4th Year Child health Flashcards

1
Q

At what age does pyloric stenosis typically present?

A

3-8 weeks

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2
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus

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3
Q

What are the main signs and symptoms of pyloric stenosis?

A

Projectile vomiting after feed

Palpable mass in the abdomen

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4
Q

How is the diagnosis pf pyloric stenosis made?

A

By ultrasound

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5
Q

At what age does intussusception typically present?

A

6-18 months

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6
Q

What is intussusception?

A

1 portion of the bowel invaginates into the lumen of the adjacent bowel

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7
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of intussusception?

A

Abdominal colic
Vomiting
Blood stained stool - red currant jelly
Sausage shaped abdominal mass

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8
Q

What is the first line treatment for intussusception?

A

Air insuflation

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9
Q

What are the first 3 steps in asthma management in children?

A
  1. Salbutamol (SABA) for all
  2. Very low dose ICS
  3. > 5 LABA, <5 leukotriene agonist
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10
Q

What are the 3 main symptoms of wilms nehproblastoma?

A

Abdominal mass, haematuria, flank pain

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11
Q

When should an USS be performed in babies with a UTI?

A

Atypical UTI in babies <6months

Poor urine flow, abdominal mass, failure to respond to 48hrs of abs, non e-coli

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12
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki disease?

A
Fever >5days
And 4 of the following:
Conjunctival infection 
Mucous membrane change
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Rash
Red or peeling skin from palms and soles of feet
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13
Q

What is the treatment for Kawasaki disease?

A

High dose aspirin and IV immunoglobulin

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14
Q

What infection may cause cough where the child turns red of cyanotic?

A

Pertussis

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15
Q

What is Hirschsprung disease?

A

Congenital bowel disease, ganglionic segment of bowel

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16
Q

What may be the first sign of Hirschsprung disease?

A

Failure to mass meconium in the first 24 hours

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17
Q

What complication might be seen in pregnancy in the case of duodenal atresia?

A

Polyhydramnious

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18
Q

What is the difference between Erb’s and Klumpkes palsies?

A

Erbs - upper brachial plexus - whole arm

Klumpke’s - Lower brachial plexus - hand

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19
Q

What complication of measles might arise 5-10 years later?

A

Subactue sclerosing pancencepalitis

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal change disease

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21
Q

What is the causative organism in epiglottis?

A

Haemophilus influenza B

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22
Q

What does bronchiolitis show on a CXR?

A

Over inflation

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23
Q

At what point should undescended testis be referred to a surgeon?

A

If still undescended at 3 months

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24
Q

Why should you do an ECG in Kawasaki disease?

A

To screen for coronary artery aneurysm

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25
Q

Key features of intusussecption?

A

Episodic crying and drawing legs up

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26
Q

What virus commonly causes croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

27
Q

What malignancy should be considered in a child with acquired absent red reflexes?

A

Retinoblastoma

28
Q

What is the cause of absent red reflexes at birth?

A

Congenital cataracts

29
Q

Name 3 features of innocent murmurs?

A

Soft, systolic, short, symptomless, change when standing/sitting

30
Q

What murmur is heard in coarction of the aorta?

A

Ejection systolic

31
Q

1st line antibiotics for a LRTI?

A

Amoxicillin - Clarithromycin if pen allergic

32
Q

What maternal condition increases the risk of NRDS?

A

Diabetes

33
Q

2 features of NRDS?

A

Excessive respiratory efforts
Tachypnoea
Grunting
Intercostal recession

34
Q

Common cause of a seizure in small for dates baby?

A

Hypoglycaemia

35
Q

When does the rash typically occur in scarlet fever?

A

12-48 hours after the onset of the fever

36
Q

A in APGAR?

A

Appearance
0 - Blue or pale all over
1 - Blue at extremities, pink body
2 -No cyanosis, body and extremities pink

37
Q

P in APGAR?

A

Pulse
0 - Absent
1 - <100
2 >100

38
Q

G in APGAR?

A

Grimace
0 - No response
1 - Grimace or suction on agressive stimulation
2 - Cry on stimulation

39
Q

A (2) in APGAR?

A

Activity
0 - None
1 - some flexion
2 - Flexed arms and legs that resist extension

40
Q

R in APGAR?

A

Respiration
0 - Absent
1 - Weak, irregular cry, gasping
2 - Strong robust cry

41
Q

What is a normal APGAR score?

A

> 7

42
Q

When is APGAR performed?

A

1 and 5 minutes

43
Q

Fever in children guidelines - amber and red RR?

A

Amber - >50 if 6-12 months, >40 if >12 months

Red - >60

44
Q

Fever in children guidelines - amber and red Temp?

A

3-6 months >39

<3 months >38

45
Q

Two blood tests used for down’s syndrome screening?

A

Beta HCG - raised

PAPP-A - low

46
Q

3 reasons for physiological jaundice?

A

Physiological breakdown of RBC’s.
Shorter red cell life
Less efficient bilirubin metabolism

47
Q

What is the risk of untreated jaundice?

A

Kernicterus - encephalopathy resulting from deposition of bilirubin in the brain

48
Q

3 Causes of jaundice <24 hours of age?

A
Haemolysis
Rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO imcompatibility
G6PD deficiency 
Spherocytosis
49
Q

3 causes of jaundice from 24hours to 2 weeks?

A

Physiological
Breast milk jaundice
Infection
Deyhdration

50
Q

2 causes of jaundice >2 weeks old?

A

Biliary atresia
Breast milk jaundice
Infection
Congenital hypothyroidism

51
Q

How does phototherapy work in jaundice?

A

Converts bilirubin into water soluble pigment

52
Q

3 features of measles?

A

Fever - peaks on day 5
Rash - spreads downwards from face, maculopapular
Kopliks spots - white spots on buccal mucosa
Conjunctivitis and coryza

53
Q

2 features of mumps?

A

Winter and spring
Fever, malaise and parotitis
Raised amylase
Hearing loss

54
Q

2 features of rubella?

A

Mild in childhood
Can harm foetus
Maculopapular rash
Lymphadenopathy

55
Q

Common cause of scarlet fever?

A

Group A strep

56
Q

Cause of hand foot and mouth?

A

Coxsackie

57
Q

Most common cause of gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus

58
Q

Short term control of enuresis?

A

Desmopressin

59
Q

Cause of a musty odour of skin and hair?

A

PKU

60
Q

Management of croup?

A

Oral Dexamethasone

61
Q

Treatment of cranial DI?

A

Desmopressin

62
Q

Treatment of nephrogenic DI?

A

Thiazide

63
Q

Pataus?

A

Trisomy 13.
Microencephalic
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyl

64
Q

Edwards syndrome?

A

Trisomy 18
Micrognathia
Low set ears
Rocker bottom feeth