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FSHN 440 > 440 exam > Flashcards

440 exam Flashcards

1
Q

True or false

Not all Shiga toxin-producing E. coli serotypes can cause hemorrhagic colitis in humans

A

true

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2
Q

True or false

Trichinella spiralis is a foodborne pathogenic bacteriathat can cause parasitic infection. Pork by far is the most common vehicle of this parasite

A

True

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3
Q

True or false

Like most other foodborne pathogenic bacteria, Campylobacter jejuni can grow with or without air

A

false

it is microaerophilic

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4
Q

True or false

Listeria monocytogenes can cause serious diseases, such as meningitis, in healthy adults. It has caused the largest number of foodborne illnesses in the US.

A

False

first part is for immuno-compromised individuals, and babies.

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5
Q

True or false

Symptoms of foodborne intoxication usually appear sooner after ingestion than foodborne infection

A

true

because intoxication rely on the toxins themselves (usually already produced and in the food), intoxication symptoms will show sooner.

Infection requires a lag time and a period where the pathogen builds its population in the body before being able to harm the body

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6
Q

True or false

Illness caused by Campylobacter jejenu are usually linked to consumption of contaminated seafood

A

false

linked to chicken

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7
Q

True or false

Vibrio parahaemolyticus is a very serious foodborne pathogen. It can cause septicemia in immunocompromised individuals.

A

false

vibrio vulnificus

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8
Q

True or false

the species of salmonella are only two, but the serotypes are many

A

true

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9
Q

True or false

Shigella is rarely present in the intestinal tract of farm animals

A

true

human only bacteria

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10
Q

True or false

humans are the only host of Cryptosporidium parvum

A

false

it’s Cyclospora cayetanensis

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11
Q

Illness caused by vibrio cholera is:

A. virus-related
B. an infection
C. a toxicoinfection
D. an intoxication

A

B

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12
Q

Which of the following bacteria is the most salt-tolerant?

A. listeria monocytogenes
B. E. coli O157:H7
C. Salmonella typhimurium
D. staphylococcus aureus

A

D

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13
Q

Where would you expect to be able to isolate strains of E. coli O157:H7?

A. Pasteurized milk
B. human feces
C. cattle feces
D. human skin

A

C

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14
Q

Which one of the following foods is most likely to be associated with cyclospora cayetanensis?

A. ham
B. pasteurized milk
C. shredded lettuce
D. beef stew

A

C

the one that is RTE

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15
Q

Which of the following organisms can grow in potentially hazardous foods even under refrigeration?

A. listeria monocytogenes
B. camplobacter jejuni
C. rotavirus
D. staphylococcus aureus

A

A

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16
Q

Among the following foodborne pathogens, ______ has the highest infectious dose in susceptiple populations

A. E. coli O157:H7
B. vibrio vulnificus
C. campylobacter jejunu
D. listeria monocytogenes

A

D

key word was susceptible populations

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17
Q

Which one of the following may produce toxins in food

A. E. coli O157:H7
B. staphylococcus aureus
C. salmonella typhimurium
D. norwalk-like virus

A

B

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18
Q

Shigella sonnei is a name for a

A. genus
B. species
C. subspecies
D. serotype

A

B

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19
Q

Which one of the following bacteris is the most acid-tolerant?

A. vibrio parahaemolyticus
B. salmonella typhimurium
C. E. coli O157:H&
D. listeria monocytogenes

A

C

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20
Q

Among the foods below, ____ is more likely to be a carrier of vibrio than the others.

A. raw oysters
B. fruit jam
C. raw chicken
D. raw lettuce

A

A

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21
Q

Define or explain protozoa

give 3 points

A

single celled organisms
eukaryote (has nucleus and organelles)
parasite

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22
Q

Define or explain cross protection

A

One resistance increases resistance to another factor

ex - when introduced to acid, heat resistance increases

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23
Q

Define or explain MRSA

what does it stand for

A

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Super virus form of staphylococcus aureus as it has multiple antibiotic resistance

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24
Q

Define or explain hemolytic uremic syndrome

What is it caused by.

What are potential issues

A

caused by a strain of ecoli that causes bloody diarrhea.

Can result in kidney failure and death

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25
Q

What pathogens have zero tolerance in foods

A

Lysteria monocytogenes and salmonella in ready to eat foods

E. coli O157:H7 in raw meat

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26
Q

Salmonella enteritidis has been difficult to control in eggs. What unique characteristics of this pathogen contributes to the control problem?

give 3 points

A

It infects hen and gets into the egg yold before egg white and shell forms

Is therefore able to survive eggwash step.

psychotropic - so the number can increase under refrigeration

27
Q

How does hepatitis A virus (HAV) differ from hepatitis B virus? What symptoms have HAV caused in humans? How to reduce the risk of foodborne illness caused by this virus?

A

Mode of infection differs.

Symptoms include jaundice as the virus attacks the liver and gets into the bile stores. It has a long incubation time and can last for months

it has oral -> fecal transmission.

Because of its susceptibility to heat, proper sanitation, personal hygiene, and cooking are all preventative measures

28
Q

What characteristics make listeria monocytogenes a “successful” foodborne pathogen?

A
  • High salt tolerane
  • ubiquitous in the environment, makes it extremely difficult to keep out of factories
  • it has a acid tolerance of pH 4.4
29
Q

What are some disease symptoms for

healthy, pregnant, newborn, fetus, elderly, and immuno-compromised

A

healthy - no symptoms, but are able to spread disease
pregnant - still birth
newborn - meningitis
fetus - stillborn
elderly + immuno compromised - septicemia, encephalemia, meningitis

30
Q

He prepared several 4-gallon containers of cheese and left the containers out at room temp (70F) until use. 3/4 containers were used on pizzas later that day. The next day, the fourth container of cheese was used. On both days, the pizzas were cooked in an oven set to 500F. Four days later, several people came back to the restaurant and said they vomited 2 to 3 hours after eating pizza there. Only people who ate pizza on the second day appeared to be ill.

A) what pathogen is it
B) how could this have been prevented

A

cooked in 500F oven so pathogen itself could not have survived. This means a heat tolerant spore must be the culprit.

Staph Coccus has heat tolerant spores!

Could have been prevented by refrigerating cheese after preparation and when not in use.

31
Q

True or false

During the lag phase, the bacterial population does not have any metabolic activity

A

false

it has a lot of metabolic activity as all the enzymes are preparing for multiplication of the cell

32
Q

True or false

foodborne illness outbreak is the occurrence of two or more cases of a similar illness resulted from the ingestion of a common food

A

true

33
Q

True or false

Cell membrane is a strong structure. It protects bacteria cells from osmotic lysis

A

false

it is neither strong or protects from osmotic lysis.

this description fits cell wall

34
Q

True or false

mRNA plays a critical role in both transcription and translation

A

true

35
Q

True or false

Symptoms of foodborne infection usually appear soon after ingestion of the offending food than do symptoms of foodborne intoxication

A

fase

intoxication will appear sooner as the toxins produced by the bacteria and produced in the foods.

Infections require time to multiply and so symptoms do not appear right away

36
Q

Flagella are responsible for bacterial motility. They are made up of proteins

A

true

37
Q

True or false

Virus are non cellular

A

true

38
Q

True or false

emetic syndromes caused by bacillus cereus are usually linked to consumption of grain based foods, such as cooked rice, noodles, and pasta.

A

true

in japan mostly

39
Q

true or false

meat that is not safe to eat will also smell or taste spoiled

A

false

40
Q

true or false

gene is a segment of DNA that encodes for a functional product, such as an enzyme.

A

true

41
Q

Which structure is not a component of all cells?

A. ribosomes
B. cell membrane
C. genetic material
D. cell wall

A

D cell wall

42
Q

Nitrogen bases in DNA are bonded to the

A. phosphate
B. ribose
C. deoxyribose
D. phospholipid

A

C deoxyribose

43
Q

Transfer RNA is the molecule that

A. contributes to the structure of ribosomes
B. adapts the genetic code to protein structure
C. transfers the DNA code to mRNA
D. provides energy for cells to grow

A

B adapts the genetic code to protein structure

44
Q

Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of a plasmid

A. it is a circular piece of DNA
B. it is required for cell growth and reprodution
C. it is found in some bacteria
D. it can be transferred from cell to cell

A

B it is required for cell growth and reproduction

45
Q

Illness caused by clostridium botulinum is

A. an infection
B. an intoxication
C. a toxicoinfection
D. virus related

A

B an intoxication

46
Q

bacterial antigens for serotyping are not located on/at the

A outer membrane
B. flagella
C. capsule
D. ribosomes

A

D ribosomes

47
Q

Bacteria that cause foodborne illness usually grows on foods that have a pH at _____ or above and a water activity above _____.

A 4.6/0.70
B. 3.6/0.85
C. 4.6/0.85
D. 5.6/0.70

A

C. 4.6/0.85

48
Q

Which of the following is present in both gram positive and gram negative cell walls

A. outer membrane
B. teichoic acid
C. lipopolysaccharides
D. peptidoglycan

A

D peptidoglycan

49
Q

This is NOT required by all bacteria in order for them to growL

A. nutrients
B. water
C. oxygen
D. time

A

C oxygen

50
Q

bacterial endospores functions in

A. reproduction
B. infection
C. protein synthesis
D. survival

A

D survival

51
Q

Which of the following groups of people are least vulnerable to foodborne illness

A. college students
B. adults receiving chemo therapy
C. children younger than 6
D. pregnant women

A

A college students

52
Q

Cooking foods to 100C will

A. cause the foods to spoil
B. destroy vegetative cells of bacteria
C. destroy bacterial toxins
D. destroy bacterial endospores

A

B destroy vegetative cells of bacteria

53
Q

Which on of the following is NOT considered a potentially hazardous food group

A. raw potatoes and rice
B. fish and shellfish
C. poultry and eggs
D. red meats

A

A raw potatoes and rice

54
Q

Define or explain water activity

A

water available for use in a nutrient for bacterial growth

55
Q

Define or explain organelle

3 points to hit

A

structure in a cell that has a specific function and is enclosed in a membrane in eukaryotic cells

56
Q

Define or explain infection

A

ingestion of food that contains live pathogen or molds that will cause illness

57
Q

Define or explain gram negative bacteria

A

bacteria that has small peptidoglycan layer but has an outer membrane

58
Q

A ground beef sample has 100 cells/g of bacteria. The specific doubling time of the population is 1.1 hours. Assuming the poplation has a 1 hour lag phase, in how many hours will the population reach 1600 cells/g?

A

6 and a half hours

59
Q

will ingestion of clostridium perfringens spores cause illness in humans? why or why not?

A

ingestion of clostridium perfringens spres should not cause illness. Because the method of the pathogen is toxicoinfection, consuming just the endospores will not cause harm.

Consuming the vegetative cells on the other hand may allow cells to set up in the intestine where they would then produce toxins

60
Q

which pathogen has the highest acid tolerance

A

E coli O157:H7

pH 4

61
Q

what disease does shigella cause and what is its mode of infection

A

bacillary dysentary by shigatoxin

62
Q

two types of diseases that bacillus cereus causes

A

emetic (intoxication)

diarrheal (toxicoinfection)

63
Q

what disease does salmonella typhimurium cause

A

typhoidal fever and intestinal bleeding

64
Q

Name the spore forming pathogens (3)

A

clostridium botulinum
clostridium perfringens
bacillus cereus

FSHN 440 (5 decks)

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