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PENG 4th Class > 4th Class Part B Midterm 1 Prep Test > Flashcards

4th Class Part B Midterm 1 Prep Test Flashcards

1
Q

The point at which oil will give off enough vapour to ignite and burn continuously is known as the _____ point.

a. Flash
b. Ignition
c. Fire
d. Vaporization

A

c. Fire

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2
Q 
When grease is used in an antifriction bearing after cleaning, the bearing housing should not be filled \_\_\_\_\_ full.
Select one:
a. more than 1/3 
b. more than 1/2
c. more than 3/4
d. less than completely
A

a. more than 1/3

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3
Q 
The characteristics of a grease are determined by:
Select one:
a. Its thickening agent or “soap” 
b. Its consistency
c. The type of oil used in the grease
d. Its protective coating
A

a. Its thickening agent or “soap”

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4
Q 
Air compressor oil should:
Select one:
a. Have a very low viscosity
b. Have low carbon residue 
c. Have a low flash point
d. Not contain anti-oxidants
A

b. Have low carbon residue

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5
Q 
Applying installation forces through the balls of a bearing can cause:
Select one:
a. Bearing misalignment
b. too large an air gap
c. Cracking or breaking of the balls 
d. Brinelling
A

d. Brinelling

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6
Q 
A common cause of antifriction bearing failure is:
Select one:
a. High RPM service
b. Extreme cold temperature cracking
c. Drive motor overload
d. Shaft misalignment
A

d. Shaft misalignment

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7
Q 
The majority of lubricants are:
Select one:
a. Animal fats
b. Synthetic oils
c. Mineral oils
d. Greases
A

c. Mineral oils

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8
Q

The lubricant for an anti-friction bearing:
Select one:
a. Will separate the moving parts completely
b. Must be cooled
c. Could be a semi-solid lubricant
d. Should have a high viscosity

A

c. Could be a semi-solid lubricant

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9
Q

Grease:
Select one:
a. Is a semi-liquid
b. Is an excellent high-speed, low load lubricant
c. Attracts dirt and water to bearings, leading to premature failure
d. Can be used under conditions where oil may leak away and leave the bearing dry

A

d. Can be used under conditions where oil may leak away and leave the bearing dry

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10
Q

Using pressurized air to blow out a cleaned bearing:
Select one:
a. Should only be done in well-ventilated areas
b. Must be done only while the bearing is hot
c. Will cause the bearing to become “pitted”
d. should be done at an angle so the bearing can spin

A

c. Will cause the bearing to become “pitted”

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11
Q

With antifriction bearings using grease, the bearings:
Select one:
a. Must be cleaned twice as often as oil-lubricated bearings
b. can be cleaned by adding solvent to the grease cartridge
c. Are cleaned less often than oil-lubricated bearings
d. Never require cleaning

A

c. Are cleaned less often than oil-lubricated bearings

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12
Q 
All semi-solid lubricants:
Select one:
a. Have a low viscosity 
b. Are capable of sealing out dirt and water from bearings
c. Contain graphite
d. Resist moisture
A

b. Are capable of sealing out dirt and water from bearings

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13
Q 
The groove that is cut in the top half in the lining of a shell bearing should not extend closer to the ends than:
Select one:
a. 3 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 1.25 cm 
d. 1.7 cm
A

c. 1.25 cm

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14
Q 
A thrust bearing which does not utilize the oil wedge principle of lubrication is the:
Select one:
a. Michell type 
b. Collar type
c. Radial type
d. Kingsbury type
A

b. Collar type

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15
Q 
Which of the following has the greatest effect on the viscosity of lubrication oil?
Select one:
a. Pressure
b. Load
c. Temperature 
d. Speed
A

c. Temperature

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16
Q 
The cheapest and most commonly used grease is:
Select one:
a. Potassium base
b. Chlorine base
c. Lime base 
d. Sulphate base
A

c. Lime base

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17
Q 
The ability of an oil to lift and support heavy loads depends upon:
Select one:
a. kinetic energy
b. Hydraulic pressure 
c. acceleration
d. Pour point
A

b. Hydraulic pressure

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18
Q 
When inspecting a dismantled bearing, the first indication of a failing bearing is:
Select one:
a. Cracked balls
b. Roughness 
c. Discoloration
d. Rusting or corrosion
e. Tapered rollers
A

b. Roughness

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19
Q 
The proper way to store a bearing after cleaning is to dip it in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and wrap it in grease-proof paper.
Select one:
a. a desiccant such as rice 
b. Wax
c. Solvent
d. A rust preventative
A

d. A rust preventative

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20
Q 
If an oil must flow at a very low temperature, it must have the following additive:
Select one:
a. Viscosity index improver 
b. Pour point depressant
c. Dispersant
d. Floc point improver
A

b. Pour point depressant

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21
Q

Positive displacement compressors:
Select one:
a. Cannot deliver pulsation-free air
b. Must have suction and discharge valves
c. Must all use internal lubrication
d. Could be single stage with three cylinders

A

d. Could be single stage with three cylinders

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22
Q

Centrifugal compressors:
Select one:
a. Are used for high pressure and low flow
b. Could be of the multi-stage type
c. Must have a safety valve on the discharge when steam driven
d. Require inlet and discharge valves

A

b. Could be of the multi-stage type

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23
Q

A circulating pump, known as a cooling water pump, is usually:
Select one:
a. Connected with some type of heat exchanger system
b. A once-through device
c. A reciprocating pump
d. A small capacity pump

A

a. Connected with some type of heat exchanger system

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24
Q 
Flexible couplings will compensate for:
Select one:
a. Overheating of packing 
b. unavoidable shaft misalignment  
c. Bearing failure 
d. Impeller imbalance
A

b. unavoidable shaft misalignment

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25
Q

Centrifugal pumps convert rotating mechanical energy into kinetic energy then:
Select one:
a. Discharge the kinetic energy
b. Back to mechanical energy
c. Into potential energy in the form of pressure
d. Into centrifugal force

A

c. Into potential energy in the form of pressure

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26
Q 
Another name for a lantern ring, used in a pump is:
Select one:
a. Packing box
b. Packing ring
c. Rotating seal
d. Seal cage
A

d. Seal cage

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27
Q

Compression type packing:
Select one:
a. May be saturated with a lubricating material
b. Reduces the maintenance cost on the pump
c. Protects the shaft from scoring and corrosion
d. Is used with all mechanical seals

A

a. May be saturated with a lubricating material

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28
Q

Proper priming and venting of a pump is important, especially if:
Select one:
a. The medium being pumped is high temperature
b. The medium being pumped contains suspended solids
c. A mechanical seal is used
d. The pump has a stuffing box and lantern ring

A

c. A mechanical seal is used

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29
Q 
In a centrifugal compressor the kinetic energy is converted to potential energy in the:
Select one:
a. Volute, diffuser or both
b. Diffuser only 
c. Compressor cavity
d. Volute only
A

a. Volute, diffuser or both

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30
Q

The capacity of a centrifugal pump:
Select one:
a. Varies with discharge pressure
b. Is fixed and can only be altered by changing the impeller
c. Should be varied by suction valve manipulation
d. Can be altered by speed variation only

A

a. Varies with discharge pressure

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31
Q 
Compressed air tools tend to be:
Select one:
a. Heavier than equivalent electrical tools
b. Damaged by overloading
c. Hot after prolonged operation
d. More expensive than electrical tools
A

d. More expensive than electrical tools

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32
Q

The purpose of shaft sealing on a pump is to:
Select one:
a. Keep air in the pump
b. Keep the packing gland cool
c. Reduce fluids from leaking along the pump shaft
d. Prevent lubricating oil from leaving the pump

A

c. Reduce fluids from leaking along the pump shaft

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33
Q

Before starting a pump, check
Select one:
a. That the packing is drip free
b. That the area around the pump is cool and dry
c. That the suction and discharge valves are in their proper positions.
d. That the lantern ring turns freely

A

c. That the suction and discharge valves are in their proper positions.

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34
Q 
When a reciprocating pump delivers fluid every second stroke of its piston, it is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pump:
Select one:
a. Positive displacement
b. Single acting 
c. Two-stage
d. Double acting
A

b. Single acting

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35
Q 
Air receivers must have a:
Select one:
a. Gauge glass
b. Thermometer
c. High pressure alarm
d. Safety valve
A

d. Safety valve

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36
Q 
Strainers may be found: 
Select one:
a. On the suction side of a centrifugal pump  
b. On the discharge side of the pump 
c. Inside the pump 
d. On the air vent discharge of the pump
A

a. On the suction side of a centrifugal pump

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37
Q 
The difference between static suction head and static discharge head is:
Select one:
a. Total static head
b. Static discharge head
c. Static suction head
d. Dynamic head
A

a. Total static head

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38
Q 
When a pump discharges into a vessel operating at 300 kPa, the 300 kPa is referred to as:
Select one:
a. Dynamic head
b. Pressure head 
c. Discharge head
d. Friction head
A

b. Pressure head

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39
Q 
Wear rings in centrifugal pumps:
Select one:
a. Are non-replaceable.
b. Are installed on impellers 
c. Compensate for misalignment of the impeller
d. Are only found on high pressure pumps
A

b. Are installed on impellers

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40
Q 
Rotary pumps should be started with the discharge valve open because they are \_\_\_\_\_ pumps.
Select one:
a. Reciprocating
b. Double-acting
c. Positive displacement 
d. Regenerative
A

c. Positive displacement

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41
Q

The programmer will go through a post purge:
Select one:
a. Only if pilot fails to ignite
b. Only on flame failure
c. By manually advancing the timer
d. On any type of shutdown except power outage

A

d. On any type of shutdown except power outage

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42
Q

When starting up a cold boiler with a fully modulating firing rate control, it must be

Select one:

a. placed on manual high-fire to raise the boiler temperature or pressure as fast as possible.
b. kept on automatic, to prevent thermal shock.
c. limited to low-fire until the boiler is sufficiently warm.
d. kept on manual high-fire, to reduce flue gas condensation losses.

A

c. limited to low-fire until the boiler is sufficiently warm.

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43
Q 
What is the minimum number of safety valves required on a boiler that has a heating surface of 42 m2?
Select one:
a. None
b. One 
c. Two
d. Three
A

b. One

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44
Q

During the start-up of a fully automatic boiler, the main burner safety shut-off valve (SSOV):
Select one:
a. Must be opened before the ignition transformer energizes
b. Can be opened any time during the start-up sequence
c. Should be opened as soon as the pilot valve opens
d. Must be closed before pilot ignition

A

d. Must be closed before pilot ignition

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45
Q

The water level indicated in a boiler gauge glass is:
Select one:
a. Slightly less than the actual drum level.
b. The actual drum level, regardless of operating conditions
c. Slightly higher than the actual drum level when the pressure is high.
d. Slightly higher than the actual drum level when the boiler is on low fire.

A

a. Slightly less than the actual drum level.

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46
Q 
A mercury switch bulb is under high vacuum and contains inert gas: 
Select one:
a. So it will not explode 
b. To keep the mercury from oxidizing  
c. To decrease electrical resistance 
d. So the contacts will not overheat
A

b. To keep the mercury from oxidizing

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47
Q

The set pressure of a safety valve may only be adjusted by:
Select one:
a. a power engineer
b. authorized and certified personnel
c. the safety valve manufacturer, its authorized representative, or an assembler
d. an industrial insurance adjuster

A

c. the safety valve manufacturer, its authorized representative, or an assembler

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48
Q 
The popping pressure of a safety valve \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ without replacing its spring:
Select one:
a. Cannot be changed
b. Can only be increased by 5%
c. Can only be decreased by 5%
d. Can be changed by plus or minus 5%
A

d. Can be changed by plus or minus 5%

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49
Q 
What does the boiler inspector do to prevent tampering with the settings of a safety valve?
Select one:
a. Installs a gag
b. Installs a seal 
c. Plugs the adjusting hole
d. Covers the valve
A

b. Installs a seal

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50
Q

A flame failure device is unresponsive to:

Select one:

a. Ultraviolet light
b. Infra-red light
c. Visible light
d. Fuel flow

A

d. Fuel flow

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51
Q

A high gas pressure fuel cut-off switch:
Select one:
a. Closes when gas pressure is too high
b. Automatically resets itself when the gas pressure is restored
c. Is located upstream of the automatic fuel valve
d. Prevents excessive fuel pressure from creating an unstable flame condition

A

d. Prevents excessive fuel pressure from creating an unstable flame condition

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52
Q

Testing a safety valve on a boiler by pulling the try-lever
Select one:
a. Ensures the popping pressure is correct
b. Ensures the closing pressure is correct
c. Takes approximately two seconds
d. Ensures the valve is free to operate

A

d. Ensures the valve is free to operate

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53
Q

When the energy output and the energy demand are equal, the boiler pressure

Select one:

a. falls
b. rises
c. becomes unstable
d. remains constant

A

d. remains constant

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54
Q

If a safety valve leaks after a try lever test, the operator should:
Select one:
a. Reduce the boiler pressure
b. Operate the try lever several times to blow away foreign material
c. Fit a gag to the safety valve
d. Reduce boiler pressure and call the chief engineer

A

b. Operate the try lever several times to blow away foreign material

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55
Q

Safety valves “pop” open because the steam pressure:
Select one:
a. Acts upon a blow down ring
b. Acts upon a huddling chamber
c. Acts upon a larger area as soon as the valve opens
d. Increases due to the discharge ports

A

c. Acts upon a larger area as soon as the valve opens

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56
Q

A safety relief valve is similar to a safety valve except that it:
Select one:
a. Does not have a blowdown ring or bottom guides
b. Must have greater blowdown
c. May have an isolation valve placed between it and the pressure vessel
d. Must discharge directly to the atmosphere

A

a. Does not have a blowdown ring or bottom guides

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57
Q

The purpose of the spring in a safety valve is to:
Select one:
a. Help open the testing lever
b. Adjust the pressure setting of the valve
c. Adjust the blow down of the valve
d. Hold down the disc on the seat

A

d. Hold down the disc on the seat

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58
Q 
An essential fitting between the boiler and the steam pressure gauge is a:
Select one:
a. Check valve 
b. Gate valve
c. Gauge glass
d. Siphon
A

d. Siphon

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59
Q

When boilers cycle on and off frequently

Select one:

a. they do not require post-purges.
b. automatic firing rate controls should be used.
c. they should be kept on manual high fire to prevent excessive cycling.
d. their efficiency drops

A

d. their efficiency drops.

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60
Q

Do not open the safety valve with the test lever:
Select one:
a. If the valve is less than 2.5 cm inlet diameter
b. If the pressure is less than 75% working pressure
c. If there are more than two safety valves on the boiler
d. If the valve is not vented to the roof

A

b. If the pressure is less than 75% working pressure

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61
Q

Deaerators often have low-level alarms and low-low level trips

Select one:

a. in case the boiler feedwater valve fails open.
b. in case the condensate transfer pumps trip.
c. in case the boiler trips.
d. in case the boiler feedwater pumps trip.

A

b. in case the condensate transfer pumps trip.

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62
Q

Which of the following is a desiccant used for dry layup?

Select one:

a. Quick lime
b. Soda ash
c. Silicone Gel
d. Lime soda

A

a. Quick lime

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63
Q

When closing up a boiler,

Select one:

a. handhole and manhole yokes must be torqued until the gaskets are compressed to less than 1 mm thick.
b. handhole and manhole gaskets should be reused, because they are expensive.
c. new handhole and manhole gaskets must be used, to prevent dangerous blowouts and costly unplanned boiler outages.
d. handhole and manhole gaskets must be coated with sealant, such as graphite paste or silicone.

A

c. new handhole and manhole gaskets must be used, to prevent dangerous blowouts and costly unplanned boiler outages.

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64
Q

When warming up a steam boiler, open the boiler drum vent to

Select one:

a. permit the release of corrosive dissolved gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, from the boiler water.
b. ensure a flow of steam through the superheater banks.
c. prevent over-pressurization of the boiler during start-up.
d. keep a vacuum from forming in the drum, if the burner trips off.

A

a. permit the release of corrosive dissolved gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, from the boiler water.

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65
Q

Mechanical chart recorders

Select one:

a. require regular replacement of paper and ink.
b. are used so regular readings do not need to be taken.
c. require constant winding of their clock mechanisms.
d. need their charts replaced each month.

A

a. require regular replacement of paper and ink.

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66
Q

As part of a preventative maintenance schedule, duty swaps:

Select one:

a. distribute wear between regular and standby equipment.
b. are seldom performed on boiler feed pumps.
c. are performed when another piece of equipment breaks down.
d. involve starting a piece of equipment to record performance data, and then shutting it down again.

A

a. distribute wear between regular and standby equipment.

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67
Q

Larger capacity, high pressure fuel trains are

Select one:

a. simpler
b. more efficient
c. safer
d. more complex

A

d. more complex

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68
Q

What should Power Engineers carry at all times?

Select one:

a. a cell phone
b. a small wrench
c. spare fuses
d. a flashligh

A

d. a flashlight

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69
Q

In the case of a single boiler steam heating system, ASME VI advises operators to warm up heating boilers and their steam piping

Select one:

a. alternately.
b. sequentially.
c. simultaneously.
d. quickly.

A

c. simultaneously.

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70
Q

If a new boiler is not boiled out correctly, the result may be:
Select one:
a. Refractory damage
b. Excessive waterside corrosion
c. Excessively high water circulation rates
d. Foaming

A

d. Foaming

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71
Q

On a boiler fuel system that has a “double block and bleed” arrangement:
Select one:
a. The ”bleed” valve is a normally open solenoid valve.
b. The main SSOVs energize when the bleed valve de-energizes.
c. The main SSOVs open before the pre-purge occurs
d. The main SSOVs and the vent valves open at the same time.

A

a. The ”bleed” valve is a normally open solenoid valve.

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72
Q

Although boilers have many different ignition systems, they all follow the same sequence of steps. Which of the following is the third step?

Select one:

a. Post Purge
b. Main burner ignition
c. Pre-purge
d. Pilot ignition

A

b. Main burner ignition

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73
Q

One way to keep oxygen out of the boiler water system is to:
Select one:
a. Increase the continuous blowdown to remove water with high dissolved oxygen concentration.
b. Keep make-up water to a minimum.
c. Keep the drum vent closed when the boiler is not in operation.
d. Control the boiler water pH.

A

b. Keep make-up water to a minimum.

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74
Q

When warming up a boiler, it should be:
Select one:
a. warmed up quickly so there is not enough time for differential thermal expansion to occur
b. warmed up quickly to prevent flue gas condensation
c. warmed up at a rate of one degree every five minutes, to protect the refractory
d. warmed up at 55 degrees Celsius per hour, to prevent thermal shock

A

d. warmed up at 55 degrees Celsius per hour, to prevent thermal shock

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75
Q

When preparing to start a steam boiler with a fully modulating firing rate control, set the manual–automatic switch to _________ and the flame control switch to the __________ position.

Select one:

a. manual, automatic
b. automatic, low-fire
c. manual, low-fire
d. manual, high-fire

A

c. manual, low-fir

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76
Q

Rust in the gauge glass is an indication that:
Select one:
a. The boiler should be blown off.
b. The dissolved solids concentration has peaked.
c. The continuous blowdown setting needs to be increased.
d. Corrosion is occurring in the system

A

d. Corrosion is occurring in the system

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77
Q 
A boiler pressure explosion is NOT caused by:
Select one:
a. Scale and sludge build-up
b. Overheating
c. Insufficient combustion air 
d. Thermal shock
A

c. Insufficient combustion air

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78
Q

Furnace explosions may be caused by:
Select one:
a. Inoperative low water fuel cut-offs
b. The accumulation of fuel-air mixture in the furnace
c. Scale accumulations on the boiler surfaces
d. Excessive furnace purging

A

b. The accumulation of fuel-air mixture in the furnace

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79
Q

When should wet layup be used?

Select one:

a. When a boiler may be exposed to freezing conditions.
b. When desiccant is unavailable.
c. When a boiler is on standby.
d. For long term storage.

A

c. When a boiler is on standby.

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80
Q

If the main burner goes out when warming up a cold boiler, the operator should immediately:
Select one:
a. turn off the boiler, purge the furnace, and restart the burner
b. shut down the boiler, close the main and pilot test firing valves, and determine the cause of the trouble.
c. re-light the burner to see if it goes out again.
d. report the flame failure to the Chief Engineer.

A

b. shut down the boiler, close the main and pilot test firing valves, and determine the cause of the trouble.

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81
Q

The actual movable range of a metric micrometer is:
Select one:
a. one barrel rotation
b. adjustable using a jeweler’s screwdriver
c. bigger on larger micrometers
d. 25 mm

A

d. 25 mm

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82
Q 
Hand taps are usually made in sets of three called:
Select one:
a. SAE, ISO, Metric
b. Rough, coarse, and fine
c. Taper, plug, and bottoming 
d. Primary, secondary, and finishing
A

c. Taper, plug, and bottoming

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83
Q 
A rung ladder should:
Select one:
a. should be fully opened and locked
b. be equipped with only metal feet
c. be used in conjunction with a pole scaffold
d. be inclined with a 4:1 slope
A

d. be inclined with a 4:1 slope

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84
Q

When filing cast iron:
Select one:
a. Start with the bastard cut file
b. use cutting oil to prevent heat and loss of hardness
c. Start with a smooth cut file
d. Add grinding compound to the filing surface

A

a. Start with the bastard cut file

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85
Q

In order to prevent a rope from untwisting under load:
Select one:
a. It should be moistened
b. Iit should have thimbles installed on the ends
c. It has counteracting left-handed and right-handed twists
d. Each end requires “whipping”

A

c. It has counteracting left-handed and right-handed twists

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86
Q

Ladders that are used in the workplace should comply with:
Select one:
a. CSA Standards for Scaffolding
b. common industry practice
c. ASME/ANSI ladder material specifications
d. WCB regulations and CSA standards

A

d. WCB regulations and CSA standards

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87
Q

Which of the following valves is locked closed when preparing a boiler for internal inspection?

Select one:

a. non-return drain
b. feedwater drain
c. drum vent
d. bottom blowoff

A

d. bottom blowoff

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88
Q

An inhibitor, when added to acid, will:
Select one:
a. Prevent or minimize the effect of the acid on the boiler metal
b. Make the acid compatible with the sewer system for disposal
c. Strengthen the acid, thereby shortening the duration of the cleaning procedure
d. Neutralize the acid residue remaining on the boiler metal after a chemical cleaning

A

a. Prevent or minimize the effect of the acid on the boiler metal

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89
Q 
Castle nuts are used:
Select one:
a. To simplify assembly and disassembly
b. To hold shims in place
c. For locking square nuts in place
d. With a split pin or cotter pin
A

d. With a split pin or cotter pin

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90
Q 
The final step when replacing a firetube is:
Select one:
a. Re-expansion
b. Hydrostatic test 
c. Seal welding 
d. Annealing the tube ends
A

b. Hydrostatic test

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91
Q 
When replacing a firetube in a tubesheet, the tube end should extend beyond the tubesheet by:
Select one:
a. 5 mm
b. 1 tube wall thickness
c. The size of the tube roller mandrel
d. 2 times the tube wall thickness
A

d. 2 times the tube wall thickness

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92
Q

Air removal prior to a hydrostatic test:
Select one:
a. Is critical, because the air will compress during the test
b. Will prevent oxygen corrosion.
c. Is done by adding oxygen scavenging chemicals to the test water.
d. Is done with a vacuum pump.

A

a. Is critical, because the air will compress during the test

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93
Q 
A scaffold should always be erected:
Select one:
a. when the available stepladder would require standing on the top step
b. three feet above the work area
c. by a safety contractor  
d. plumb and level
A

d. plumb and level

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94
Q 
Machine bolts are commonly supplied with:
Select one:
a. Pan heads
b. Oval heads
c. Hexagon heads 
d. Square heads
A

c. Hexagon heads

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95
Q 
A dressing tool is used to:
Select one:
a. Square the edges of a grinding wheel 
b. Clean the measuring contact surfaces of a micrometer
c. Clean the grooves of a file
d. Fit a new handle into a hammer head
A

a. Square the edges of a grinding wheel

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96
Q 
A screwdriver with a square tip is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ screwdriver.
Select one:
a. a slot
b. an Allen
c. a Robertson 
d. a Phillips
A

c. a Robertson

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97
Q

Which of the following valves is locked or tagged open when preparing a boiler for internal inspection?

Select one:

a. header isolation
b. continuous blowdown
c. bottom blowoff
d. non-return drain

A

d. non-return drain

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98
Q 
The top of a ladder should extend approximately \_\_\_\_\_ above the level of the upper landing to which it provides access.
Select one:
a. 3 rungs
b. 0.5 m
c. 1 m 
d. 1 rung
A

c. 1 m

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99
Q

When storing a hacksaw:
Select one:
a. the blade should be removed
b. the saw should be stored in a protective sheath
c. release the tension on the blade
d. flip the blade, so that the cutting surfaces are not exposed to damage

A

c. release the tension on the blade

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100
Q

A tap with the marking M4 is a:
Select one:
a. High-strength alloy steel tap
b. Metric thread, 4 mm nominal diameter tap
c. Metric thread, 4 cm nominal diameter tap
d. Metric thread with a 4 tooth per mm pitch

A

b. Metric thread, 4 mm nominal diameter tap

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101
Q

Oxygen in condensate can cause:

Select one:

a. scale deposition
b. highly acidic water
c. pitting corrosion
d. low alkalinity

A

c. pitting corrosion

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102
Q 
If boiler feedwater is neutral, its pH is: 
Select one:
a. 0 
b. 5 
c. 7  
d. 9
A

c. 7

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103
Q

What are dip slides used for?

Select one:

a. To test for biological activity
b. To detect corrosion
c. To prevent delignification of wooden components
d. To detect dissolved gases

A

a. To test for biological activity

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104
Q

Total alkalinity is measured:
Select one:
a. Using methyl purple indicator and sulfuric acid
b. Using potassium iodide-iodate and EDTA
c. To control the concentration of oxygen scavenger
d. Using phenolphthalein and sulfuric acid

A

a. Using methyl purple indicator and sulfuric acid

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105
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a dissolved solid? 
Select one:
a. Magnesium sulphate  
b. Oxygen 
c. Sand 
d. Carbon dioxide
A

a. Magnesium sulphate

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106
Q 
The chemical used to regenerate the anion exchanger of a demineralizer is: 
Select one:
a. Caustic soda 
b. Sulfuric acid  
c. Sodium chloride 
d. Hydrochloric acid
A

a. Caustic soda

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107
Q

In a galvanic corrosion cell, the metal that corrodes is the

Select one:

a. metal with the more positive electrochemical potential
b. noble metal
c. anode
d. cathode

A

c. anode

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108
Q

Lime-soda softeners:
Select one:
a. Remove all dissolved solids from the water
b. Remove all dissolved solids and gases from the water
c. Remove lime from groundwater
d. Remove the scale forming dissolved solids

A

d. Remove the scale forming dissolved solids

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109
Q

The wood used in cooling towers contains natural compounds called __________, that resist decay.

Select one:

a. biocides
b. celluloses
c. extractives
d. lignins

A

c. extractives

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110
Q

To minimize galvanic corrosion

Select one:

a. The electrochemical potential difference between any two connected materials must be greater than 0.15 V.
b. If dissimilar metals are used, they must be directly connected to each other.
c. A sacrificial anode may be installed to protect the cathodic materials.
d. Use only noble metals.

A

c. A sacrificial anode may be installed to protect the cathodic materials.

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111
Q

How does one type of amine protect a condensate system?

Select one:

a. By neutralizing hydroxide alkalinity
b. By forming a protective film coating on scale forming solids
c. By neutralizing carbonic acid
d. By scavenging oxygen from the condensate

A

c. By neutralizing carbonic acid

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112
Q 
The dissolved solids in raw water: 
Select one:
a. Cause pitting of boiler surfaces 
b. Cause grooving of piping surfaces 
c. Are organic matter 
d. Are usually removed by ion exchange
A

d. Are usually removed by ion exchange

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113
Q 
Which of these processes removes suspended matter from plugged filter beds? 
Select one:
a. Regeneration 
b. Flushing 
c. Rinsing 
d. Backwashing
A

d. Backwashing

114
Q 
Caustic embrittlement of boiler metal is promoted by: 
Select one:
a. Concentrations of sodium hydroxide  
b. Concentration of sodium chloride 
c. Overheating of boiler parts 
d. Concentration of sodium sulfite
A

a. Concentrations of sodium hydroxide

115
Q

Bicarbonates can be removed from boiler feedwater by:
Select one:
a. Filter tanks
b. A strainer in the feedwater line
c. Heating the water to just below its boiling point
d. Blowing off the boiler

A

c. Heating the water to just below its boiling point

116
Q

Carbon dioxide may cause corrosion in condensate return lines. This corrosive carbon dioxide may originate:
Select one:
a. by absorption in the deaerator
b. as sodium sulfite in the boiler water
c. by decomposition of bicarbonates in the boiler water
d. In condensate neutralizing amines

A

c. by decomposition of bicarbonates in the boiler water

117
Q

Suspended matter must be removed from feedwater to:
Select one:
a. Prevent overheating of the boiler metal
b. Prevent boiler waterside scale deposits
c. Reduce the alkalinity of the water
d. Eliminate the hardness of the water

A

a. Prevent overheating of the boiler metal

118
Q 
Temporary hardness in feedwater is caused by:
Select one:
a. Sodium nitrate 
b. Magnesium bicarbonate  
c. Calcium carbonate 
d. Magnesium sulphate
A

b. Magnesium bicarbonate

119
Q 
Phenolphthalein is 
Select one:
a. an indicator  
b. a reagent 
c. a buffer 
d. a neutralizing agent
A

a. an indicator

120
Q

In a zeolite water softener, the scale-forming salts are:
Select one:
a. Completely removed
b. Changed into non-scale forming sodium salts
c. Filtered out
d. Absorbed by the zeolite

A

b. Changed into non-scale forming sodium salts

121
Q

When starting a steam turbine it is customary practice to:
Select one:
a. first, rotate the shaft by hand to see if it turns freely.
b. check the lube oil and start the lube oil cooler before starting the turbine.
c. close the turbine casing drains and steam trap bypasses until the turbine is fully warmed.
d. overspeed the turbine to test the operation of the overspeed trip, before continuing with the turbine warm-up.

A

b. check the lube oil and start the lube oil cooler before starting the turbine.

122
Q 
A counter-flow cooling tower \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  than a crossflow cooling tower.
Select one:
a. is shorter 
b. requires less floor space  
c. requires less fan power 
d. has a lower pressure drop
A

b. requires less floor space

123
Q

Diesel engine governing is accomplished by:
Select one:
a. varying the load on the engine
b. varying the amount of air-fuel mixture drawn into the engine when the load changes
c. varying the amount of fuel injected on each power stroke
d. modulating the pressure of the atomizing air.

A

c. varying the amount of fuel injected on each power stroke

124
Q

In impulse turbine theory, the:
Select one:
a. Steam flow is reduced through the nozzles
b. Steam pressure is reduced in the nozzles
c. Steam pressure decreases across the rotating blades
d. Steam velocity increases through the rotating blades

A

b. Steam pressure is reduced in the nozzles

125
Q 
Gas turbines are ideal where:
Select one:
a. noise is undesirable
b. water is scarce 
c. thermal pollution is of major concern
d. waste heat can be discharged into the atmosphere
A

b. water is scarce

126
Q

The low installation cost of a gas turbine is:
Select one:
a. due to less costly construction materials
b. because the cooling tower can be much smaller
c. still higher than a steam plant installation
d. because less auxiliary equipment is needed

A

d. because less auxiliary equipment is needed

127
Q 
A cold weather cooling tower bypass valve should not be fully closed until the temperature reaches:
Select one:
a. the compressor setpoint
b. the point at which drift stops
c. +5°C
d. about 27°C
A

d. about 27°C

128
Q

During a single rotation of a 4-stroke cycle gasoline engine crankshaft, the engine undergoes

Select one:

a. an intake stroke, immediately followed by an exhaust stroke
b. a compression stroke, immediately followed by an exhaust stroke
c. an intake stroke, immediately followed by a power stroke
d. a power stroke, immediately followed by an exhaust stroke

A

d. a power stroke, immediately followed by an exhaust stroke

129
Q 
Using a compressed air starting motor is a common method of starting:
Select one:
a. Large stationary diesel engines 
b. Small two-stroke engines
c. Gasoline engines
d. Aircraft engines
A

a. Large stationary diesel engines

130
Q

In theory, impulse turbines:
Select one:
a. Have a velocity drop through the nozzle
b. Have no pressure drop through the moving blades
c. Can only use only low-pressure steam
d. Develop the most torque of all turbines

A

b. Have no pressure drop through the moving blades

131
Q 
In a reaction turbine the steam \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ when passing through moving blades.
Select one:
a. Pressure increases
b. Pressure decreases 
c. Velocity remains constant
d. Velocity decreases
A

b. Pressure decreases

132
Q

A gas turbine is most efficient when:
Select one:
a. both turbine shafts run at the same speed
b. the combustion chamber is kept cool
c. the ambient air temperature is low
d. operated at the highest combustion temperature that the construction materials permit.

A

d. operated at the highest combustion temperature that the construction materials permit.

133
Q 
When the steam pressure drop occurs only in the stationary steam passages, the turbine is known as:
Select one:
a. An impulse turbine 
b. A reaction turbine
c. A Parsons turbine
d. A single stage turbine
A

a. An impulse turbine

134
Q 
In a diesel engine, an injection nozzle is used for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Select one:
a. Lubricating the journal bearings
b. Scavenging the cylinder
c. Igniting the fuel.
d. Atomizing the fuel.
A

d. Atomizing the fuel

135
Q

The connecting rods of a steam engine:
Select one:
a. Convert reciprocating motion to rotary motion
b. Are used to move the slide valve
c. Are only needed on vertical engines
d. Connects the inlet valve to the discharge valve

A

a. Convert reciprocating motion to rotary motion

136
Q 
Internal combustion engines that drive gas compression machinery, and burn natural gas, operate on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cycle.
Select one:
a. rotary
b. variable heat
c. two or four stroke 
d. Brayton
A

c. two or four stroke

137
Q

A two-cycle gasoline engine:
Select one:
a. produces twice the power of a four cycle
b. must have two cylinders
c. requires exhaust valves
d. is simpler than a four cycle engine in construction

A

d. is simpler than a four cycle engine in construction

138
Q

The purpose of a regenerator is to:
Select one:
a. Re-circulate the exhaust gases back through the compressor
b. Improve the efficiency of the turbine
c. Increase the temperature in the combustion chamber
d. Cool the gas entering the compressor

A

b. Improve the efficiency of the turbine

139
Q

The rate of heat transfer in any cooling tower system depends on the:
Select one:
a. The difference between the inlet air relative humidity and the inlet air absolute humidity.
b. The difference between the temperature of the water in and the temperature of the air out.
c. The amount and temperature of the make-up water
d. The difference between the inlet water temperature and the inlet air wet bulb temperature

A

d. The difference between the inlet water temperature and the inlet air wet bulb temperature

140
Q

A steam engine piston:
Select one:
a. Moves fastest at the end of its stroke
b. Produces the most force at the end of its stroke
c. Is lubricated inside the crankcase by the splash method
d. Moves fastest from the start to the mid point of its stroke

A

d. Moves fastest from the start to the mid point of its stroke

141
Q 
An anti-friction bearing:
Select one:
a. Is constructed with white metal alloy
b. Wears to a smooth, low-friction surface
c. Has rolling friction 
d. Is a sleeve bearing
A

c. Has rolling friction

142
Q

When replacing or removing an anti-friction ball bearing, the applied force should:
Select one:
a. Not be transmitted through the bearing balls
b. Always be against the inner race
c. Always be against the outer race
d. Be made only after heating the bearing

A

a. Not be transmitted through the bearing balls

143
Q 
The resistance of a liquid to internal deformation or shear is known as:
Select one:
a. Pour point
b. Viscosity index 
c. Flash point
d. Viscosity
A

d. Viscosity

144
Q 
The property of oil that indicates its ability to support a load is:
Select one:
a. Viscosity 
b. Viscosity index
c. Pour point
d. Floc point
A

a. Viscosity

145
Q 
Fluid film lubrication:
Select one:
a. eliminates all bearing friction 
b. Is different from flood lubrication
c. Supports heavy loads
d. Prevents wear during start-up
A

c. Supports heavy loads

146
Q 
Lubricants used for high-output steam turbines should:
Select one:
a. Have a very high viscosity
b. Be fire resistant 
c. Have a low pour point
d. Mix well with water
A

b. Be fire resistant

147
Q 
A normal anti-friction bearing temperature operating range is:
Select one:
a. 150°C to 160°C
b. 20°C to 50°C
c. 65°C to 70°C 
d. 80°C to 120°C
A

c. 65°C to 70°C

148
Q

Large journal or sleeve bearings have grooves:
Select one:
a. In the high pressure area of the bearing babbit
b. Cut into the bearing housing
c. For distributing lubricant evenly just after the pressure area
d. In the non-pressure area

A

d. In the non-pressure area

149
Q 
Where gear teeth inter-mesh, a lubricant must provide
Select one:
a. Corrosion prevention
b. Sealing 
c. Shock absorption  
d. Temperature control
A

c. Shock absorption

150
Q 
If ambient air temperatures are very low, the preferred lubricant is a:
Select one:
a. Solid 
b. Semi-solid
c. Fixed oil
d. Liquid
A

a. Solid

151
Q 
Which type of oil produces higher fluid friction?
Select one:
a. High viscosity oil
b. Low viscosity oil 
c. Synthetic oils
d. Fixed oils
A

a. High viscosity oil

152
Q 
A form of lubrication that requires continual motion of a shaft or surface is:
Select one:
a. Boundary lubrication
b. Continuous lubrication
c. Forced lubrication
d. Fluid film lubrication
A

d. Fluid film lubrication

153
Q 
If an oil’s viscosity changes a lot with very little temperature change, it will have a:
Select one:
a. Low viscosity index 
b. High pour point
c. High viscosity index
d. Low pour point
A

a. Low viscosity index

154
Q

Grease is not a suitable lubricant:
Select one:
a. If the atmosphere contains a lot of moisture
b. When the atmosphere is dusty
c. If corrosion protection is desired during downtime
d. If a large amount of cooling is desired

A

d. If a large amount of cooling is desired

155
Q 
A type of anti-friction bearing is the \_\_\_\_\_ .
Select one:
a. Kingsbury
b. Ball bearing 
c. Sleeve bearing
d. Journal bearing
A

b. Ball bearing

156
Q 
The oil for a refrigeration compressor must:
Select one:
a. Have a low pour point 
b. Have a high flash point
c. Have a high fire point
d. Be a multi-grade type
A

a. Have a low pour point

157
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_ number of oil indicates the acidity of oil.
Select one:
a. Acidity
b. Alkalinity
c. Neutralization 
d. Viscosity index
A

c. Neutralization

158
Q 
The instrument that measures the viscosity of an oil at a certain temperature as it flows through a small diameter tube, is called:
Select one:
a. An orifice plate
b. A Saybolt viscometer 
c. An oil meter
d. A vena contracta
A

b. A Saybolt viscometer

159
Q

A large journal bearing which is running hotter than normal can be cooled by:
Select one:
a. Direct application of cool water
b. Loosening the bearing caps
c. Decreasing the viscosity of the oil by cooling it
d. pumping additional grease into it

A

b. Loosening the bearing caps

160
Q 
A journal bearing:
Select one:
a. Controls thrust movement
b. Does not require lubrication
c. require cooling water
d. Supports a shaft
A

d. Supports a shaft

161
Q 
A centrifugal pump consists of:
Select one:
a. An impeller surrounded by a casing 
b. Gears rotating in a housing
c. Sliding vanes
d. A pulsating disc
A

a. An impeller surrounded by a casing

162
Q 
A diffuser pump:
Select one:
a. Does not have a volute
b. Does not have to be primed
c. Has high suction lift
d. is more effective at changing velocity to pressure than a volute pump
A

d. is more effective at changing velocity to pressure than a volute pump

163
Q 
Priming of a centrifugal pump refers to:
Select one:
a. Removal of liquid from the pump
b. Filling the pump casing with liquid and removing the air 
c. Lifting the pump
d. Closing the vent on the pump casing
A

b. Filling the pump casing with liquid and removing the air

164
Q

If the packing gland of a centrifugal water pump is leaking too much:
Select one:
a. Tighten up the gland until all leakage has been stopped
b. Tighten up the gland but permit a slight amount of leakage
c. Tighten up the gland as far as is possible
d. Throttle the suction valve a little

A

b. Tighten up the gland but permit a slight amount of leakage

165
Q

Which of the following air compressors gives two compression strokes per crankshaft revolution?
Select one:
a. Two-stage two cylinder double-acting compressor
b. A two-stroke compressor
c. Single cylinder double acting compressor
d. Two cylinder single stage double acting compressor

A

c. Single cylinder double acting compressor

166
Q 
Intercoolers should be equipped with:
Select one:
a. Moisture separators
b. Safety valves 
c. Baffles
d. Automatic blow downs
A

b. Safety valves

167
Q

A inspection of a pump that is in operation should include:
Select one:
a. Ensuring water flows freely from the packing
b. Ensuring water drips from the mechanical seals
c. Checking that the suction and discharge pressures are correct
d. Re-priming the pump

A

c. Checking that the suction and discharge pressures are correct

168
Q 
A slight leakage is desired between the pump shaft and the packing in order to:
Select one:
a. Prevent the ingress of air
b. Prevent wearing of the wear rings
c. Lubricate the packing 
d. Prevent the pump from vapour locking
A

c. Lubricate the packing

169
Q

If an electric motor’s rotational speed is too high for a given compressor, what may be done?

Select one:

a. use a speed limiter
b. use compressor unloading
c. use a variable speed drive
d. use reduction gears

A

d. use reduction gears

170
Q 
Pump wear rings are installed on an impeller by threading, or:
Select one:
a. Shrinking 
b. Welding
c. Brazing
d. Forging
A

a. Shrinking

171
Q 
A reciprocating air compressor works on the principle of:
Select one:
a. Pressure reduction
b. Centrifugal force
c. Volumetric expansion
d. Volume reduction
A

d. Volume reduction

172
Q

Pump priming is:
Select one:
a. Done to centrifugal pumps with positive suction head
b. Done with the suction valve open
c. Filling the pump with gas
d. Done with the suction and discharge valve closed

A

b. Done with the suction valve open

173
Q 
The compressor that would favour volume over pressure would be the:
Select one:
a. Rotary lobe
b. Screw
c. Centrifugal 
d. Sliding vane
A

c. Centrifugal

174
Q

A mechanical pump seal:
Select one:
a. Will have a substantial amount of leakage
b. Will cause more wear on the shaft than a packing seal
c. can be designed for high pressure service
d. Does not need cooling

A

c. can be designed for high pressure service

175
Q 
A rotary pump:
Select one:
a. Is silent in operation
b. Has severe discharge pulsations
c. Should be equipped with a relief valve 
d. Is a dynamic pump
A

c. Should be equipped with a relief valve

176
Q

Centrifugal pumps do not develop good suction lift because:
Select one:
a. Atmospheric pressure is usually too low
b. Their internal component clearances are too high
c. The speed is too low
d. They favour pressure rather than volume

A

b. Their internal component clearances are too high

177
Q 
An air compressor may be automatically started and stopped by a pressure switch, which is usually found connected to the:
Select one:
a. Intercooler
b. Aftercooler
c. Receiver 
d. Control panel
A

c. Receiver

178
Q

The seal cage on the shaft of a centrifugal pump:
Select one:
a. Holds the shaft packing against the shoulder of the stuffing box
b. Assists in reducing shaft vibration
c. Distributes sealing fluid to the stuffing box
d. Prevents fluid from leaking out of the pump casing

A

c. Distributes sealing fluid to the stuffing box

179
Q

A pump is capable of suction lift due to:
Select one:
a. Its ability to convert kinetic energy into potential energy
b. The speed at which it operates
c. Its input power
d. Atmospheric pressure

A

d. Atmospheric pressure

180
Q 
The capacity of a centrifugal pump should only be reduced by:
Select one:
a. Throttling the suction valve
b. Closing the suction valve
c. Opening the pump casing vent valve
d. Throttling the discharge valve
A

d. Throttling the discharge valve

181
Q

In steam boiler firing rate control systems, the measured variable is

Select one:

a. the steam pressure
b. firing rate control valve position
c. fuel pressure
d. combustion air damper position

A

a. the steam pressure

182
Q

A low water fuel cutoff on an unattended steam boiler shall be installed so that
Select one:
a. It cannot be rendered inoperative
b. It starts the feed water pump
c. It can be isolated if it is not required
d. It shuts down the burner when the water level falls below the lowest visible part of the gauge glass.

A

a. It cannot be rendered inoperative

183
Q 
To increase the opening pressure of a safety valve,:
Select one:
a. Raise the blowdown ring
b. Increase spring compression 
c. Reduce spring compression
d. Lower the blowdown ring
A

b. Increase spring compression

184
Q 
A thermocouple:
Select one:
a. Consists of two similar wires
b. Produces an electric signal 
c. Senses infrared light from the flame
d. Is made of several thermopiles connected in series
A

b. Produces an electric signal

185
Q 
A high pressure boiler with a heating surface not exceeding \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in area can have only a single safety valve. 
Select one:
a. 47 m2 
b. 36 m2
c. 28 m2
d. 19 m2
A

a. 47 m2

186
Q

When an automatic unattended boiler starts up, the programming control will first:
Select one:
a. Energize the ignition transformer and pilot gas solenoid valve
b. Start the post purge period
c. Start the forced draft fan
d. Energize the main gas valve

A

c. Start the forced draft fan

187
Q

The primary function of a burner management system is to:
Select one:
a. Alert the operator of adverse operating conditions
b. Maintain the air-fuel ratio of the burner
c. Start or stop a burner following a safe sequence
d. Regulate the air flow and the fuel flow in accordance with steam demand.

A

c. Start or stop a burner following a safe sequence

188
Q

When used on a boiler, modulating combustion control will:
Select one:
a. Change air and fuel flow proportionally to changes in steam pressure
b. Always be at set point when demand is at 50%
c. Alter only the air flow if a selector station is on manual
d. Respond to changes in atmospheric pressure

A

a. Change air and fuel flow proportionally to changes in steam pressure

189
Q

A test connection for a boiler pressure gauge:
Select one:
a. Should be located upstream of a siphon
b. Should be of 12.7 mm NPT size
c. Is required on all boilers
d. Is usually installed between the siphon and the pressure gauge

A

d. Is usually installed between the siphon and the pressure gauge

190
Q

A packaged steam boiler modulating combustion control system will routinely:
Select one:
a. Maintain drum level within a desired range
b. Maintain flue gas temperature at some set point
c. Maintain boiler steam pressure within a desired range
d. Alter flue flow without changing the air flow

A

c. Maintain boiler steam pressure within a desired range

191
Q

In hot water boiler firing rate control systems, the measured variable is

Select one:

a. the inlet water temperature
b. the outlet water temperature
c. the combustion air pressure
d. the outlet water pressure

A

b. the outlet water temperature

192
Q

A hot water boiler operating control (Aquastat) may be a pressure switch:
Select one:
a. that is normally open
b. that responds to the expansion and contraction of boiler water
c. operated by a filled system thermometer
d. that is sensitive to steam pressure

A

c. operated by a filled system thermometer

193
Q

The thermal element of a hot water boiler limit control:
Select one:
a. Measures pressure
b. Senses temperature, and changes it to a corresponding pressure
c. Must use a capillary tube
d. Measures the enthalpy of the boiler water

A

b. Senses temperature, and changes it to a corresponding pressure

194
Q

A feedwater pipe, where connected to a power boiler, must have:
Select one:
a. A check valve, with a stop valve between the check valve and the boiler
b. A check valve between the stop valve and the boiler
c. A stop valve only
d. A quick and slow opening stop valve

A

a. A check valve, with a stop valve between the check valve and the boiler

195
Q 
Transparent gauge glasses are lined with mica to:
Select one:
a. Protect the glass
b. Cool the glass
c. Increase the strength of the glass 
d. Provide a high temperature seal
A

a. Protect the glass

196
Q

If a boiler produces steam at a higher rate than the rate of steam consumption, and this condition goes unchecked

Select one:

a. the boiler will over-pressurize
b. the boiler efficiency will drop
c. the boiler will overheat
d. soot will develop on the fireside

A

a. the boiler will over-pressurize

197
Q 
How many blow-off valves are required by most power boilers?
Select one:
a. Zero 
b. One 
c. Two  
d. Three
A

c. Two

198
Q

All flame safeguard devices have the following in common:
Select one:
a. Close the safety shut-off valves in case of pilot flame failure or main burner failure.
b. Are limited to temperatures comfortable to the hand.
c. Monitor the pilot flame and main burner simultaneously.
d. Activate an alarm system if flame failure is detected

A

a. Close the safety shut-off valves in case of pilot flame failure or main burner failure.

199
Q

A boiler feedwater isolation valve:
Select one:
a. Is used to isolate the deaerator
b. Must be a globe valve
c. Should be located close to the feedwater pump
d. May be a globe valve, provided water enters below the disc

A

d. May be a globe valve, provided water enters below the disc

200
Q

Every steam boiler must have a safety valve that is:
Select one:
a. Placed in the piping system leading from the steam stop valve.
b. Fitted securely to a shut-off valve, which is directly connected to the top of the boiler.
c. Fitted in a vertical position, directly connected to the top of the boiler.
d. Connected to the steam or water space of the boiler, without any intervening fitting.

A

c. Fitted in a vertical position, directly connected to the top of the boiler.

201
Q

New boilers require a _____________ and a _____________ dry-out before entering operation.

Select one:

a. mechanical cleaning, fireside
b. certificate, complete
c. refractory curing, waterside
d. boil-out, refractory

A

d. boil-out, refractory

202
Q

To confirm a hot water heating system is full,

Select one:

a. the system pressure must be the same at every elevation.
b. the altitude shown on the tridicator gauge must exceed the pressure indication.
c. the pressure shown on the tridicator gauge must exceed the altitude indication.
d. the expansion tank level must be at 1/2 a glass.

A

c. the pressure shown on the tridicator gauge must exceed the altitude indication

203
Q 
One cause of main flame failure in oil fired boilers is:
Select one:
a. Excessive fuel temperature.
b. Excessive purge duration. 
c. Excessive furnace temperature.
d. Water in the fuel
A

d. Water in the fuel

204
Q

An automatic pressure-relieving device characterized by rapid opening or pop action, or by gradual opening proportional to the pressure increase, and used in vapour or liquid service, is called a

Select one:

a. safety valve
b. safety relief valve
c. vapour relief valve
d. pop valve

A

b. safety relief valve

205
Q

While warming up and cutting-in a hot water heating boiler with a hot system, which of the following is true?
Select one:
a. Keep the stop valves in the supply and return lines to the boiler closed during warm-up.
b. While warming up, the boiler must be on “high fire” or “automatic.”
c. Close the valves connecting the expansion tank to the on-line boilers, and open the valve that connects the cold boiler to the expansion tank.
d. Make sure the burner shuts off before the safety valve opens.

A

a. Keep the stop valves in the supply and return lines to the boiler closed during warm-up.

206
Q 
Failure to \_\_\_\_\_ the furnace thoroughly before light-up can cause a furnace explosion.
Select one:
a. preheat
b. soot-blow
c. cool
d. purge
A

d. purge

207
Q

Which of the following is NOT done when preparing a steam boiler feedwater system?

Select one:

a. Place the feedwater pre-treatment equipment in service.
b. Open the feedwater control bypass valve.
c. Verify that the boiler feedwater pumps are in service.
d. Confirm that the boiler water level is within range.

A

b. Open the feedwater control bypass valve.

208
Q

Which code contains information on safety valves for high pressure steam boilers?

Select one:

a. ASME B31.5
b. ASME Section IV
c. ASME Section I
d. CSA B-52

A

c. ASME Section I

209
Q

Because natural gas is colourless and odourless, ___________ is added to the gas so that it is easier to detect a leak.

Select one:

a. propane
b. mercaptan
c. fluorescent dye
d. an irritant

A

b. mercaptan

210
Q

If a steam boiler is in service and no water level shows in the gauge glass, the first action would be to:

Select one:

a. operate the bottom blowoff valves.
b. shut off the fuel and air to the furnace
c. start the standby feed pump
d. determine whether the gauge glass is completely full or completely empty.

A

d. determine whether the gauge glass is completely full or completely empty.

211
Q

If a power failure occurs, which of the following valves fail open?

Select one:

a. Fuel line bleed valve.
b. Boiler feedwater valve.
c. Main fuel safety shut-off valve.
d. Pilot fuel safety shut-off valve.

A

a. Fuel line bleed valve.

212
Q

Which of the following may cause water hammer in steam lines?

Select one:

a. having too many condensate drains open.
b. missing or damaged pipe insulation.
c. opening the steam trap bypass valves.
d. opening steam valves slowly.

A

b. missing or damaged pipe insulation.

213
Q

Regarding maintenance programs, what does “PM” stand for?

Select one:

a. Plant Maintenance
b. Planned Maintenance
c. Periodic Maintenance
d. Preventative Maintenance

A

d. Preventative Maintenance

214
Q

Who should verify a steam boiler lockout?

Select one:

a. A second qualified operator.
b. Each and every contractor or employee working on the boiler.
c. Nobody.
d. A representative of the plant Workplace Safety and Health committee.

A

a. A second qualified operator.

215
Q

How often should a LWCO float chamber blowdown test be performed on a power boiler?

Select one:

a. annually.
b. weekly.
c. daily.
d. monthly.

A

c. daily.

216
Q

In the event of a power failure, which of the following will likely require a manual restart when power is restored?

Select one:

a. small condensate return pumps
b. air dryers
c. large air compressors
d. unit heater fans

A

c. large air compressors

217
Q

What is usually considered the first task when coming onto a shift:

Select one:

a. complete the water tests
b. perform a complete set of operator rounds
c. read the log book
d. Check water levels

A

c. read the log book

218
Q 
A boiler boil-out
Select one:
a. is done with an alkaline solution. 
b. must be done annually.
c. is done before curing the refractory.
d. is done at 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure.
A

a. is done with an alkaline solution.

219
Q

“SOP” stands for

Select one:

a. Special Operating Procedure
b. Simplified Operating Procedure
c. Simplified Operating Practices
d. Standard Operating Procedure

A

d. Standard Operating Procedure

220
Q

The purpose of a boiler boil out is to:
Select one:
a. remove grease and oil from the heat transfer surfaces.
b. determine the level at which the low water cut-off functions.
c. dry out the refractory.
d. clean the fireside surfaces.

A

a. remove grease and oil from the heat transfer surfaces.

221
Q 
To measure the small clearance between a valve tappet and a cam lobe, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used.
Select one:
a. An inside micrometer
b. A scale ruler
c. A vernier caliper  
d. A feeler gauge
A

d. A feeler gauge

222
Q

The external inspection of a boiler:
Select one:
a. may include ensuring the pressure relief valves are the correct setting and capacity
b. may include making sure the furnace refractory is in order
c. may include making sure the exterior of the tubes are in good condition
d. must be done after the boiler has been drained

A

a. may include ensuring the pressure relief valves are the correct setting and capacity

223
Q 
A substance that absorbs humidity inside a boiler during dry layup is:
Select one:
a. Zeolite
b. Sodium sulphite
c. Activated alumina 
d. Lime soda
A

c. Activated alumina

224
Q 
When a boiler is removed from service, it can be drained once the temperature reaches approximately:
Select one:
a. room temperature
b. 50°C
c. 90°C 
d. 70°C
A

c. 90°C

225
Q 
Channels or flutes are:
Select one:
a. types of wrenches
b. parts of a die
c. types of punches 
d. gaps in a tap for chips
A

d. gaps in a tap for chips

226
Q 
It is recommended that a new boiler be shut down, drained, opened up, flushed out and inspected after the first \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of operation.
Select one:
a. Two weeks
b. Three months 
c. Six days
d. Three days
A

b. Three months

227
Q

During a wet layup, a water tank should be installed above the boiler and attached to the boiler vent connection in order to:
Select one:
a. Permit the injection of boiler chemicals.
b. Prevent air from entering the boiler water.
c. Keep the nitrogen cap from venting to the atmosphere
d. Provide pure water for rinsing the exterior of the boiler.

A

b. Prevent air from entering the boiler water.

228
Q 
A tube beading tool is used:
Select one:
a. On water tube boilers
b. On fire tube boilers 
c. To fasten the stays in the tube sheet
d. To unfasten fire tubes from the tube sheet.
A

b. On fire tube boilers

229
Q

The packing gland of a hot water boiler circulating pump should have some leakage:
Select one:
a. To prevent the packing from drying out.
b. So that the shaft sleeve will wear instead of the shaft.
c. To allow air to exit the pump, so the pump does not lose its prime.
d. So the operator can tell if the sealing water is turned on.

A

a. To prevent the packing from drying out.

230
Q

When shutting down a boiler for internal cleaning:
Select one:
a. Shut down the boiler, then fill it completely with chemically treated water
b. Shut off the fire. Then, drain the boiler while it is hot, open it up, and flush it
c. Allow the boiler to cool. Then drain it, open it up, and flush it
d. Let it stand for a couple of days, then drain it

A

c. Allow the boiler to cool. Then drain it, open it up, and flush it

231
Q

The gaskets for the front and rear doors of a firetube boiler should be coated with:
Select one:
a. high temperature silicone sealant, to prevent flue gas leakage.
b. high temperature silicone sealant, to prevent excess air from leaking into the furnace.
c. contact cement, to keep the gasket from coming loose.
d. an anti-seize compound to prevent the gasket from sticking to the mating surfaces

A

d. an anti-seize compound to prevent the gasket from sticking to the mating surfaces

232
Q

One of the main purposes of an external boiler inspection is to:
Select one:
a. observe and assess boiler operation and maintenance practices.
b. inspect all auxiliary equipment and pressure vessels.
c. thoroughly assess the water treatment program.
d. thoroughly examine the boiler waterside.

A

a. observe and assess boiler operation and maintenance practices.

233
Q 
In order to check the trueness of a flat surface, one would use a:
Select one:
a. Hermaphrodite divider
b. Surface plate
c. Layout bench
d. Machinist’s square
A

b. Surface plate

234
Q

What pressure is applied to a boiler during a hydrostatic test?
Select one:
a. 1.5 times the setting of the safety valve.
b. 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure.
c. Design pressure.
d. 2 times the setting of the lowest set safety valve.

A

b. 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure.

235
Q 
The most commonly used acid for boiler cleaning is:
Select one:
a. Sulphuric
b. Hydrochloric 
c. Nitric
d. Sulphamic
A

b. Hydrochloric

236
Q

When two or more sling eyes are used when lifting an object, they should be:
Select one:
a. Of equal strength
b. slid through each other in choker fashion
c. Held in a shackle
d. Fastened with a wire rope clip

A

c. Held in a shackle

237
Q

Smaller boilers are not often cleaned chemically because:
Select one:
a. most small boilers are firetube designs, which are best cleaned mechanically.
b. small boilers have thin metal, and may be damaged by cleaning chemicals.
c. small boilers develop little waterside scale, because of their low steaming rates.
d. the expense of chemicals, complex piping, and pumping systems may not be justified for cleaning smaller boilers.

A

d. the expense of chemicals, complex piping, and pumping systems may not be justified for cleaning smaller boilers.

238
Q 
Chain hoists are designed:
Select one:
a. For horizontal use
b. With the top hook as the strongest 
c. With a very low mechanical advantage
d. For use when "choking" the load to be lifted
A

b. With the top hook as the strongest

239
Q

Which one of these government agencies or regulations covers the use and erection of work platforms?
Select one:
a. Boilers and Pressure Vessels Branch
b. Occupational Health and Safety Act and Regulation
c. Industrial Accident Prevention Association
d. Provincial elevator and hoisting device inspection branch

A

b. Occupational Health and Safety Act and Regulation

240
Q

Prior to a worker entering the steam drum of an off-line boiler that is connected to a common, pressurized steam header, the
Select one:
a. header must be shut down and depressurized
b. Boiler Inspector must be informed before any work occurs
c. main steam, blowdown and feedwater valves must be closed, locked and tagged
d. drum must be vented, the safety valve must be gagged, and all ash and soot removed from the firebox

A

c. main steam, blowdown and feedwater valves must be closed, locked and tagged

241
Q 
The main scale forming substance in cooling water towers is:
Select one:
a. Magnesium carbonate 
b. Sodium sulfite
c. Calcium bicarbonate
d. Sodium phosphate
A

c. Calcium bicarbonate

242
Q

Sodium zeolite softeners:
Select one:
a. Remove all dissolved solids and suspended matter from the water
b. Remove calcium and magnesium ions from the water
c. Are regenerated with an acid solution
d. Remove all dissolved solids from the water

A

b. Remove calcium and magnesium ions from the water

243
Q

Boiler water that is too alkaline will likely:
Select one:
a. Produce scale inside the boiler
b. Have a low pH
c. Cause foaming in the boiler
d. Cause grooving on a boiler’s waterside surfaces

A

c. Cause foaming in the boiler

244
Q

Filming amines protect against the harmful effects of:

Select one:

a. suspended solids and corrosion products.
b. high condensate pH.
c. dissolved carbon dioxide and oxygen.
d. dissolved calcium and magnesium salts.

A

c. dissolved carbon dioxide and oxygen.

245
Q

In cooling towers, heavy metals, oxidizing chemicals, and non-oxidizing chemicals are used to:

Select one:

a. Inhibit biological fouling
b. Inhibit corrosion
c. Eliminate wood deterioration
d. Reduce scaling

A

a. Inhibit biological fouling

246
Q

What is the consequence if condensate contains hardness?

Select one:

a. Boiler waterside scale deposition.
b. Reduced condensate line corrosion.
c. Corrosion by-products.
d. Pitting and grooving.

A

a. Boiler waterside scale deposition.

247
Q

Direct measurement of condensate amine can be done using:

Select one:

a. a commercially available iron analysis kit.
b. methyl purple and sulfuric acid
c. a coupon rack
d. a chromatograph or a fluorometer

A

d. a chromatograph or a fluorometer

248
Q 
During the “Rinse” stage when regenerating a sodium zeolite softener, the solution going to the sewer contains: 
Select one:
a. Calcium sulphate 
b. Sulphates and bicarbonates 
c. Calcium and magnesium ions  
d. Sodium bicarbonates and sulphates
A

c. Calcium and magnesium ions

249
Q

The biological growth in cooling tower water that causes death is

Select one:

a. Acute Lung Biofilm
b. Legionella Bacteria
c. Philadelphia Flu
d. Pontiac Fever

A

b. Legionella Bacteria

250
Q

External deaeration:
Select one:
a. Removes dissolved gases from the water
b. Relies entirely on the addition of chemicals
c. Removes all dissolved gases and solids from the water
d. Only removes oxygen from the water

A

a. Removes dissolved gases from the water

251
Q

Dezincification is a form of

Select one:

a. stress corrosion cracking
b. dielectric corrosion
c. selective leaching
d. under-deposit corrosion

A

c. selective leaching

252
Q

In condenser cooling water systems, sacrificial anodes work by

Select one:

a. neutralizing acidic compounds.
b. corroding preferentially over components made of other metals.
c. plating other metal parts with non-corrosive metal ions.
d. interfering with the formation of corrosion products in a corrosion cell reaction.

A

b. corroding preferentially over components made of other metals.

253
Q

Condensate return line corrosion can be controlled by:
Select one:
a. Feeding sodium bicarbonate to the boiler
b. Adding sodium sulfite
c. Feeding amines
d. Adding polymers

A

c. Feeding amines

254
Q

Grooving and general thinning of the condensate return system is a result of:

Select one:

a. scale build-up
b. high alkalinity
c. oxygen corrosion
d. carbonic acid corrosion

A

c. oxygen corrosion

255
Q

Boiler water is treated in order to:
Select one:
a. prevent the water from becoming too alkaline
b. reduce the environmental impact of the blowoff effluent
c. remove suspended matter
d. prevent scale deposition and waterside corrosion

A

d. prevent scale deposition and waterside corrosion

256
Q 
The chemical used to regenerate the cation exchanger of a demineralizer is: 
Select one:
a. Hydrochloric acid 
b. Caustic soda  
c. Sodium hydroxide 
d. Sulfuric acid
A

d. Sulfuric acid

257
Q

Total boiler water alkalinity is a measurement of dissolved:
Select one:
a. Carbonates, sulfates, and bicarbonates
b. Bicarbonates and chelants
c. Hydroxides, bicarbonates, and carbon dioxide
d. Hydroxides, carbonates, and bicarbonates

A

d. Hydroxides, carbonates, and bicarbonates

258
Q

Phenolphthalein:
Select one:
a. Turns pink in the presence of hydroxide and carbonate alkalinity
b. Is fed to cast iron boilers
c. Prevents caustic embrittlement
d. Indicates the presence of dissolved oxygen

A

a. Turns pink in the presence of hydroxide and carbonate alkalinity

259
Q

Galvanic corrosion depends on

Select one:

a. a difference in electrochemical potential between dissimilar metals.
b. the size of the sacrificial anode.
c. the difference in mass between the two inter-connecting metals.
d. how fast the electrons flow through the electrolyte.

A

a. a difference in electrochemical potential between dissimilar metals.

260
Q

To prevent scale deposition in cooling towers

Select one:

a. Keep the pH of the water high.
b. Reduce the rate of tower blowdown.
c. Keep the cycles of concentration above 10.
d. Keep scale-forming salts in solution, using crystal modification chemicals.

A

d. Keep scale-forming salts in solution, using crystal modification chemicals.

261
Q 
On steam turbines, carbon glands are:
Select one:
a. Lubricated by the main oil pump
b. Lubricated by the seal oil pump
c. Lubricated by governor oil
d. Self-lubricating
A

d. Self-lubricating

262
Q

The impulse turbine works on the principle that:
Select one:
a. Kinetic energy can be converted to mechanical energy
b. Steam expansion in the moving blades creates a force impulse
c. The high pressure creates unbalanced forces on the blades
d. High velocity steam exerts force upon the rotating blades due to change in momentum.

A

d. High velocity steam exerts force upon the rotating blades due to change in momentum.

263
Q 
An arrangement of a steam system and a gas turbine, working as a single installation, is called a
Select one:
a. a combined cycle plant 
b. a cogeneration system
c. a once-through system
d. a two-stage system
A

a. a combined cycle plant

264
Q

Steam turbine governors:
Select one:
a. prevent the turbine from over speeding
b. regulate the speed of the turbine automatically
c. Should be checked annually by the boiler inspector
d. Are not required on reaction turbines

A

b. regulate the speed of the turbine automatically

265
Q

Most modern gas turbines use a ______________ shaft design.

Select one:

a. three
b. single
c. two
d. locked

A

b. single

266
Q

The part of a camshaft that converts rotary motion to reciprocating motion is called

Select one:

a. the journal
b. the pushrod
c. the lifter
d. the lobe

A

d. the lobe

267
Q

Despite their size and complexity, steam plants are widely used because:
Select one:
a. they are relatively inexpensive to build
b. they do not require trained operators
c. they require little maintenance or repairs
d. they can use a wide variety of heat sources, including hydrocarbon fuels, waste heat, solar energy and nuclear energy.

A

d. they can use a wide variety of heat sources, including hydrocarbon fuels, waste heat, solar energy and nuclear energy.

268
Q

A major difficulty encountered with a two-stroke cycle engine is:
Select one:
a. The lack of torque at high speed
b. The difficulty in cold weather starting
c. The high speeds compared to an equivalent four-stroke engine
d. Exhausting the spent gases from the cylinder

A

d. Exhausting the spent gases from the cylinder

269
Q 
Excessive wind velocity in a natural draft cooling tower may cause:
Select one:
a. Damaged louvres
b. High drift losses 
c. Unstable sump water level
d. Over-cooling of the water
A

b. High drift losses

270
Q

The combustion chamber of a gas turbine:
Select one:
a. increases the density of the compressed air.
b. must be water cooled to protect against high temperature.
c. is where fuel is added to air, and burned.
d. preheats the combustion air before it is compressed.

A

c. is where fuel is added to air, and burned.

271
Q 
The hand wheel used to adjust the turbine speed on the governor is known as the:
Select one:
a. Driver
b. Setter
c. Throttle
d. Speeder
A

d. Speeder

272
Q 
Water is removed from the air stream leaving a cooling tower, using
Select one:
a. fill or packing
b. desiccant
c. cyclone separators
d. drift eliminators
A

d. drift eliminators

273
Q

A “heat engine” is an operating cycle that uses a working fluid to convert:
Select one:
a. Thermal energy to chemical energy
b. Thermal energy to potential energy
c. Mechanical energy to electrical energy
d. Thermal energy to mechanical energy

A

d. Thermal energy to mechanical energy

274
Q

Four-stroke cycle engine valves are:
Select one:
a. Operated by camshafts
b. Operated by pressure differential
c. Often called “reed” or “channel” valves
d. Open whenever the piston travels upward

A

a. Operated by camshafts

275
Q 
R4B07-02-02-05 Turbine lubricating oil:
Select one:
a. Contaminates the exhaust steam
b. Must mix well with water
c. Can be used to operate the turbine governor 
d. Lubricates the labyrinth gland
A

c. Can be used to operate the turbine governor

276
Q 
Shaft sealing of small steam turbines is done with:
Select one:
a. rope packing and lantern rings
b. Carbon rings 
c. Labyrinth glands
d. Mechanical seals
A

b. Carbon rings

277
Q 
For economical operation, the steam supply to a steam engine is cut off once the piston has traveled \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of its stroke.
Select one:
a. 1/4 to 1/3 
b. 75% to 90%
c. 1/2 to 5/8
d. 100%
A

a. 1/4 to 1/3

278
Q

To prevent cooling tower basin water from freezing during cold weather, many units:
Select one:
a. have automatic ethylene glycol antifreeze injection systems.
b. have thermostatically controlled electric basin heaters.
c. have automatic gas-fired sump heaters .
d. use salt brine instead of water.

A

b. have thermostatically controlled electric basin heaters.

279
Q

An advantage of gas turbines over other types of prime movers, is that gas turbines:

Select one:

a. are reversible
b. require little to no cooling water
c. need very little lubrication
d. have high thermal efficiencies

A

b. require little to no cooling water

280
Q 
Smaller spark ignition engine use \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to vapourize gasoline:
Select one:
a. Vapourizers
b. Atomization
c. Electric heaters
d. Carburetion
A

d. Carburetion

PENG 4th Class (8 decks)

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