41. Anticoagulation Flashcards
CA is a 66 year-old male with hypertension, renal disease and degenerative joint disease. In his younger years, CA was a football player and has lived with the pain of a hip injury for many years. He enters the hospital for elective hip replacement surgery. His creatinine clearance is 25 mL/min. The physician orders enoxaparin 30 mg SC BID for DVT prophylaxis. Choose the correct statement:
A. The dose is correct as ordered.
B. The dose should be 60 mg SC daily.
C. The dose should be 45 mg SC daily.
D. The dose should be 30 mg SC daily.
E. The patient should receive heparin for DVT prophylaxis.
D. The physician ordered the correct prophylactic dose of enoxaparin for a patient without significant renal disease (30 mg SC BID, or 40 mg SC daily). If the creatinine clearance is less than 30 mL/min, the dose is reduced to 30 mg SC once daily.
enoxaparin (Lovenox): use actual body weight for all. Px VTE (30mg SQ Q12H or 40mg SQdaily; CrCl <30, 30mgSQdaily)
Tx VTE and UA/NSTEMI: 1mg/kg SQ Q12H (or 1.5 mg/kg SC Qdaily for VTE inpatient treatment only; CrCl <30, 1mg/kg SQ daily)
Tx STEMI: For patients <75 y/o, 30mg IV bolus + 1mg/kg SQ dose, then 1 mg/kg SQ Q12H (max 100mg for first 2 doses only); if CrCl <30, 30mg IV bolus + 1mg/kg SQ dose, then 1mg/kg SQ daily. For patients ≥75 y/o, 0.75 mg/kg SQ Q12H (no bolus and max 75mg for first 2 doses only); if CrCl <30, give 1mg/kg SQ daily. For PCI: give 0.3mg/kg IV bolus if last dose was 8-12 hours before balloon inflation.
Select the correct statement concerning Pradaxa:
A. It is indicated for patients with valvular atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of stroke.
B. It has more drug and food interactions than warfarin.
C. It causes the same amount of GI bleeding as warfarin.
D. It has an antidote.
E. It does not require blood testing to monitor for effectiveness.
E. Pradaxa is indicated for non-valvular atrial fibrillation and it does not require blood tests to monitor for effectiveness.Pradaxa causes more GI bleeds and does not have an antidote.
Oral Direct Thrombin (IIa) Inhibitors: directly inhibits thrombin (Factor IIa).
dabigatran (Pradaxa): Prevents more stroke than warfarin and favored in CHEST guidelines. Boxed warning: patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia (epidural, spinal) or undergoing spinal puncture are at risk of hematomas and subsequent paralysis, premature discontinuation increases risk of thrombotic events. CI: major active bleeding, patients with mechanical heart valves. SE: dyspepsia, gastritis-like symptoms, bleeding (including more GI bleeding), pregnancy (C). No antidote. Take whole capsule with full glass of water without regards to food. Once open bottle, use within 4 months.
Non-valvular AFib: 150mg BID; 75mg BID if CrCl 15-30
Tx of VTE and reduction in risk of recurrence of VTE: 150mg BID when CrCl >30; no recommendations when CrCl <30
Switching from warfarin to dabigatran: start when INR <2
Swithcing from UFH/LMWH: start at end of UFH infusion or within 2 hours of next LMWH dose
Missed dose: take dose if >6 hours from next dose
A 70 year-old patient has been using warfarin therapy in the hospital. She had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her right lower leg. She is being discharged, and the outpatient pharmacist who is going to dispense her warfarin is checking her medication profile for drug interactions. The pharmacist notes that the patient is using medications which increase the risk of bleeding. She will counsel the patient on increased bleeding risk. Which of the following medications can increase her bleeding risk? (Select ALL that apply.)
A. Co-enzyme Q10
B. Clopidogrel
C. Amiodarone
D. Ginkgo biloba
E. Lithium
B, C, D. Clopidogrel, amiodarone, and ginkgo biloba can increase the risk of bleeding in patients taking warfarin.
Herbal/Natural Product Drug: Increase bleeding risk (ginkgo biloba, bromelain, danshen, dong quai, vitamin E, evening primrose oil, echinacea, high doses of fish oils, garlic, glucosamine, goldenseal, grapefruit, policosanol, willow bark, wintergreen oil). Decrease effectiveness of warfarin (alfalfa, American ginseng, green tea, coenzyme Q-10, vitamin K, St John’s Wort) “Alcohol Can Get Gina Singing” = alfalfa, coenzyme, green tea, ginseng, st. john’s.
Chief Complaint: “I can’t walk - it hurts so bad”
History of Present Illness: ST is a 72 y/o female who presents to the ER with left lower extremity swelling that started last week. Her leg became more swollen and painful over the past few days until she could no longer apply weight to her left leg. She reports no shortness of breath or decreased exercise tolerance.
Allergies: NKDA
Past Medical History: Hypertension, Type 2 Diabetes, and Heart Failure
Medications: Lantus 24 units at HS, Novolog 3 units TID before meals, Diovan HCT 160 mg/25 mg daily, Coreg CR 20 mg daily, Neurontin 600 mg TID, Lasix 20 mg daily
Physical Exam / Vitals:
Height: 5’4” Weight: 200 lbs
Vitals: BP: 167/92 HR: 92 RR: 16 Temp: 98.8 F O2 sat: 98% Pain: 8/10
General: Obese female with painful left lower extremity. Appears stated age.
Cardiovascular: RRR
Lungs: CTA bilaterally
Extremities: Left calf circumference > right. Swollen from ankle to knee on left. No swelling on right. Warm to touch, no lesions or infection.
Labs:
Na (mEq/L) = 142 (135 – 145) WBC (cells/mm3) = 5.7 (4 – 11 x 10^3)
K (mEq/L) = 3.7 (3.5 – 5) Hgb (g/dL) = 13.9 (13.5 – 18 male, 12 – 16 female)
Cl (mEq/L) = 99 (95 – 103) Hct (%) = 42 (38 – 50 male, 36 – 46 female)
HCO3 (mEq/L) = 27 (24 – 30) Plt (cells/mm3) = 322 (150 – 450 x 10^3)
BUN (mg/dL) = 31 (7 – 20) AST (IU/L) = 29 (10 – 40)
SCr (mg/dL) = 1.2 (0.6 – 1.3) ALT (IU/L) = 34 (10 – 40)
Glucose (mg/dL) = 202 (100 – 125) Albumin (g/dL) = 4.2 (3.5 – 5)
Ca (mg/dL) = 9.7 (8.5 – 10.5) A1C (%) = 10.1
Mg (mEq/L) = 1.7 (1.3 – 2.1) PT (sec) = 13 (10 - 13)
PO4 (mg/dL) = 2.8 (2.3 – 4.7) INR = 0.8
Tests:
Ultrasound of left lower extremity: DVT
EKG: NSR, no ST or T wave changes
Plan: Admit to medical floor for treatment of DVT and management of other chronic conditions.
Question:
The physician plans to start ST on enoxaparin, but would like to order a laboratory test to monitor efficacy of enoxaparin therapy. Which of the following could be recommended?
A. aPTT Q6H
B. INR daily
C. Peak anti-Xa, 4 hours after the dose
D. Trough anti-Xa, before the next dose
E. There is no laboratory test to monitor efficacy of enoxaparin therapy
C. Routine monitoring of enoxaparin therapy with anti-Xa levels is not necessary, but monitoring can be done in certain patients. If anti-Xa levels are ordered, they should be drawn 4 hours after the SC dose (peak).
Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWHs): works similar to heparin except that the inhibition is much greater for Factor Xa than Factor IIa. Boxed warning: patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia (epidural, spinal) or undergoing spinal puncture are at risk of hematomas and subsequent paralysis. CI: history of HIT, active major bleed, hypersensitivity to pork. SE: bleeding, anemia, increase LFTs, thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, injection site reactions (bruising), pregnancy (B). Monitoring (Anti-Xa levels can be used to monitor, but not routine (obtain peak anti-Xa levels 4 hours post dose). Monitor in pregnancy, mechanical valves, morbidly obese, and renal impairment. No real antidote, but protamine can be used. Do not expel air bubble.
What would be expected to occur if a patient on warfarin with a stable INR is started on amiodarone?
A. The INR would decrease and the patient may experience bleeding.
B. The INR would increase and the patient may clot.
C. The INR would increase and the patient may experience bleeding.
D. The INR would decrease and the patient may clot.
E. The INR would not change.
C. Amiodarone inhibits the metabolism of warfarin; therefore, increasing the INR and potentially causing the patient to bleed.
Warfarin is a substrate of CYP 2C9. Avoid use with tamoxifen. 2C9 inducers: aprepitant, bosentan, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, rifampin (large decrease in INR), licorice, St. John’s Wort. 2C9 inhibitors: amiodarone (decrease warfarin dose by 30-50%), azole antifungals (fluconazole, ketoconazole, voriconazole), capecitabine, etravirine, fluvastatin, fluvoxamine, macrolide antibiotics, metronidazole, tigecycline, TMP/SMX, zafirlukast
The pharmacist is counseling AT, a patient beginning warfarin therapy, on how to recognize if she may be bleeding internally or externally. Signs that she may be bleeding include the following: (Select ALL that apply.)
A. Xerostomia
B. Red or black stools
C. Epistaxis
D. Metallic taste in mouth when she brushes her teeth
E. Headaches, dizziness or weakness
B, C, D, E. Other signs of bleeding could include pain, swelling, or discomfort, bleeding from cuts that takes a long time to stop (usually more than 15 minutes), large bruises, menstrual bleeding or vaginal bleeding that is much heavier than normal, pink or brown urine (or dark, tarry stools) or vomiting blood or material that looks like coffee grounds. Dark tarry stools are more likely with NSAID-induced bleeding, but would be aggravated by an elevated INR.
Which of the following medical conditions put a patient at risk for development of a DVT?
A. Hypertension
B. Type 1 diabetes
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Influenza
E. Cancer
E. Cancer or chemotherapy is a known risk factor for development of DVT.
Risk factors: Major (surgery, major trauma, immobility, cancer, previous venous thromboembolism, pregnancy, estrogen-containing medications or selective estrogen-receptor modulators, erythropoiesis-stimulating agents), other (venous compression, increasing age, acute medical illness, inflammatory bowel disease, nephrotic syndrome, myeloproliferative disorders, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, obesity, central venous catherization, inherited/acquired thrombophilia)
TL was admitted to the local hospital for a knee replacement. Orthopedic surgery is considered high risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) but TL did not receive any VTE prophylaxis. He developed a deep vein thrombosis and was discharged on warfarin. This was his first incidence of VTE. Normally, TL is thin and active. How long should he receive warfarin?
A. One month
B. Two months
C. Three months
D. Six months
E. Twelve months
C. This patient had an increased risk for VTE only due to the orthopedic surgery. He will need anticoagulation for three months.
VTE treatment
Provoked: treat for 3 months
Unprovoked: low-to-moderate risk (treat longer than 3 months), high bleeding risk (treat for 3 months)
2 unprovoked VTEs: treat long-term
In which of the following scenarios are the intravenous direct thrombin inhibitors considered the drugs of choice?
A. To provide anticoagulation in patients who have heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).
B. To provide anticoagulation in patients who had a recent intracranial hemorrhage.
C. To provide anticoagulation in patients who had heparin-induced hyperkalemia.
D. To provide better anticoagulation in ACS patients.
E. For patients who are allergic to latex.
A. Direct thrombin inhibitors have been very important clinically since they do not cross-react with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) antibodies. Once HIT develops, the injectable direct thrombin inhibitors are the drugs of choice.
IV Direct Thrombin (IIa) Inhibitors: directly inhibit thrombin (Factor IIa). used in patients with a history of HIT. CI: active major bleed. SE: bleeding, anemia, hematoma, pregnancy (B). No cross reaction with HIT. Not antidote.
argatroban: drug of choice in HIT. must be protected from light during administration. decrease dose in hepatic impairment
bivalirudin (Angiomax): used in cardiac cath lab. decrease dose when CrCl <30
Both agents: HIT dosing (initial 2mcg/kg/min, titrate to target aPTT, max 10mcg/kg/min). PCI (IV bolus followed by infusion, all are weight-based)
AT is beginning warfarin therapy. She asks the pharmacist which foods are high in vitamin K. Which of the following foods are high in vitamin K? (Select ALL that apply.)
A. Cauliflower
B. Canola and soybean oils
C. Broccoli and brussels sprouts
D. Fish and fish oils
E. Green and black tea
A, B, C, E. It is important to counsel the patient to eat consistent amounts of vitamin K daily and avoid large, sudden changes in items rich in vitamin K.
A female patient who is pregnant has been admitted to the hospital with a DVT. The physician will begin heparin therapy. What is the mechanism of action of heparin?
A. Heparin potentiates factor V
B. Heparin potentiates factor IXa
C. Heparin potentiates factor Xa
D. Heparin potentiates antithrombin
E. Heparin inhibits clotting factors II, VII, IX, & X
D. Heparin exerts its effects via antithrombin.
Unfractionated Heparin (UFH): binds to antithrombin (AT) and inactivates thrombin (Factor IIa) and Factor Xa (as well as factors IXa, XIa, XIIa, and plasmin) and prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Px VTE: 5000 units SQ Q8-12H
Tx VTE: 80 units/kg IV bolus (max 5000 units) followed by 18 units/kg/hr (max 1000 units/hr) infusion (actual body weight)
Tx ACS/STEMI: 60 units/kg IV bolus (max 4000 units) followed by 12 units/kg/hr (max 1000 units/hr) infusion (actual body weight)
Boxed warning: some products contain benzyl alcohol as preservative, use is CI in neonates and infants. CI: uncontrolled active bleed, severe thrombocytopenia, ICH, history of HIT, hypersensitivity to pork products. Warning: do not give IM due to hematoma risk. SE: bleeding, thrombocytopenia, heparin induced thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, osteoporosis, pregnancy (C). Monitoring: heparin is monitored via the aPTT (6 hours after initiation, then every 6 hours until therapeutic range of 1.5-2.5 x patient’s baseline aPTT), platelet count, Hgb, Hct, bleeding, thrombocytopenia. Antidote: protamine (1mg will reverse 100units of heparin, max dose 50mg)
A patient has developed a DVT and will be placed on dalteparin. Choose the correct statements concerning dalteparin:
A. Dalteparin is safe to use if a person has a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
B. Dalteparin is safe to use in a patient receiving concurrent neuraxial anesthesia.
C. Dalteparin is administered by intramuscular injection.
D. Dalteparin is monitored by anti-Xa levels but monitoring is not required in everyone.
E. Dalteparin cannot be used safely in a patient with a sulfa allergy.
D. Dalteparin is administered by subcutaneous (SC) injection and is contraindicated if the patient had a history of HIT.
dalteparin (Fragmin): use actual body weight for all. Px VTE: 2500-5000 units SQ daily. Tx UA/NSTEMI: 120 units/kg (max 10000 units) Q12H
Which of the following is the most likely adverse effect from the use of heparin?
A. Leukopenia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Bleeding
D. Decreased cognitive function
E. Lupus like syndrome
C. The major side effect of heparin is bleeding.
Unfractionated Heparin (UFH): binds to antithrombin (AT) and inactivates thrombin (Factor IIa) and Factor Xa (as well as factors IXa, XIa, XIIa, and plasmin) and prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Px VTE: 5000 units SQ Q8-12H
Tx VTE: 80 units/kg IV bolus (max 5000 units) followed by 18 units/kg/hr (max 1000 units/hr) infusion (actual body weight)
Tx ACS/STEMI: 60 units/kg IV bolus (max 4000 units) followed by 12 units/kg/hr (max 1000 units/hr) infusion (actual body weight)
Boxed warning: some products contain benzyl alcohol as preservative, use is CI in neonates and infants. CI: uncontrolled active bleed, severe thrombocytopenia, ICH, history of HIT, hypersensitivity to pork products. Warning: do not give IM due to hematoma risk. SE: bleeding, thrombocytopenia, heparin induced thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, osteoporosis, pregnancy (C). Monitoring: heparin is monitored via the aPTT (6 hours after initiation, then every 6 hours until therapeutic range of 1.5-2.5 x patient’s baseline aPTT), platelet count, Hgb, Hct, bleeding, thrombocytopenia. Antidote: protamine (1mg will reverse 100units of heparin, max dose 50mg)
A 42 year-old female with a heart condition is presenting to the hospital with a DVT. The medical resident wishes to give her a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), but the older supervising physician insists on using heparin. What are advantages to the use of LMWHs over heparin? (Select ALL that apply.)
A. LMWHs are more efficacious than heparin in treating DVTs.
B. LMWHs are more cost effective than heparin.
C. LMWHs are easier to reverse in patients that experience significant bleeding.
D. LMWHs do not require monitoring in some patients.
E. LMWHs have a more consistent anticoagulation response.
B, D, E. Unlike heparin, LMWHs do not require monitoring in every patient. Anti-factor Xa levels can be monitored in select patients, but this is not necessary in most patients. LMWHs are more cost-effective than heparin.
Which of the following procedures can help reduce medication errors associated with heparin? (Select ALL that apply.)
A. Do not use the color of the syringe or packaging to verify the dose.
B. Provide inservices that review heparin safety, including the lower heparin flush concentrations to the higher treatment doses.
C. If possible, outsource the preparation of heparin flushes.
D. Make sure unit nurses prepare the heparin doses.
E. Have the pharmacist verify the heparin concentration for the patient’s indication.
A, B, C, E. Heparin as an anticoagulant comes in different strengths. To help avoid errors, heparin should not be stocked in unfamiliar concentrations. The concentration must be verified by the pharmacist prior to dispensing the dose. The color of the bag or syringe should not be used to verify the dose. Having the pharmacy prepare the flush syringes (rather than busy unit nurses) can help reduce errors. Buying prepared heparin syringes (outsourcing) is most preferable.
The pharmacist will counsel a patient on the correct self-administration technique for enoxaparin. Which of the following are correct counseling statements? (Select ALL that apply.)
A. This medication can cause you to bruise and/or bleed more easily.
B. Choose an area on the right or left side of your abdomen, but not within two inches from the belly button.
C. Do not expel the air bubble in the syringe prior to injection.
D. Store this medication in the refrigerator until just prior to each use.
E. It is best to rub the injection site after administration to ensure quick absorption.
A, B, C. Do not expel the air bubble in the syringe as it can cause the patient to get a subtherapeutic dose because some of the medicine will be lost (as long as the exact dose needed is the amount in the syringe). With some medications it is recommended to rub the site after injection, but not with drugs that can cause bleeding, such as this one.
Select the correct indication for dabigatran:
A. To provide anticoagulation in patients with acute coronary syndrome.
B. To reduce the risk of stroke and blood clots in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation.
C. To reduce the risk of stroke and blood clots in patients with ventricular tachycardia.
D. To provide anticoagulation in patients who had bleeding on heparin.
E. To reduce the risk of a secondary stroke in patients who have a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
B. Dabigatran is indicated to reduce the risk of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation, to treat DVT/PE, and to reduce risk of recurrence of DVT/PE.
Oral Direct Thrombin (IIa) Inhibitors: directly inhibits thrombin (Factor IIa).
dabigatran (Pradaxa): Prevents more stroke than warfarin and favored in CHEST guidelines. Boxed warning: patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia (epidural, spinal) or undergoing spinal puncture are at risk of hematomas and subsequent paralysis, premature discontinuation increases risk of thrombotic events. CI: major active bleeding, patients with mechanical heart valves. SE: dyspepsia, gastritis-like symptoms, bleeding (including more GI bleeding), pregnancy (C). No antidote. Take whole capsule with full glass of water without regards to food. Once open bottle, use within 4 months.
Non-valvular AFib: 150mg BID; 75mg BID if CrCl 15-30
Tx of VTE and reduction in risk of recurrence of VTE: 150mg BID when CrCl >30; no recommendations when CrCl <30
Switching from warfarin to dabigatran: start when INR <2
Swithcing from UFH/LMWH: start at end of UFH infusion or within 2 hours of next LMWH dose
Missed dose: take dose if >6 hours from next dose
HY is a 58 year-old male with atrial fibrillation. He has been using warfarin for over two years and is normally well-controlled. His cardiologist recently began amiodarone and citalopram therapy with no other medication adjustments. He is admitted to the emergency room with weakness and bleeding gums. The INR is obtained and is 9.5. His hemoglobin is 8.4 g/dL. His pants are stained with blood which is coming from his rectum. Choose the correct course of action:
A. Hold warfarin x 1 dose and administer phytonadione 1 to 2.5 mg orally.
B. Omit the next 1-2 doses, monitor frequently, and resume therapy when the INR is in the therapeutic range.
C. Hold warfarin and administer phytonadione 2 mg by SC injection.
D. Hold warfarin therapy and give vitamin K 10 mg by slow IV injection along with four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate.
E. Hold warfarin therapy and give vitamin K 10 mg by IM injection and fresh frozen plasma.
D. With major bleeding, vitamin K 10 mg should be given by slow IV injection along with four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate, which is preferred over fresh frozen plasma.
Treating Supratherapeutic INRs:
Antidote is vitamin K: PO or IV only.
INR above range, but <4.5 = reduce or skip dose of warfarin. resume when therapeutic (may need to reduce dose)
INR of 4.5-10, without bleeding = PO vitamin K only if high bleeding risk 1-2.5mg. resume warfarin at lower dose
INR >10, without bleeding = PO vitamin K 2.5-5mg. hold warfarin
Major bleeding from warfarin (any INR) = IV vitamin K 5-10mg AND four factor prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) due to less risks. hold warfarin therapy
HM is receiving a heparin drip. What is the name of the test used to monitor heparin for efficacy?
A. Potentiation factor
B. Factors IIa, VIIa, IXa and Xa test
C. Anti-XIa levels
D. International normalized ratio
E. The activated partial thromboplastin time
E. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor the effect of heparin. The aPTT is the time, in seconds, for plasma to clot. A normal aPTT is generally between 22-38 seconds. The therapeutic aPTT range is determined individually for each hospital or laboratory depending on the reagent.
Unfractionated Heparin (UFH): binds to antithrombin (AT) and inactivates thrombin (Factor IIa) and Factor Xa (as well as factors IXa, XIa, XIIa, and plasmin) and prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Px VTE: 5000 units SQ Q8-12H
Tx VTE: 80 units/kg IV bolus (max 5000 units) followed by 18 units/kg/hr (max 1000 units/hr) infusion (actual body weight)
Tx ACS/STEMI: 60 units/kg IV bolus (max 4000 units) followed by 12 units/kg/hr (max 1000 units/hr) infusion (actual body weight)
Boxed warning: some products contain benzyl alcohol as preservative, use is CI in neonates and infants. CI: uncontrolled active bleed, severe thrombocytopenia, ICH, history of HIT, hypersensitivity to pork products. Warning: do not give IM due to hematoma risk. SE: bleeding, thrombocytopenia, heparin induced thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, osteoporosis, pregnancy (C). Monitoring: heparin is monitored via the aPTT (6 hours after initiation, then every 6 hours until therapeutic range of 1.5-2.5 x patient’s baseline aPTT), platelet count, Hgb, Hct, bleeding, thrombocytopenia. Antidote: protamine (1mg will reverse 100units of heparin, max dose 50mg)
Low molecular weight heparins have a boxed warning concerning this risk:
A. Stevens Johnson syndrome
B. Spinal or epidural hematoma formation
C. Pancreatitis
D. Severe bleeding
E. Acute renal failure
B. The risk is highest if the patient receives neuraxial anesthesia or has a spinal puncture concurrently. These hematomas may result in long-term or permanent paralysis.
Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWHs): works similar to heparin except that the inhibition is much greater for Factor Xa than Factor IIa. Boxed warning: patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia (epidural, spinal) or undergoing spinal puncture are at risk of hematomas and subsequent paralysis. CI: history of HIT, active major bleed, hypersensitivity to pork. SE: bleeding, anemia, increase LFTs, thrombocytopenia, hyperkalemia, injection site reactions (bruising), pregnancy (B). Monitoring (Anti-Xa levels can be used to monitor, but not routine (obtain peak anti-Xa levels 4 hours post dose). Monitor in pregnancy, mechanical valves, morbidly obese, and renal impairment. No real antidote, but protamine can be used. Do not expel air bubble.
enoxaparin (Lovenox): use actual body weight for all. Px VTE (30mg SQ Q12H or 40mg SQdaily; CrCl <30, 30mgSQdaily)
Tx VTE and UA/NSTEMI: 1mg/kg SQ Q12H (or 1.5 mg/kg SC Qdaily for VTE inpatient treatment only; CrCl <30, 1mg/kg SQ daily)
Tx STEMI: For patients <75 y/o, 30mg IV bolus + 1mg/kg SQ dose, then 1 mg/kg SQ Q12H (max 100mg for first 2 doses only); if CrCl <30, 30mg IV bolus + 1mg/kg SQ dose, then 1mg/kg SQ daily. For patients ≥75 y/o, 0.75 mg/kg SQ Q12H (no bolus and max 75mg for first 2 doses only); if CrCl <30, give 1mg/kg SQ daily. For PCI: give 0.3mg/kg IV bolus if last dose was 8-12 hours before balloon inflation.
dalteparin (Fragmin): use actual body weight for all. Px VTE: 2500-5000 units SQ daily. Tx UA/NSTEMI: 120 units/kg (max 10000 units) Q12H
A 25 year-old female is receiving warfarin for a DVT. Her counseling should include the following:
A. Warfarin is safe in pregnancy (Pregnancy Category A)
B. Warfarin may be safe in pregnancy (Pregnancy Category B)
C. Warfarin may be unsafe in pregnancy (Pregnancy Category C)
D. Warfarin is unsafe in pregnancy but can be used if the benefits outweigh the risks (Pregnancy Category D)
E. Warfarin is unsafe in pregnancy and cannot be used (Pregnancy Category X)
E. Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy (Pregnancy Category X) unless the patient has a mechanical heart valve (Pregnancy Category D).
warfarin (Coumadin, Jantoven): competitively inhibits the C1 subunit of the multi-unit vitamin L epoxide reductase (VKORC1) enzyme complex, thereby reducing the regeneration of vitamin K epoxide and causing depletion of active clotting factors II, VII, IX and X and protein C/S. Boxed warning: may cause major or fatal bleeding. CI: hemorrhagic tendencies (cerebrovascular hemorrhage, bacterial endocarditis, pericarditis, pericardial effusions), blood dyscrasias, pregnancy (except with mechanical heart valves at high risk for thromboembolism), uncontrolled hypertension, non-compliance, recent or potential surgery of the eye or CNS, major regional lumbar block anesthesia or traumatic surgery resulting in large, open surfaces, (pre-)eclampsia, threatened abortion. SE: bleeding, skin necrosis, purple toe syndrome, pregnancy (X), pregnancy (D) for mechanical heart valve. Monitor: INR target 2.5, range is 2-3 for most (2.5-3.5 for mechanical mitral valve or 2 mechanical heart valves). Antidote is vitamin K. S-enantiomer is 2.7-3.8 times more potent than R-enantiomer.
A patient is being started on Pradaxa. Choose the correct statement regarding Pradaxa:
A. Once a bottle of Pradaxa is opened, the capsules must be used within 15 days.
B. Once a bottle of Pradaxa is opened, the capsules must be used within 60 days.
C. Once a bottle of Pradaxa is opened, the capsules must be used within 90 days.
D. Once a bottle of Pradaxa is opened, the capsules must be used within 120 days.
E. If Pradaxa capsules are transferred to an amber container, they are good up to 2 months.
D. The 60-count bottles of Pradaxa expire 4 months after opening the bottle.
Oral Direct Thrombin (IIa) Inhibitors: directly inhibits thrombin (Factor IIa).
dabigatran (Pradaxa): Prevents more stroke than warfarin and favored in CHEST guidelines. Boxed warning: patients receiving neuraxial anesthesia (epidural, spinal) or undergoing spinal puncture are at risk of hematomas and subsequent paralysis, premature discontinuation increases risk of thrombotic events. CI: major active bleeding, patients with mechanical heart valves. SE: dyspepsia, gastritis-like symptoms, bleeding (including more GI bleeding), pregnancy (C). No antidote. Take whole capsule with full glass of water without regards to food. Once open bottle, use within 4 months.
JK is a 62 year-old female with chronic urinary tract infections. Several times a year, she receives a prescription for Bactrim. The physician suggested she use the antibiotic daily, but she prefers not to because she feels that she is already using too many medications. JK comes to the pharmacy today with a prescription for warfarin. She tells the pharmacist that the heart doctor found her heart was “beating funny.” The pharmacist should emphasize the following counseling to JK: (Select ALLthat apply.)
A. If you get a UTI, the antibiotic Bactrim could make your warfarin level increase.
B. When taking the warfarin and Bactrim, separate the doses by 4 hours to decrease the risk of the drug interaction.
C. The drug interaction between warfarin and Bactrim for a UTI may lead to significant bleeding.
D. Warfarin can cause the Bactrim to be ineffective in treating the UTI.
E. Make sure to inform your health care providers that you are using warfarin so they can choose alternative medications that do not cause drug-drug interactions.
A, C, E. Bactrim can inhibit the metabolism of warfarin putting the patient at risk for bleeding. All providers treating JK should know she is taking warfarin to prevent drug-drug interactions.
Warfarin is a substrate of CYP 2C9. Avoid use with tamoxifen. 2C9 inducers: aprepitant, bosentan, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, rifampin (large decrease in INR), licorice, St. John’s Wort. 2C9 inhibitors: amiodarone (decrease warfarin dose by 30-50%), azole antifungals (fluconazole, ketoconazole, voriconazole), capecitabine, etravirine, fluvastatin, fluvoxamine, macrolide antibiotics, metronidazole, tigecycline, TMP/SMX, zafirlukast
A patient has developed a DVT and will be placed on dalteparin. What is the correct brand name for dalteparin?
A. Apixaban
B. Fragmin
C. Arixtra
D. Pradaxa
E. Angiomax
B. The brand name for dalteparin is Fragmin.
apixaban (Eliquis)
Arixtra (fondaparinux)
Pradaxa (dabigatran)
Angiomax (bivalirudin)