.52 Karl Flashcards
1
Q
What order defines required coordination with ATC and specifies standard flight check terminology?
A
The 8240.41.
2
Q
What phraseology should be used with ATC to describe the ILS-1, 2, and 3 maneuvers respectively?
A
“Flight Inspection Arc,” “Flight Inspection Holding Pattern,” “Flight Inspection Low Approach”
3
Q
In the .52, altitudes referenced are true unless specified otherwise. When flight inspecting an instrument flight procedure, the aircraft is considered “on altitude” if it is within 100 feet of the planned true altitude. On non-precision final approaches, when would we have to correct altitudes to true?
A
When the temperature deviation exceeds ISA +/- 15 or the altimeter setting source is beyond 15NM.
4
Q
Should we attempt to restrict or remove from service when an OT condition is found?
A
Restrict.
5
Q
If a NOTAM is issued, how long does the PIC have to verify issuance?
A
24 hours.
6
Q
What appendix describes the procedures for FIDEX?
A
14
7
Q
When a commissioning inspection is performed prior to the completion of runway construction activities, what should be done by the flight inspector?
A
A special inspection should be performed after completion of the runway work, before the facility is placed into service. The inspector should request the special inspection unless in the flight inspector’s judgement, the remaining work is negligible and no special is required. Document all conditions in the DFL.
8
Q
What should be done when equipment is replaced with the same type and configuration as the former and located on the same physical site, including antenna location?
A
A special check is required, applicable items for antenna change in the relevant chapter must be accomplished as a minimum. Additional requirements will be jointly determined by the flight inspector and facilities maintenance.
9
Q
What priority is after accident?
A
1A
10
Q
What is a reconfiguration?
A
A special inspection when modifications or relocation affect the radiation pattern of the facility.
11
Q
Is an antenna type change a reconfiguration?
A
Yes, antenna changes to a different type must be classified as reconfiguration. All commissioning checks should be performed following a reconfiguration, except those that are not required as determined jointly by flight inspection and mx personnel. Commissioning tolerances must be applied.
12
Q
In general, what type of reporting is required on surveillance inspections?
A
OT or unsat findings. Discrepancies require DFL, report, and, if necessary, notam action. See Appendix 12 for surveillance on VGSI (they’re probably supposed to be documented with a V for surveillance).
13
Q
What priority does a system become when it has exceeded the end of the due date window?
A
1a
14
Q
What happens if you cannot complete all SIAPs during a periodic inspection?
A
The periodic inspection will be considered complete. Specials must be established to ensure the remaining SIAPs are completed. In the event SIAPs are not checked by the end of the window/extension, FICO must initiate a NOTAM to remove the procedure from service and it will be restored by a special flight inspection.
15
Q
How long may navaids and SIAPs be extended beyond their due dates respectively?
A
7 days, 30 days. They take on the same priority as an overdue Navaid or procedure.
16
Q
On a periodic inspection, what if standby equipment or an associated navaid is not inspected due to out-of-service condition or if it’s removed from service to due an uncorrectable discrepancy?
A
The periodic inspection will be considered complete. The standby equipment or associated NAVAID must be restored to service by the successful completion of a flight inspection which satisfies all periodic requirements (including monitors, where applicable).
17
Q
What happens if ground or airborne receiver checkpoints cannot be completed on a periodic or special Rho-Theta inspection.
A
The inspection must be considered complete. Enter in Remarks those checkpoints not checked. FICO will schedule a special to complete the checkpoints within the facility periodicity and will take appropriate NOTAM action if they are not inspected in that time.
18
Q
Must monitors be inspected on every periodic for ILS with GS? Loc only?
A
Yes, every other periodic
19
Q
What should be done if one unit of a dual equipped facility is found out-of-tolerance?
A
It must be identified and removed from service.
20
Q
What must be done if standby power is installed after the commissioning flight inspection?
A
Standby power must be checked during the next regularly scheduled periodic inspection. Standby power checks are not required on facilities when the facility is powered by batteries that are constantly charged by another power source or to be rechecked when the standby power source is changed.
21
Q
Can you remove published spectrum management restrictions based on flight inspection results?
A
No
22
Q
If an inspection on a commissioned facility is halted in an abnormal condition due to aircraft malfunction, weather, etc. and maintenance handbooks allow adjustments of the facility parameter without flight check, can the equipment may be returned to service?
A
Yes, inspection is incomplete.
23
Q
When a prescribed checklist item cannot be adjusted within tolerance, what must happen?
A
The inspection will be terminated, facility status changed to unusable, and the inspection classified as incomplete until the remainder of the checks are complete.
24
Q
What is required if localizers or glideslopes are transmitting HMI?
A
The glideslope or localizer must be off. This does not apply to routeine monitor checks. These actions are backed up by NOTAM action that must be verified by someone other than the notam initiator.
25
What is the alignment convention for AFIS vs omni-directional facilities?
AFIS reading is positive, navaid is negative.
26
What are the two legal facility statuses?
Usable, Unusable
27
What are the two types of Usable Statuses?
Restricted, Unrestricted
28
When facility coverage throughout the flight inspection standard service volume cannot be checked due to inability to penetrate national boarders or restricted airspace, how will the facility be classified?
Restriced, with the report annotated as to the limited coverage flown. Notam will how the facility as UNUSABLE in the areas not checked.
29
Where must all proposed notams be annotated by the flight inspector?
on the DFL.
30
What should the inspector do for safety of flight (critical) notams?
Initiate while airborne (FSS) as able. If it affects a High Impact Airport, contact FICO asap.
31
For non-critical notams affecting High Impact Airports, what should be done?
Delay issuing until briefing FICO.
32
Should flight inspectors issue notams concerning flight check of radar or DF facilities?
No, however, review the instrument flight procedures to ensure that those requiring ground radar are amended or suspended.
33
Where one of two transmitters of a facility is restricted due to OT parameters and the other is satisfactory, may the satisfactory transmitter be operated without NOTAM?
Yes, however NOTAM data describing the restriction must be provided to facilities MX personnel.
34
Who has the final authority for notam action at military facilities?
The installation commander. Do not issue notams for ships.
35
Who should notams concerning US Army instrument procedures within the United States be coordinated through?
The NFPG.
36
Should the reason for the notam be included in restrictions.
No, it serves no useful purpose
37
Overall, what is flight validation?
An assessment of a new or revised IFP to confirm that the procedure is operationally acceptable for safety, fly-ability, and design accuracy, including obstacle and database verification.
38
Should conventional flight procedures like ILS, LOC, VOR, NDB, SIDs, and STARS have their ARINC 424 coding validated?
Yes, when practical, IAW Ch 13.
39
Where should particular attention be given towards the data accuracy of SBAS and GBAS flight procedures?
The FAS data block
40
At commissioning, does the flight inspector have the authority to reject a procedure from a human factors/flyability standpoint?
Yes
41
Should flight validation of an RNAV procedure be aborted when AFIS data recording is not available?
No, unless the procedure requires AFIS analysis of FAS data
42
What should occur prior to any night evaluation of IFP?
A daylight evaluation of obstacles
43
May a DME arc segment be used in areas of unusable VOR radial information?
Yes, provided that the DME, the radial where the arc starts, the lead radial, the final approach radial, and any other radial used in the procedure meet required tolerances.
44
Where should obstacle accuracy verification be accomplished if requested and it cannot be accomplished from the ground?
FIS will only perform airborne obstacle accuracy evaluations over sparsely populated or unpopulated areas.
45
When must the controlling obstacle be specifically identified?
Confirm controlling obstacles in each segment by in-flight or ground observation during the commissioning of flight procedures, or when an amendment to an existing procedure may affect controlling obstacles.
46
Where can the required obstacle clearance for each procedural segment be found?
On the FAA Form 8260-9 contained in the procedure package.
47
If the controlling obstacle is listed as terrain/trees or Adverse Assumption Obstacle (AAO) is it necessary to identify the obstacle?
It is not necessary to verify which tree is controlling, only that no higher man-made obstacle is present in the protected airspace.
48
What must be done if the inspector observes that the controlling obstacle has been eliminated or dismantled?
The inspector must forward that information to the procedure developer?
49
Does an inspector have the discretion to not verify obstacles on any approach segments?
Yes, if the segments are entirely at or above established Min IFR Altitudes. MIA may be established by OROCA, MEA, or by adding 1000ft (2000 mountainous) to the sectional MEF. MVA may be used if available.
50
How will the missed approach segment of a new or amended procedure be evaluated for obstacles?
The missed approach will be flown beginning at the MDA/DH/DA in the direction of intended use. Climb and maneuver as required, and maintain safe obstacle clearance until reaching the designed altitude or altitude clear of any potential obstacles.
51
How will obstacle assessment be accomplished on a procedure segment that is already commissioned and no change has been made to the controlling obstacle?
On a periodic it is not necessary to visually identify the controlling obstacle, but rather only to verify there are no unsafe conditions throughout the primary and secondary areas of the procedure segment.
52
If attempting to combine approaches into a single obstruction check, what altitude should be flown and what is the maximum differential between approach azimuths?
The altitude flown must be the lowest of any combined approaches, but under no circumstance can the approach azimuth of the different approaches differ by more than 10 degrees.
53
Can obstacle assessments be accomplished at night?
No, conduct obstacle evaluations in VMC and daylight only.
54
If repeatable GPWS alerts are received while inspecting procedures at the minimum procedural altitude, what should be done?
Notify the procedure designer.
55
What does "terrain inhibit" do? May we inspect an airport with "terrain inhibit" disabled?
This feature only inhibits the "look ahead" feature of EGPWS. When "terrain inhibit" is selected, the basic GPWS functions (modes 1-6) are still active. This check may be accomplished when "terrain inhibit" for runways that are not in the database (under 3500 feet usually).
56
Does an LNAV approach with accompanying LNAV/VNAV or LPV minima need to have the VDA inspected?
No; RNAV approaches with VNAV/LPV are not considered to have a VDA.
57
When must the VDA be inspected for non-RNAV approaches?
Under the following conditions: there is a VDA for a non-precision approach; and, it is not a Localizer with a corresponding glideslope.
58
What should be done by the flight inspector if a VDA should have been checked, but was not.
It should be noted on the DFL and a special should be issued to check the DFL. In the meantime, the procedure may be signed off as complete and forwarded for publication.
59
When does VDA have to be checked on existing procedures?
When it's not part of an RNAV with LPV/VNAV or a LOC with an ILS glideslope, AND tehre is some evidence of a possible problem (high terrain, no VDP, or indications of a 34:1 penetration like the absence of stipple shading).
60
How is a VDA checked?
Fly the advisory vertical guidance in the final segment one-dot below on path and determine if the path provides reasonable clearance from all obstacles. Transition from one-dot below the VDA path to on-path when reaching a point 200 feet above the threshold elevation, then continue on path to the threshold if necessary.
61
Is there a requirement to evaluate off-course obstacles when checking the VDA.
No.
62
When should a VDA be rejected?
When it is obvious that flying on teh VA path, or one dot below path prior to 200 feet above the threshold will result in contact with an obhect or terrain. Additionally, a repeatable GPWS alert triggered while flying on path is also grounds for denying the VDA (if the airport is in the database).
63
Should VDA be checked while simultaneously inspecting ground-based NAVAID performance?
Book says NO, make a seperate approach. Great chance to blow the run and have to do a second one anyway....
64
Does a VDA provide linear or angular offset?
Linear, one dot low will impact the ground well before the desired RPI.
65
If ARINC coding needs to be changed because of VDA, is the procedure Gold Standard.
Nope, coding has to be changed, Sat with changes, not gold
66
What are two other considerations if VDA is found unsat?
VGSIs and other ARINC coded non-precision approaches to the same runway
67
When inspecting an airway based on VOR and MOCA is published, to what distance must the airway be evaluated at MOCA; what altitude otherwise?
22 NM, MEA
68
In most cases, what is ROC for airways?
1000 feet (2000 mountainous)
69
For holding patterns defined with DME, is it acceptable for DME recption to be interrupted?
Yes, however, only during a turn due to antenna shadowing.
70
For climb-in-hold patterns, when must communication be satisfactory?
At the climb-to altitude.
71
If an ESV designed to support holding does not support holding, should the ESV for the fix be denied?
No, do not deny a holding fix ESV if the primary facility meets meets fix displacement requirements but does not support holding.
72
If a holding pattern extends beyond the SSV is an ESV required for the pattern?
No, but the supporting facility must meet fix displacement and/or holding pattern flight inspection requirements.
73
For SIAP commissioning, what direction should each segment be flown.
Fly all initial, intermediate, final and MAP segments in the intended direction of procedural use.
74
What must be evaluated on an amended SIAP?
It is only necessary to evaluate the emended segments and the specific changes documented in the amendment to the procedure.
75
When must localizer clearances be checked on transition routes?
Localizer clearances must be checked when a transition route traverses sector 3 of a localizer, or airspace which is outside the commissioned service volume of the localizer, and the transition termination point is not identified with a facility other than the localizer course. It is not required if the procedure specifies (as minimum equipment) on or more of the following facilities or systems to ID the termination point: DME, waypoint, ADF, Lead Radials, stand alone fix, and radar.
76
Can a 75 MHz marker be used to ID feeder route termination points?
No, they are not authorized for procedure turns or holding and must not be used to identify feeder route termination points.
77
When evaluating the final approach segment on new or amended non-precision procedures, what to what altitude do we descend?
Descend to an altitude 100 feet below the mda when cehcking the final approach segment of a non-precision SIAP using course goidance base on ground NAVAIDs. The 100 feet below requirement does NOT apply to GNSS-based RNAV procedures.
78
What is required to be inspected in the Circling Area?
Ensure that required obstacle clearance is provided throughout the circling area.
79
For procedures with a "Fly Visual" segment, what must be accomplished before the procedure can be used at night?
It must be inspected at night.
80
To what point must the missed approach be flown?
At least to a point where the flight inspector can identify any obstacles that could be a hazard.
81
When must a night evaluation be accomplished?
No prior IFR service, new runways, lenthened or shortened runways, initial installation of approach lighting systems.
82
Do runway lighting systems need to be evaluated at night? Reils?
Runway lighting systems may be evaluate day or night, first time installation of REIL systems will be evaluated at night.
83
Where must air/ground communication with ATC be satisfactory?
At the minimum approved altitude for each SIAP IAF and at the missed approach altitude and holding fix.
84
If an airport uses an automated weather source such as AWOS, ASOS, or AWSS as the primary altimeter source, where must there be adequate radio reception?
Prior to the IAF
85
Is radio reception of the backup altimeter source required?
Flight inspection should verify the backup altimeter is available over Service A. Radio reception of the backup altimeter source is desirable, but not required.
86
What is required for FAA departures requiring greater than a 500ft/nm climb gradient?
Flight Standards Service Approval, NA for USAF/USN.
87
What is the standardized descent rate for STARS above 10,000?
318 feet/NM - 3 degrees; below 10,000 should not exceed 330ft/nm.
88
What distance is required for deceleration on a STAR?
10 knots per NM to arrive at the required speed.
89
When is it acceptable for an aircraft to require drag devices on a STAR?
tailwind in excess of 50 knots
90
If a STAR connects to an IAF, what deceleration speed should be accomodated?
200 knots
91
If non-standard takeoff minima are published, what should they provide?
A visibility (no more than 3 SM) that allows for visual identification of the obstacle from the DER, and ceiling above any obstacles within the minimum visibility range.
92
What will be done if there is a penetration of the 40:1 OCS within 1 nm and less than 200 feet.
A non-standard climb gradient will not be published, a low-close in obstacle will be noted, and it is expected a departing aircraft will plan the takeoff to clear these obstacles.
93
How will a FIS aircraft evaluate a departure procedure?
Fly in the intended direction using the minimum climb gradient, if no close-in obstacles begin initial climb at 35 feet above DER. Do not initiate turns until 400 feet. If no routing is prescribed, fly toward the most adverse obstacle (diverse/sector departure). If low-close, cross DER at 200 and intercept climb gradient at path that intersects.
94
May communication be verified without flying through the area in question?
Yes, if the appropriate air traffic control facility will verify coverage.
95
Can ATC verify RADAR coverage without flying through the area in question?
Yes, however radar fixes must be verified
96
What clearance should VGSIs provide above obstacles in the lowest on path area?
1 degree
97
What is the required lateral coverage for VGSIs to not be restricted?
10 degrees either side
98
What are the three typical intensity settings for VGSIs?
day 100%, twilight 30%, darkness 10%
99
How are VGSI numbered?
1 nearest runway, reversed ICAO
100
How is TCH determined for VGSIs?
It's the height of the lowest on path signal at the threshold.
101
What is the typical spacing between 4 box and 2 box papi systems?
.33 degrees and .5 degrees respectively
102
When is a commissioning inspection required for new VGSIs?
When there's an associated IFR procedure (including circling).
103
How many runs are required for the level run and on-path methods?
Level run requires 2, on path with multiple data hits is sufficient, including for commissioning type inspectinos
104
Where should the aircraft be positioned for an on path run?
5 nm, 1000 feet
105
On a PAPI inspection, if the level run method is used fro boxes 2 and 3, can a single level run be used to measure teh angels of boxes 1 and 4?
yes.
106
What is VGSI coincidence with electronic glidepath?
TCH +-3 feet and .2 degree angle
107
How far must VGSI be inspected for obstacle penetration?
8 nm for 4 box PAPIs, 4nm for 2 box and other low intensity or non-standard systems.
108
If usable distance must be restricted for obstacle penetration, what buffer must be provided and what is the minimum restricted distance?
.5 NM and 1.3 NM
109
Do obstacles only need to be evaluated from 10-10 degrees for PAPIs?
No, must be evaluated everywhere in visible light beam
110
Should restricted usable VGSI distance be used as a temporary measure until baffling or obstacle removal is accomplished?
No
111
May flight inspection declare VGSI coincident when design values do not meet coincidence tolerances?
No
112
Where do we visually verify coincidence?
Between 6000 and 1000 feet
113
For height group 4, where should VGSIs' RRP intersect the runway relative to the IAP?
300-350 feet beyond the RPI for the instrument approach procedure.
114
Should VNAV be used to check coincidence?
No, use ILS or LPV; VNAV procedures vary with temperature
115
What is the tolerance for VGSI angle?
.2 degrees
116
If surveilance of lighting systems is not accomplished, what should be done by the flight inspector?
The periodic inspection of the primary facility will be considered complete if circumstances prohibit inspection of the lighting systems, provided all other checklist items are complete.
117
Must approach lighting systems be evaluated at night?
Yes, commissioning inspections of approach lighting systems must include a night evaluation.
118
What is the difference between RAILs and SFLs?
Where they stop...RAILs end before the approach lights. SFLs are imbedded.
119
Must REILS be inspected at night after first-time installation?
Yes
120
What suffix indicates a system is augmented by sequenced flashing lights (SFL)?
F or SF; for example, a SSALS or MALS would become a SSALF (SSALSF) or MALSF
121
What suffix indicates a system is augmented by RAILs?
R; for example a SSALS or MALS would become SSALR or MALSR
122
What are the standard lighting systems for Category 1 and II/III respectively?
ALSF-1 is the Category I standard, ALSF-2 is the II/III standard
123
What color is the threshold bar?
The threshold bar is a row of green lights spaced 5 to 10 feet apart that are located near the threshold end and extended across the runway threshold to approximately 45 feet from the runway edge on either side of the runway.
124
Describe maneuvering for inspecting approach lighting systems.
For a precision approach, fly the final segment on the precision glideslope. For a non-precision approach, fly at the lowest MDA to a point where an approximate 3.00 degree glidepath begins, transitioning to teh approximate 3.00 glidepath, observe that the light system gives appropriate indication for safe pilotage.
125
If a lighting aid system is NOTAMed, must the inspector also issue a procedural NOTAM for SIAPs that will subsequently have increased minimums?
NO, the SIAP Inoperative Table provides pilots with the necessary adjustments to minimums
126
What should be done if the pilot control lighting feature is inoperative?
Initiate NOTAM action and attempt to contact the airport authority to have the lights manually activated for night of IMC use.
127
For commissioning of lights, how many lights may be inoperative?
For a commissioning inspection, all lights of each system must be operative, and proper filters must be in place.
128
What color should REILs be?
Aviation White or Zenon Arc. No color permitted.
129
If AWOS/ASOS is used as the prmary airoprt alitmerter source, where must fligth inspection verify reception?
At or before the initial approach fix.
130
To what distance should light gun signals be visible in the air?
3 miles in all quadrants at the lowest traffic pattern altitude.
131
What is the service volume of an H class VOR?
40 NM from 1000' to 14,500 AGL out to 40 NM, from 14,500AGL up to and including 60,000 AGL out to 100nm, and out to 130 NM from 18,000AGL to 45,000 AGL.
132
What is the service volume of a L class VOR?
From 1,000 AGL up to and including 18,000 AGL at radial distances out to 40 NM.
133
What is the service volume of a T class VOR?
From 1,00 AGL up to and including 12,000 AGL at radial distances out to 25 NM.
134
If using hybrid, how close to the facility may AFIS be used?
5nm
135
If using FI DME, how close to the facility may AFIS be used?
10nm
136
When evaluating an airway of a VORTAC, should the use of a Victor airway be denied due to an out-of-tolerance value found on the TACAN azimuth or DME?
No, however if a TACAN parameter is found out of tolerance within the flight inspection standard service volume, a facility restriction and NOTAM must be issued.
137
What type of radial is recommended as the reference when establishing an ARR?
An approach radial.
138
What distance and altitude should the ARR be established?
5-10 NM Segment between 10 and 25 NM (5 and 25 nm for hybrid mode). If feasible, an approach radial at the same altitude as the alignment orbit is recommended.
139
If ARR alignment is >1 degree from previously established what should be done?
Perform an alignment orbit, if a change in mean course alignment of more that 1.0 degrees is found, contact technical operations maintenance.
140
What must be done if ARR and orbit are re-established?
Notify maintenance through the FICO (if they're not on site) anytime the ARR and orbit are re-established. They have a 72 hour period to perform their post flight ground reference checks.
141
Must crossing radials be flown radially?
No, the evaluation of teh crossing radial is accomplished while flying along procedural track?
142
What altitude is flown on Rho-Theta final approach segments?
100 below MDA and step down fixes.
143
What is a TACAN Null?
Defined as any repeatable out-of-tolerance cross poniter action or condition of unlock.
144
What should be done if a null is found?
Fly at an altitude 500ft above or below the minimum FAF altitude. Inform maintenance so the problem can be corrected if possible.
145
How are TACAN nulls flown, when are they required, and how many transmitters must they be checked on?
On site, commissioning, reconfiguration, frequency change, antenna change, changes to the location of the FAF, and changes in FAF altitude of 300 feet or more on existing procedures, fly the approach radial and 5 degrees either side of the approach radial inbound or outbound in level flight from 3 miles outside to 3 miles inside the FAF at the lowest minimum altitude depicted for the FAF.
146
How are VOR Offset checks flown, when are they required?
During site evaluation, commissioning, reconfiguration, antenna change, frequency change, lowering a FAF or the lowest MDA, or extending the final approach segment, evaluate VOR radials 5 degrees each side of the final approach radial. Evaluate the offset radials on one transmitter only at the same altitudes as the final approach radial segment.
147
After facility rotation for MAGVAR or final approach radial ammendmends, do NULLS/VOR OFFSETS have to be flown on both sides?
No, most likely, only in the direction rotated. Must be protected at least 5 degrees either side.
148
What is the minimum orbit radius for hybrid and and FI-DME respectively?
5/10 NM
149
How is alignment orbit altitude determined?
4-6 degree angle from the site.
150
Must OT conditions found during orbital inspection be confirmed by a radial evaluation?
Yes, they must be confirmed by a radial evaluation before restricting a facility or issuing a NOTAM. Radial evaluations have priority. When optimizing alignment, the mean orbital alignment should be within +/- .5 adn the system differential between a collocated VOR and TACAN should not exceed 1.0 detree. For dual transmitter systems, use the primary transmitter as teh reference.
151
What altitude are coverage orbits flown?
1000 feet above antenna elevation (2000 feet in mountainous) or intervening terrain or obstruction.
152
How are radials used to define a restriction during Rho-Theta coverage?
Distance and altitude limits, lateral limits may be defined by orbital means.
153
Generally, what is the minimum size, in degrees, of a restricted area for Rho-Theta coverage?
10 degrees
154
What is the main difference between aircraft maneuvering during commissioning of ground receiver checkpoints and periodic?
During commissioning, the aircraft must be facing the facility, on periodic, only has to be facing if OT
155
On a VORTAC, if either portion of the facility does not support with checkpoint what should be done?
Annotate the Facility Data Sheet and notify Airfield Management to remove that portion from the sign.
156
What is the minimum distance to be established on a radial prior to an airborne checkpoint?
At a minimum, establish the aircraft on the radial 1 mile prior to the checkpoint.
157
What two Rho-Theta inspection maneuvers do not require inspection on both transmitters?
Coverage and ESVs
158
If a transmitter is to be changed on an approach, when must it be swapped?
Prior to the FAF
159
When are standby power checks not required for Rho-Theta facilities? How is this check accomplished?
When they are powered by Floating Batteries (uninterruptible power supplies etc) that are constantly charged by another power source. Inspections are to be performed when flying a radial with the facility operating on normal power and then repeating the check over the same ground track at the same altitude with the facility operating on standby power.
160
How can you tell which transmitter is transmitting by the ident?
The spacing between the second and third characters of the standby transmitter may be increased by one dot.
161
Where is polarization checked on Rho-Theta facilities?
Radially, between 5-20 miles.
162
What is the Rho-Theta confirmation procedure?
Fly over a prominent ground checkpoint, located 5-20 NM from the facility, execute a 30 degree bank turn and hold this bank angle throughout 360 degrees.
163
What's the difference between roughness and scalloping?
Roughness will show as a series of ragged irregular deviations; scalloping as a series of smooth rhythmic deviations. Neither are flyable.
164
What is a bend?
A bend is similar to scalloping, except its frequency is of a duration that enables an aircraft to be maneuvered throughout the aberration to obtain a centered cross pointer. It's flyable structure.
165
What is the tolerance for a bend? For roughness and scalloping?
3.5, 3.0...This can result in momentary displacement of the course of 6.5 degrees
166
On a shipboard TACAN, which radar is considered most accurate?
The Fire Control radar is considered the most accurate and will be used when available.
167
May Rho-Theta course structure be affected by the ID?
No
168
How much deviation can voice transmissions cause?
.5 degrees
169
What is the tolerance for polarization on Rho-Theta?
2.0 degrees
170
What is alignment tolerance for VOR? For airborne and ground checkpoints respectively?
2.5 degrees, except for bends; 1.5 and 2.0 respectively
171
How are NDBs classified?
According to their intended use
172
What is the service volume of Compass Locators, MH, H, and HH facilities respectively?
15, 25, 50, and 75 nm
173
For periodic inspections of dual transmitter NDB facilities, what should be coordinated by the flight inspector?
To have the NDB operating on the transmitter not checked during the last periodic inspection.
174
To what distance must the voice feature be clear and recognizable for an NDB?
2/3 the SSV
175
For NDB coverage orbits, what altitude will be flown?
At the maximum distance specified by the facility classification, fly an orbit 1,500 feet above facility site elevation, or the minimum altitude which will provide 1,000 (2000 mountains) above intervening terrain or obstacles, whichever is higher as determined by map study.
176
What are enroute bearing deviation tolerances for NDBs?
20 degrees, +- 10; may exceed for no greater than 8 seconds but only if the out of tolerance activity cannot be construed as station passage, and the activity is not generally one-sided when repetitive.
177
What is the allowable bearing deviation in the final approach segment and holding pattern?
10 degrees +- 5 degrees, may exceed for no greater than 4 seconds but only if the out of tolerance activity cannot be construed as station passage, and the activity is not generally one-sided when repetitive.
178
For RNAV coding evaluation, is the desktop or FMS method preferred?
Desktop.
179
When CPV is accomplished, some RNAV segments do not have to be flown, however, which segments must always be flown?
The final and missed approach segments.
180
When may obstacle clearance be considered satisfactory?
For RNAV procedure segments entirely at or above established minimum IFR altitudes. OROCA, MEA, or by adding 1000, 2000 mountainous, above MEF figures from a sectional.
181
How may communications be considered satisfactory without verification?
Where there are existing procedures or if teh controlling agency can confirm communication coverage at the specific locations and altitudes.
182
Should any sensors be deselected from the FMS prior to inspection?
No
183
If data logging is not available, do segments need to be reflown?
No, not required
184
Is there any requirement to measure ground based navaids for RNAV procedures?
No, unless it's DME/DME
185
When using the Universal FMS what LOS should be verified.
LPV; LP is not a capability
186
When does the VDA need to be validated on LNAV/LP approaches?
When there is no LPV or VNAV minima included
187
Prior to mission departure, what should be done with the individual FAS data file?
The CRC remainder should be verified to match the 8260-10. Manual entry of the FAS data block is not allowed. If CRC does not match, contact the FICO.
188
When inspecting WAAS glide path, must full "Fly Up" be verified?
yes
189
What is the typical range of a PAR system?
20 nm., 20 degree azimuth sector and 15 degree elevation
190
What is altitude that should set off an alert in each "bin" of a GTM?
500 feet above the highest obstacle or predicted to be below
191
What terminology should be used with ATC to test GTM and APM?
"MSAW" or "low altitude alert"
192
Is APM required on periodics?
No, check the GTM, check APM only during commissioning or when requested by MX or ATC. If either or both are unavailable during commissioning, a flight inspection is not required before use.
193
At what altitude and distance should the controller vector the flight inspection aircraft to begin the ASR approach?
10 miles at the MVA
194
Prior to the final segment, what should be provided by the controller?
Verify the minimum descent altitude provided by the controller matches the published MDA.
195
If an ASR approach requires MTI, may the approach be used if MTI is inoperative?
No, the use of MTI does not constitute a facility restriction, however, an ASR approach which requires MTI must be considered "Not Authorized" while MTI is inoperative.
196
Do MSAW test results affect the ASR status?
No, it's a software test with no flight inspection tolerance. Document all MSAW failures on the DFL and inform FICO.
197
What type of beacon code should be used when checking an MSAW?
An "uninhibited" IFR beacon code
198
At what distance should an MSAW be accomplished?
Within 55 nm of the ASR. Perform the GTM check beyond 10 NM from any airport with an APM.
199
What is the ASR Straight-In Approach Tolerance?
Within 500 feet of runway edge at the MAP
200
What does the PAR B-cursor run check and what is the typical angle below the standard glidepath?
The B-cursor run checks the controller's lower safe limit display, and is normally a half-degree below the standard glidepath angle.
201
Should the PAR be coincident with other guidance?
Yes, monitor ILS, GBAS GLS, WAAS LPV, MLS, and/or VGSI to evaluate coincidence.
202
What is the PAR Along-Track Alignment Measuerment zone?
4.0 - .8 nm
203
How is course alignment evaluated at the threshold and what is the tolerance??
Visually, 30 feet
204
What is the minimum satisfactory PAR distance coverage?
7.5 miles
205
What is the commissioning and periodic tolerance for PAR glidepath angle?
Within .1 degrees of designed angle for commissioning, within .2 degrees of published angle for periodic
206
What is the tolerance for the B cursor angle and when must this angle be reported?
Clear of obstacles, commisioning-type inspections require the angle be reported
207
May the PAR be used if the lower safe limit is not clear of obstacles?
No, it is "unusable" so long as the lower safe limit angle is not clear of obstacles.
208
What is considered coincident for PAR angle when compared to other precision approach guidance?
Within .2 degrees
209
What should be done with regards to PAR standby equipment on periodic inspections?
For periodic inspections, review the previous report and attempt to perform the primary equipment checks on the equipment used as standby on the previous inspection.
210
What is the non-image array glideslope system?
End-fire
211
Where is ILS Point A?
4 NM miles from the threshold (4 NM from the antenna for BC)
212
Where is ILS Point B?
3,500 feet from the threshold (1 NM for BC LOC)
213
Where is ILS Point C?
100 feet above the the horizontal plane of the threshold on glidepath (commissioned angle). ForLOC, BC, LDA and SDF, point C is the MAP.
214
Where is ILS Point D?
3,000 from the Runway Threshold towards the localizer
215
Where is ILS Point E?
2,000 feet from the stop end of the runway in the direction of the threshold.
216
Where is ILS Point T?
The threshold, on path. AKA ILS reference datum
217
What is ILS Zone 1?
Loc/Glidepath service volume to point A (4 NM).
218
What is ILS Zone 2?
The distance from point A to B?
219
What is ILS Zone 3?
CAT I: distance from B to C, CATII/III: distance from B to T (threshold)
220
What is ILS Zone 4?
The distance from T to D
221
What is ILS Zone 5?
The distance from D to E
222
What is LOC standard service volume?
35 degrees either side of centerline to 10 NM (17 ICAO) and 10 degrees either side of centerline to 18 NM (25 ICAO)
223
What is Glide Slope Standard service volume?
8 degrees either side of centerline out to 10 NM (17 for ICAO)
224
What does the ILS-1 Arc Measure?
Course Width, Symmetry, Clearances, Signal Strength, Modulation, and ID.
225
What is LSA?
Lower standard altitude - 1500 feet above the antenna or 500 feet above intervening terrain whichever is higher, between 6 and 10 NM (10 being optimum) from the localizer antenna to include 35 degrees on each side of course. On periodic checks, course width may be evaluated at distances from 6-14 NM.
226
Should man made obstacles be considered fro ILS-1 altitude determination?
No, unless the obstruction is in the flight path of the aircraft. Document any obstacles on the data sheet that come within 200 feet of LSA that could be a factor when maneuvering in the ILS-1 area.
227
If measuring course width only, where may the ILS-1 Arc be flown?
10-10 degrees
228
What are P-RNG and P-BRG?
The distance from the localizer and degrees to the front or back course bearing.
229
What does the ILS-2 measure?
GS angle, path width, symmetry, clearance above path, structure-below-path, and signal strength.
230
For a periodic inspection, may the level run ILS-2 altitude be adjusted for weather?
yes
231
What is measured on the ILS-3 In-Bound approach profile?
It provides for inspection of the localizer course alignment, structure, signal strength, polarization, modulation, glide slope angle, angle alignment, structure, signal strength, modulation, ID, as well as marker beacon width and tone.
232
When is the aircraft considered on-course/on-path?
When within 22.5 uA of the course or path signal.
233
For clearance below path begin outside of GSI to the threshold. For any facility configuration where the 190uA/150 HZ structure below path ponit cannot be found, start the run from the_________________________.
edge of the glide slope service volume. Maintain obstacle clearnace while remaining at or below the 180 uA point (150 uA point for monitor conditions).
234
What must the PIC do prior to any clearance below path approaches?
Conduct a crew briefing prior to any clearance below path approach that includes intended aircraft configuration and speed; specific PNF duties, and call outs by the Mission Specialist (if any).
235
When monitors are checked, what must be done before and after the monitor checks?
Perform a normal localizer course width and/or glide slope path width prior to and after checking the monitor conditions. Exception: for subordinate back courses, checkign normal width prior to the monitor inspection is not required.
236
If the results of the current and last periodic ILS interval inspections indicate a potential for a restriction removal, what should be done?
Notify Flight Inspection Technical Services
237
If a back course is used for missed approach guidance, what checklist requirements must it meet?
The same checklist requirements and tolerances used for an approach.
238
Which facilities should meet equality in normal maintenance limits?
Non-Air Force
239
What is the localizer alignment tolerance for equality in normal?
+- 3uA
240
What is the angle tolerance for equality in normal?
.03 degrees
241
When must initial tolerances be met?
When a reference is established. Initial reference values must be established if MX adjusts the ILS to a new reference setting, teh facility is found oeprating beyond periodic fliht inspection tolerances or when validating references.
242
If, after repeated attempts, the results are beyond initial tolerance but within flight inspection tolerances, may the inspection be continued?
Continue the flight inspection if maintenance wishes to restore the facility.
243
My fligth inspectors remove facilities from service if parameters exceed standard or initial tolerances but are within fligth inspection tolerances?
No.
244
When must initial alignment tolerances be applied to the reference transmitter on a periodic check?
The "Initial" alignment tolerance must be applied as the "Final" value to the reference transmitter on all Periodic with Monitor type checks.
245
If maintenance is unable to adjust the standby transmitter within equality limits, may it be left on the air?
Yes, if it meets Paragraph 15-14a or `5-14b tolerances, the transmitter may remain in service unless Maintenance elects to remove it from service.
246
During an airborne ILS reference inspection, does symmetry have a tolerance in abnormal conditions?
No.
247
After an antenna replacement of the same type, PM checks are required; what additional run is required in addition to the PM checks?
All of Zone 1 structure and localizer only structure checks.
248
If LOC antennas are changed to a different type, what checks are required?
Commissioning type checks, except for those checks not required, as determined jointly by flight inspection and Facilities MX personnel.
249
Can a localizer be restricted solely because the voice/ATIS cannot be received?
No, Localizer must be restricted if identification is not received an all areas of the required coverage. Deny procedure use beyond the distance that identification is not received when checking an ESV. Localizers must not be restricted solely because teh voice/ATIS cannot be received.
250
What does power ratio measure?
The power ratio between the course and clearance transmitters.
251
For dual frequency antennas that do not provide enough clearance power to measure modulation on centerline, what can be done?
Measure clearance-only modulation level while inbound between 5 and 10 degrees off-course at the LSA with the clearance transmitter in modulation balance configuration.
252
Restrict facilities for out-of-tolerance modulation if they were installed, relocated, reconfigured, or modified with _________ after _____________. If the antennas are the same type and just relocated, do not restrict the facility for out-of-tolerance modulation.
New type antennas, January 1, 2000
253
What does modulation equality check measure?
This check verifies that the 90Hz and 150Hz signals are modulating the carrier equally. Use this measurement as a reference for phasing and alignment monitors.
254
What is the purpose of the width and symmetry check?
The purpose of this check is to establish and maintain a course sector width and ratio between half-course widths that will provide the desired displacement sensitivity at the procedural missed approach point or threshold, and is within the limitations of the procedural protected area.
255
How is localizer width measured?
Width is measured in degrees between where the crosspointer crosses the 90Hz and 150Hz 150uA points.
256
How is localizer symmertry determined?
Symmetry is determined by comparing the 90Hz half width to the localizer width.
257
What is tailored course width?
Localizers, offset localizers, and LDAs must be tailored to a course sector width not greater than 6 degrees and a linear sector width of 700 feet at the following points: Point C for LDA/SDF; Point B for runways less than 4,000 ft long and for runways that do not conform to precision instrument design standards, Point T for facilities supporting all other applications.
258
What additional localizer check is required for periodic inspections of international host nation or DoD essential facilities?
Periodic inspections of international host nation or DoD essential facilities require a 17nm ILS-1, 35 degrees either side of course for coverage in normal on one transmitter.
259
If the course sector width on a facility that supports a precision approach will not provide for at least 400 ft linear width at the runway threshold, what must occur?
The course must be restricted as unusable inside the point where the linear width is 400 feet.
260
What are localizer clearances?
Clearances ensure that the facility provides adequate off-course indications throughout the facility's service volume.
261
How are clearances measured?
Clearances are the lowest crosspointer uA value between service volume and the course sector 1 linear increase.
262
What is clearance comparability?
Clearance comparability allows localizer width, symmetry, and clearance measurements at altitudes higher than LSA (e.g. weather, restricted airspace, ATC limitation, etc.)
263
How many clearance comparability procedures are there?
There are two. Use procedure 1 for all facilities, unless the clearances at the desired higher altitude in teh lowest clearance configuration are greater than in the same configuration at LSA. There is a flowchart that's easier to use.
264
During site, commissioning, reconfiguration, categorization, antenna, and/or frequency change, what additional alignment and structure run must be accomplished?
Check all of zone 1. This check may be accomplished concurrently with teh inbound RF power run, if RF power is required.
265
What does the localizer classification tell you?
It describes the furthest point at which the structure conforms to Category III structure. If roll out has not been accomplished, facility cannot be classified higher than point T.
266
If structure appears to have deteriorated since the previous inspection, or if out-of-tolerance structure is found, what should be done?
Localizer Only Structure Evaluation
267
Any time alignment is adjusted, or at the end of a Periodic with monitors inspection, what alignment tolerance must non-Air Force facilities meet?
Alignment of the refernce transmitter must meet the "Initial" maintenance tolerance
268
Where is alignment measured on a CAT I ILS? On a BC?
From 1 NM to Threshold, From 2-1 NM from the antenna.
269
When is rollout required for localizer site, commissioning, reconfiguration and categorization inspections?
Roll-Out Procedures are required for all Category II/III localizers. Roll-out is also required for all Category 1 localizers installed with runway lengths of 5,000 feet or greater. Offset localizers, localizers installed without glide slopes, SDF, LDA, and facilities currently with a classification of 1/A, B, or C, need not be checked. Rollout checks and the 50ft ILS-3 comparison checks are required on both transmitters.
270
Where do we mark during the rollout procedure?
GS antenna, Point D, and Point E
271
Where is polarization checked on a localizer?
Prior to the FAF, concurrently with structure check, one transmitter only
272
What must be done before and after checking the width monitor reference?
Check the localizer in normal configuration.
273
What does the localizer RF Power Monitor Reference check?
Conduct this check to determine that the localizer meets specified tolerance throughout the service volume while operating in reduced power.
274
Describe the localizer RF power monitor reference check.
1. Fly a 10-10 degree arc across the localizer course at 18 nm (25 nm for ICAO Service Volumes) from the localizer antenna at 4500 feet above antenna elevation.
2. Fly a 10-10 degree arc across the localizer course at 18nm (25 ICAO) from the localizer antenna at 2000ft above the threshold elevation or 1000 ft above intervening terrain, whichever is highest.
3. Proceed on course, inbound from 18 nm (25 for ICAO) from the localizer antenna at 2000 feet above threshold or 1000 feet above intervening terrain, whichever is higher, until reaching 7 degrees above the horizontal (measured from the localizer antenna) or point C, whichever occurs last.
4. Fly a 35 to 35 degree arc across the localizer course at 10nm (17 ICAO) from the localizer antenna at the LSA. (2000 ft above threshold or 1000 ft above intervening terrain whichever is higher for ICAO)
275
What is the high angle clearance check?
This check determines that the transmitted signals provide proper off-course indications at the upper limit of the service volume.
276
How is the high angle clearance check accomplished?
Fly a 10 nm (17 ICAO) arc through sectors 1 and 2 (and 3, if procedurally required), at 4,500 feet above antenna elevation. One transmitter only. If OT check at decreasing altitudes to determine the highest altitude at which the facility may be used.
277
Prior to any glide slope phasing checks, what must be properly set and checked?
Glide slope modulation level and modulation equality.
278
What is unique about Capture Effect glide slope airborne phasing?
The Airborne Phase Verification procedure - this helps maintenance to determine if proper phasing exists. May be done before phasing. Required to be completed after airborne phasing.
279
What are the two methods used to measure the glide slope angle?
The level run method and the actual path angle method.
280
What is the glide slop correction factor?
It is the difference between the NORMAL ILS-3 angle and the NORMAL ILS-2 Angle. Apply the correction factor to all subsequent ILS-2 monitor angles.
281
May the level run method be adjusted for weather?
Yes, on periodics only
282
Where is glide path width measured?
It's the half width measured between the 75 uA points. Check data sheet for non-standard width measurement area. AFIS will automatically convert non-standard measurement areas into the equivalent half-width.
283
What should be done if a step in the glide slope is encountered?
Perform a mean width check. Fly a normal level run using 60 uA measurement points. Fly a normal level run using 90 uA measurement points. On subsequent level runs, use the measurement points that most closely match the path width results measured on the mean width check. If a point other than 75uA is used to measure path widths, that pont must be used on all subsequent checks and inspections.
284
How is glide slope symmetry calculated?
It's the percent of 90 Hz half width to the total half width.
285
If points other than the 75uA points were used to measure width, must they also be used to measure symmetry?
yes
286
If level run symmetry is out of tolerance, what may be done?
You may establish mean symmetry. You'd then apply the mean symmetry correction factor to subsequent level runs. The symmetry correction factor must be annotated on the data sheet. If the symmetry remains out of tolerance after performing the mean width check, the facility must be removed from service.
287
What does the structure below path check determine?
This check determines that the 190uA/150Hz point occurs at an angle above the horizontal that is at least 30 percent of the commissioned angle.
288
Does the structure-below-path point have to occur within the service volume of the facility?
No, provided the signal strength and flag alarm current indications are within appropriate tolerances.
289
What should be done if you're unable to find the 190ua/150Hz point?
In any configuration, conduct a clearance below path check starting at the edge of the service volume. Remain below 180uA and 150uA for normal and alarm configurations respectively.
290
What does clearance below path assure?
Perform this check to assure that positive fly-up indications exist between the bottom of the glide path sector and obstructions.
291
Where is the clearance below path maneuver flown?
From below path at the GSI to the threshold on localizer course.
292
What does the glide slope tilt check verify?
This check verifies that the glidepath angle and clearances are within the authorized tolerance at the extremities of the localizer course sector.
293
How is the tilt check flown?
Fly an ILS-2 left of course at the locailzer 150uA point, Fly an ILS-2 right of course at the localizer 150uA point, below path approach from thh GSI distance to point B left of course at the localizer 150uA point, below path approach from the GSI distance to pont B right of course at the localizer 150uA point. Only required on 1 transmitter.
294
What does mean width determine?
It determines the mean width of the glidepath between ILS points A and B; also determine mean symmetry.
295
What should be established before the mean width check?
Establish the level run width prior to the mean width check.
296
How is the mean width maneuver flown?
ILS-3 on course, ILS-3 75uA above path, ILS-3 75 uA below path
297
If an out-of-tolerance change/reversal occurs on the glideslope, what must be done?
A NOTAM must be issued that withholds authorization for autopilot coupled approaches below an altitude which is 50 ft higher on the glidepath than the altitude at which the out-of-tolerance condition occurs.
298
How does out of tolerance change/reversal NOTAM/restriciton action differ between CAT I and CAT II/III?
CAT I must not be classified restricted, but NOTAM action must be taken. II/III must be classified as restricted, and the procedures NOTAMed.
299
What is the transverse structure check?
This is a measurement of the horizontal structure of the glidepath and is directly related to on-path structure tilt, and clearance (Endfire Glidslopes)
300
How is transverse structure flown?
Fly an arc of at least 12 degrees each side of localizer centerline at the FAF distance and FAF altitude corrected to true altitude. If the FAF is less than 5.0 miles from the glide slope, change the arc distance to at least 5 miles.
301
What is required to check before and after glideslope monitors?
Check the facility in normal prior to conducting the monitor check. After any monitor inspection, return the facility to normal, check angle, width, symmetry, and structure below the path and report results to maintenance.
302
What does the glideslope RF Power Monitor Reference check?
Conduct this check to determine that the glide slope meets specified tolerances throughout its service volume while operating at reduced power.
303
How is the glideslope RF power Monitor Reference flown?
Maintain an altitude equal to .45 the commissioned angle at 10 nm from the facility and fly inbound to the interception of the lower sector of the glide path (150 uA). Fly through the glide path and check clearances above path. Repeat this maneuver 8 degrees right and left of localizer centerline. In situations where less than 150uA fly-up signal is received descend to an altitude which will provide at least 150 uA fly-up while providing adequate obstacle clearance at 10 miles.
304
What are the two marker beacon categories?
ILS and fan
305
What does the outer marker normally indicate?
A position at which an aircraft is at the appropriate altitude on the localizer course will intercept glidepath.
306
What are the aural and visual cues for the OM?
Continuous dashes and a blue lamp.
307
What does the middle marker indicate?
Position approximately 3,500 feet from the landing threshold. This is also the position where an aircraft on the glide path will be at an altitude of approximately 200 feet above touchdown.
308
What are the aural and visual cues for the MM?
Alternating dots and dashes and an amber lamp.
309
What does the inner marker indicate?
A point at which an aircraft is at a desgnated ecision height on the glide path between the MM and landing threshold.
310
What are the aural and visual cues for the IM?
Continuous dots at a rate of six per second and illuminates the white lamp.
311
What type of approaches are fan markers typically associated with?
Non-precision approaches
312
How can you tell that a marker is properly modulated?
The correct color light illuminates for the marker type.
313
How is the aircraft maneuvered to measure the minor axis of the marker beacon?
On a precision approach, on path on course through marker beacon. On a non-precision, on course in direction of intended use at the minimum altitude of the approaches.
314
What marker types are allowed holes and how large can they be?
Outer and fan markers are allowed holes provided that it is less than 300 feet in duration. A hole is a momentary reduction in signal strength below 1700uV.
315
What is outer marker optimum width?
2000 feet.
316
How is the major axis measured?
Same altitude as minor, but fly 75 uA either side of course or 5 degrees for directional facilities.
317
If maintenance is available and the CAT III facility is unable to meet "adjust and maintain" parameters, what should be done?
Maintenance alert issued, document on report, Do not leave the facility operating CAT III beyond the "adjust and maintain" values; the facility must be downgraded.
318
What is the maximum localizer width and what is the tailored width at thereshold?
6 degrees (12 for SDF). CAT II & III tailored to 700 feet, precision approach--400 minimum at the threshold.
319
What is the symmetry tolerance? In abnormal configurations?
45-55%, no tolerance in abnormal
320
What is the localizer course alignment tolerance for commissioning or at the conclusion of a monitor inspection or when alignment is adjusted (non-Air Force).
+- 3uA
321
What is the localizer width tolerance?
17% of commissioned width
322
What is glideslope width tolerance for commissioning and periodic?
.7 +- .05; .7+-.2
323
What is glideslope angle tolerance for commissioning and periodic?
+-.05; +10%/-7.5%
324
What is the clearance below path tolerance"
Adequate obstacle clearance at no less than 180uA of fly-up signal in normal (150uA in any monitor limit condition).
325
What is Standard Service Volume?
That volume of airspace defined by the national standard.
326
What is the FISSV?
Flight inspection standard service volume. Defined in the appropriate chapter for facility type.
327
What must be done before flight inspection of an ESV?
It must be properly requested and approved by frequency management of Technical Operations applicable Service Area.
328
What is Operational Service Volume (OSV)?
The airspace included for operational use. It includes The SSV (excluding restrictions) and the ESV.
329
For Rho-Theta, when is an ESV required?
When procedural use is predicated on a NAVAID's performance outside of the SSV.
330
How many transmitters must Rho-Theta ESVs be evaluated on?
1
331
May Rho-Theta ESVs be revalidated by orbital flight?
Yes, an ESV may be revalidated by orbital flight at the ESV distance and lowest approved altitude.
332
When must fix Rho-Theta fix displacement be flown?
Any time the fix is located beyond the FISSV of any facility that supports the fix, the appropriate fix displacement coverage evaluation must be accomplished for that facility.
333
How far either side of the primary radial will the primary facility be evaluated during fix displacement evaluation (crossing radial fixes)?
+- 4NM or +- 4.5 degrees either side of the primary radial, whichever is greater
334
How far either side of the crossing radial will the secondary facility be evaluated for fix displacement??
+- 3.6 degrees (5 degrees for an NDB)
335
Where does 4NM equal 4.5 degrees with respect to fix displacement?
50.8 NM
336
How will fix displacement be accomplished for Stand-Alone DME fixes?
Stand-Alone DME fixes are evaluated for coverage +- 4nm or 4.5 degrees (whichever is greater) at 5 nm greater than the fix distance.
337
How many transmitters are ILS ESVs required to be checked on?
1
338
Describe the Localizer ESV maneuver.
In RF Power, Fly a 10-10 degree arc across the LOC course at the ESV distance and the highest ESV altitude, then fly a 10-10 degree arc across the LOC at the ESV distance and the lowest ESV altitude, then proceed on course, inbound from teh ESV distance to 18 nm (25 for ICAO) from the localizer antenna at the lowest altitude.
339
Describe the Glideslope ESV maneuver.
Calculate the altitude at .45 times the commissioned angle at the ESV distance, Fly in bound beginning at the ESV distance from the facility through the glidepath sector until reaching clearance above path, repeat the above maneuver 8 degrees right and 8 degrees left of course
340
When do transitions to LOC/ILS approaches need to be checked for clearance and coverage?
When a transition (or missed approach routing) is designed to traverse localizer course sector 3 or air space which is outside the commissioned service volume, and the procedure does not require the transition termination point to be identified with a facility other than the localizer course, check clearance and coverage throughout the entire transition air space at the minimum authorized altitude.
341
What type of transition termination points to do not require clearance validation?
DME Fixes on transition radial, waypoint, Compass Locator, Lead Radials, fixes made up from other than the localizer, and "Radar Required" fixes. Examples of transition requiring clearance would be a radial to the localizer only or a radial to a marker beacon on the localizer course.
342
What status must facilities evaluated under chapter 24 be classified?
Restricted, All flight inspection records must be retained until the facility/procedure can be inspected using normal procedures and tolerances.
343
What will commissioning under chapter 24 provide?
A limited-use facility where only the desired instrument procedures are supported.
344
What are two type of Chapter 24 inspections?
Special and Commissioning
