411 prep Flashcards

1
Q

What drives the need for change in organizations?

A

Technological development, Changes in societal expectations, Economic uncertainty, Evolution of customer preferences

All of the above factors contribute to the necessity for organizational change.

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2
Q

Which step of the Organization Development (OD) process involves identifying potential changes to help an organization reach its goals?

A

Step 3: Selecting Solutions

This initial step is crucial for recognizing areas where change is needed.

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3
Q

What is the focus of Step 2, ‘Dig & diagnose’ in the OD process?

A

Collecting and analyzing data to understand the causes of the organization’s current situation

This step is essential for a thorough understanding of existing issues.

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4
Q

According to the Association of Change Management Professionals (ACMP), what is Change Management (CM)?

A

An approach to transition from a current state to a future state

This definition emphasizes the goal-oriented nature of change management.

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5
Q

How are Change Management (CM) and Project Management (PM) connected in the implementation of organizational change?

A

PM focuses on the technical side, while CM deals with the human side

This distinction highlights the complementary roles of CM and PM.

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6
Q

What does Prosci research suggest about the relationship between Change Management (CM) quality and meeting change objectives?

A

Excellent CM increases the likelihood of meeting change objectives by 6x compared to poor CM

This statistic underscores the importance of effective change management.

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7
Q

What is a project?

A

A temporary endeavor to create a new product, service or result

Projects are characterized by their temporary nature and specific objectives.

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8
Q

What percentage of all projects fail to meet their objectives, according to TeamStage?

A

70%

This high failure rate highlights the challenges organizations face in project management.

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9
Q

The art of getting others to want to do something that you believe should be done is a definition of:

A

Leadership

This definition emphasizes the motivational aspect of leadership.

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10
Q

In the formula C = f(x) (P, T, S), what does the S stand for?

A

Scope

Understanding project constraints is critical for successful project management.

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a phase of the project management process?

A

Workforce Evaluation

This option does not fit into the standard project management phases.

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12
Q

What does the sponsor of a change project typically have authority over?

A

The outcomes that the project aims to change

Sponsors play a key role in guiding project objectives.

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13
Q

When might change be considered as a result of an ‘opportunity gap’?

A

When performance is strong, but higher performance is desired

This indicates a proactive approach to enhancing organizational performance.

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14
Q

When is a performance gap referred to as a ‘problem gap’?

A

When the current state of performance is less than desired

Identifying problem gaps is crucial for initiating change.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of gap analysis in the OD process?

A

Evaluating the difference between current and desired performance

Gap analysis is vital for understanding performance shortfalls.

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16
Q

What does step 1 of gap analysis involve?

A

Measuring current performance

Establishing a baseline is essential for effective gap analysis.

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17
Q

In gap analysis, outcomes should be thought of as:

A

Financial or operational results

Outcomes provide measurable indicators of success.

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18
Q

What is a ‘problem’ in project management?

A

A gap between the way things are and the desired state

This definition encapsulates the essence of project management challenges.

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19
Q

Which element in project management provides a clear picture of the desired future state?

A

Vision

A clear vision is crucial for guiding project efforts.

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20
Q

In project management, what is the role of a ‘mission’?

A

Providing a high-level direction

The mission outlines the overarching goals of a project.

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21
Q

What distinguishes a ‘vision’ from an ‘objective’ in project management?

A

Vision provides the overall direction, while objectives are specific desired results

Understanding this distinction helps in effective project planning.

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22
Q

In the acronym SMART, what does the ‘R’ stand for?

A

Realistic

SMART objectives are essential for effective goal setting.

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23
Q

What is the ultimate goal of the diagnosis stage in the OD process?

A

To identify root causes of performance gaps

This stage is critical for effective intervention planning.

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24
Q

Which data collection method involves facilitated discussions with a small group of employees?

A

Focus groups

Focus groups are valuable for gathering qualitative insights.

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25
Q

What is the primary purpose of qualitative data analysis in OD diagnosis?

A

To find recurring themes and patterns

Identifying themes helps in understanding complex issues.

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26
Q

Which data analysis method involves using advanced algorithms to uncover patterns?

A

Machine learning

This method is increasingly used for data-driven decision-making.

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27
Q

Which data collection method involves systematically watching and documenting behaviors?

A

Observation

Observation provides direct insights into organizational processes.

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28
Q

What is the central idea behind the 5-why’s technique in cause analysis?

A

E.
To uncover multiple root causes

This technique is designed to drill down to root causes.

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29
Q

How many root causes should you find when using the 5-why’s technique?

A

It will vary depending on the characteristics of the performance gap

Flexibility in identifying root causes is key to effective analysis.

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30
Q

Which component of the congruence model includes organizational structure?

A

Formal organization

The formal organization is critical for understanding organizational dynamics.

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31
Q

What does the ‘work’ component in the congruence model encompass?

A

Tasks, activities, and responsibilities

This component is essential for operational effectiveness.

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32
Q

How does the congruence model suggest organizations can be effective?

A

By aligning key organizational components

Alignment is crucial for overall effectiveness.

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33
Q

What is the primary source of ideas for effective interventions to address a performance gap?

A

Solutions to root causes

Identifying root causes is fundamental for developing effective interventions.

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34
Q

What is another useful approach to identifying possible change interventions?

A

Internal and external benchmarking

Benchmarking helps organizations learn from best practices.

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35
Q

In the People Component of the Congruence Model, what is suggested as a potential solution for interpersonal conflict?

A

Team-building activities

Team-building can enhance collaboration and reduce conflict.

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36
Q

In the Informal Organization component of the Congruence Model, what is suggested as a potential solution for culture drift?

A

Adjust selection process

Adjusting how employees are selected can help realign organizational culture.

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37
Q

Which method of choosing between different intervention options assesses implementation difficulty and effect?

A

Ease-Impact Analysis

This method helps prioritize interventions based on feasibility and impact.

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38
Q

What is one potential downside of ease-impact analysis?

A

C.
Combining different factors together

This may lead to neglecting important implementation challenges.

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39
Q

In the Weighted Criteria Matrices method, what is the purpose of assigning weights to each criterion?

A

To represent the importance of each criterion

Weights help prioritize decision-making factors.

40
Q

What is the next step after assigning weights to criteria in the weighted criteria matrix method?

A

Scoring interventions on each criterion

This step is essential for evaluating options systematically.

41
Q

What is the purpose of identifying a list of several possible solutions before selecting one?

A

To provide options for consideration

This approach encourages thorough evaluation and stakeholder involvement.

42
Q

Which intervention selection method allows for a comprehensive evaluation considering multiple factors?

A

Weighted Criteria Matrices

This method is effective for systematic decision-making.

43
Q

Which of the following is a ‘stakeholder’ in a project?

A

Anyone with an interest in the project

Stakeholders can influence or be influenced by project outcomes.

44
Q

Which of the following is one of the three questions that helps identify stakeholders?

A

B.
Who contributes to the project?

Identifying resource control helps understand stakeholder influence.

45
Q

The ‘stakeholder grid’ categorizes stakeholders based on which two characteristics?

A

Attitude and influence

This tool aids in strategic stakeholder engagement.

46
Q

Who contributes to the project?

47
Q

Who acts like a mature adult?

48
Q

Who has access to the best information?

49
Q

Who is most likely to resist the project?

50
Q

Who is easy to work with?

A

1/1 points

51
Q

What tool categorizes stakeholders based on attitude and influence?

A

A. The stakeholder grid

52
Q

Why is managing stakeholders important in project management?

A

E. Because they are key to a project’s success

53
Q

Which stakeholder management tool categorizes stakeholders into ‘unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, and leading’?

A

F.
The stakeholders engagement assessment matrix

54
Q

Which group of stakeholders does Karen Feely suggest have ‘no real project knowledge’?

A

Everyone Else

55
Q

Which of the following is one of the 4 categories stakeholders can be categorized into according to Change Management that Sticks chapter 2?

A

E.
Change recipients

56
Q

What do ‘interested onlookers’ want from the change according to Change Management that Sticks chapter 2?

A

B.
It reduces requirement to intervene

57
Q

What is a ‘stakeholder assessment’ according to Change Management that Sticks chapter 2?

A

D. A table that captures all stakeholders and their interest in a change

58
Q

Which approaches are useful for identifying all stakeholders for a change?

A

E. All of the above

59
Q

What is the most common reason that change projects fail?

A

D. The unique value to each stakeholder wasn’t correctly identified

60
Q

What is true about what different stakeholder groups value in a change?

A

C. There is tension between what change initiators and change recipients usually value

61
Q

What question does the ‘outcome onion’ tool repeatedly ask about stakeholder value?

A

C. So what about that?

62
Q

What is described as the ‘field of dreams syndrome’?

A

D. Assuming that if change initiators build a change, change recipients will automatically support it

63
Q

What is one of the common ways the ‘value proposition’ for a change gets confused?

A

A. The project describes the value as outputs and not outcomes

64
Q

What does ‘WIIFM’ stand for?

A

F. What’s in it for me

65
Q

What is a ‘project cat food’?

A

D. A project that doesn’t deliver anything desirable for anyone

66
Q

What is a ‘gap statement’ in a WIIFM analysis?

A

F. The difference between how things are now for a stakeholder and how things will be after the change

67
Q

How can you validate your understanding of WIIFMs for different stakeholder groups?

A

B. Hold a workshop or a series of workshops

68
Q

What is a good rule of thumb for assessing the scale of the impact of a change?

A

A.
A change that requires more than 5 hours of learning by the stakeholder is “high” impact

69
Q

What is the primary objective of risk management in project management?

A

F. Identifying, assessing, and controlling risks

70
Q

What is step 1 of the project risk management process?

A

F. List all risks to the project you can think of

71
Q

On what two characteristics should you evaluate each of the risks identified for a project?

A

B. Probability of occurrence and negative impact

72
Q

What is step 4 of the project risk management process?

A

D. Prevent or mitigate the risk

73
Q

What is a useful risk analysis tool?

A

A. The Risk Matrix

74
Q

What is a ‘contingency’ in project risk management?

A

E. The specific actions that will be taken if the risk occurs

75
Q

What are ‘contingency reserves’?

A

C.
Time and/or budget set aside to deal with the known risks to the project

76
Q

What are ‘management reserves’?

A

B. Time and/or budget set aside to deal with risks that cannot be predicted

77
Q

What is the most common challenge encountered in managing projects?

A

D. Communication, or lack thereof

78
Q

What is the goal of a ‘communication plan’ in project management?

A

E. To plan how to communicate with stakeholders as a project matures

79
Q

What is one of the two ‘barriers to good planning’ listed in chapter 3?

A

B. People find planning to be painful

80
Q

Project planning is particularly important under which condition?

A

E. Project deadlines are tight

81
Q

Which of the following is one of a project ‘plan ingredients’?

A

A. Project work requirements

82
Q

Which statement is most true of changing project plans?

A

C. Project plans should be changed, when needed, in an orderly way

83
Q

What is a good rule of thumb for effective project planning?

A

F.
The people who do the work should participate in developing the plan

84
Q

What project planning activity involves dividing complicated tasks into smaller tasks?

A

C.
Work breakdown structure

85
Q

What is the responsibility of the project manager?

A

The project manager is responsible for the plan

This highlights the importance of leadership in project management.

86
Q

What improves the effectiveness of any project plan?

A

Creating a formal ‘project charter’

A project charter outlines objectives, scope, and stakeholders.

87
Q

What is the recommended time ratio for project planning to project execution?

A

1/10 of the time needed for the project itself

This suggests that adequate planning can lead to project success.

88
Q

Who should hold ultimate authority over the project plan?

A

The project planner

This emphasizes the importance of clear leadership in project management.

89
Q

What principle is summarized by ‘Waste not, want not’?

A

Efficiency and resource management in projects

This principle encourages careful use of resources to avoid future shortages.

90
Q

Who should participate in developing the project plan?

A

The people who do the work

Involvement of team members ensures practical insights are incorporated.

91
Q

What project planning activity involves dividing complicated tasks into smaller tasks?

A

Work breakdown structure

A WBS is crucial for simplifying project management.

92
Q

How does a WBS contribute to project cost estimation?

A

By breaking down the project into smaller components for easier cost assignment

This allows for more accurate budgeting.

93
Q

What does a completed WBS capture?

A

It captures all of the tasks to be completed but not their order

It provides a comprehensive overview of project tasks.

94
Q

When should a task within a WBS no longer be subdivided?

A

When the task can be completed within the smallest time unit you plan to schedule

This indicates the task is manageable and actionable.

95
Q

Which statement is true about the levels in a WBS?

A

In WBS, different tasks may be subdivided to different levels

This allows for flexibility in task management.

96
Q

What is the best source of information on time/cost estimates?

A

Historical data

Historical data provides insights based on past projects.

97
Q

What are the three types of estimates used in the three-point estimating technique?

A

Best-case, Worst-case, Most likely

This technique helps project managers account for uncertainty.