9

21
Q

Anytime a person is exposed to a chemical agent, as soon as practical, the person must be:

A

a. Escorted to an uncontaminated environment;
b. Exposed to fresh air; and
c. Allowed to flush contaminated body areas with water.

22
Q

All incidents involving exposure to a chemical agent (person or animal) will be documented by checking back on the original call for service using the disposition code ‘RTR’ in the primary disposition block and any other applicable codes in the subsequent disposition blocks.

A

RTR

23
Q

Officers deploying specialty weapons shall not intentionally target a subject’s head or neck,
unless the circumstances justify the use of ____ ____

A

deadly force

24
Q

Officers may utilize a CEW in the following ways:

A

CEW displayed
CEW laser painted
CEW deployed

25
Q

CEW Target – Because of the larger muscle groups, the preferred target zone is on the ____ beginning just below the ____and extending all the way down the legs. When targeting the front, aim for the ____ ____; this increases the dart to heart safety margin and also increases the potential for Neuromuscular Incapacitation (NMI) by splitting the hemispheres.

A

back
neck
lower torso

26
Q

CEW Distance - The CEW in probe deployment mode has a normal effective range of__ feet with a __ foot cartridge and ___ feet with a __ foot cartridge, however optimal range is ___ to __ feet from the tip of the CEW cartridge.

A

19 feet with a 21 foot cartridge
21 feet with a 25 foot cartridge
optimal range is 7 to 10 feet

27
Q

Officers will use a CEW the ____ number of application cycles and for the shortest duration of time necessary to end the resistance and gain compliance from a person who meets the criteria as outlined in this order

A

least

28
Q

A CEW may be used on an animal only during _____ _____ _____ where a confined animal (e.g., an aggressive dog in a fenced back yard, etc.) poses a danger to officers, a ____ _____ or higher approves the tactic, and a method to secure the animal safely is used to limit the energy exposure the animal will endure.

A

preplanned tactical situations

commanding officer

29
Q

After an officer has deployed the CEW, the following procedures will apply:
Once the person who has been impacted by the CEW is handcuffed and in custody, the officer will advise his _____ ______ , or an on-duty supervisor, who will respond to the scene.

A

Immediate supervisor

30
Q

After an officer has deployed the CEW, the following procedures will apply:

A

Notify supervisor

The Officer will request JFRD/Department of Corrections Health Services (DOC Health Services) to respond to the scene.

31
Q

Medical personnel shall remove probes located in ____ ____ such as the face, neck, groin, female’s breast, and tops of the hands and feet.

A

sensitive areas

32
Q

When an officer accidentally discharges a firearm (other than while training at a range) without causing injury to any person, the _____ ____ where the incident occurred will respond to conduct the investigation and will check back on the original call for service
using the disposition code ‘RTR’ in the primary disposition block and any other applicable
codes in the subsequent disposition blocks.

A

watch commander

33
Q

The facts surrounding the shooting of the animal; the RTR will be forwarded for review in ARMOR to the ____ ____ and the respective ____ ____.

A

A/C

division chief

34
Q

The Homicide/Cold Case Team shall respond and conduct a complete investigation for any of the following incidents:

A

Any time a member of the JSO intentionally discharges a firearm at a person while acting in the capacity of a Sheriff’s Office employee;
b. Any time a member of the JSO accidentally discharges a firearm resulting in a person
being shot;
c. Any time a member of the JSO takes some action against another person that results in death or life threatening injuries while acting in the capacity of a Sheriff’s Office employee; and
d. Any time an officer is killed, shot, or is the victim of a life threatening injury inflicted by criminal means while acting in the capacity of a Sheriff’s Office employee

35
Q

Response to Officer-involves shootings and deadly force incidents: The original offense report will be prepared by the _____ ______ team or other designated Homicide team, at the direction of the _____ _____ _____.

A

Homicide/Cold Case

Homicide Unit Commander

36
Q

____ _____ _____ ____ will obtain the primary officer’s statement

A

Homicide/Cold Case team

37
Q

The primary officer(s) involved may request legal counsel or FOP representation prior to ____ ____ ____.

A

making any statement

38
Q

In incidents involving an intentional discharge of a firearm, the RTR Report in ARMOR will be prepared by the ____ ____ ____ ____ or other designated Homicide team, at the direction of the Homicide Unit Commander.

A

Homicide/Cold Case team

39
Q

The____ _____ ____ shall ensure the Assistant Chief of Major Case, Chief of Investigations, Director of Investigations and Homeland Security, and the Communications Center Watch Supervisor are notified and kept informed of all officer involved shootings or
critical injury incidents.

A

Homicide Unit Commander

40
Q

The____ _____ ____ shall ensure the Assistant Chief of Major Case, Chief of Investigations, Director of Investigations and Homeland Security, and the Communications Center Watch Supervisor are notified and kept informed of all officer involved shootings or
critical injury incidents.

A

Homicide Unit Commander

41
Q

_____ _____ which uses some of the technologies
employed in an Amber or Silver Alert, was created in response to the increasing number of law enforcement officers in the state who were killed, injured or abducted in the line of duty. In some of these cases, the offenders used vehicles to flee and attempt to escape.

A

Florida Blue Alert

42
Q

On ____ ___ ____, an executive order was signed to establish the Florida Blue Alert Plan.

A

October 1, 2011

43
Q

Duty status for officer-involves shootings and deadly force incidents:
The officer will be placed on ____ ____ for the rest of his work cycle.

A

Administrative Leave

44
Q

The ___ or his designee will review the results of the ____ ___ ____ ___ along with pertinent investigative materials related to the incident.

A

Sheriff

Return to Duty Assessment

45
Q

Only the ___ or his designee may decide to return the officer to full duty status.

A

Sheriff