4.11 Immunohematology Problem-Solving Flashcards

1
Q

Is there a discrepancy between the following blood typing and secretor study results?
A. No problem, the sample is from a group A secretor
B. Blood types as A and saliva types as B
C. Blood types as A, but the secretor study is inconclusive
D. No problem, the sample is from a group A nonsecretor

A

A. No problem, the sample is from a group A secretor

The blood typing result demonstrates A antigen on the RBCs and anti-B in serum. The secretor result reveals A antigen in the saliva. A antigen neutralized anti-A, preventing agglutination when A1 cells were added. Each blood type (except a Bombay phenotype) contains some H antigen; therefore, H antigen in saliva would be bound by anti-H reagent. No agglutination would occur when O cells are added.

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2
Q

What is the best course of action given the following test result? (Assume the patient has not been transfused recently.)
A. Nothing, typing is normal
B. Type patient cells with anti-A1 lectin and type serum with A2 cells
C. Retype patient cells; type with anti-H and anti-A,B; use screen cells or A2 cells on patient serum; run patient autocontrol
D. Wash patient cells four times with saline; then repeat the forward type

A

C. Retype patient cells; type with anti-H and anti-A,B; use screen cells or A2 cells on patient serum; run patient autocontrol

The mixed-field reaction with anti-A suggests a subgroup of A, most likely A3. The reverse grouping shows weak agglutination with A1 cells, indicating anti-A1. A positive reaction with anti-A,B would help to differentiate an A subgroup from group O. If A2 cells are not agglutinated by patient serum, the result would indicate the presence of anti-A1. If the patient’s serum agglutinates A2 cells, then an alloantibody or autoantibody should be considered.

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3
Q

** The following results were obtained on a 41 year old female:

Due to the discrepant reverse grouping, a panel was performed on patient serum revealing the presence of anti-M. How can the reverse grouping by resolved?**
A. Repeat the reverse grouping with a 10 minute incubation at room temperature
B. Repeat the reverse grouping using A1 cells that are negative for M antigen
C. Repeat the reverse grouping using A1 cells that are positive for M antigen
D. No further work is necessary

A

B. Repeat the reverse grouping using A1 cells that are negative for M antigen

The scenario showed an antibody in the patient serum directed toward M antigen, and the M antigen happened to be on the A1 cells in reverse grouping. To solve this problem, find A1 cells negative for M antigen or enzyme treat the A1 cells to resolve the ABO discrepancy.

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4
Q

**A 59 year old male came to the emergency department of a community hospital complaining of dizziness and fatigue. History included no transfusions and a positive rheumatoid factor 1 year ago. His complete blood count (CBC) confirmed anemia. A sample was sent to the blood bank for typing and crossmatching. Upon receipt of the sample in the blood bank, the MLS noticed the ethylenediaminetetracetic acid (EDTA) sample appeared very viscous. Fearing that the sample would clog the automated instrument, testing was performed by using the tube method. The initial results revealed the following:

The patient’s RBCs were washed eight times with saline, and testing was repeated, giving the following results:

The antibody screen was negative at the IS, 37C, and AHG phases; the check cells were positive. Crossmatching testing using two O positive donor units revealed 1+ at IS, and negative results at the 37C and AHG phases. The check cells were positive. In light of the crossmatching results, what is the next course of action?**
A. Use other donor cells for crossmatching
B. Perform a saline replacement for crossmatching
C. Run the crossmatching test using the Gel system
D. Result the crossmatch as incompatible

A

B. Perform a saline replacement for crossmatching

The history of the patient correlates with abnormal plasma proteins causing a positive result with the Rh control. Perform a saline replacement technique to rectify the incompatible crossmatches at IS.

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5
Q

**The following results were obtained on a 51 year old male with hepatitis C:

What should be done next?**
A. Retype the patient’s sample to confirm group AB positive
B. Repeat the Rh typing
C. Run a saline control in forward grouping
D. Report the patient as group AB, Rh positive

A

C. Run a saline control in forward grouping

In the case of an AB-positive person, a saline control must be run in forward grouping to obtain a negative reaction; this will ensure agglutination is specific in the other reactions

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6
Q

**An Rh phenotyping shows the following results:

What is the most likely Rh genotype?**
A. R1r’
B. R0r
C. R1R1
D. R1r

A

C. R1R1

The most likely genotype is R1R1. The possibilities are DCe/DCe or DCe/dCe, which translates to R1R1 or R1h’. The former is more common

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7
Q

An obstetric patient, 34 weeks pregnant, shows a positive antibody screen at the indirect antiglobulin phase of testing in screening cells I and II; screening cell III was negative. She is group B, Rh negative. This is her first pregnancy. She has no prior history of transfusion. What is the most likely explanation for the positive antibody screen?
A. She has developed an antibody to fetal RBCs
B. She probably does not have antibodies because this is her first pregnancy, and she has not been transfused; check for technical error
C. She received an antenatal dose of RhIg
D. Impossible to determine without further testing

A

C. She received an antenatal dose of RhIg

Because the patient has never been transfused or pregnant previously, she probably has not formed any atypical antibodies. Because she is Rh negative should would have received a dose of RhIg at 28 weeks (antenatal dose) if her prenatal antibody screen had been negative. Although technical error cannot be ruled out, it is far less likely than RhIg administration to be the cause.

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8
Q

A patient’s serum contains a mixture of antibodies. One of the antibodies is identified as anti-D. Anti-Jka or anti-Fya and possibly another antibody are present. What technique(s) may be helpful to identify the other antibody(s)?
A. Enzyme panel; select cell panel
B. Thiol reagents
C. Lowering the pH and increasing the incubation time
D. Using albumin as an enhancement medium in combination with selective adsorption

A

A. Enzyme panel; select cell panel

An enzyme panel would help to distinguish between anti-Jka (reaction enhanced) and anti-Fya (destroyed). Anti-D, however, would also be enhanced and may mask reactions that may distinguish another antibody. A select panel of cells negative for D may help to reveal an additional antibody or antibodies.

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9
Q

An anti-M reacts strongly through all phases of testing. Which of the following techniques would not contribute to removing this reactivity so that more clinically significant antibodies may be revealed?
A. Acidifying the serum
B. Prewarmed technique
C. Adsorption with homozygous cells
D. Testing with enzyme-treated RBCs

A

A. Acidifying the serum

Lowering the pH will actually enhance reactivity of anti-M. Prewarming (anti-M is a cold-reacting antibody), cold adsorption with homozygous M cells, and testing the serum with enzyme-treated RBCs (destroys M antigens) are all techniques to remove reactivity of anti-M.

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10
Q

The reactivity of an unknown antibody could be anti-Jka, but the antibody identification panel does not fit this pattern conclusively. Which of the following would not be effective in determining if the specificity is anti-Jka?
A. Testing with enzyme-treated cells
B. Select panel of homozygous cells
C. Testing with 2-aminoethylisothiouronium bromide (AET)—treated cells
D. Increased incubation time

A

C. Testing with 2-aminoethylisothiouronium bromide (AET)—treated cells

AET denatures Kell antigens and has no effect on Kidd antibodies. Because the detection of Kidd antibodies is subject to dosage effect, selection of cells homozygous for the Jka antigen (and longer incubation) would help to detect the presence of the corresponding antibody. Enzyme-treated RBCs would also react more strongly in the presence of Kidd antibodies.

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11
Q

A cold-reacting antibody is found in the serum of a recently transfused patient and is suspected to be anti-I. The antibody identification panel shows reactions with all cells at room temperature, including the autocontrol. The reaction strength varies from 2+ to 4+. What procedure would help to distinguish this antibody from other cold-reacting antibodies?
A. Autoadsorption technique
B. Neutralization using saliva
C. Autocontrol using ZZAP reagent-treated cells
D. Reaction with cord blood cells

A

D. Reaction with cord blood cells

Because RBCs contain variable amounts of I antigen, reactions with anti-I often vary in agglutination strength. However, because this patient was recently transfused, the variation in reaction strength may be the result of an antibody mixture. Although autoadsorption would remove anti-I, this procedure does not confirm the antibody specificity and can result in removal of other antibodies, as well. Cord blood cells express primarily i antigen with very little I antigen. Anti-I would react weakly or negatively with cord RBCs. ZZAP removes IgG antibodies from RBCs. Because anti-I is IgM, the use of ZZAP would not be of value.

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12
Q

An antibody identification panel reveals the presence of anti-Leb and a possible second specificity. Saliva from which person would best neutralize the Leb antibody?
A. Le, H, sese
B. Le, h, Se
C. Le, H, Se
D. lele, hh, sese

A

C. Le, H, Se

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13
Q

The automated blood bank analyzer does not detect weak forms of D antigen. Why would running type and screens on the analyzer prevent a patient with a weak D phenotype from forming anti-D?
A. Weak D persons cannot form anti-D
B. The analyzer would show the sample as Rh negative; the patient would receive Rh-negative blood
C. The analyzer would show the sample as Rh positive; the patient would receive Rh-positive blood
D. A and C

A

B. The analyzer would show the sample as Rh negative; the patient would receive Rh-negative blood

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14
Q

**A cord blood workup was ordered on baby boy Jones. The mother is O negative. Results on the baby are as follows:

The test for weak D on the baby was positive at the AHG phase. Is the mother an RhIg candidate?**
A. No the baby is Rh positive
B. Yes, the baby’s Rh type cannot be determined because of the positive DAT result
C. No, the baby is Rh negative
D. Yes, the mother is Rh negative

A

B. Yes, the baby’s Rh type cannot be determined because of the positive DAT result

The baby forward types as an A, and the mother is O negative. It is possible that anti-A,B from the mother is attaching to the baby’s RBCs, causing a positive DAT result. In the presence of a positive DAT, a weak test for D is not valid. Therefore, the baby’s Rh type is unknown, and the mother would be a candidate for RhIg.

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15
Q

RBCs from a recently transfused patient were positive on DAT when tested with anti-IgG. Screen cells and a panel performed on a patient’s serum showed very weak reactions with inconclusive results. What procedure could help to identify the antibody?
A. Elution followed by a panel on the equate
B. Adsorption followed by a panel on the adsorbed serum
C. Enzyme panel
D. Antigen typing the patient’s RBCs

A

A. Elution followed by a panel on the equate

If the RBCs show a positive DAT result, then IgG antibody has coated incompatible, antigen-positive RBCs. If screening cells and panel cells show missing or weak reactions, most of the antibody is on the RBCs and would need to be eluted before it can be detected. An elution procedure followed by a panel performed on the eluate would help to identify the antibody.

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16
Q

** A patient types as O positive. All three screening cells and RBCs from two O-positive donor units show agglutination after incubation at 37C and increase in reactivity at the IAT phase of testing. What action should be taken next?**
A. Perform an autocontrol and DAT on the patient
B. Perform an enzyme panel
C. Perform an elution
D. Choose another 2 units and repeat crossmatching

A

A. Perform an autocontrol and DAT on the patient

All screening cells and all units are positive at both 37C and the IAT phase. This indicates the possibility of a high-frequency alloantibody or a warm autoantibody. An autocontrol would help make this distinction. A positive autocontrol indicates an autoantibody is present; a negative autocontrol and positive screen cells indicate an alloantibody. A DAT would be performed to determine if an antibody has coated the patient’s RBCs and is directed against screening cells and donor cells.

17
Q

Four units of blood are ordered for a patient. Blood bank records are checked and indicate that 5 years ago this patient had an anti-Jkb. What is the next course of action?
A. Antigen type unit for the Jkb antigen, and only crossmatch units positive for Jkb
B. Antigen type units for the Jkb antigen, and only crossmatch units negative for Jkb
C. Randomly pull 4 units of blood that are ABO compatible, and perform crossmatching
D. Perform IS crossmatching on 4 Jkb-negative units

A

B. Antigen type units for the Jkb antigen, and only crossmatch units negative for Jkb

A patient with a history of a significant antibody, such as anti-Jkb, must receive blood that has been completely crossmatched and is negative for the for the corresponding antigen; otherwise, an anamnestic reaction may occur with subsequent lysis of donor cells.

18
Q

A 56 year old patient diagnosed with colon cancer demonstrates a positive antibody screen in all three screen cells at the AHG phase. The panel study shows 10 cells as positive as well as the autocontrol at the AHG phase. The reactions varied from 1+ to 3+. This patient had a history of receiving 2 units of blood approximately 1 month ago. What should be done next?
A. Perform a DAT on patient cells
B. Perform an autoadsorption
C. Perform an alloadsorption
D. Issue O-negative cells

A

C. Perform an alloadsorption

In this situation, an allogeneic adsorption must be performed to adsorb out the autoantibody and leave potential alloantibodies in the patient’s serum that will need to be identified before transfusion of blood to the patient. An autoadsorption cannot be performed because any alloantibodies would be absorbed by circulating donor cells present from the previous month.

19
Q

**A 33 year old maternity patient has blood drawn for a type and screen at 36 weeks’ pregnancy. The following results are found on the automated blood bank analyzer:

The reference laboratory identified anti-P1 in the patient plasma by using enzyme techniques. How could the ABO discrepancy be solved?**
A. Wash the patient’s RBCs, and repeat the forward grouping
B. Test the patient’s plasma against A2 cells
C. Warm the patient’s plasma at 37C for 10 minutes, and repeat the reverse grouping
D. Treat the A1 cells with DTT, and repeat the reverse grouping

A

C. Warm the patient’s plasma at 37C for 10 minutes, and repeat the reverse grouping

Anti-P1 is a cold-reacting antibody. Warming the plasma at 37C will dissipate the antibody, preventing its reactivity with P1 antigen on the A1 cells.

20
Q

**An O-negative mother with no record of any previous pregnancies gives birth to her first child, a B-positive baby. The baby’s DAT is weakly positive, and the saline control is negative. The antibody screen is also negative. The baby appears healthy but after 2 days develops mild jaundice, which is treated by phototherapy. After 4 days in the hospital, the baby goes home, without complications. What is the most likely explanation for the weakly positive DAT result?
A. Technical error
B. A low-titer anti-D
C. Immune anti-B from the mother
D. A maternal antibody against a low-incidence antigen

A

C. Immune anti-B from the mother

In this case, the maternal anti-A,B is probably coating the infant’s B cells, causing a positive DAT and jaundice. Anti-A,B from an O person is a single entity that cannot be separated. It is IgG and can cross the placenta. This antibody may attach to A, B, or AB RBCs.