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ITIL > 5 Core Disciplines > Flashcards

5 Core Disciplines Flashcards

1
Q

What is a stakeholder?

A

Service Provider
Customer
End User
Supplier

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2
Q

What are the 5 core Disciplines of ITIL?

A 
Service Strategy
Service Design
Service Transition
Service Operation
Continual Service Improvement
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3
Q

What are the ITIL roles?

A

Service Owner
Process Owner
Service Manager
Product Manager

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4
Q

What is the RACI Matrix/Model?

A

Responsible
Accountable
Consulted
Informed

It greatly increases process efficiently and effectiveness, while minimizing redundancies across roles and responsibilities.

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5
Q

Value is commonly understood as the product of two primary elements:

A 
Utility = fitness for purpose
Warranty = fitness for use
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6
Q

What are the 4 following conditions of Warranty is considered and met customers satisfaction?

A

Availability of a Service
Capacity of a Service
Security of a Service
Continuity of a Service

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7
Q

What are the 3 classes of Service?

A

Core Service
Enabling Service
Enhancing Service

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8
Q

What are the 3 types of Service Providers?

A

Type I - Internal Service Provider
Type II - Shared Service Unit
Type III - External Service Provider

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9
Q

What is Service Strategy?

A

Is largely laying down the blueprint for the buisness

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10
Q

True or False:

If Service Strategy creates objectives, Service Design converts those objectives into portfolios of services and service assets.

A

True

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11
Q

What are the 5 individual aspects of Service Design?

A

Service Solutions for new or changed services

Management information systems and tools

Technology architectures and management architectures

The main processes themselves

Measurement methods and metrics

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12
Q

What are the 8 Main Processes of Service Design?

A 
Design Coordination
Service Catalog Management
Service Level Management
Availability Management
Capacity Management
IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM)
Information Security Management
Supplier Management
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13
Q

True or False:

Determining the amount of resources necessary and available in order to deliver value as expected by SLAs.

A

True

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14
Q

What are the Capacity Management Sub-Processes?

A

Business Capacity Management
Service Capacity Management
Component Capacity Management
Capacity Management Reporting

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15
Q

Manage, Control, and predict the capacity and performance of operational services.

A

Service Capacity Management

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16
Q

What are the Security Controls of Information Security Management?

A 
Preventive
Reductive
Detective
Repressive
Corrective
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17
Q

Modifications to the operational environment should be managed, planned, and coordinated.

A

Service Transition

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18
Q

What are the Normal Changes (non-emergency) Sub-Processes for Change Management?

A 
Create and Record for Change (RFC)
RFC Review
Assess and Evaluate the Change
Schedule and Authorize Change Build and Test
Authorize Change Development
Coordinate Change Deployment
Review and Close Change Record
19
Q

What are the 7 R’s of Change Management?

A 
raised
reason
return
risk
resources
responsible
relationship
20
Q

True of False:

To share perspectives, ideas, experience, and information, and ensure that these are available to decision makers at the right time.

A

True

21
Q

True of False:

Coordinate Criteria for Lifecycle Changes
This is referred to as making “quality gates”, otherwise considered as exit and entry criteria for each phase.

A

True

22
Q

This is the phase that coordinates and carries out customer-facing activities and processes.

A

Service Operation

23
Q

What are some of the roles in Service Operation?

A 
Access Manager
Incident Manager
IT Operator
IT Operations Manager
Problem Manager
24
Q

True or False:

Monitor all events that occur through the IT infrastructure to allow for normal operation, as well as detect and escalate exceptions for handling to the relevant roles.

A

True

25
Q

What are the Event Management Sub-Processes?

A

Event Monitoring Mechanisms and Rules
Event Filtering / 1st Level Correlation
Response Selection / 2nd Level Correlation
Event Review

26
Q

Granting authorized users the right to use a service and preventing access by non-authorized users.

Also known as rights management or identity management in different organizations.

A

Access Management

27
Q

Under ITIL, an incident can be defined as:

A

an unplanned interruption to an IT service
a reduction in the quality of an IT service, or
a failure of a CI that has not yet impacted an IT service

28
Q

True of False:

Probably the most common and simplest example of “Incident Management” is a user requesting to change a password.

A

False

Correct: Probably the most common and simplest example of “Request Fulfillment” is a user requesting to change a password.

29
Q

True or False:

Outsourcing this function is common present-day topic, but an in-house Service Desk will benefit from communication ease, higher quality response, and faster turnaround on customer/user requests.

A

True

30
Q

What are the Service Desk Organizational Structure?

A 
Local Service Desk
Centralized Service Desk
Virtual Service Desk
Follow the Sun
Specialized Service Desk Groups
31
Q

True or False:

Service Transition is about carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services.

A

False

Correct: Service Operation is about carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services.

32
Q

Define ACD

A

Automatic/Automated Call Distribution: The use of IT to direct an incoming telephone call to the most appropriate person in the shortest possible time.

33
Q

Define CTI

A

Computer Telephony Integration: This term is related to any kind of integration between computers and telephone systems, such as a system where an application displays detailed screens about incoming or outgoing telephone calls. Commonly a service desk utilizes a system of this type.

34
Q

Define IVR

A

Interactive Voice Response: A form of ACD that accepts user input to identify the correct destination for incoming calls

35
Q

Define KEDB

A

Known Error Database: A database containing all known error records, created by Problem Management. Often the KEDB is part of the CMS.

36
Q

Define RPO

A

Recovery Point Objective: The maximum amount of data that may be lost when service is restored after an interruption. Sometimes, this means that the provided level of service may be less than for usual level targets. RTOs are typically negotiated and documented and may be a part of SLAs and OLAs.

37
Q

Define RTO

A

Recover Time Objective: An activity that identifies the root cause of an incident or problem.

38
Q

Define SMO

A

Service Maintenance Objective: The expected time that a CI will be unavailable due to planned maintenance activity.

39
Q

Define TO

A

Technical Observation: A technique used in service improvement, problem investigation, and availability management.

40
Q

What is the CSI Approach? (In order)

A 
What is the vision?
Where are we now?
Where do we want to be?
How do we get there?
Did we get there?
How do we keep the momentum going?
41
Q

What is the Seven-Step Improvement Process?

A 
Identify the strategy for improvement
Define what you will measure
Gather the data
Process the data
Analyze the information and data
Present and use the information
Implement improvement
42
Q

What does DIKW stand for?

A

DIWK stands for Data-to-Information-Knowledge-to-Wisdom

43
Q

True or False:

Through attentive observation, creating and adoption of measurement standards, and communication with every active area of service provider, CSI ensures that effectiveness is perpetually improved and reinforced.

A

True

44
Q

What does PDCA stand for?

A

PDCA stand for Plan-Do-Check-Act: A 4-stage cycle for process management, attributed to Edward Deming and often referred to as the Deming Cycle.

ITIL (1 decks)

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