5-6 Month Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the weight of a 36-foot American Standard I Beam designated S15x42.9
equation W=w/ft x L

A

1544.4lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If both ends of the sling are attached to the hoist hook and a load is suspended by the center of the sling, what hitch is being used?

A

double basket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following hooks has a point designed to fit in a hole in the load?

A

sorting hook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a sling leg is attached to a suspended load at an angle of less than 90°, the force acting on the sling leg

A

increases as the sling angle gets smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A hook should be removed from service if

A

the tip is twisted more than 10% out of line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If the strands of a wire rope appear to spiral down to the right, and if the wires in the strands appear to be parallel to the rope axis, the wire rope is

A

right regular lay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a wire rope is classified as 6 x 37, the figure 37 means that

A

each strand of the rope contains a nominal 37 wires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The following factors all affect wire-rope strength. In which one is the D/d ratio important?

A

bending over a curved surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of these wire rope end fittings is the most efficient (assuming all are prepared correctly)

A

speltered socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a rigger finds that a wire rope sling is kinked, he should

A

remove it from service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following identifications would be most likely to appear on the links of a chain suitable for overhead lifting?

A

800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The specification for welded-link chain that corresponds to a wire rope’s rated load is called the chain’s

A

working load limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If an alloy steel chain sling has been subjected to temperatures over 1000°F (540°C)

A

it should be removed from service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

There is a slot in one of the standard end fittings for metal mesh slings. It allows the sling to be used in a _____ hitch

A

choker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You should recommend removing a metal mesh sling from service if

A

one welded joint at the edge of the sling is broken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The strongest and most popular of the synthetic-fiber ropes is

A

nylon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

To avoid sharp bending and abrasion, the eye of a fiber-rope sling should include a

A

thimble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A fiber-rope sling should be removed from service if it

A

shows kinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The rated load, or capacity of an encased polyester sling is indicated by the

A

color of the cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

You should remove a synthetic-web sling from service if

A

it is scorched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A pocket wheel is part of a(n)

A

overhead manual chain hoist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The purpose of an upper limit switch is to

A

keep the load block from rising dangerously high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The difference between top-running and underhung cranes lies in

A

how the end trucks of the bridge beams are supported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When a rigger lifts a load a few inches, then stops to see if the load drifts downward, what is he checking?

A

hoist brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Wire rope should be removed from hoist service if the rigger finds

A

two broken wires at a socketed end fitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In a crane operation involving several people:

A

the operator must respond to a “stop” signal from anyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

You should not use metal-mesh slings

A

if the spirals do not move freely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When working with floor-operated hoists and cranes, you should make sure that

A

obstructions can be cleared by moving the load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

One edge of the load serves as a pivot during _____ turning

A

one-hook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When should blocks or other holding devices placed at the location where a load will be set?

A

before the load is lifted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The height of a movable sectional metal scaffold that measures 4x8 ft at the base should not exceed _____ ft

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A hydraulic scissors lift of the larger type can safely support _____ workers and their equipment

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Each worker on a suspended scaffold must wear a safety belt connected to a lanyard attached to

A

the structure being worked on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When you secure a scaffold with guy wires, what accessories do you use to tighten the wires to the correct tension?

A

Turnbuckles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A wooden ladder must NOT be coated with

A

paint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Before new equipment arrives at the plant, plans for installing it are made by the

A

plant engineer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When pouring a concrete footing, you should hold the steel rods in position with

A

tie wires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The best materials for filling around a foundation are gravel and

A

ground concrete slabs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The type of bolt to anchor the equipment is usually specified by the

A

equipment manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How long must new concrete sit before you install equipment on it?

A

28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Retainers on the sides of horizontally reciprocating equipment keep it from

A

walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

To isolate anchor bolts when mounting equipment on pads, surround the bolts with

A

neoprene tubing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of wrench should you use for tightening anchor bolts?

A

Torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

To drill anchor bolt holes larger than 1 1/2 in., you should use a

A

core bit with a diamond or carbide bit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

You should not use a concrete mix to grout anchor bolts, because the concrete

A

shrinks when it sets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If new equipment is damaged in shipment, you should report it to the

A

carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What must you do first before disconnecting the electric wiring to existing equipment?

A

shut off the power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the least number of rollers you should use under a load on a skid

A

three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When moving equipment with a crowbar, what should you use between the bar and the floor?

A

a wood block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

If you have no clearance to remove a sling after setting the equipment down, you should lower the equipment onto

A

wedges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

To keep your body heat from affecting a master precision level, you should handle it by its

A

nonheat-conductive top plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

To support a level on an inverted V-shaped way, use a precision

A

V-block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

To support a level across machine tool ways in different planes, you should use precision ground parallels or

A

gauge blocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The common dial indicator is usually used with a _____ base.

A

magnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When an alignment screw is finally set, you can prevent further movement by

A

applying a sealing compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The external air lines on equipment usually terminate just beyond a filter or a

A

regulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

If the fluid in a system is thick, you can control it with a ______ check valve.

A

ball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

You can keep the fluid pressure in a line near a preset level with a ____ valve.

A

regulating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A copy of the manufacturer’s test data is often attached to the ____ of new equipment.

A

manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

High temperatures during equipment startup is usually caused by

A

poor lubrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A metal’s ability to be stretched into wire without breaking is called its _____. Its ability to return to its original shape after being deformed is called its _____.

A

ductility; elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of he following magnetic materials is an alloy?

A

Alnico

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A solid and a liquid can exist together at the ____. Adding heat melts more of the solid _____ changing the temperature.

A

melting point; without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An alloy containing iron as the base metal is

A

steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Machinability is the speed and ease with which a metal

A

can be cut on a machine tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The maximum amount of stress a material can exert is called its

A

yield strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A standard tensile test specimen exerts a resistance force of 8500 lb. What is the stress in the specimen?

A

42,000 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When a metal supports a heavy load at high temperature, it may undergo

A

creep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The mass of material per unit volume is called its

A

density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The ration of a material’s density to the density of water is called its

A

specific gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Permanent-mold casting uses

A

both metal cores and sand cores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The method of casting metal parts by using a spinning mold to force the molten metal away from the center and against the sides of the mold is called _____ casting.

A

centrifugal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Die casting is the _____ of all casting methods. It is used to cast ____ metals.

A

fastest; nonferrous

74
Q

Upsetting is the most common method of

A

cold forging

75
Q

Pulling rod stock through a tapered die produces

A

wire

76
Q

Because of its higher carbon content, _____ has a lower melting point than ____.

A

cast iron;steel

77
Q

Carbon in cast iron generally makes the metal easier to

A

break

78
Q

Malleable cast iron is _____ than white cast iron and has ____ resistance to wear than gray cast iron.

A

softer; more

79
Q

What kind of cast iron is best for parts that must be hard ans strong but not brittle?

A

high-alloy

80
Q

Open-hearth, basic oxygen, and electric are three types of furnaces used for making

A

steel

81
Q

The most important element added to iron in making steel is

A

carbon

82
Q

AISI and SAE are number coding systems that specify the ___ of each kind of ____.

A

chemical composition;steel

83
Q

When spark testing to identify steel, you should consider spark length, ____, and _____.

A

color; burst

84
Q

The cold-rolled sheet steel graded _____ quality has a matte finish that holds paint well.

A

commercial

85
Q

All stainless steel contains

A

chromium

86
Q

Uneven heating and cooling of metal parts during welding causes

A

distortion

87
Q

In annealing, a metal should be heated to a temperature above its critical temperature, and then

A

cooled slowly

88
Q

Before welding a broken gear, you should ____ it in order to avoid distortion

A

preheat

89
Q

Steels that are _____ generally have a _____ carbon content.

A

forged;low

90
Q

High-carbon steel contains ____ percent carbon.

A

0.55 to 1.00

91
Q

Copper alloys are made harder by

A

cold-working

92
Q

Copper alloys that contain lead are relatively _____ to ______.

A

easy; machine

93
Q

What copper alloy contains 36 to 50% zinc?

A

beta brass

94
Q

Muntz metal is the strongest

A

brass

95
Q

What copper alloy is most widely used for casting

A

ounce metal

96
Q

When aluminum is exposed to the air, a layer of _____ forms on the surface.

A

oxide

97
Q

In the four-digit aluminum designation number, 6053, which digit signifies the main alloying element?

A

6

98
Q

The process of rolling a thin layer of aluminum onto a base metal is called

A

cladding

99
Q

What causes aluminum to lose its strength during welding?

A

increased tempertaure

100
Q

Intermediate-temperature solders melt and flow at temperatures of ____ to ____°F.

A

500;700

101
Q

The two methods of extracting magnesium from brines and ores are _____ and _____.

A

electrolysis; reduction

102
Q

Which magnesium casting alloys have the lowest yield strength at high temperatures?

A

AZ

103
Q

The letter “a” following the designation for a rolled sheet of magnesium stands for

A

annealed

104
Q

Magnesium parts should be gas welded

A

only in emergencies

105
Q

Typical melting and casting methods cannot be used for _____. It can be arc melted using _____ gas.

A

titanium; argon

106
Q

Lead and tin are alloyed in various proportions to make

A

solder

107
Q

Lead wool can be used to

A

form cold-welded seals

108
Q

Which nickel alloy is commonly used for making the heating elements in toasters?

A

Nichrome

109
Q

Galvanizing is the process of coating sheet steel with

A

zinc

110
Q

Which of the following should you use as a lubricant when matching zinc?

A

Lard oil

111
Q

A liquid has a

A

fixed volume and changeable shape

112
Q

Kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m³) is the metric measurement of

A

density

113
Q

The temperature of a liquid decreases during

A

evaporation

114
Q

A volatile liquid

A

has a low boiling point

115
Q

The solubility of a gas in a liquid at the liquid’s boiling point is usually

A

zero

116
Q

The terms thermoplastic and thermoset refer to

A

plastic classifications

117
Q

Performance is the most important factor in choosing

A

any plastic material

118
Q

When repairing a filament-wound tank, which of the following should be applied to the inside surface?

A

patch

119
Q

When drilling most plastics, you should reduce the feed rate just before the drill point

A

penetrates the other side of the material

120
Q

when preparing an area to be patched, which side of the material should be cleaned?

A

both sides

121
Q

When elastomers are stretched, they

A

regain most of their original shape immediately

122
Q

Which of the following is/are added to rubber to reduce deterioration caused by oxidation?

A

Antioxidants

123
Q

Class T rubber compounds resist damage by

A

temperature extremes

124
Q

In vulcanization, the amount of sulfur used determines the

A

hardness of the rubber

125
Q

Flexibility is more important in rubber coatings for

A

cables and wires

126
Q

A radial cut is produced by cutting a log

A

lengthwise through or near the centerline

127
Q

The actual length of a board is stated in

A

running feet

128
Q

The best veneer in soft plywood is graded

A

N

129
Q

Wood with many knots should not be used because it is

A

weak

130
Q

Pilot holes should be drilled to a depth of half the length of the screw in

A

softwood

131
Q

Air-entrained concrete is commonly used in

A

structures exposed to severe cold

132
Q

Cinder block is commonly used for construction

A

above ground

133
Q

Type N mortar is

A

a medium-strong mortar

134
Q

Special plasters

A

are described by all of the above

135
Q

You should measure the window sash and deduct 1/16 - 1/8 in. to determine

A

the correct glass size for a window pane

136
Q

Insulation made from which of the following products can burn is used in areas having high temperatures?

A

Vegetable products

137
Q

When installing blanket insulation

A

use the proper cutting tools

138
Q

Lead sheet is used for

A

wrapping rattling pipes

139
Q

An asphalt coating serves as an insulation adhesive

A

above ground

140
Q

Fire prevention includes using

A

all of the above

141
Q

By selecting a protective coating that is similar to the previous one, you will

A

reduce future maintenance

142
Q

Surface preparation is the single most important factor for success in applying

A

a protective coating

143
Q

White blasting a surface produces the

A

best anchor pattern

144
Q

The color green is used to indicate

A

safety devices

145
Q

Fire protection material are carried in pipes painted

A

red

146
Q

On a pH scale, acidity is indicated by

A

numbers below 7

147
Q

Dry-cleaning solvent is

A

the safest industrial cleaning solvent

148
Q

Synthetic lubricants are resistant to heat and fire

A

at high temperatures

149
Q

Cyanide is the most dangerous chemical

A

used in electroplating

150
Q

You should always use grounding devices

A

to avoid fuel fires

151
Q

Curing is the

A

completion of all chemical and physical processes that affect bonding

152
Q

Water-soluble gums and starches are made into

A

mucilage

153
Q

Which of the following adhesive joints provides greater surface area?

A

Bevel-lap joint

154
Q

Rubber tape is an

A

excellent insulator of electricity

155
Q

Tapes coated with fluorocarbon are used where service conditions include

A

high temperatures

156
Q

Carbon is chemically inert at

A

room temperatures

157
Q

Which part of an electric too carries electricity to and from the rotating armature of the motor

A

Carbon brushes

158
Q

Excessive noise in electric hand tools often indicates

A

carbon brush problems

159
Q

Nonporous seals are used where

A

even a tiny leakage would be harmful

160
Q

In joints having two individual packing rings, the joints should be positioned

A

180 degrees apart

161
Q

What parts of a transformer generally contribute to temperature rise in the transformer?

A

Copper winding

162
Q

In a given transformer, the voltage is reduced from the primary to the secondary. What is this transformer called?

A

Step-down transformer

163
Q

What does quartz sand filler in a fuse provide?

A

Effective heat transfer

164
Q

Why is the inverse time characteristic of a fuse important?

A

It parallels he characteristics of conductors, motors, transformers, and other electrical apparatus.

165
Q

Why is the low-voltage bulb in the pilot light preferred?

A

It will withstand vibration

166
Q

What is the advantage of panel mounting a contact block?

A

This mounting provides space for terminal block installation.

167
Q

What is one advantage to the plug-in relay?

A

Relays can be changed without disturbing the circuit wiring.

168
Q

Coils on relays are designed not to drop out (deenergize) until the voltage drops to what percent of the rated voltage?

A

85%

169
Q

What is the solenoid current in amperes with the plunger in the closed position?

A

Sealed or holding current

170
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the spring when a solenoid is energized in a single solenoid, spring return valve?

A

It is depressed (loaded)

171
Q

Which of the following are methods used to achieve the operation of proximity limit switches?

A

Capacitive fields

172
Q

Which of the following determine the speed of response for the proximity limit switch using an oscillator in the output circuit?

A

The oscillator frequency

173
Q

The flow monitor operates on what principle?

A

Thermal conductivity

174
Q

Which of the following can a pressure transducer use to transfer pressure information?

A

Semiconductor strain gauges

175
Q

How is the differential resistance in a pressure transducer measured?

A

By applying a constant voltage to the bridge and deflection of the diaphragm

176
Q

What is the approximate millivolt output of a type J thermocouple at 500F

A

15

177
Q

On what principle does the bimetal type of temperature switch operate?

A

Uneven expansion of two different metals when heated

178
Q

What accuracy can be expected in modern solid-state timer-counters?

A

100%

179
Q

Under what condition does the stepping motor advance one step?

A

Each time the motor is de-energized

180
Q

What special protection is provided in the solid-state reduced-voltage starter to prevent a high-temperature condition due to overcurrent?

A

Current meter