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Final review > 47-65 Questions > Flashcards

47-65 Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. all of the following are characteristics of thanatophoric dysplasia except:

a. cloverleaf skull
b. microcephaly
c. extreme micromelia
d. short ribs

A

B

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2
Q 
8.	Which one of the following nonlethal skeletal dysplasias is most common?
A) Achondroplasia
B) Achondrogenesis 
C) Diastrophic dysplasia 
D) Short-rib polydactyly syndrome
A

A

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3
Q
  1. A diagnosis of talipes may be made with which one of the following characteristics?
    A) Persistent inversion of the foot
    B) Persistent abnormal inversion of the foot parallel to the lower leg
    C) Persistent abnormal inversion of the foot perpendicular to the lower leg
    D) Persistent abnormal inversion of the lower leg
A

C

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4
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about achondroplasia is INCORRECT?
    A) Advanced maternal age is a risk factor
    B) Patients with heterozygous achondroplasia have a poor survival rate
    C) Achondroplasia is most commonly the result of a spontaneous mutation
    D) Achondroplasia results from decreased endochondral bone formation
A

B

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5
Q
  1. The majority of talipes is ___________ -
A

Idiopathic

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6
Q
  1. Kidneys should be sonographically documented in all fetuses beginning at ______ weeks’ gestation.
    a. 12 c. 18
    b. 15 d. 20
A

C

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7
Q

____ 2. Protrusion of the posterior wall of the urinary bladder, which contains the trigone of the bladder and the ureteric orifices, is called which one of the following?

a. Limb–body wall syndrome c. Cryptorchidism
b. Prune belly syndrome d. Exstrophy of the bladder

A

D

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8
Q
  1. A condition in which both ovarian and testicular tissues are present is ______________.
    a. Cryptorchidism c. Hydrometrocolpos
    b. Hermaphroditism d. Hypospadias
A

B

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9
Q
  1. Sonographic findings in complete renal agenesis include all of the following except:
    a. Oligohydramnios c. Dilated fetal bladder
    b. Absence of urine in the fetal bladder
    d. Small thorax
A

C

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10
Q

Renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, abnormal facies, and malformed hands and feet may be found in which one of the following conditions?

a. Potter syndrome c. Meckel-Gruber syndrome
b. Infantile polycystic disease
d. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

A

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11
Q
  1. A dilated bladder with a “keyhole” appearance is most likely which one of the following conditions?
    a. Ureterovesical junction obstruction c. Reflux of the ureter into the bladder
    b. Posterior urethral valve obstruction
    d. UPJ obstruction
A

B

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12
Q
  1. Sonographic findings in prune belly syndrome include all of the following except:
    a. Oligohydramnios
    c. Fetal ascites
    b. Pulmonary hypoplasia
    d. Renal agenesis
A

D

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13
Q
  1. The bladder wall thickness in a fetus is normally _____ mm.
    a. 2 c. 4
    b. 3 d. 5
A

A

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14
Q
  1. An anechoic cystic structure within the fetal bladder is most likely a ______________.
    a. Diverticulum
    c. Urachal cyst
    b. Ureterocele
    d. Ureterovesical obstruction
A

B

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15
Q
  1. The most likely cause of bilateral hydronephrosis in the fetus is which one of the following?
    a. Pelviureteric obstruction
    c. Multicystic renal dysplasia
    b. Meckel-Gruber syndrome
    d. Bladder outlet obstruction
A

D

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16
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about a fetal ovarian cyst is incorrect?
    a. A fetal ovarian cyst often appears multiseptated.
    b. A fetal ovarian cyst often appears bilaterally.
    c. A fetal ovarian cyst results from maternal hormone stimulation.
    d. A fetal ovarian cyst has no diagnostic significance.
A

D

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17
Q
  1. Renal malformations may be divided into which of the following two categories?
    a. Cystic and solid c. Congenital and obstructive
    b. Cystic and obstructive
    d. Congenital and cystic
A

C

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18
Q

In a transverse image, evidence of the “double bubble” sign in a fetus with trisomy 21 represents which one of the following conditions?

a. Jejunoileal stenosis
c. Multicystic dysplastic kidney
b. Meconium ileus d. Duodenal atresia

A

D

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19
Q
  1. A fetus with dilated loops of echogenic bowel should be evaluated for all of the following except:
    a. Cystic fibrosis
    c. Duodenal atresia
    b. Meconium peritonitis
    d. Bowel obstruction
A

C

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20
Q
  1. A cystic growth of the common bile duct is ______________.
    a. Choledochal cyst c. Pseudocyst
    b. Cholelithiasis
    d. Biliary atresia
A

A

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21
Q
  1. Haustral folds can be found within which one of the following structures?
    a. Small bowel
    c. Liver
    b. Colon
    d. Stomach
A

B

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22
Q
  1. A remnant of the proximal part of the yolk stalk is which one of the following?
    a. Choledochal cyst c. Meckel diverticulum
    b. Meconium peritonitis
    d. Urachal cyst
A

D

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23
Q

Which one of the following statements about the fetal stomach is incorrect?

a. Most fetuses greater than 14 to 16 weeks demonstrate fluid in their stomach.
b. A significant variation in the size of the stomach may be seen.
c. Echogenic debris may be seen in the dependent portion of the stomach.
d. An esophageal anomaly is the most common cause of nonvisualization of the stomach.

A

D

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24
Q

A sonolucent band identified near the fetal anterior abdominal wall represents which one of the following?

a. Fetal hydrops
c. Ascites
b. Pseudoascites d. Amniotic band syndrome

A

B

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25
Q
  1. The sonographic criterion for choledochal cyst include all of the following except:
    a. Close proximity of the cyst to the neck of the gallbladder
    b. Decreased size of a cyst and gallbladder on serial examinations
    c. Ovoid right upper-quadrant cyst with an entering bile duct
    d. Absence of peristalsis within the cyst
A

B

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26
Q
  1. Peritoneal calcifications noted in a fetus at 30 weeks’ gestation may represent which one of the following?
    a. Echogenic meconium
    c. Anorectal atresia
    b. Cholelithiasis
    d. Meconium peritonitis
A

D

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27
Q
  1. VACTERL is a group of anomalies associated with which one of the following?
    a. Duodenal atresia c. Jejunoileal atresia
    b. Esophageal atresia
    d. Anorectal atresia
A

B

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28
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about the fetal liver is incorrect?
    a. The fetal liver is large compared with other intra-abdominal organs.
    b. The hepatic veins and fissures are formed by the end of the first trimester.
    c. The right lobe is larger than the left lobe.
    d. The liver occupies most of the upper abdomen.
A

C

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29
Q

Which one of the following describes situs inversus?

a. Heart is on the right, the liver is on the left, and the gallbladder on the right.
b. Heart is on the right, the liver is on the left, and the spleen is on the right.
c. Spleen is on the right, the heart is on the left, and the gallbladder is on the left.
d. Liver is on the right, the spleen is on the left, and the heart is on the right.

A

B

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30
Q 
The rupture of the amnion that leads to entrapment or entanglement of the fetal parts by the "sticky" chorion is called which one of the following?
A) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome 
B) amniotic band syndrome 
C) pentalogy of Cantrell 
D) gastroschisis
A

B

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31
Q 
A defect in the lower abdominal wall and anterior wall of the urinary bladder is which one of the following?
A) cloacal exstrophy 
B) amniotic band syndrome 
C) umbilical hernia 
D) ectopic bladder
A

A

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32
Q 
Evaluation of the fetal abdominal wall that demonstrates evisceration of the bowel to the right of the umbilical cord is most representative of which one of the following?
A) gastroschisis 
B) omphalocele 
C) limb-body wall defect 
D) umbilical hernia
A

A

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33
Q 
If omphalocele and scoliosis are found in the fetus, which one of the following conditions should be considered?
A) pentalogy of Cantrell 
B) skeletal dysplasia 
C) limb-body wall complex 
D) amniotic band syndrome
A

C

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34
Q 
Gastroschisis is a consequence of atrophy of which one of the following vessels?
A) right umbilical vein 
B) left umbilical vein 
C) right umbilical artery 
D) left umbilical artery
A

A

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following types of anterior abdominal wall defects are the most common?
    A) gastroschisis, inguinal hernia, and ectopia cordis
    B) omphalocele, ectopia cordis, and umbilical hernia
    C) gastroschisis, umbilical hernia, and omphalocele
    D) omphalocele, gastroshisis, and limb-body wall complex
A

C

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36
Q

12.The normal embryologic herniation of the bowel permits which one of the following?
A) expansion of the thorax
B) development of the intraabdominal organs
C) development of the umbilical cord
D) development of the diaphragm

A

B

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37
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about an omphalocele is correct?
    A) the herniation is covered by a membrane that consists of amnion and chorion
    B) omphaloceles that contain only bowel have a higher risk for chromosomal abnormalities
    C) the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) level will be significantly elevated
    D) an omphalocele is a periumbilical defect located to the right of the umbilicus
A

B

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38
Q 
A 19-week fetus with elevated MSAFP shows herniated, free-floating bowel loops, which most likely represents a(n) \_\_\_\_\_.
A) omphalocele 
B) umbilical hernia 
C) gastroschisis 
D) jejunoileal atresia
A

C

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39
Q

The five defects of pentalogy of Cantrell include which of the following?
A) omphalocele, ectopic lung, proximal sternum defect, diaphragmatic hernia, and anterior pericardium
B) gastroschisis, ectopic heart, proximal sternum defect, diaphragmatic hernia, and anterior pericardium
C) omphalocele, ectopic heart, distal sternum defect, diaphragmatic hernia, and diaphragmatic pericardium
D) gastroschisis, ectopic lung, distal sternum defect, diaphragmatic hernia, and diaphragmatic pericardium

A

C

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40
Q

Which one of the following statements about a gastroschisis is false?
A) gastroschisis is found more frequently in males
B) gastroschisis is located next to the normal cord insertion
C) MSAFP levels are significantly elevated
D) small bowel is not always found in the herniation

A

D

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41
Q 
The prognosis for an infant with an uncomplicated gastroschisis is which one of the following?
A) excellent 
B) moderate 
C) poor 
D) extremely poor
A

A

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42
Q

The most dramatic finding in ectopia cordis is which one of the following?
A) cleft lip palate
B) umbilical vein separate from the umbilical arteries
C) heart outside of the thoracic cavity
D) omphalocele

A

C

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43
Q 
A high or superumbilical omphalocele is usually the primary finding in which one of the following conditions?
A) limb-body wall complex 
B) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome 
C) Meckel-Gruber syndrome 
D) pentalogy of Cantrell
A

D

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44
Q 
The herniation of an omphalocele is covered by a membrane that consists of the \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_.
A) amnion and chorion 
B) amnion and peritoneum 
C) chorion and Wharton's jelly 
D) amnion and Wharton's jelly
A

B

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45
Q 
The most important determinant for fetal viability is which one of the following?
A) pulmonary hypoplasia 
B) bronchopulmanory sequestration 
C) pulmonary development 
D) bronchial atresia
A

C

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46
Q 
Chest circumference measurements are made in the transverse plane at the level of which one of the following?
A) diaphragm 
B) four-chamber view of the heart 
C) short axis of the heart 
D) mediastinum
A

B

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47
Q

Which one of the following statements about fetal breathing is false?
A) fetal breathing is most prominent in the second and third trimesters
B) the mature fetus spends one third of its time breathing
C) breathing is present if the fetal chest or abdomen makes seesaw movements for 20 seconds
D) breathing is absent if no fetal activity is noted during a 2-minute period

A

D

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48
Q 
The average cardiac axis is \_\_\_\_\_ degrees.
A) 23
B) 30
C) 45
D) 50
A

C

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49
Q 
Diaphragmatic hernias may occur anteriorly and medially in the diaphragm through the foramen of \_\_\_\_\_.
A) luschka 
B) bochdalek
C) morgagni
D) monro
A

C

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50
Q 
Which one of the following lung cysts detected prenatally is the most common?
A) cystic adenomatoid malformation 
B) bronchogenic cyst 
C) pleural effusion 
D) lymphangiectasia
A

B

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51
Q

Normal sonographic appearances of the fetal chest include all of the following except:
A) ribs from the lateral margin of the chest
B) clavicles form the upper margin of the chest
C) lungs serve as the medial borders for the heart
D) thoracic cavity is symmetric and bell shaped

A

C

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52
Q

The normal fetal lungs appear on ultrasound as which one of the following?
A) heterogeneous with moderate echogenicity
B) homogeneous and hyperechoic
C) homogeneous and hypoechoic
D) homogeneous with moderate echogenicity

A

D

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53
Q 
When fetal pleural effusion is encountered, a careful search of the \_\_\_\_\_ should be attempted.
A) urinary bladder 
B) diaphragm 
C) long bones 
D) facial profile
A

B

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54
Q 
The most common type of diaphragmatic defect occurs:
A) posteriorly and laterally 
B) posteriorly and medially 
C) anteriorly and laterally 
D) anteriorly and medially
A

A

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55
Q 
The mortality rate at birth for the fetus with a diaphragmatic hernia is \_\_\_\_\_.
A) low 
B) mild 
C) moderate 
D) high
A

D

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56
Q 
Which one of the following anomalies may be characterized by the presence of colpocephaly? 
A) agenesis of the corpus callosum
B) Arnold-Chiari malformation
C) Dandy-Walker malformation
D) holoprosencephaly
A

A

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57
Q 
Which of the following signs are characteristic of the Arnold-Chiari malformation?
A) banana- and lemon-shaped 
B) strawberry- and banana-shaped 
C) lemon- and strawberry-shaped 
D) cloverleaf- and banana-shaped
A

A

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58
Q 
Ventriculomegaly is defined as lateral ventricular enlargement measuring greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ millimeters (mm).
A) 5
B) 7
C) 10 
D) 13
A

C

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59
Q

An open spinal defect characterized by a protrusion of meninges and spinal cord through the defect, usually within a meningeal sac, is called which one of the following?
A) meningocele
B) spina bifida occulta
C) meningomyelocele

A

C

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60
Q

Ventriculomegaly coupled with an enlargement of the fetal head is called which one of the following?
A) hydrocephalus
B) hydraencephaly
C) hydronephrosis

A

A

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61
Q

Which one of the following statements about anencephaly is INCORRECT:
A) the incidence of anencephaly varies with geographic location
B) anencephaly is a lethal disorder
C) anencephaly has a male prevalence
D) anencephaly is caused by the failure of closure of the neural tube at the cranial end

A

C

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62
Q

Which one of the following statements about microcephaly is INCORRECT:
A) microcephaly is an abnormally large head
B) the prognosis for fetuses with microcephaly is always poor
C) microcephaly does not affect the head circumference
D) microcephaly may manifest later in pregnancy

A

A

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63
Q

Craniosynostosis may be defined as which one of the following?
A) wide cranial sutures
B) overlapping cranial sutures
C) profusion of the meninges outside the sutures
D) premature closure of the cranial sutures

A

D

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64
Q 
Which one of the following is the result from a malformation of the lymphatic system?
A) teratoma 
B) goiter
C) cystic hygroma 
D) brachial cleft cyst
A

C

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65
Q

Which one of the following statements about the facial profile is incorrect?

A) the facial profile appears as a curvilinear surface with a differentiation of the forehead, nose, lips, and chin
B) the facial profile demonstrates a cloverleaf skull shape
C) the facial profile has frontal bossing, which is described as a lemon-shaped skull or an absent depressed nasal bridge
D) the facial profile has a strawberry-shaped cranium, which is described as a bulging of the occipital bones

A

D

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66
Q

Which one of the following statements about cleft lip and palate is false?
A) a medial cleft lip is caused by an incomplete merging of the two medial nasal prominences in the midline
B) an oblique facial cleft is the failure of the maxillary prominence to merge with the lateral nasal swelling; the nasolacrimal duct is exposed
C) a complete bilateral cleft lip and palate is a small gap in the left upper lip on the modified coronal view; the nose is flattened and widened
D) a unilateral complete cleft lip and palate is an incomplete fusion of the maxillary prominence to the medial prominence on one side; the modified coronal view is used

A

C

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67
Q 
The most common congenital anomaly of the face is which one of the following?
A) macroglossia 
B) micrognathia 
C) hypotelorism 
D) cleft lip
A

D

68
Q 
17.	Which one of the following terms describes a small chin?
A) microglossia 
B) micrognathia 
C) microphthalmia 
D) microrhinia
A

B

69
Q 
Congenital anomalies of the face occur in 1 in \_\_\_\_\_ births.
A) 2000 
B) 1500
C) 600 
D) 1200
A

C

70
Q

Which one of the following is produced by the umbilical cord and membranes, the fetal lung, skin, and kidney?
A) vernix caseosa
B) amniotic fluid
C) decidua baslis

A

A

71
Q 
The fetal production of urine and the ability to swallow begin during which of the following weeks' gestation? 
A) 6 to 9 
B) 10 to 13 
C) 8 to 11 
D) 9 to 15
A

C

72
Q 
The amount of amniotic fluid is regulated by all of the following except the: 
A) production of the fluid 
B) removal of the fluid by swallowing 
C) membranes and cord 
D) fluid exchange within the heart
A

D

73
Q

Which one of the following statements about the amniotic fluid volume (AFV) is false?
A) the amniotic fluid in the third trimester does not change significantly
B) the amniotic fluid increases in the early second trimester by 25 millimeters (ml)
C) the amniotic fluid increases in the third trimester by 50 ml
D) the amniotic fluid increases in the late second trimester by 50 ml

A

C

74
Q

Signs of polyhydraminos include all of the following sonographic demonstrations except:
A) AFI greater than 15 cm
B) accentuated fetal anatomy as increased amniotic fluid improves image resolution
C) appearance of a free-floating fetus within the amniotic cavity
D) amniotic fluid index (AFI) greater than 20 centimeters (cm)

A

A

75
Q

Oligohydraminos is associated with all of the following except:
A) gastrointestinal disorders
B) postdate pregnancy
C) renal agenesis
D) premature rupture of the intrauterine membranes (PROM)

A

A

76
Q 
Twin pregnancies have a \_\_\_\_\_ median AFI than a singleton pregnancy.
A) significantly lower 
B) slightly lower 
C) slightly higher 
D) similar
A

B

77
Q 
Which one of the following is not a function of the amniotic fluid? 
A) developing fetal swallowing 
B) protecting the fetus from injury 
C) allowing the fetus to move freely 
D) maintaining intrauterine temperature
A

A

78
Q 
Which one of the following techniques is both valid and reproducible in assessing the AFV? 
A) maximum vertical pocket 
B) AFI 
C) single-pocket assessment 
D) 3-D determination
A

B

79
Q

Persistent oligohydraminos in the second trimester, regardless of the cause, carries a(n):
A) average prognosis
B) good prognosis
C) poor prognosis
D) prognosis that depends on the underlying cause

A

C

80
Q 
The amniotic fluid generally appears anechoic on ultrasound. Occasionally, however, mobile particles are observed that are most likely which one of the following? 
A) sludge 
B) vernix caseosa 
C) hemorrhage 
D) debris
A

B

81
Q

Using the maximum vertical depth method of assessing the AFV, a pocket ______.
A) less than 4 cm indicates oligohydraminos
B) between 2 and 8 cm is considered normal
C) between 1 and 7 cm is considered normal
D) greater than 7 cm indicates polyhydraminos

A

B

82
Q 
Polyhydramnios is defined as an AFV greater than \_\_\_\_\_ ml. 
A) 1500
B) 2000
C) 2250 
D) 1750
A

B

83
Q 
Nonanomalous conditions causing oligohydraminos include all of the following except: 
A) IUGR 
B) PROM 
C) postdate pregnancy 
D) dysplastic kidney
A

D

84
Q 
Which one of the following umbilical cord entanglements in the fetus is the most common? 
A) true knot 
B) hematoma
C) false knot 
D) nuchal cord
A

D

85
Q 
If a single umbilical artery is seen, the sonographer should search for which one of the following? 
A) abdominal wall defect 
B) genitourinary defect 
C) neural tube defect 
D) esophageal atresia
A

B

86
Q 
After birth, the ductus venosus turns into which one the following? 
A) ligamentum venosum 
B) ductus arteriosus 
C) falciform ligament 
D) coronary ligament
A

A

87
Q 
Thrombosis of the umbilical vessels is most common in which one of the following? 
A) left umbilical artery 
B) umbilical vein 
C) hypogastric arteries 
D) right umbilical artery
A

B

88
Q 
The presence of umbilical vessels crossing the internal os of the cervix is called which one of the following? 
A) cord prolapse 
B) velamentous cord 
C) vaso previa 
D) placenta previa
A

C

89
Q 
The normal length of the umbilical cord measures \_\_\_\_\_\_ centimeters (cm). 
A) 40 to 60 
B) 60 to 90 
C) 30 to 50 
D) 20 to 35
A

A

90
Q 
A short cord measures less than \_\_\_\_\_\_ cm. 
A) 25 
B) 35
C) 30 
D) 40
A

B

91
Q 
A long umbilical cord measures greater than \_\_\_\_\_ cm. 
A) 100
B) 120 
C) 60 
D) 80
A

D

92
Q 
A hypoplastic umbilical artery is defined as a three-vessel cord when the artery-to-artery differences is greater than \_\_\_\_\_. 
A) 30%
B) 25%
C) 75%
D) 50%
A

50%

93
Q 
The placenta performs all of the following functions except: 
A) protection 
B) respiration 
C) absorption 
D) nutrition
A

C

94
Q

The velementous placenta refers to a(n):
A) membranous insertion of the cord
B) insertion of the umbilical cord near the edge of the placenta
C) insertion of the umbilical cord at the margin of the placenta
D) arteriovenous anastomosis of the vessels within the placenta

A

A

95
Q

The function of the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is to perform which one of the following?
A) develop Wharton’s jelly around the cord
B) produce amniotic fluid
C) stimulate the yolk sac development
D) maintain the corpus luteum in early pregnancy

A

D

96
Q

The primary cause of placentomegaly is which one of the following abnormalities?
A) maternal diabetes
B) intrauterine infection
C) battledore placenta
D) intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

A

A

97
Q 
Complications of placenta previa include all of the following except: 
A) postpartum hemorrhage 
B) succenturiate placenta 
C) maternal hemorrhage 
D) premature delivery
A

B

98
Q

Which one of the following statements about placental abruption is false?
A) bleeding in the decidua basalis occurs with separation
B) preterm labor may result
C) the bleed may lead to chorioangioma
D) placental abruption may be retroplacental or marginal abruption

A

C

99
Q 
The maternal side of the placenta is decidua \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) parietalis 
B) capsularis
C) basalis 
D) frondosum
A

C

100
Q

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) may include all of the following advantages except:

a. It is performed in the first trimester.
b. The results are available within 48 hours.
c. The results are available within 1 week.

A

B

101
Q

Reasons to perform an amniocentesis include all of the following except:

a. Maternal age
b. Multiple gestations
c. Previous child with chromosomal abnormality
d. Abnormal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level

A

B

102
Q

High levels of AFP indicate all of the following except:

a. Anencephaly
b. Down syndrome
c. Open spina bifida

A

B

103
Q

The quadruple screen evaluates all of the following markers except:

a. AFP
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
c. Unconjugated estriol
d. Fetal lung maturity

A

D

104
Q 
The following sonographic findings of increased nuchal thickening, shortened femurs, cardiac anomalies, and pyelectasis may be found in which one of the following?
A) Trisomy 13
B) Trisomy 18
C) Trisomy 21
D) Turner syndrome
A

C

105
Q 
A large cystic hygroma, hydrops, and coarctation of the aorta may be seen in a fetus with which one of the following?
A) Trisomy 13
B) Trisomy 18
C) Trisomy 21
D) Turner syndrome
A

D

106
Q
  1. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) levels
A

Incresse through out pregnancy

107
Q

The caudal regression syndrome is found most commonly in patients with which one of the following?

a. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. premature rupture of membranes
c. diabetes
d. hypertension

A

C

108
Q

Twins that arise from two separately fertilized ova are known as which one of the following?

a. monozygomatic
b. monochorionic
c. diamniotic
d. dizygotic

A

D

109
Q

Fetal death that occurs after the fetus has reached a certain growth that is too large to resorb into the uterus is which one of the following?

a. spalding sign
b. nonimmune hydrops
c. fetus papyraceous
d. stuck tiwn

A

C

110
Q

Which one of the following complications of pregnancy is characterized by increasing hypertension, proteinuria, and edema?

a. preeclampsia
b. fetal hydrops
c. thrombocytopenia
d. diabetes

A

A

111
Q

Hypertensive pregnancies may be associated with which one of the following abnormalities?

a. macrosomia
b. small placentas
c. large placentas

A

B

112
Q

Which one of the following is defines as the appearence of overlapping skull bones that indicates fetal death?

a. fetus papyraceous
b. cranial regression syndrome
c. spalding sign
d. lemon sign

A

C

113
Q

Maternal obesity has been associated with an increase incidence of which one of the following abnormalities?

a. biliary atresia
b. hydrocephalus
c. neural tube defects
d. polycystic kidney disease

A

C

114
Q

Caudual regression syndrome is described as which of the following?

a. lacks the development of caudal nerves
b. lacks the development of the caudal spine and cord
c. is associated with chromosome abnormalities
d. is observed in systemic lupus erythromatosus

A

B

115
Q

Which one of the following statements about twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome is true?

a. the venous blood of one twin is pumped into the arterial system of the other twin
b. the arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin
c. this syndrome is a common complication of multiple gestations
d. twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome occurs between the fetal umbilical cords

A

B

116
Q

Poly-Oli sequence is also known as which one of the following anomalies?

a. acardiac anomaly
b. twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome
c. spalding sign
d. stuck twin syndrome
20. 20. Stuck twin syndrome is usually

A

D

117
Q

Stuck twin syndrome is usually observed between ___ and ____ weeks gestation.

a. 12;14
b. 12;24
c. 16;20
d. 16;26

A

D

118
Q

Predictors of discordance in the growth of twins include all except which one of the following?

a. difference is estimated fetal weight greater than 20%
b. difference in biparietal diameter of 10mm or greater
c. difference in abdominal circumference of 20mm or greater
d. difference in femur length of 5mm or greater

A

B

119
Q

The abdominal circumference (AC) is taken at the _________________.

a. Diameter of the fetal abdomen
b. Level of the stomach, left portal vein, and left umbilical vein
c. Diameter of the fetal abdomen at the level of the kidneys and diaphragm

A

B

120
Q

The biparietal diameter (BPD) is the measurement of the fetal head at the level of which of the following structures?

a. Thalamus and cavum septum pellucidum (CSP)
b. Frontal horns and third ventricle
c. Peduncles and septum pellucidum
d. Thalamus and fourth ventricle

A

A

121
Q

The condition that shows the fetal head elongated in the transverse diameter and shortened in the anteroposterior diameter is known as which one of the following?

a. Dolichocephaly
b. Elongichocephaly
c. Brachycephaly

A

C

122
Q

The absence of an embryo in an intrauterine pregnancy of 7 to 8 weeks is consistent with which one of the following?

a. Placenta previa
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Anembryonic pregnancy
d. Multiple gestation

A

C

123
Q

Which one of the following statements about the femur length measurement is true?

a. Is taken from the pointed end to the pointed end.
b. Should include the distal femoral epiphysis.
c. Includes only the femoral diaphysis.
d. Should include the femoral head.

A

C

124
Q

All long bones should be measured if the difference between the femur length and all other biometric parameters is which one of the following?

a. Greater than 3 weeks
b. Greater than 4 weeks
c. Greater than 1 week
d. 2 weeks or greater

A

D

125
Q

With transvaginal sonography, the earliest appearance of a normal intrauterine gestational sac should be seen with a serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) greater than _____ mega international units per milliliter (mIU/ml).

a. 500
b. 1000
c. 1500
d. 2000

A

A

126
Q

A condition in which the fetus is not growing as fast as normal is which one of the following terms?

a. Growth-adjusted sonar age
b. Age-range analysis
c. IUGR
d. Microcephaly

A

C

127
Q

Measurement of the BPD is taken from the __________ edge to the ___________.

a. Outer; inner edge
b. Outer; outer edge
c. Inner; inner edge
d. Outer; falx multiplied by two

A

A

128
Q

To calculate the mean sac diameter of a gestational sac, which one of the following formulas should be used?

a. Length x width x height
b. Length + width + height
c. (Length x width x height) ÷ 3
d. (Length + width + height) ÷ 3

A

D

129
Q

The cavity in which the fetus exists is called the _________ cavity.

a. chorionic
b. amniotic
c. decidual
d. embryonic

A

B

130
Q

A code of ethics for. Sonographers has been adopted by which one of the following organizations?
A. American registry of Diagnostic Medical Sonography
B. Joint Review Committee
C. Society of Diagnostic Medical Sonography
D. American medical Asssociation

A

C

131
Q

Any movement by the patient or by the sonographer produces

A

misregistration artifacts.

132
Q

The most potentially life-threatening ectopic gestation is which one of the following?

a. cervical
b. interstitial
c. ovarian
d. peritoneal

A

B

133
Q

The most common cause of vaginal bleeding in the 1st trimester is which one of the following?

a. placenta previa
b. subchorionic hemorrhage
c. ectopic pregnancy
d. missed abortion

A

B

134
Q

An ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in which one of the following structures?

a. ovary
b. fallopian tube
c. cornua
d. cervix

A

B

135
Q

Corpus luteum cysts regress and are typically not seen beyond _______ weeks?

a. 10 to 12
b. 12 to 14
c. 16 to 18
d. 18 to 20

A

C

136
Q

Multiple tiny clusters of grape like echoes within the uterine cavity best describes?

a. pseudogestational sacs
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. incomplete abortion
d. gestational trophoblastic disease

A

D

137
Q
  1. A gestation sac in which the embryo fails to develop is described as which one of the following?
    a. blighted ovum
    b. missed abortion
    c. anembryonic pregnancy
    d. blighted ovum or anembryonic pregnancy
A

D

138
Q

Which one of the following is the most common pelvic mass seen in a 1st trimester pregnancy?

a. ovarian dermoid
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. fibroid
d. corpus luteum cyst

A

D

139
Q

Transvaginally, an embryo w/cardiac activity should be identified when the gestational sac measures ______ mm?

a. 5 to 8
b. 8 to 12
c. 10 to 15
d. 16 to 20

A

D

140
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities is most commonly associated with cystic hygroma?

a. spina bifida
b. beckwith-wiedmann syndrome
c. turner syndrome
d. dandy-walker syndrome

A

C

141
Q

The size of the cistern magna is obtained by measuring from the _____________ to the ______________.

a. Cerebellar lobe; skin line
b. Vermis; skin line
c. Cerebellar lobe; occipital bone
d. Vermis; occipital bone
25. Nuchal skin fold thickness of

A

D

142
Q

Fetal anatomy may be assessed accurately after _________________.

a. 16 gestational weeks
b. 16 embryonic weeks
c. 18 menstrual weeks
d. None of the above

A

C

143
Q

The profile view of the fetal face is important to examine to rule out all of the following abnormalities except:

a. Frontal bossing
b. Micrognathia
c. Cephalocele
d. Cleft soft palate

A

D

144
Q

The cavum septum pellucidi is observed anterior to the _______________.

a. Peduncles
b. Cerebellum
c. Thalamus
d. Corpus callosum

A

C

145
Q

The three vessels found in the umbilical cord are which of the following?

a. One artery and two veins
b. Two arteries and one vein
c. One artery, one vein, and one portal vein
d. Hepatic vein, portal vein, and umbilical vein

A

B

146
Q

The widest transverse diameter of the skull and the proper level to measure the biparietal diameter (BPD) includes which one of the following structures?

a. Peduncles
b. Fourth ventricle
c. Thalamus
d. Corpus callosum

A

C

147
Q

At what gestational week does the volume of amniotic fluid stop increasing?

a. 28th
b. 30th
c. 32nd
d. 34th

A

D

148
Q

Which one of the following terms indicates that the fetal head is toward the fundus of the uterus?

a. Vertex
b. Cephalic
c. Breech
d. Fundal

A

B

149
Q

Which one of the following structures carries oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava (IVC)?

a. Foramen ovale
b. Ductus arteriosus
c. Ligamentous venous
d. Ductus venosus

A

D

150
Q

In transabdominal scanning, a normal gestational sac can be consistently demonstrated when the beta hCG level is _________ mega international units per milliliter (mIU/ml).

a. 500
b. 1800
c. 2500
d. 3000

A

a

151
Q

The single most useful biometric parameter to assess fetal growth is which one of the following parameters?

a. BPD
b. chest circumference
c. AC
d. FL

A

C

152
Q

The most accurate measurement of gestational age during the first trimester is which one of the following?

a. Mean sac diameter
b. Yolk sac diameter
c. Biparietal diameter
d. Crown-rump length

A

D

153
Q

The condition that shows the fetal head elongated in the transverse diameter and shortened in the anteroposterior diameter is known as which one of the following?

a. Dolichocephaly
b. Elongichocephaly
c. Brachycephaly

A

C

154
Q 
If omphalocele and scoliosis are found in the fetus, which one of the following conditions should be considered?
A) pentalogy of Cantrell 
B) skeletal dysplasia 
C) limb-body wall complex 
D) amniotic band syndrome
A

A

155
Q

The most dramatic finding in ectopia cordis is which one of the following?
A) cleft lip palate
B) umbilical vein separate from the umbilical arteries
C) heart outside of the thoracic cavity
D) omphalocele

A

C

156
Q 
A condition in which a complete or partial absence of the cranial bones is demonstrated is which one of the following? 
A) cebocephaly 
B) acrania 
C) holoprosencephaly 
D) hydraencephaly
A

b

157
Q 
A vein of Galen malformation is which one of the following abnormalities?
A) an aneurysm of the Galen vein 
B) a rare arteriovenous malformation 
C) a sporadic event 
D) all of the above
A

D

158
Q 
Differential considerations of Dandy-Walker malformation should include which one of the following?
A) ventriculomegaly 
B) arachnoid cyst 
C) cystic hygroma 
D) nuchal edema
A

B

159
Q 
The chorionic plate is related to which one of the following? 
A) fetal surface of the placenta 
B) cotyledons and intervillous spaces
C) allantois of the yolk sac
D) maternal surface of the fetus
A

A

160
Q 
The decidual reaction that changes in the endometrium opposite the site of implantation is which one of the following? 
A) decidua capsularis 
B) decidue basalis 
C) decidua vera
D) decidua frondosum
A

C

161
Q 
The major functioning unit(s) of the placenta is(are) which of the following? 
A) cotyledons
B) yolk sac
C) amnion 
D) chorionic villi
A

D

162
Q

Which one of the following is the most frequent cause of nonimmune hydrops?

a. duodenal atresia
b. congenital nephrotic syndrme
c. umbilical cord anomalies
d. cardiovascular lesions

A

D

163
Q

Predictors of discordance in the growth of twins include all except which one of the following?

a. difference is estimated fetal weight greater than 20%
b. difference in biparietal diameter of 10mm or greater
c. difference in abdominal circumference of 20mm or greater
d. difference in femur length of 5mm or greater

A

B

164
Q

Stuck twin syndrome is usually observed between ___ and ____ weeks gestation.

a. 12;14
b. 12;24
c. 16;20
d. 16;26

A

D

165
Q

Caudual regression syndrome is described as which of the following?

a. lacks the development of caudal nerves
b. lacks the development of the caudal spine and cord
c. is associated with chromosome abnormalities
d. is observed in systemic lupus erythromatosus

A

B

166
Q

Which one of the following is defines as the appearence of overlapping skull bones that indicates fetal death?

a. fetus papyraceous
b. cranial regression syndrome
c. spalding sign
d. lemon sign

A

C

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