5 hypersensitivity and allergies Flashcards

1
Q

What is immunopathology?

A

The study of immune system dysfunctions that can cause tissue damage when inappropriately activated.

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2
Q

How can the immune system be a “two-edged sword”?

A

It defends against infection but can also harm the host if improperly activated.

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3
Q

What determines the outcome of an immune response?

A

The type of immune response initiated (e.g., CD4 TH1, TH2, TH17, CD8).

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4
Q

What regulates immune responses?

A

Regulatory T cells (Tregs), which suppress inappropriate activation.

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5
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A

An inappropriate immune response leading to tissue damage or symptoms.

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6
Q

What are the four types of hypersensitivity?

A

Type I: IgE-mediated (immediate),
Type II: Antibody-mediated (IgG/IgM),
Type III: Immune complex-mediated,
Type IV: T cell-mediated (delayed).

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7
Q

What is Type I hypersensitivity?

A

An immediate allergic reaction caused by allergen-specific IgE binding to mast cells.

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8
Q

What immune cell type drives Type I hypersensitivity?

A

CD4 TH2 cells.

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9
Q

What cytokines are involved in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13.

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10
Q

How does an allergen trigger Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Allergen cross-links IgE on mast cells, causing degranulation.

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11
Q

What are pre-formed mediators released in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Histamine, heparin, TNF-α.

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12
Q

What are newly synthesized mediators in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Leukotrienes, cytokines, and chemokines.

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13
Q

What are common Type I allergens?

A

Pollen, house dust mites, food allergens, bee venom.

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14
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A

A severe systemic allergic reaction with widespread mast cell degranulation.

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15
Q

What is the genetic component of Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Children of allergic parents are more likely to develop allergies; linked to genes like IL-4, IL-33, and FcεRI.

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16
Q

What is Type II hypersensitivity?

A

Antibody (IgG/IgM)-mediated destruction of cells or tissues.

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17
Q

What immune mechanisms cause tissue damage in Type II hypersensitivity?

A

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC), complement activation, frustrated phagocytosis.

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18
Q

What are examples of Type II hypersensitivity?

A

Transfusion reactions, haemolytic disease of the newborn, hyperacute graft rejection.

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19
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

A

A condition where maternal IgG anti-Rh antibodies attack fetal RBCs.

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20
Q

How can HDN be prevented?

A

By administering anti-RhD antibodies (RhoGAM) to the mother during pregnancy.

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21
Q

What is Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Immune complex (IC)-mediated tissue damage due to failure to clear antigen-antibody complexes.

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22
Q

What determines immune complex size and clearance?

A

The ratio of antigen to antibody.

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23
Q

What immune cells are involved in Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Neutrophils, mast cells, macrophages.

24
Q

What happens when immune complexes deposit in tissues?

A

Complement activation, neutrophil chemotaxis, inflammation, and tissue damage.

25
Q

Where do immune complexes commonly deposit?

A

Kidney (glomerulonephritis), skin (rash), joints (arthritis).

26
Q

What is the Arthus reaction?

A

A local Type III hypersensitivity reaction following subcutaneous antigen exposure

27
Q

What are some diseases caused by Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis

28
Q

What is Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

A delayed T cell-mediated immune response.

29
Q

What cells mediate Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

CD4 TH1, TH17, and CD8 cytotoxic T cells.

30
Q

What is allergic contact dermatitis?

A

A Type IV reaction where small chemicals (haptens) modify self-proteins, triggering a T cell response.

31
Q

How do haptens induce a T cell-mediated response?

A

They bind self-proteins, forming new antigens that activate CD4 T cells.

32
Q

What cytokines are involved in Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

IFN-γ, TNF-α, IL-3, GM-CSF.

33
Q

What are some examples of Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Tuberculin reaction, poison ivy rash, chronic graft rejection.

34
Q

Why is Type IV hypersensitivity delayed?

A

T cell activation and cytokine-mediated inflammation take time to develop.

35
Q

What is the “hygiene hypothesis”?

A

Reduced early-life exposure to pathogens leads to an imbalance in immune responses, increasing allergy risk.

36
Q

How prevalent are allergies?

A

Affect 20-30% of the population.

37
Q

What is the skin prick test?

A

A diagnostic test for allergies where allergens are introduced into the skin, and a wheal-and-flare reaction is measured.

38
Q

What are the phases of asthma?

A

Early phase: bronchoconstriction, mucus production.
Late phase: cytokine production, inflammation, chronic airway obstruction.

39
Q

What causes food allergies?

A

Allergen-specific IgE cross-linking on mast cells in the GI tract.

40
Q

What are common symptoms of food allergies?

A

Oral irritation, nausea, vomiting, anaphylaxis.

41
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

A life-threatening allergic reaction involving widespread histamine release, leading to cardiovascular collapse.

42
Q

How is anaphylaxis treated?

A

Epinephrine injection, antihistamines, corticosteroids.

43
Q

What are common treatments for allergies?

A

Antihistamines, corticosteroids, bronchodilators, epinephrine.

44
Q

What is desensitization therapy?

A

Gradual exposure to increasing doses of an allergen to reduce IgE-mediated responses.

45
Q

How does desensitization therapy work immunologically?

A

It shifts the immune response from IgE to IgG4 and induces regulatory T cells.

46
Q

What is Omalizumab (Xolair)?

A

An anti-IgE monoclonal antibody that blocks IgE binding to mast cells

47
Q

What are some new immunotherapy approaches for allergies?

A

Blocking cytokines involved in TH2 responses, enhancing Treg function.

48
Q

Why do some allergies persist into adulthood?

A

Failure to develop tolerance, ongoing IgE production.

49
Q

How does the environment influence allergy development?

A

Pollution, dietary changes, and reduced microbial exposure can increase allergy risk.

50
Q

What role do eosinophils play in allergic responses?

A

They release toxic granules that contribute to tissue damage in chronic allergic inflammation.§

51
Q

What are the pre-formed mediators released from mast cells in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Histamine, proteases (tryptase, chymase), and heparin.

52
Q

What are newly synthesised mediators produced after mast cell activation?

A

Prostaglandins (e.g., PGD2), leukotrienes (e.g., LTC4, LTD4, LTE4), and platelet-activating factor (PAF).

53
Q

What effects do histamine have on the body?

A

Increases vascular permeability, causes vasodilation, and stimulates smooth muscle contraction.

54
Q

What are the roles of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Prostaglandins (e.g., PGD2) cause vasodilation and bronchoconstriction.
Leukotrienes (e.g., LTC4, LTD4, LTE4) enhance smooth muscle contraction and increase vascular permeability.

55
Q

Which immune cells are recruited during the late-phase reaction in Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Eosinophils, basophils, and TH2 cells.

56
Q

What do eosinophils release in allergic reactions?

A

Major basic protein (MBP), eosinophil peroxidase (EPO), and leukotrienes.

57
Q

How does omalizumab work as a treatment for IgE-mediated allergies?

A

It is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody that prevents IgE from binding to FcεR on mast cells.