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ENT > 4TH BM Qs > Flashcards

4TH BM Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Naturally occurring defects in the cartilaginous portion of the External Auditory Canal (EAC) that
provide avenues of spread of infection or malignancy to the superficial lobe of the parotid gland.
a. Notch of Rivinus
b. Bony-Cartilaginous Junction of the EAC
c. Fissures of Santorini
d. Foramen of Huschke

A

Fissures of Santorini

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2
Q

The following statements regarding the External Auditory Canal (EAC) are true, except:
a. The average length of the EAC is 2.5cm
b. The EAC is 2/3 bony, Laterally
c. A resonance chamber for 2000-5500 Hz
d. The EAC is 2/3 bony, Medially

A

The EAC is 2/3 bony, Laterally

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3
Q

Aside from the lateral process of the malleus, what is another otoscopic landmark for the inferior limit of the epitympanum.
a. Attic
b. Scutum
c. Spines of the notch of Rivinus
d. Prussak space

A

Spines of the notch of Rivinus

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4
Q

What do you call the space medial to the tympanic membrane that extends from the Eustachian tube opening anteriorly to the facial nerve posteriorly?
a. Epitympanum
b. Mesotympanum
c. Prussak space
d. Hypotympanum

A

Mesotympanum

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5
Q

This is a snail-shapes structure that has a wide diameter at the base which narrows for 2 and a
quarter turns until it reaches its apex.
a. Organ of Corti
b. Saccule
c. Cochlea
d. Semicircular Canal

A

Cochlea

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6
Q

Which disease condition of the external ear can more likely cause facial nerve paralysis?
a. Herpes zoster
b. Diffuse otitis externa
c. OME
d. varicella

A

Herpes zoster

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7
Q

A bony channel that allows communication between the perilymphatic fluid and cerebrospinal fluid of the subarachnoid space in the posterior fossa.
a. Cochlear aqueduct
b. Rosenthal canal
c. Scala Tympani
d. Scala Vestibuli

A

Cochlear aqueduct

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8
Q

The membranous labyrinth of the cochlea forms a third cochlear chamber, the scale media. This
is bordered superiorly by.
a. Tectorial membrane
b. Tympanic membrane
c. Reissner membrane
d. Basilar membrane

A

Reissner membrane

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9
Q

Which disease condition of the external ear can more likely cause facial nerve paralysis?
a. Circumscribed otitis externa
b. Folliculitis
c. Otitis externa
d. Malignant otitis externa

A

Malignant otitis externa

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10
Q

Patient LT sought consult at the ENT OPD clinic due to ear pain and itchiness for 5d. There was
no history of cough and colds. On PE, you noted tragal tenderness and on otoscopy a whitish
cottony (wet newspaper like) discharge was noted. What is likely the cause of the Otitis Externa?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Aspergillus/ Candida
c. Pseudomonas
d. Staphylococcus

A

Aspergillus/ Candida

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11
Q

What is the treatment of choice of Otitis Externa?
a. Topical therapy
b. Oral antibiotic and topic antibiotic
c. Oral antibiotic
d. Prevention

A

Topical therapy

Oral antibiotic and topic antibiotic??

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12
Q

Patient LR, 12 years old, came in due decrease hearing of her left ear. Otoscopic examination
revealed an impacted cerumen left. Weber’s test was done. What is the expected finding of the
test?
a. None of the above
b. Midline
c. Lateralizes to the left
d. Lateralizes to the right

A

Lateralizes to the left

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13
Q

What is the type of hearing loss does patient LR has?
a. congenital hearing loss
b. Mixed hearing loss
c. Conductive hearing loss
d. Senorineural hearing loss

A

Conductive hearing loss

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14
Q

What is the location of the cone of light in the eardrum?
a. Posteromedial
b. Antero-inferior
c. Supero-inferior
d. Superomedial

A

Antero-inferior

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15
Q

What test is used to evaluate the difference between air and bone conduction?
a. Weber
b. Bing
c. Rinne test
d. Toynbee

A

Rinne test

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16
Q

This test is used to evaluate the difference between left and right ear.
a. Weber
b. Toynbee
c. Rinne
d. Bing

A

Weber

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17
Q

Px RX was brought to the emergency room due to penetrating neck injury. On examination, the
ROD noted a piece of metal impaled 1 cm infero-lateral to the cricoid cartilage. The impaled
metal is located to what zone of the neck?
a. Zone II
b. Zone IV
c. Zone III
d. Zone 1

A

Zone 1

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18
Q

Which of the following is true?
a. Clothesline injury have historically been the main cause of external laryngeal trauma.
b. Larynx is structurally protected by the mandible superiorly, sternum inferiorly, omohyoid
laterally, and the spinal column posteriorly.
c. If endotracheal intubation has been performed in laryngeal trauma, it should be converted
to tracheostomy at the earliest opportunity.
d. Endotracheal intubation is the preferred method of airway control in laryngeal trauma.

A

If endotracheal intubation has been performed in laryngeal trauma, it should be converted
to tracheostomy at the earliest opportunity.

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19
Q

This test serves to as an excellent screening test for thyroid function.
a. FT4
b. TG
c. TSH
d. FT3

A

TSH

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20
Q

What is the half-life of T4?
a. 5-6 days
b. 3-4 days
c. 1-2 days
d. 6-7 days

A

6-7 days

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21
Q

With change in Levothyroxine dose, thyroid function tests are reassessed after how many
weeks?
a. 1-2 weeks
b. 7-8 weeks
c. 5-6 weeks
d. 3-4 weeks

A

5-6 weeks

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22
Q

What instrument is used to examine the nose? is part of the lateral wall of the max
a. Speculum
b. alligator
c. mirror
d. Tuning fork

A

Speculum

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23
Q

The following structures are seen during anterior rhinoscopy except:
a. Inferior turbinate
b. vestibule
c. choana
d. septum

A

vestibule

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24
Q

A 26-year old patient was brought to the emergency department due to vehicular accident. ENT examination revealed a positive anterior drawer sign. What is likely the diagnosis?
a. Mandibular fracture
b. Nasal bone fracture
c. Midfacial fracture
d. Frontal bone fracture

A

Mandibular fracture

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25
Q

A 66-year old edentulous patient sought consult due to inability to close her mouth for 5 hours.
What is likely the diagnosis?
a. trismus
b. Lock jaw
c. tetanus
d. CVD

A

Lock jaw//

TMJ Dislocation

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26
Q

The following structures are seen during examination of the oral cavity except:
a. vallecular
b. Retromolar trigone
c. uvula
d. Alveolar ridge

A

vallecular

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27
Q

The following structures are seen during examination of the oral cavity except
a. Anterior tonsillar pillar
b. Retromolar trigone
c. Buccal sulcus
d. Arytenoid

A

Arytenoid

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28
Q

A 56-year old patient was brought to the emergency department due to vehicular accident. ENT examination revealed swelling of the floor of the mouth and malocclusion. What is likely the
diagnosis?
a. Lefort 1
b. Lefort 2
c. Lefort 3
d. Symphyseal fracture

A

Symphyseal fracture

29
Q

A 56-year old patient was brought to the emergency department due to vehicular accident. ENT
examination revealed swelling of the floor of the mouth and malocclusion. What is likely the
diagnosis?
a. Midfacial fracture
b. Nasal bone fracture
c. Mandibular fracture
d. Fracture of the hyoid bone

A

Mandibular fracture

30
Q

SC Gaban is tasked to examine the ear of a 5-year old patient. In doing so, SC Gaban should
manipulate the pinna in what direction?
a. Up and back
b. Up and forward
c. Down and back
d. Down and forward

A

Up and back/

Upward and backward

31
Q

The following structures are seen during otoscopy except
a. scutum
b. Cone of light
c. annulus
d. Pars tensa

A

scutum

32
Q

The following structures are seen during otoscopy except
a. Malleus
b. Stapes
c. Manubrium
d. Pars tensa

A

Stapes

33
Q

Patient RA is diagnosed to have conductive hearing loss of his left ear. What is the result of
Rinne test?
a. AC>BC
b. BC>AC
c. AC=BC
d. None of the above

A

BC>AC/

Bone conduction > air conduction

34
Q

The following structures are seen during indirect laryngoscopy except
a. Incisive foramen
b. Rima glottis
c. Vallecula
d. Aryepiglottic fold

A

Incisive foramen

35
Q

The following structures are seen during indirect laryngoscopy except
a. Arytenoid
b. Anterior commissure
c. Buccal sulcus
d. Epiglottis

A

Buccal sulcus

36
Q

Naturally occurring defects in the cartilaginous portion of the External Auditory Canal (EAC) that provide avenues of spread of infection or malignancy to the superficial lobe
of the parotid gland.
a. santorini
b. rivinus
c. stapedius
d. huscke

A

santorini/

Fissures of Santorini

37
Q

Aside from the lateral process of the malleus, what is another otoscopic landmark for the inferior
limit of the epitympanum.
a. Posterior malleable fold
b. Anterior malleable fold
c. scutum
d. None of the above

A

None of the above

38
Q

What do you call the space medial to the tympanic membrane that extends from the Eustachian
tube opening anteriorly to the facial nerve posteriorly?
a. Epitympanum
b. Mesotympanum
c. Hypotympanum
d. Prussak space

A

Mesotympanum

39
Q

Px RX was brought to the emergency room due to penetrating neck injury. On examination, the
ROD noted a piece of metal impaled 2cm superolateral to the cricoid cartilage. The impaled metal
is located to what zone of the neck?
a. Zone 1
b. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
d. Zone 4

A

Zone 2

40
Q

Which of the following is true?
a. Tracheostomy is the preferred method of
airway control in laryngeal trauma.
b. If endotracheal intubation has been
performed in laryngeal trauma, it should be
converted to tracheostomy after 1 week.
c. Clothesline injury have historically been the
main cause of external laryngeal trauma.
d. Larynx is structurally protected by the
mandible superiorly, sternum inferiorly,
omohyoid laterally, and the spinal column
posteriorly.

A

Tracheostomy is the preferred method of
airway control in laryngeal trauma.

41
Q

What is the half-life of T4?
a. 1-2 days
b. 1-2 weeks
c. 5-6 weeks
d. 5-6 days

A

5-6 days

42
Q

With change in Levothyroxine dose, thyroid function tests are reassessed after how many
weeks?
a. 1 month (?)
b. 2 months (?)
c. 3 months
d. 4 months

A

2 months

43
Q

What fascia envelopes the platysma and muscles of facial expression?
a. Investing Fascia
b. Superficial cervical fascia
c. Visceral fascia
d. Prevertebral fascia

A

Superficial cervical fascia

44
Q

What fascia envelopes the muscles of mastication and submandibular gland?
a. Investing Fascia
b. Superficial cervical fascia
c. Visceral fascia
d. Prevertebral fascia

A

Investing Fascia

45
Q

Located anterior to the ventral bodies from the skull base to the coccyx.
a. Investing Fascia
b. Superficial cervical fascia
c. Visceral fascia
d. Prevertebral fascia

A

Prevertebral fascia

46
Q

Refers to the lymph nodes and connective tissue containing potential space between the
middle and deep layers of deep cervical fascia.
a. Parapharyngeal space
b. Retropharyngeal space
c. Danger space
d. Buccopharyngeal space

A

Retropharyngeal space

47
Q

Lies between retropharyngeal space and pre vertebral space.
a. Parapharyngeal space
b. Retropharyngeal space
c. Danger space
d. Buccopharyngeal space

A

Danger space

48
Q

It is composed of muscular and visceral division.
a. Investing Fascia
b. Superficial cervical fascia
c. Visceral fascia
d. Prevertebral fascia

A

c. Visceral fascia

49
Q

It forms the stylomandibular ligament.
a. Investing Fascia
b. Superficial cervical fascia
c. Visceral fascia
d. Prevertebral fascia

A

Investing Fascia

50
Q

A neck mass that is mobile from side to side but is immobile in craniocaudal direction.
a. Paraganglioma
b. Thyroglossal duct cyst
c. Dermoid
d. Carotid bifurcation

A

Paraganglioma

51
Q

Most are not seen at birth but appear by 6 months of age, progress rapidly then slowly
a. Hemangioma
b. Capillary tumor
c. Vascular malformation
d. Mongolian spots

A

Hemangioma

52
Q
  1. Present at birth and grow along with the child.
    a. Hemangioma
    b. Capillary tumor
    c. Vascular malformation
    d. Mongolian spots
A

Vascular malformation

53
Q

A 25 years old female is noted to have right lateral neck mass. Her condition is associated with dysphagia, hoarseness, ptosis and upper extremity weakness. What is the diagnosis?
a. Paranganglioma
b. Lymphoma
c. Hemangioma
d. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

Paranganglioma

54
Q

A 25 year old female is noted to have right lateral neck mass. Her condition is associated with dysphagia, hoarseness, ptosis and upper extremity weakness. What is the diagnosis?
a. Vascular Malformation
b. Hemangioma
c. Carotid body tumor
d. Dermoid

A

Carotid body tumor

55
Q

Presents with cervical lymphadenopathy, erythema, edema and desquamation of hands and feet.
a. SLE
b. Kawasaki disease
c. Rosai-Dorfman disease
d. Vascular malformation

A

Kawasaki disease

56
Q

Presents with massive nontender lymphadenopathy associated with fever and skin nodules.
a. SLE
b. Kawasaki disease
c. Rosai-Dorfman disease
d. Vascular malformation

A

Rosai-Dorfman disease

57
Q

Patient X was brought to the ER due to an incised wound in the neck (submandibular area).
Exploration and ligation of bleeders was done. Intraoperative findings revealed a transected nerve located at the angle of the mandible. What nerve is transected?
a. Vagus
b. Hypoglossal
c. Facial
d. Greater auricular nerve

A

Hypoglossal

58
Q

What is the effect of the nerve transection to patient X?
a. Low pitch voice
b. Flattening of the melolabial fold
c. Inability to protrude tongue
d. Hoarseness

A

Inability to protrude tongue

59
Q

What is the terminal branch of the facial artery?
a. Lateral temporal
b. Angular
c. Occipital
d. Ophthalmic

A

Angular

60
Q

Patient X was brought to the ER due to an incised wound in the neck. Exploration and ligation of bleeders was done. Intraoperative findings revealed a transected nerve located superolateral to the hyoid bone. What nerve is transected?
a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Superior laryngeal nerve
c. Cervical branch of the facial nerve
d. Vagus nerve

A

Hypoglossal nerve

61
Q

What is the effect of the nerve transection to Patient X?
a. Inability to protrude tongue
b. Hoarseness
c. None
d. Low pitch voice

A

Inability to protrude tongue

62
Q

What is the terminal branch of the facial artery?
a. Angular artery
b. Lateral temporal artery
c. Ophthalmic artery
d. Occipital artery

A

Angular artery

63
Q

What structure divides the maxillary artery into three parts?
a. Lateral ptyregoid
b. Greater palatine
c. Inferior palatine
d. ptyregopalatine

A

Lateral ptyregoid/

Lateral pterygoid muscle

64
Q

Patient Y presented with bilateral pre-auricular mass for 10 years. He’s a smoker and alcoholic
beverage drinker. FNAB revealed a combination of papillae of eosinophilic epithelia projecting into
cystic spaces. What is the diagnosis?
a. Warthins tumor
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Acinic cell tumor
d. Benign mixed tumor

A

Warthins tumor

65
Q

According to the multicellular theory, Patient Y’s neoplasm originated from what cell of the
salivary unit?
a. Intercalated duct cell
b. Acinar cell
c. Striated ductal cell
d. Myoepithelial cell

A

Striated ductal cell

66
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Mumps?
a. Paramyxovirus
b. Coronavirus
c. EBV
d. Parvovirus

A

Paramyxovirus

67
Q

A neck mass that is mobile from side to side but is immobile in craniocaudal direction.
a. Epidermal inclusion cyst
b. Thyroglossal duct cyst
c. Dermoid
d. Carotid body tumor

A

Carotid body tumor

68
Q

Patient Y presented with bilateral pre-auricular mass for 10 years. He’s a smoker and alcoholic
beverage drinker. FNAB revealed a combination of papillae of eosinophilic epithelia projecting
into cystic spaces. What is the diagnosis?
a. Benign Mixed Tumor
b. Oncocytoma
c. Basal Cell Adenoma
d. Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

A

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

69
Q

According to the Multicellular Theory, Patient Y’s neoplasm originated from what cell of the
salivary unit?
a. Acinar cell
b. Striated ductal cell
c. Intercalated duct cell
d. Myoepithelial cell

A

Striated ductal cell

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