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3A1 > 551-600 > Flashcards

551-600 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A special type of alloy steel used for tool making is called _______________.

a. high carbon steel
b. stainless steel
c. high speed steel
d. wrought steel
e. low carbon steel

A

c. high speed steel

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2
Q
  1. ____________ increases strength and hardness.

a. Vanadium
b. Copper
c. Chromium
d. Nickel
e. Manganese

A

d. Nickel

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3
Q
  1. Lead has the effect of increasing steel’s __________________.

a. toughness
b. corrosion resistance
c. strength
d. machinability
e. hardness

A

d. machinability

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4
Q
  1. ___________ materials are those metals, which contain metals such as copper and copper alloys.

a. Hard
b. Cast
c. Non-ferrous
d. Alloy
e. Ferrous

A

c. Non-ferrous

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5
Q
  1. Carbon steel is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon in which the carbon content is below ___________.

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
e. 5%

A

a. 1%

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6
Q
  1. Brass is an alloy made of copper and zinc.

a. 40% copper 60% zinc
b. 50% copper 50% zinc
c. 60% copper 40% zinc
d. 70% copper 30% zinc
e. 30% copper 70% zinc

A

c. 60% copper 40% zinc

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7
Q
  1. White metal used for slow speed and heavy load applications is compromised of _______________.

a. 5% tin, 15% antimony and 80% lead
b. 5% tin, 20% antimony and 75% lead
c. 10% tin, 15% antimony and 75% lead
d. 15% tin, 10% antimony and 75% lead

A

c. 10% tin, 15% antimony and 75% lead

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8
Q
  1. One of aluminum’s most important properties is it’s __________________.

a. low density
b. hardness
c. elasticity
d. low tensile strength
e. insulation ability

A

a. low density

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9
Q
  1. Materials that break instantaneously with a clean short fracture without any intermediate stage of bending are classed as _____________.

a. hard
b. ductile
c. brittle
d. malleable

A

c. brittle

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10
Q
  1. Ductility is the ability of a material to _________________.

a. withstand great deformation above the elastic limit in compression without failure, an example would be copper
b. resist a force tending to change its shape and then return to its original shape when the force is removed, an example would be mild steel
c. withstand great deformation above the elastic limit in tension without failure, an example would be copper
d. resist a sudden impact or blow, an example would be mild steel

A

c. withstand great deformation above the elastic limit in tension without failure, an example would be copper

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11
Q
  1. A material that is able to stand up under a sudden impact or hard blow is described as __________________________.

a. tough or having high impact strength
b. elastic or having the ability to resist a force trying to change its shape
c. malleable or easy to withstand great deformation
d. ductile or can be stretched under load without deformation

A

a. tough or having high impact strength

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12
Q
  1. The yield point on a tension test is where?

a. The point where the material fails and breaks.
b. The plastic deformation stops and the elastic deformation begins.
c. The stress begins to decrease and the strain begins to increase.
d. The elastic limit is reached and plastic deformation starts.

A

d. The elastic limit is reached and plastic deformation starts.

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13
Q
  1. Case hardening is when?

a. A material has its surface condition treated so it is capable of resisting wear, abrasion, cutting and indentation.
b. A soft material is fitted or formed inside another material that has a harder surface.
c. A material is worked and formed until it becomes completely hardened.
d. A material is heated to its deformation temperature and then cooled slowly to remove stresses.

A

a. A material has its surface condition treated so it is capable of resisting wear, abrasion, cutting and indentation.

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14
Q
  1. A Brinell Hardness number of “65 HB 10/500/25” means?

a. That the material tested can handle a load of 65 kN applied across the entire length of the material without failure.
b. That a load of 65 kg was applied for 10 seconds to a 500 mm length of material and it showed at deformation of 25N.
c. That a Brinell Hardness of 65 was obtained using a 10 mm in diameter hardened steel ball with a 500 kg load applied for a period of 25 seconds.
d. That a Brinell Hardness number of 65 was obtained when a 500 kg load was applied for 10 seconds to a 25 mm in diameter hardened steel ball.

A

c. That a Brinell Hardness of 65 was obtained using a 10 mm in diameter hardened steel ball with a 500 kg load applied for a period of 25 seconds.

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15
Q
  1. Two tests that are used to determine the toughness of a material are __________________________.

a. the Izod and Charpy impact tests
b. the Rockwell and Brinell impact tests
c. the Rockwell and Charpy impact tests
d. the Impact and Hardness tests by Brinell and Charpy

A

a. the Izod and Charpy impact tests

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16
Q
  1. The purpose of the blast furnace is to ___________________.

a. reduce the total iron ore to steel and pig iron
b. reduce the iron oxides to cast iron and steel
c. reduce the iron oxides to give a stronger steel that will not rust
d. reduce the iron oxides to molten iron

A

d. reduce the iron oxides to molten iron

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17
Q
  1. Molten iron called pig iron is used to produce?

a. Stainless steels and alloy steels.
b. Tool steels and low carbon steels.
c. Cast iron, wrought iron and steel.
d. An alloy that enhances the properties of tool steels.

A

c. Cast iron, wrought iron and steel.

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18
Q
  1. The operation of a blast furnace is most efficient when it is _____________.

a. continuous
b. at high temperatures
c. fired by natural gas
d. operated for 12 hours per day

A

a. continuous

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19
Q
  1. A Cupola furnace is used to produce cast iron by?

a. Melting pig iron together with a predetermined amount of scrap cast iron, steel and limestone at a specific temperature.
b. Melting pig iron together with coke for lowering the carbon content of the steel.
c. Melting scrap iron, limestone and coke while increasing the temperature above the melting point.
d. Melting pig iron together with other scrap metals.

A

d. Melting pig iron together with other scrap metals.

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20
Q
  1. Grey cast iron is produced by?

a. Firing the cupola hotter than normal and then cooling the molten material quickly.
b. Cooling the molten material from the cupola furnace slowly thus allowing the carbon to disassociate and form graphite within the iron.
c. Keeping the cupola furnace cooler than normal and then cooling the molten material quickly to keep the carbon combined with the iron.
d. Adding graphite to the pig iron as you melt it in the cupola furnace to give it the grey colour and fiberous appearance.

A

b. Cooling the molten material from the cupola furnace slowly thus allowing the carbon to disassociate and form graphite within the iron.

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20
Q
  1. Grey cast iron is used for large motor bases and compressor bases because?

a. It is relatively inexpensive to produce and is a harder material than white cast iron.
b. It is easy to cast and has a harder surface than white cast iron.
c. It is strong in tension, compression and withstands heat well.
d. It dampens vibration and sound well and it is strong in compression and shear.

A

d. It dampens vibration and sound well and it is strong in compression and shear.

21
Q
  1. In white cast iron, the carbon in the iron is?

a. Completely removed by heating the pig iron to a very high temperature for an extended period of time.
b. Combined with lime and oxygen to produce the white colour in the iron when cooled.
c. Chemically combined in the form of iron carbide or cementite.
d. Reduced to 2% by adding the correct amounts of scrap iron and steel to the cupola furnace during firing.

A

c. Chemically combined in the form of iron carbide or cementite.

22
Q
  1. Malleable cast iron is produced by?

a. Adding more lime in the cupola furnace and firing at a hotter temperature for a longer time to increase the conversion of carbon to graphite.
b. Giving white cast iron a short heat treatment followed by a quick cooling or quenching process.
c. Heating the cast iron above its critical temperature until it is full red.
d. Giving white cast iron castings a long heat treatment at about 925°C, followed by a slow cooling process.

A

d. Giving white cast iron castings a long heat treatment at about 925°C, followed by a slow cooling process.

23
Q
  1. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon containing ______________.

a. more than 2% carbon
b. less than 0.2% carbon
c. more than 2% carbon but less than 5% carbon
d. less than 2% carbon

A

d. less than 2% carbon

24
Q
  1. Alloy steel is steel that has other elements added to it which tend to increase its strength, ductility and __________.

a. resistance to corrosion
b. resistance to machining
c. resistance to welding
d. resistance to heat treatment

A

a. resistance to corrosion

25
Q
  1. The characteristics of a metal depend on the atoms that make up the metal and the space lattice which is _____________.

a. the alloy elements within the metal
b. the amount of space between the atoms
c. the number of atoms within each grain
d. the arrangement of the atoms, or the grain structure

A

d. the arrangement of the atoms, or the grain structure

26
Q
  1. Quenching, case hardening and tempering are methods of?

a. Heat treating
b. Hot working
c. Cold working
d. Non-destructive testing
e. None of the above

A

a. Heat treating

26
Q
  1. Hot working of steel including forging and rolling increases the strength of the steel by _______________.

a. reducing the grain size
b. increasing the grain size
c. reducing the space lattice
d. forcing the atoms in the metal closer together

A

a. reducing the grain size

27
Q
  1. Specialty steels for construction of bridges, boilers and ships are refined in a Oxygen furnace because?

a. It reduces the time needed to produce the steel.
b. The high temperatures cut down on the amount of alloy elements needed to strengthen the steel.
c. The high temperature gives a final steel product with a very fine grain structure.
d. This method reduces the impurities like sulphur and phosphorous and gives the steel a higher strength.

A

a. It reduces the time needed to produce the steel.

28
Q
  1. The highest grades of steel are produced in ________________.

a. the electric furnace
b. the oxygen furnace
c. the open hearth furnace
d. the cupola furnace

A

a. the electric furnace

29
Q
  1. Cast iron is produced by melting pig iron together with ___________.

a. limestone
b. scrap iron
c. wrought iron
d. steel

A

a. limestone

30
Q
  1. Hardness is a materials resistance to wear, abrasion and penetration.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

31
Q
  1. Step 1 in the production of steel is the production of pig iron in a blast furnace.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

32
Q
  1. In an open hearth furnace the carbon content of the steel is controlled by adding CO2 to the process.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

33
Q
  1. Polymers and elastomers are long chain hydrocarbon molecule units which are used to produce plastics and rubber.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

34
Q
  1. Galvanic action cannot occur without?

a. A large potential difference between the two materials.
b. A difference in temperature between the two materials.
c. A wire or line connecting the two materials.
d. The electrical connection.

A

d. The electrical connection.

35
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied before galvanic corrosion takes place?

a. There must be dissimilar materials having a different surface potential.
b. The materials must be immersed in a common electrolyte to allow a flow of ions.
c. There must be a conducting path to connect the materials to allow a flow of electrons.
d. Two of the three conditions above must be satisfied.
e. All of the conditions must be satisfied simultaneously.

A

e. All of the conditions must be satisfied simultaneously.

36
Q
  1. If the potential difference between two materials in a galvanic corrosion cell increases, the rate of corrosion will ______________________.

a. increase proportionally
b. decrease proportionally
c. not change as the electrolyte is the main driver for the corrosion rate
d. only increase if the temperature difference between the materials is also increased

A

c. not change as the electrolyte is the main driver for the corrosion rate

37
Q
  1. Atmospheric corrosion of a material is caused by?

a. The velocity of the air moving across the material.
b. Direct sunlight hitting the surface of the material.
c. The change in temperature between day and night.
d. The action of the water vapor and pollutants in the air.

A

d. The action of the water vapor and pollutants in the air.

38
Q
  1. Increasing the water vapor in the air will increase the rate of corrosion of a material.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

38
Q
  1. Why are industrial atmospheres much more corrosive than rural atmospheres?

a. The dust and dirt that is in the atmosphere from the extra vehicular traffic.
b. The extra heat and moisture in the air generated from the various industries.
c. The sulphur dioxide and other sulphur compounds in the air from the burning of hydrocarbon fuels and vehicle exhausts.
d. The acids and chemicals that tend to be used in the various processes.

A

d. The acids and chemicals that tend to be used in the various processes.

39
Q
  1. An external source of current that travels along a pipe or other material that it comes in contact with can cause?

a. The pipe or material to become hot.
b. Stray current corrosion in the pipe or material.
c. A reduction in the galvanic corrosion rates.
d. An increase in the galvanic corrosion rates.

A

b. Stray current corrosion in the pipe or material.

40
Q
  1. Stray Currents can be found by?

a. Watching for corrosion happening where pipelines enter the ground.
b. Watching for corrosion happening where pipelines exit the ground.
c. Connecting a wire and a very small light to the buried pipeline or metal structure.
d. Measuring voltage drops and current flows along buried structures and metal pipelines.

A

d. Measuring voltage drops and current flows along buried structures and metal pipelines.

41
Q
  1. Stress Corrosion Cracking is the failure of a material due to cracking which is produced by?

a. Straining the material past its elastic point under corrosive atmospheric conditions.
b. A combination of service conditions and the environment that the material is in.
c. Stressing the material by welding it and then stress relieving it at too high a temperature.
d. Incorrect water treatment of the boiler feed-water.

A

b. A combination of service conditions and the environment that the material is in.

42
Q
  1. Hydrogen Blistering is one form of Hydrogen Induced Corrosion that is caused by?

a. Hydrogen sulphide getting under the surface of the steel and causing corrosion cells.
b. Water getting under the surface of the steel and forming bubbles.
c. Hot hydrogen blistering the surface of the steel due to the high heat of the process.
d. Atomic hydrogen diffusion into very small irregularities in the steel and joining together and lifting up the surface of the steel.

A

a. Hydrogen sulphide getting under the surface of the steel and causing corrosion cells.

43
Q
  1. Hydrogen Embrittlement cased by hydrogen atoms diffusing into the surface of the steel can reduce the ductility of the steel by _________.

a. 7%
b. 30%
c. 42%
d. 83%

A

c. 42%

44
Q
  1. Sulphide stress corrosion cracking occurs in steel and other high strength alloys when they are exposed to _____________________.

a. salt water in concentrations high enough to produce an electrolyte
b. dry hydrogen sulphide environments
c. acidic environments
d. moist hydrogen sulphide environments

A

d. moist hydrogen sulphide environments

45
Q
  1. For Chloride Stress Corrosion Cracking to occur in stainless steels there must be __________________.

a. oxygen in the solution
b. a temperature above 100°C
c. water vapour or moisture in the air
d. a flaw in the design of the piece of metal

A

a. oxygen in the solution

45
Q
  1. Caustic Corrosion is a name given to corrosion that occurs beneath a concentrated build up of _________________.

a. Sodium bicarbonate (NaCO3)
b. Sodium Silicate (NaSiO3)
c. Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH)
d. Sodium Sulphate (NaSO4)

A

c. Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH)

46
Q
  1. Caustic corrosion is usually found __________________.

a. in the colder areas of the boiler where the water circulation is poor
b. in the higher heat areas of the boiler
c. at the elbows and bends where the flow must make a change of direction
d. directly downstream of where the boiler chemicals enter the boiler

A

b. in the higher heat areas of the boiler

3A1 (12 decks)

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