5 - Unit Review Exercises

Question 1

68. (644) Which process does nuclear fission involve?
    a. Chemically bonding two atoms using helium.
    b. Merging two smaller atoms into one larger atom.
    c. Forcing atoms to vibrate at incredibly high speeds.
    d. Splitting the nucleus of an atom into smaller fragments.

Answer 1

d. Splitting the nucleus of an atom into smaller fragments.

Question 2

69. (644) In a hydrogen bomb, two isotopes of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium are fused to form a
    a. nucleus of helium and a neutron.
    b. nucleus of halon and a neutron.
    c. deuterium molecule.
    d. hydrogen molecule.

Answer 2

a. nucleus of helium and a neutron.

Question 3

70. (644) What is radioactive fallout?
    a. A wave of intense heat from the explosion.
    b. The radiation that occurs at the time of explosion.
    c. Pressure from the shock wave created by the blast.
    d. Clouds of fine radioactive dust particles and debris.

Answer 3

d. Clouds of fine radioactive dust particles and debris.

Question 4

71. (644) Within figure 4–7 of the text, what percentage accounts for blast effects in the
    overall effects of a surface nuclear detonation?
    a. 5.
    b. 10.
    c. 35.
    d. 50.

Answer 4

d. 50.

Question 5

72. (644) What percentage of the energy from a nuclear explosion is made up of an intense
    burst of thermal radiation?
    a. 5.
    b. 10.
    c. 35.
    d. 50.

Answer 5

c. 35.

Question 6

73. (644) The major incendiary effect of nuclear explosions is caused by the
    a. electromagnetic pulse (EMP).
    b. flash burns.
    c. blast wave.
    d. fireball.

Answer 6

c. blast wave.

Question 7

74. (644) Approximately what percentage of total radioactivity does fallout contain?
    a. 70.
    b. 60.
    c. 50.
    d. 40

Answer 7

b. 60.

Question 8

75. (644) An electromagnetic pulse (EMP) from a high altitude burst
    a. results in flash blindness and skin burns.
    b. is a single pulse of energy that disappears in a fraction of a second.
    c. will not damage most equipment designed to protect electrical facilities from lightning.
    d. is an electromagnetic wave which results from secondary reactions occurring when alpha radiation is absorbed in the air or ground.

Answer 8

b. is a single pulse of energy that disappears in a fraction of a second.

Question 9

76. (645) Which type of nuclear weapon is fission-based and has a plutonium (Pu) core?
    a. The neutron bomb.
    b. The hydrogen bomb.
    c. Gun-type nuclear bomb.
    d. Implosion-type nuclear bomb.

Answer 9

d. Implosion-type nuclear bomb.

Question 10

77. (645) What is the difference between a neutron bomb and a standard nuclear weapon?
    a. Physical structures are more affected by a neutron bomb.
    b. There is no real discernible difference between the bombs.
    c. The primary lethal effects come from the radiation damage caused by the neutrons a neutron bomb emits.
    d. There is less of a distinction between areas of high lethality and areas with minimal
    radiation doses for neutron bombs.

Answer 10

c. The primary lethal effects come from the radiation damage caused by the neutrons a neutron bomb emits.

Question 11

78. (645) What is a radiological exposure device (RED)?
    a. A regular explosive laced with lower-grade radioactive material (RAM).
    b. An illicit nuclear weapon bought, stolen, or otherwise obtained that produces a nuclear
    explosion.
    c. A device intended to expose people to significant doses of ionizing radiation (rad) without
    their knowledge.
    d. A device in which the nuclear yield produces extreme heat, powerful shockwaves, and
    prompt radiation or radioactive fallout.

Answer 11

c. A device intended to expose people to significant doses of ionizing radiation (rad) without their knowledge.

Question 12

79. (645) Which is not generally considered a secondary hazard of nuclear weapons?
    a. Beryllium.
    b. Hydrazine.
    c. Laser radiation.
    d. Composite materials.

Answer 12

c. Laser radiation.

Question 13

80. (645) During a non-radiological (secondary) hazard to nuclear weapons,
    a. radiation has already been completely expelled.
    b. the shock, heat and friction created can cause other high explosive material to detonate.
    c. an initial shock wave has already occurred, leaving a thermal hazard and radiation as the
    only remaining issues.
    d. fallout radiation penetrating protective structures will be the sole hazard after all
    immediate issues have been dealt with following a detonation.

Answer 13

b. the shock, heat and friction created can cause other high explosive material to detonate.

Question 14

81. (646) Which of the following would be categorized as a Bent Spear?
    a. The forcible, unauthorized seizure of a nuclear weapon.
    b. An accidental or unauthorized launch of a nuclear weapon.
    c. An unfavorable environment or condition resulting in damage to the nuclear weapon.
    d. A non-nuclear detonation or burning of a nuclear weapon or radiological nuclear weapon component.

Answer 14

d. A non-nuclear detonation or burning of a nuclear weapon or radiological nuclear weapon
component.

Question 15

82. (646) The accidental or unauthorized launching by United States (US) forces of a
    nuclear-capable weapon system is referred to with the flagword
    a. Broken Arrow.
    b. Faded Giant.
    c. Bent Spear.
    d. Dull Sword.

Answer 15

a. Broken Arrow.

Question 16

83. (647) During a military response to a radiological accident, who is the primary
    radiological health and safety advisor to the military on-scene commander (OSC)?
    a. Public affairs (PA).
    b. Ground safety.
    c. Flight surgeon.
    d. Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

Answer 16

d. Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

Question 17

84. (647) Bioenvironmental engineering (BE) personnel have been given the task of
    monitoring the contamination levels on the ground in and around a Broken Arrow.
    Preliminary results from ambient air monitoring indicate the airborne concentration of Alpha
    activity is 525 disintegrations per minute per centimeters cubed (dpm/m3
    ) above background.
    As an entry team leader, what respiratory protection level should be recommended?
    a. Full-face high-efficiency particulate air, absorbing, or arrestance (HEPA) respirator.
    b. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
    c. No respiratory protection needed.
    d. Half-face HEPA respirator.

Answer 17

a. Full-face high-efficiency particulate air, absorbing, or arrestance (HEPA) respirator.

Question 18

85. (647) What types of clothing provide some protection from contamination and can be
    worn in lieu of special anticontamination clothing during an emergency?
    a. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
    b. Civilian work clothes or military fatigues.
    c. Various physical training gear.
    d. Rubber gloves.

Answer 18

b. Civilian work clothes or military fatigues.

Question 19

86. (647) The primary treatment for internal contamination is to increase the rate of
    elimination of the radioactive isotope. How can this be done?
    a. Mechanical means.
    b. Antibiotics.
    c. Vaccines.
    d. Water.

Answer 19

a. Mechanical means.

Question 20

87. (647) Medical countermeasures that are approved to treat known or suspected internal
    contamination with plutonium (Pu), americium or curium are known as:
    a. Chelating agents.
    b. Elimination agents.
    c. Chelating solutions.
    d. Elimination solutions.

Answer 20

a. Chelating agents.

Question 21

88. (647) When performing external decontamination of patients at the site, what should be
    done to ensure contamination is not spread?
    a. Remove all contaminated clothing.
    b. Perform treatment in the field.
    c. Transport patient to hospital.
    d. Closely monitor patient.

Answer 21

a. Remove all contaminated clothing.

Question 22

89. (647) After determining that skin contamination has occurred in a radiological incident,
    where should medical personnel concentrate their attention to thoroughly remove
    contamination?
    a. Feet.
    b. Arms.
    c. Hands.
    d. Wounds.

Answer 22

d. Wounds.

Question 22

90. (647) To reduce the amount of radiological contamination to instruments,
    bioenvironmental engineering (BE) personnel can place plastic bags over radioactivity
    detection identification and computation (RADIAC) meters, except for what types of survey
    instrument probes?
    a. Alpha.
    b. Beta.
    c. Gamma (γ).
    d. X-ray

Answer 22

a. Alpha.

Question 23

91. (647) When recommending contamination control procedures for deceased personnel,
    make sure that decontamination procedures and remains are handled
    a. hastily.
    b. slowly.
    c. with dignity.
    d. with technical prowess.

Answer 23

c. with dignity.

Question 24

92. (647) When surveying a fatality using radiological decontamination techniques, if it is
    observed that the contamination cannot be removed from the body, what should be the next
    course of action?
    a. Decontaminate again.
    b. Isolate or shield the body.
    c. Transport to a regular morgue.
    d. Leave the deceased remains alone.

Answer 24

b. Isolate or shield the body.

Question 24

93. (647) What agency has established guidance on acceptable levels of radioactive
    contamination in food?
    a. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
    b. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC).
    c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
    d. Department of Defense (DOD).

Answer 24

c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

Question 25

94. (647) What should you do if you need to conduct water sampling when responding to a
    short duration emergency operation?
    a. Reconduct any samples that exceed acceptable radiological contamination levels.
    b. Contact the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
    c. Consult the Air Force Radiation Assessment Team (AFRAT).
    d. Inform the major command (MAJCOM).

Answer 25

c. Consult the Air Force Radiation Assessment Team (AFRAT).

Question 26

95. (647) What step in the sampling strategy process is used to comply with regulatory
    requirements or to identify an associated risk to a satisfactory level?
    a. Results interpretation.
    b. Type of analysis.
    c. Archive results.
    d. Action level.

Answer 26

b. Type of analysis.

Question 26

96. (647) What plotting program is widely used for initial emergency assessment or safetyanalysis planning?
    a. Hotspot.
    b. Hazard Prediction and Assessment Capability (HPAC).
    c. Interagency Modeling and Atmospheric Assessment Center (IMAAC).
    d. Atmospheric Release Advisory Capability (ARAC).

Answer 26

a. Hotspot.

Question 27

97. (647) A long-term increase in the likelihood of radiation-related diseases is caused by the
    inhalation of what type of emitters?
    a. Gamma (γ).
    b. Beta.
    c. Alpha.
    d. Tritium

Answer 27

c. Alpha.

Question 28

98. (647) Radiation exposure status (RES) is a system for categorizing a unit’s radiation
    exposure level and provides guidance for protection and surveillance actions. If a person is
    placed in RES category R1C, what actions or tasks can they accomplish?
    a. None.
    b. Priority tasks only.
    c. Infrastructure tasks only.
    d. Life-saving mission tasks only.

Answer 28

b. Priority tasks only.

Question 29

99. (647) When documenting hazards encountered, protective measures taken, doses received
    and decontamination performed for an occupational and environmental health site assessment
    (OEHSA), what Air Force (AF) guidance should be referenced?
    a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48–125, Personnel Ionizing Radiation Dosimetry.
    b. AFI 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health Program.
    c. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 48–125, Personnel Ionizing Radiation Dosimetry.
    d. AFMAN 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health.

Answer 29

b. AFI 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health Program.

Question 29

100. (647) What Air Force guidance document requires data to be maintained in the
     approved bioenvironmental engineering (BE) management information system Defense
     Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System-Incident Reporting (DOEHRS–
     IR) for radiation?
     a. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health.
     b. AFMAN 48–125, Personnel Ionizing Radiation Dosimetry.
     c. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health Program.
     d. AFI 48–125, Personnel Ionizing Radiation Dosimetry.

Answer 29

c. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health Program.