4.1 - 4.9 Flashcards

1
Q

is a document that lets the change administrators restore the network to the service level that was present before the change. Sometimes even the best plans can have unintended consequences on a network, or a planned upgrade might fail. When this happens, it is important to have an exact document that tells all the planned steps and logs the configuration codes necessary to get back to normal.

A

rollback/backout

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2
Q

is a document that lets the change administrators restore the network to the service level that was present before the change. Sometimes even the best plans can have unintended consequences on a network, or a planned upgrade might fail. When this happens, it is important to have an exact document that tells all the planned steps and logs the configuration codes necessary to get back to normal.

A

Rollback/ blackout plan

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3
Q

is used to evaluate a change in a safe and isolated environment that mirrors the production environment. It allows for the identification of potential issues and the validation of the change’s functionality and compatibility before deploying it to the production environment. It’s a proactive approach to catch problems before they impact the live system.

A

Sandbox testing

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4
Q

a crucial part of change management, but it outlines the steps to revert to the previous state in case of issues after implementation. It’s not primarily used to identify issues before implementation.

A

rollback/backout

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5
Q

One designated person generally coordinates changes with stakeholders throughout the organization. This person, called the change lead, can communicate planned changes to different departments so that they can check for possible impact or problems that could cause unintended consequences to other parts of the network or organization.

A

Responsible Staff Member

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6
Q

typically include terms and conditions that outline how the software or product can be used and what restrictions are placed on the end user. These restrictions may cover aspects like the number of installations, whether the software can be used for commercial purposes, limitations on modifying or reverse engineering the software, and more.

A

EULAs (End-User License Agreements)

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7
Q

When a Group Policy setting enforces the use of a specific SNTP (Simple Network Time Protocol) server, it can synchronize the ___ of the workstations. If there is a significant time difference between the workstations and the authentication server (e.g., domain controller), it can disrupt domain authentication.

A

SYSTEM CLOCK

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8
Q

To install a business application on a Windows 10 Enterprise 32-bit operating system, the technician should execute the file with the extension

A

.msi (Microsoft Installer).

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9
Q

In Ticketing System ,___-correct is important, of course, but so is gathering user information about where users work or how they are using the technology being supported. This information informs the support techncian on the nature of the problem.

A

Getting names

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10
Q

In Ticketing System ,Be specific about the device in question. Identifying a specific device or software that is not working will save valuable time if an onsite visit is necessary. The location, ID number, and name of a contact person all are helpful.

A

Device Information

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11
Q

In Ticketing System , Precise descriptions are essential. Saying that a device “is not working right” is not really helpful. “My network connection is uneven and drops every few minutes” does far more to isolate the problem and identify proper help.

A

Description of Problems

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12
Q

In Ticketing System , Provide a list of problem categories for users to choose from, with an Other option at the end. Most users are not aware of the categories or support specialties the support staff uses, so providing a list is helpful.
The following are examples of categories on a support ticket:
-User account support (password, login, and permissions support)
-Network/Internet access
-Slack or email
-Software support (listing names of supported software)

A

Categories

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13
Q

In Ticketing System , __helps the support team prioritize tickets so that the most critical
issues are supported first. Levels typically look similar to this listing,
including brief descriptions of the needed priority to help the client get the
proper support:
Urgent: Normal production work has stopped. This often impacts an entire office if an outage has occurred.
High: Some loss of capability to perform normal work tasks.
Average: Inconvenience to workers or customers, but the company is managing to get by at substandard levels.
Low: No impact on the ability to work, but maintenance could be required.

A

Severity

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14
Q

In Ticketing System , Depending on the size and scope of a support center, different levels (or tiers) of support are offered. Common problems that are fairly easy to resolve are assigned a low level; more complex problems that require special support skills and experience can be escalated to higher levels. The following are the three most common levels:
-Level 0: The customer/client can resolve the issue with online tools and documentation. An example is using a utility for password reset.
-Level 1: An agent has access to support software and support scripts (predefined steps to help users). An example is starting a script with “Is the machine plugged in and powered on?” and then moving to more technical details.
-Level 2 (or higher): Support staff employs specialized skills and usually more experience. Examples are software specialists and network specialists.

A

Escalation Levels

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15
Q

In Ticketing System , This involves getting examples and details on how the problem is manifesting itself to the user.

A

Problem description

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

In Ticketing System , Multiple people might be trying to resolve an issue, especially if a problem has been escalated. It is essential to make sure
everyone is working from the same information.

A

Progress notes

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18
Q

In Ticketing System , This is the hardest communication step. After working to resolve a problem and get the user back to work,
technicians often face pressure to move on to the next issue. However, complete documentation of the issue will help support staff recognize future issues with devices or identify areas where training is needed.

A

Problem resolution

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19
Q

contain a detailed history of all the hardware and software purchased for company use.

A

Inventory lists

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20
Q

A ____ tracks the assets in inventory. Depending on the size of the organization, this task can be managed with a small database, such as a simple spreadsheet, all the way to a specialized database, with staff assigned to track the assets for technical, budget, and tax purposes. The database should account for when assets were purchased, how and where they were used, and, eventually, how they were disposed of. The IT department usually must receive and document equipment with durable asset tags.

These tags are typically customized, including the name of the organization along with a barcode and serial number used to create an asset database. They are most often made of a metalized polyester that should last as long as the computer asset is expected to be in use. An asset tag allows the company to track who is assigned to the device and who is responsible for the equipment. This database is also used to track warranty information and repairs. Using a barcode scanner is the most convenient way to keep track of the equipment while it is in use in the company.

A

database system

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21
Q

The ————-describes a method for planning purchases and the expected life of technical assets bought for the company. This is generally done for larger purchases, such as servers, switches, and major software implementations, but not so much for consumables, such as cables and keyboards. The lifecycle can vary widely, depending on the asset.

A

procurement lifecycle

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22
Q

An ___ as it pertains to user safety and security procedures, is designed to keep a network safe from outside intruders. Acceptable use goes even further when it comes to computer best practices within a company. Each organization should define what it considers to be acceptable use of its computing resources within its network

A

acceptable use policy (AUP),

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23
Q

For example,
government networks generally are not available for private use, so private email might not be allowed on work computers. Inappropriate use of the
Web has been a problem in workplaces since the Internet became common in business.

A

acceptable use policy (AUP),

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24
Q

A __ is essentially a
map of a network that shows how equipment is physically arranged in the
building and logically connected as a network.

A

network topology diagram i

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25
Q

A __diagram also maps wireless access ports and wiring
closets.
The diagram might “zoom in” and depict a single room or floor.
Technicians can use a physical topology diagram to find a device they have
been called to service. Techs can also use the diagram to see what other
equipment, such as printers, security cameras, and switches, are in use and
where to find them. Alternatively, physical topologies might “zoom out”
and give the general design of a building, including wiring closets on floors
and the point-of-presence (PoP) for connectivity to the ISP. These cut sheets
should be posted in secure wiring closets but, for security reasons, not made
available to the general public.

A

physical topology

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26
Q

A__ diagram depicts a network’s design, including how computers are grouped together into local area networks (LANs). A logical diagram might include a basic map of wiring closets and general areas of the building, but instead of focusing on computers, this diagram pinpoints network IP addresses. This is beneficial because troubleshooting Internet connectivity is a major part of the IT workday; knowing which network the devices should be on saves time in troubleshooting.

A

logical topology

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27
Q

Most large organizations have a SOP manual, sometimes known as a policy or employee manual, to document the proper ways a company does business. These are often updated and become the subject of recurrent employee training.

A

Standard operating procedures (SOP)

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28
Q

Example of ____

Procedures to track licensing for software installations
Password policies
New user setup checklists
End user termination policies

A

Standard operating procedures (SOP)

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29
Q

When a rule or law has been broken, an incident report is necessary so that the company can track its legal responsibilities. This allows the company to plan for training and to comply with laws as necessary.

A

Incident reports:

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30
Q

These screens display logos or policies that “welcome” a user at startup or login. These might be accompanied by a checkbox requiring the acknowledgment of certain rules before the user can access the company resources.

A

Splash screens

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31
Q

is a collection of articles containing text, images, or video that give information about a network, product, or service.

A

KNowledge base

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32
Q

A _____is formally submitted using a change request process. A change request states what needs to be updated or changed but does not indicate how the change will be executed. A simple change request might require only preapproval from a manager. Complex changes, with higher impact and risks, are submitted to a change advisory board.

A

Purpose of change

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33
Q

is the process of identifying potential problems so there are no surprises or crisis situations once the change begins. For each potential problem identified, the team attempts to determine the likelihood it may occur, its impact, and what to do if it does occur.

A

Risk analysis

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34
Q

Departments that want to plan or implement changes in their part of a larger
network must submit a form, usually located in the standard operating
procedures manual, to the designated person responsible for changes to the
overall network. The form should require descriptions of the proposed
change, the costs (both technical and financial), and the benefits of the
change. The form can then be used as a basis for communication with other
stakeholders in the organization.

A

Request Forms

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35
Q

determined so that all affected users and managers do not suddenly lose the
capability to work when a change is implemented. Scoping a change means
creating a detailed plan itemizing processes and settings that will stay the
same after the change

A

Scope the Change

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36
Q

(for example, application settings needed to perform
core functions), hardware or software that will go away, and the changes
that have a mixed outcome (meaning some benefit, such as efficiency, but
also some drawbacks, such as layoffs of loyal employees).

A

Scope the Change

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37
Q

Be sure to announce the date and time of a change well in advance so that
others can plan as well. These plans usually call for changes to occur during
downtime at night, when the fewest users will be impacted, especially if a
system outage is expected.

A

Date and Time of the Change

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38
Q

A key purpose in managing change carefully is to avoid unintended
problems for various systems that are in place.

A

Affected Systems/Impact

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39
Q

For example, choosing the
time of a change is important; making a change at the same time a payroll
run is being processed could cause problems for not just payroll, but the
employees who are depending on timely paychecks. Thus, it is important to
identify all systems that will be affected by the changes and to mitigate the
impact to their tasks.

A

Affected Systems/Impact

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40
Q

Some level of risk is always present when making changes to a network. A
goal of change management is to identify the risks and mitigate them.
Examples of risks that IT managers plan for include delays, lower-thanexpected
quality, and use of more resources. When the risks are identified,
managers and planners can work to neutralize them.
A change manager might assign a risk level of high-, medium-, and lowrisk
categories and then manage the team resources according to the
potential impact on the organization.

A

Risk Analysis

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41
Q

is a
group gathered from areas of the organization that will be impacted by the
planned changes. The task of the change board is to analyze requests for
change (RFCs) and study the benefits and risks of implementing changes.
The change manager works under the authority of the change board and
gives approval for the manager to proceed with the necessary work to be
done. Members of the change board are usually leadership-level employees
who understand the impact that requested changes will have on the work in
their respective areas.

A

Change Board Approvals /change advisory board/ CAB

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42
Q

The end users of the network will be the final arbiters of success or failure
in the change migration. Those planning and implementing the change
should be informed, but because all users will have a role, they need to be
involved, too. Managers might need to schedule training time, and users
might have to accept and endure a learning curve. The more ownership they
can have in the process, the more likely the users will tolerate the hardship
of the process.

A

End User Acceptance / eua

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43
Q

backs up the entire contents of the computer or
selected drive to another local or network location. Because every file
is copied, this backup takes the longest and uses the most storage.

A

full backup

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44
Q

____: These backups record changed data since the last full
backup. These backups can be done often to ensure that data backups
are very current.

A ____ includes all data that has changed since the last
full backup, regardless of whether or when the last ____
was made, because this backup does not reset the archive bit, a file
attribute used to track incremental changes to files for the purpose of
the backup. An incremental backup includes all the data that has
changed since the last incremental backup. An incremental backup is
incomplete for full recovery without a valid full backup and all
incremental backups since the last full backup.

A

Differential Backup

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45
Q

These backups are similar to full backups, except that they are actually reconstructed in software from a full backup in the past
and then modified with the incremental backups that have occurred since the full backup. The benefit is reduced storage needs for backup
data.

A

Synthetic

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46
Q

These backups copy only data that has changed since
the last backup. If a full backup is performed every Saturday, then an
____ backup could be run each day of the week, recording one
day of activity each time. This way, backups are current but a full
backup does not have to run each day.

A

Incremental

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47
Q

For example, if the
server dies on Thursday, four tapes are needed: the full backup from
Friday and the incremental tapes from Monday, Tuesday, and
Wednesday. A full backup copies all selected files and resets the
archive bit.

A

Differential Backup

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48
Q

____ is important: The worst time to find out that your
scheduled backups are not working properly is when they are needed to
recover data. ____ ensures that the needed data is available when
a backup is necessary. It also enables IT staff to practice restoration so that
they have this skill in place when it is most needed.
Each organization must determine the necessary frequency of testing.
Testing not just data, but also infrastructure such as backup power supplies,
is a good plan.
In the days when tape backups were run, ____ was a timeconsuming
task. Thanks to cloud storage, network-attached storage (NAS)
solutions, and virtualization, the process is much easier today.

A

Backup testing

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49
Q

full backups (grandfather—perhaps a monthly backup stored redundantly offsite) can be combined with a weekly backup (father—also sent offsite) and a daily incremental backup (son). This scheme is popular because of the minimal use of time and storage for the smaller backups. Increased use of cloud storage simplifies the process of offsite storage so that storing all three backup types both onsite and offsite can be easily done.

A

grandfather-father-son (GFS)

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50
Q

(Layer 1) of OSI model

A

Physical Layer

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51
Q

is responsible for creating a reliable link between two directly connected nodes, ensuring that data is transmitted without errors. It is divided into two sublayers: Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

A

Data Link Layer

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52
Q

(Layer 2) of OSI model

A

Data Link Layer

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53
Q

(Layer 3): .of OSI model

A

Network Layer

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54
Q

(Layer 4):of OSI model

A

Transport Layer

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55
Q

(Layer 7): of OSI model

A

Application Layer

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56
Q

(Layer 6): of OSI model

A

Presentation Layer

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57
Q

(Layer 5): of OSI model

A

Session Layer

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58
Q

is responsible for routing packets of data from the source to the destination across multiple networks. It includes addressing, routing, and logical network topology

A

Network Layer

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59
Q

manages end-to-end communication between devices, ensuring data reliability, error detection, and flow control. It can use either TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) or UDP (User Datagram Protocol).

A

Transport Layer

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60
Q

manages and maintains communication sessions between applications running on different devices. It establishes, maintains, and terminates sessions, allowing applications to exchange data.

A

Session Layer

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61
Q

is responsible for data translation, encryption, compression, and formatting, ensuring that data sent by one device can be properly interpreted by another.

A

Presentation Layer

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62
Q

is the topmost layer and is closest to the end-user. It provides network services directly to user applications, including protocols for email, file transfer, remote access, and more.

A

Application Layer

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63
Q

This layer deals with the physical aspects of transmitting data, such as cables, connectors, and the actual transmission of electrical or optical signals over the network medium.

A

Physical Layer

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64
Q

The 【 】contains information about service load failures, hardware conflicts, driver load
failures, and more. The file (system.evtx) is stored in the %System Root%\System32\Winevt\Logs\ folder and can
be opened using the Event Viewer. The event viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including
errors, information messages, and warnings. It’s a useful tool for troubleshooting all kinds of different Windows
problems.

A

system log

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65
Q

The【 】contains information regarding application errors. The file (application.evtx) is
stored in the %System Root%\System32\Winevt\Logs\ folder and can be opened using the Event Viewer. The
setup log contains a record of the events generated during the Windows installation or upgrade process. The file (setup.evtx) is stored in the %System Root%\System32\Winevt\Logs\ folder and can be opened using the Event Viewer.

A

application log

66
Q

The[ ]contains information regarding audit data and security on a system.

A

security log

67
Q

For example, the ____contains a list of every successful and failed login attempt. The file (security.evtx) is stored in the %System Root%\System32\Winevt\Logs\ folder and can be opened using the Event Viewer.

A

security log

68
Q

The __is focused on events and messages generated by applications and software running on the system.

It includes information about application crashes, software installations, application-specific errors, and other software-related events.

When applications like Microsoft Office, web browsers, or third-party software encounter issues or errors, they often generate events in the [ ].

It’s useful for troubleshooting software-related problems and monitoring the behavior of specific applications.

A

Application log

69
Q

With out the server IP address, you never going to get VPN work
1) Give it a name
2) Setup VPN
3) Know the server ip address

  • They (Client Company) are not going to user a built in VPN client that comes with your phone. Instead , they are going to install their own VPN client.
A

VPN

70
Q

Be sure to properly ____. Nickel-cadmium (Ni-Cad), nickelmetal hydride (NiMH), and lithium-ion (Li-Ion) batteries for cellphones, computers, and other electronics should not be discarded as trash; neither should lead-acid cells used in UPS battery backup units. If these items are not recycled properly, they will become toxic waste.

A

dispose of batteries

71
Q

For small numbers of rechargeable batteries or devices that contain
rechargeable batteries, use a recycling drop-off station (such as a dropoff station at an electronics retailer).

A
72
Q

During storage and transport, make sure battery contacts are prevented from touching each other. Check and follow regulations regarding the shipment of Li-Ion batteries, which pose a potentially high fire and explosion hazard in some environments.

A

dispose of batteries

73
Q

For large numbers of rechargeable batteries, devices, or UPS devices
with batteries, contact an electronics recycler in your area.

A

dispose of batteries

74
Q

Some batteries can be returned directly to the manufacturer for recycling.

A

dispose of batteries

75
Q

A () is a document that gives information about particular substances, such as the toner in a laser printer’s toner cartridge. Any product that uses chemicals is required to have an ____ .

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

76
Q

The term MSDS was updated to______

A

SDS (Safety Data Sheet).

77
Q

Proper treatment if a person comes into contact with or ingests the substance
How to deal with spills

How to properly handle and dispose of the substance

How and where to store the substance

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

78
Q

Toner bottles and cartridges for laser printers and copiers should be recycled instead of discarded. Unlike with batteries, users can earn money or credits toward additional purchases by recycling toner bottles and cartridge products at local office supply stores or toner recycling shops.

Although inkjet cartridges are not recognized as toxic waste, they also should not be discarded; they can be turned in for credit at office supply stores or inkjet cartridge remanufacturers. Some manufacturers include a prepaid label in the box containing the ink, for easy returns.

After removing the old toner cartridge, use a specially designed toner vacuum to remove loose toner from inside the printer before inserting the
new cartridge.

A
  • Proper toner disposal
79
Q

As mentioned previously, batteries for cellphones and tablets should be
recycled. But before you dispose of these devices, be sure that any personal
or company data is safely deleted and the SIM card is removed. Data to
check for includes contacts, messages, downloads, pictures, and voicemails.
Browser data should be cleared as well.

A

Proper disposal of other devices and asset

80
Q

Remember that a higher humidity level means a lower chance of ESD, but conditions might get a bit uncomfortable for workers;

High humidity promotes condensation

A

Humidity level

81
Q

Low humidity means there is less moisture in the air. Moisture in the air helps dissipate static charges because water molecules are conductive. When the air is dry, there is less moisture available to help dissipate static charges, making it easier for static electricity to build up on surfaces and objects.

Low humidity promotes static discharge

A

Humidity level

82
Q

Never put equipment inside of a closet that’s not ventilated and close the door .
This will cause these device to get very hot very quickly and overheated. It will possibly cause damages to those electronic components.

A

Proper Ventilation

83
Q

A PC workbench can be equipped with a compressed air system and vacuum system. This way, the PC tech can blow out the dust and dirt from a computer while, at the same time, vacuuming it. Otherwise, the best approach is generally to take the computer outside when cleaning it.

A

Compressed Air and Vacuum Systems

84
Q

are designed to prevent connected electronic devices from damage caused by high voltage spikes or surges. These voltage spikes can occur due to various factors such as lightning strikes, power grid fluctuations, or electrical interference.

A

Surge suppressors /surge protectors,

85
Q

to block power surges from damaging the
equipment plugged into it.

A

Surge Suppressors

86
Q

Power failures (total loss of power) and under-voltage events (sustained voltage drops of as much as half the rated output) stop computers and peripherals from working. Unfortunately, if computers and peripherals lose power in the middle of backups, updates, or reports, files can be corrupted. The solution is to use a battery backup______.

A

uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

87
Q

An ____strap is designed to equalize the electric potential of the user and the device the strap is clipped to, such as the interior of a computer. Equalizing the electric potential prevents ____because ____is the movement of electricity between two objects with different electric potential.

An ____strap has two pieces:
An elastic or hook-and-loop strap with a built-in metal snap backed by a metal plate.

A coiled flexible cable with a matching snap at one end and an alligator clip at the other end. The snap contains a 1-megohm resistor, which can help prevent injury in case of electrical discharge.

A

ESD

88
Q

An ____ can be connected to a device being repaired using one of the following methods:

A cable with an alligator clip

A cable with a loop designed to be held in place by a case screw, but with the cable snapped to the mat instead of to your wrist

A

ESD mats

89
Q

In some instances, it might be necessary to work on equipment without any ESD protection. In such cases, ___ is a way to protect the equipment being worked on.

____involves touching a nearby metal component before touching the device being serviced. Before opening a computer, you can ___by touching an unpainted portion of the case with both hands before you install or uninstall a component. Do this every time before you touch a component. If no other antistatic options are available, this technique can be used as a last resort.

A

self-grounding

90
Q

Remember to keep the computer __while working inside it. Disconnect the power or turn off the computer using the power switch (if there is one) before you work on the system. You might not know whether the AC outlet is wired properly. By simply disconnecting the power, you eliminate any chance of a shock.

A

unplugged

91
Q

During the building, upgrading, repairing, or teardown of electronic and computer equipment, many potential opportunities arise for equipment to be damaged or destroyed by ______ .
___is the silent enemy of computer equipment. ___might be too low for humans to detect, but it is still strong enough to damage electronic components. The human body constantly builds up static electricity—even when sitting at a desk.

A

electrostatic discharge (ESD)

92
Q

When removing a component from a computer, immediately place it in an ___ and put it off to the side. Parts should never be lying around outside an ___. Normal bubble wrap bags do not constitute antistatic protection, so be sure to use proper ___. Some bubble wrap is antistatic and is labeled as such.

A

Antistatic Bags

93
Q

is a necessary part of legal and safe electronics and technology work. Check with your local municipality for recommended electronics recycling locations that comply with an ISO 14001 certification. Follow regulations for ventilation and other workplace issues as well.

A

Compliance with local government regulations

93
Q

of all kinds (rings, necklaces, earrings, and so on) before working on a computer. Do not allow jewelry to come into contact with any components.

A

Remove Jewlery

93
Q

Electricity is a hazard to both computers and humans. Cautiously approach any encounter with electricity. Always be sure to disconnect power before repairing a PC.

A

Disconnect Power First

93
Q

Use____ to avoid injury. When lifting a large or heavy item, stand close to the item, squat down to the item by bending the knees, grasp the item firmly, keep the back straight, and slowly lift with the legs, not the back. Be sure not to twist the body, and keep the item close to the body, to help prevent back injuries. When moving items, it is best to have them stored at waist level so that minimal lifting is necessary. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) has plenty of guidelines and recommendations for physical safety at the workplace

A

safe lifting techniques

93
Q

Know your ____, to avoid injury. Incorrectly lifting heavy
items can cause many types of injuries. As a general rule, if an item is
heavier than one-quarter of your body weight, you should ask someone else
to help. Approach a box and move it slightly, to gauge whether help is
needed to move it safely. Lifting is among the most common causes of
worker injuries.

A

weight limitations

93
Q

confirm that changes was successful

A

End User Acceptance

94
Q

If equipment needs to be protected more, an ____extinguisher should be used

A

ABC Halotron

95
Q

Server rooms and data centers often are protected by a larger special hazard protection system that uses the __ clean agent system. This clean agent does not cause damage to servers and other expensive equipment and is also safe for human

A

FM-200

96
Q

Wear__ when performing computer repairs, cleaning, or upgrades, to avoid eye injuries from dust, dirt, flyaway screws or bolts,
solder, or other threats.The U.S. standard for protective work eyewear is ANSI Z87.1-2010. Eye protectors that meet this standard can be rated for
nonimpact or impact (Z87+) applications, so choose according to the risks involved in your specific application.

A

safety goggles

97
Q

If a job being performed requires metal machining, buffing, sanding, soldering, waste processing, recycling, or painting as part or all of your technology-related work, an air filter mask might be required for safety.

The U.S. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
standards for particulate filtering respirators include the following filter
series:
N: Not resistant to oil
R: Resistant to oil
P: Oil proof

A

Air Filter Mask

98
Q

If preserving evidence is required, one way of doing this is to set up a ____, the chronological documentation or paper trail of evidence. It
should be initiated at the start of any investigation and should include tracking the evidence/documenting process; identifying who had custody of
the evidence, all the way up to litigation (if necessary); and verifying that the evidence has not been modified or tampered with.

A

chain of custody

99
Q

Documenting everything that is found and anything that happens after the initial report is essential. If the organization does not have set reporting formats, then writing down the details and taking pictures is appropriate. Any and all information should be available to the supervisor. If the first responder is able to fix the problem and no other specialists are required, the ____ process can continue through to the completion of the task (and beyond, while monitoring the system). ____ should include any processes, procedures, and user training that might be necessary to avoid a similar incident in the futur

A

documentation

100
Q

For example, if a person has prohibited content on a computer, this can be considered an incident. As part of ____, the incident should be escalated to the violator’s supervisor, with reporting on exactly what was found. Copyrighted information, malware, inappropriate content, and stolen information can all be considered prohibited.

A

first response

101
Q

After identifying the problem, the incident must be reported through ____. Reporting through ____ might include law enforcement if the incident involves fraud or the security of private customer information. Then steps must be taken to ensure data/device preservation. This often means making a backup of the computer’s image using special software to ensure data integrity and preservation. However, depending on the organization’s policies, a better approach could be to leave everything as is and wait for a computer forensics expert or a security analyst. It is important to preserve the scene so that a specialist can collect evidence.

A

proper channels.

102
Q

is the general term for software or service mechanisms that limit the end user’s rights to copy, transfer, or use
software or digital media.

A

Digital rights management (DRM)

103
Q

Restrictions on digital music playback when the music has been burned to an audio CD, such as with Apple Music.

Limits on the number of systems that can use an application at the same time, such as Adobe Creative Cloud or Microsoft Office 365

A

Digital rights management (DRM)

104
Q

An restricts how an app can be used and what transfer rights are available. If an app was preinstalled on a system, its licensing might not allow the app to be moved to another system. Be sure to check the ____ for a particular app or for an operating system with bundled apps to determine what can legally be done with the operating system and apps when the original computer is withdrawn from service or upgraded to a new operating system.

A

end-user license agreement (EULA)

105
Q

Open-source software can be used for commercial purposes and can even be sold. However, __ require the sellers of open source software to not limit the rights of purchasers to use, change, or share the software.

A

open-source licenses

106
Q

are software licenses provided for computers purchased at retail or online stores and downloaded or packaged apps designed for use by individuals. Essentially, these licenses limit the use of the software to one or a very small number of computers in the same household (for example, antivirus utilities designed for up to five Windows, macOS, or mobile devices).

A

Personal use licenses

107
Q

Software covered by ____ licenses includes management and security features designed for the ____.
Software covered by ____ licenses have much different rules for software upgrades than personal-licensed software.
Software covered by ____ licenses can be licensed per seat, per device, per processor, or in other ways.

A

enterprise

108
Q

Some __software licenses, such as for Microsoft Office Home and Student, are specifically restricted from being used in business.

A

Personal use licenses

109
Q

A __license means that the user has agreed to the software developer’s terms of use. This is also known as__ licensing. These terms can include a recurring payment agreement based on time or the number of users. The agreement should also detail how software will become unusable if the subscription is not renewed.

A

valid / subscription-based

110
Q

An alternative to subscription licensing is a___license, also known as a perpetual license. This simple license grants the user ongoing
permission to an application, with no expiration

A

non-expiring

111
Q

such as a person’s name, address, driver’s license number, credit card numbers, and social security number

A

PII: Personally identifiable information,

112
Q

standards that are in place to protect credit cardholders’ data, including card numbers and address and credit information

A

PCI: Payment Card Industry

113
Q

enacted in Europe to protect several types of data, including health, biometrics, genetics, and criminal history

A

GDPR: General Data Protection Regulation,

114
Q

which covers health status as well as payment methods, account numbers, and beneficiaries

A

PHI: Protected health information (a part of the HIPAA law),

115
Q

Configuring systems to use__instead of locally stored sensitive information on laptops and mobile devices

A

secure cloud storage

116
Q

Configuring and using strong __ on wireless networks and point-of-sale (POS) systems

A

encryption

117
Q

Using full-disk encryption such as __, ___, or similar products on laptops and mobile devices that store or access sensitive data

A

BitLocker/BitLocker to GO

118
Q

Configuring hardware and software firewalls to protect __data

A

sensitive

119
Q

___on methods to remove personally identifiable information from documents, photos, and other files that might be shared or posted online

A

Educating users

120
Q

in 3 - 2- 1 backup rule

__ copies of data should always be available
– One primary copy and two backups

A

3

121
Q

in 3 - 2- 1 backup rule

__ different types of media should be used
– Local drive, tape backup, NAS

A

2

122
Q

in 3 - 2- 1 backup rule

  • 1 copy of the backup should be offsite
    – Offsite storage, cloud backup
A

1

123
Q

JavaScript is a programming language that
has many uses today. It is valuable for
creating scripts because it can be run on any operating system. It is usually written into web pages to create client interactions; JavaScript is read by the browser. Creating and running command-line JavaScript requires installing Node.js.

What is the extension for JavaScript file?

A

.Js

124
Q

Python is often a good choice for those beginning to learn programming. It is relatively easy to learn, and Python scripts can run on most operating systems. For example, Windows Shell is known as Python Interactive Shell.

What is the extension for PYTHON file?

A

.py

125
Q

A shell script is a text file that contains a sequence of commands for a Linux- or UNIXbased system. Shell scripts might not run correctly on a Windows system. Linux has had several shells; BASH (Bourne-Again Shell) is the most common of them.

What is the extension for Shell file?

A

.sh

126
Q

VBScript, a scripting language developed by Microsoft, is considered a subset of the Visual Basic programming language. It was designed specifically for use with Microsoft Internet Explorer. It gives web pages a level of interactivity.

What is the extension for VBScript?

A

.VBS

127
Q

Windows PowerShell is a tool to help technicians and network administrators automate support functions through the use of scripts and snippets. Windows 10 and 11 ship with PowerShell.

What is the extension for PowerShell file?

A

.ps1

128
Q

Batch files are script files that are strictly Windows based. They are text files that contain commands or instructions for the command-line interpreter to execute. The instructions in a batch file can be interpreted only by the Windows operating system.

What is the extension for Batch files?

A

.bat

129
Q

For an electrical fire, it’s best to use _, _, or other dry chemicals to extinguish any flames.

A

FM-200/carbon dioxide

130
Q

Using installation scripts when setting up new workstations

A

Performing basic automation

131
Q

Saves time inputting commands on individual machines

  • Automate tasks
    – You don’t have to be there
    – Solve problems in your sleep
    – Monitor and resolve problems before they happen
  • The need for speed
    – The script is as fast as the computer
    – No typing or delays
    – No human error
  • Automate mundane tasks
    – You can do something more creative
A

Performing basic automation

132
Q

Installing updates or patches

A

Restarting machines

133
Q

Reboots without human input

  • Turning it off and back on again
    – An important task
  • Application updates
    – Some apps require a system restart
  • Security patches
    – Deploy overnight and reboot the system
  • Troubleshooting
    – The once-a-day restart
    – You may not have physical access
A

Restarting machines

134
Q

Easing the process of system upgrades

A

Remapping network drives

135
Q
  • Shared network drives
    – The link between the user and their data
  • A common task during startup
    – Login scripts provide the connection
  • Automate software changes
    – Map a drive to the repository
  • Add or move user data
    – Automate the process

Redirects resources on workstations

A

Remapping network drives

136
Q

Runs a script with license keys and permissions

A

Installing applications

137
Q

Allowing simultaneous installations on workstations

Install applications automatically
– Don’t walk a flash drive to every computer
– Many applications have an automated

installation process
– Scripting can turn this into a hands-off process
* On-demand or automatic installation scripts
– Map the application installation drive
– Install the application without user prompts
– Disconnect the drive
– Restart the system

A

Installing applications

138
Q

Backing up several machines with one script

  • Usually performed at night or during off-hours
    – Get a copy of all important data
  • Time consuming
    – File systems, network connections
  • Script an automated backup process
    – Works while you sleep
    – Don’t have to think about it
A

Automating backups

139
Q

Implements scheduled backups

A

Automating backups

140
Q

Logs resource use or user logins

A

Gathering information / data

141
Q

Monitoring resources for network planning

  • Get specific information from a remote device
    – Monitoring and reporting
  • Performance monitoring
    – Confirm proper operation of a device
  • Inventory management
    – Check the hardware or software configuration
  • Security and vulnerability checks
    – Check for certain application or library versions
    – Plan for the latest patches
A

Gathering information / data

142
Q

Ensures security with scheduled updates and patches

A

Initiating updates

143
Q

Scheduling checks for security patches

  • Nothing ever stays the same
    – Constant changes and updates
  • Operating systems
    – New features
    – Security patches
  • Device drivers
    – Bug fixes
    – New hardware or OS support
  • Applications
    – New version rollouts
A

Initiating updates

144
Q

Make sure you know what you’re installing

This can be done by not checking imported scripts with security software.

A

Unintentionally introducing malware:

145
Q

– Test all updates
– Track the file and registry changes

Remember that computers do not question what they are told to do. If bad scripting instructions change security or other system settings, that could open the door to disaster.

A

Inadvertently changing system settings:

146
Q

Sometimes a poorly written script can instruct the computer to run a task that is beyond the power of a machine to handle. If the CPU is busy running a loop in a bad script, it does not have resources for other important tasks. Again, sandboxing should help prevent these types of errors.

A

Browser or system crashing due to mishandling of resources:

147
Q

Port 3389

A

RDP

148
Q

– Mishandling of resources
– A single character in a script can have unintended consequences
– Always have a backup
– Always test before deployment

A

Browser or system crashing due to mishandling of resources:

149
Q

Clients for Mac OS, Linux, and others as well

A

RDP (Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol)

150
Q

was developed by Microsoft to allow a user to securely connect to a remote computer in order to perform services or support another user. The protocol allows for encrypted access with screen capture, mouse, and keyboard functions. Common tasks with the remote connections are support and management of remote computers. ____ is based on a client/server model. The user is the client, and the remote Windows computer enables the ____ server. The remote computer serves a graphic capture of the screen to the support tech. The support tech can manipulate the mouse and keyboard of the remote computer as well. If a remote worker needs tech support, the technician can then instruct the worker to enable the ____ server (if it isn’t already enabled) and remotely see what is going on. This can greatly reduce the cost of tech services in a company.

A

RDP (Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol)

151
Q

Windows 10 ____ App is the most current tool for connecting a computer running Windows 10 Pro to another computer or device (iOS, Android, or Windows) that is also running the Remote Desktop App. The client device must enable the ____. To enable it in Windows 10, go to Settings > System and choose ____ to toggle the enable setting. On iOS or Android, open the ____ and select the desired PC for the connection.

A

RDP (Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol)

152
Q

is common in desktop support. It allows a support agent to remotely control mouse and keyboard inputs to a client’s computer.

A

Virtual network computing (VNC)

153
Q

– Remote Frame Buffer (RFB) protocol
– Clients for many operating systems
– Many are open source

A

Virtual network computing (VNC)

154
Q

A____can help to even out voltage spikes in an electrical system. It’s common to use a surge suppressor at each workstation to limit the effect of these voltage spikes.

A

surge suppressor

155
Q

The resources associated with a USB (Universal Serial Bus) interface can vary based on the interface type and USB controller version. If these resources are exceeded on a USB controller, the system will display a message explaining the __

A

lack of resources

156
Q

is a technique where one device pretends to be another device. Trying every possible password option would not be associated with a spoofing attack.

A

Spoofing

157
Q

useful for testing in a minimal operating system environment, but it doesn’t provide any additional method of viewing application crash event logs.

A

Safe Mode