4050 Portfolio Management Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

1902 - Charles Dow suggests ___________________________.

A

using stock prices to forecast business conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1922 - William Hamilton extend’s Dow’s theory and suggests that ______________________.

A

stock prices can be used to forecast the stock market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1932 Robert Rhea extended Dow’s theory and suggests that ____________.

A

Stock prices can be used to forecast stock prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Essay: Explain the evolution of technical analysis using dates, names and suggestions.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does Dow Theory state?

A

There are three types of movements present in the market
- Major or primary trends
- Intermediate or secondary trends
- Minor or short run trends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long does a major or primary trend last under Dow Theory?

A

May last several years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long does an intermediate or secondary trend last under Dow Theory?

A

May last several months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long does a minor or short run trend last under Dow Theory?

A

May last several weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Essay: Explain what Dow Theory states and the types of trends observed under it.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a support level according to Dow Theorists?

A

The support level is the price level that investors will begin to buy the stock creating a surge in demand and a rise in price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a resistance level according to Dow Theorists?

A

The resistance level is the price level that investors will begin to sell the stock creating a surge in supply and a fall in price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the near term, where do Dow Theorists expect the price of a stock to stay?

A

Between the support level and resistance level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Essay: Explain support and resistance levels in words.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Essay: Explain support and resistance levels using an illustration.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an up trendline?

A

An up trendline is a line drawn up and to the right connecting successive rising market bottoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a down trendline?

A

A down trendline is a line drawn down and to the right connecting successive falling market peaks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is required to draw a trendline versus validate or test a trendline?

A

A third point is necessary to validate or test a trendline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Draw an example of an up trendline.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drawn an example of a down trendline.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Essay Question:
A) Explain what an up or down trendline is.
B) What is necessary to draw versus validate or test a trendline?
C) Explain trendline testing, validation and violation
D) Explain channel lines
E) What happens when a channel line is violated?
F) Illustrate an up and down trendline include labels of
- Direction
- Support / Resistance
- Test, Validation, Violation

A

A) An up trendline is a line drawn up and to the right connecting successive rising market bottoms.

A down trendline is a line drawn down and to the right connecting successive falling market peaks.

B) While it may take two points to draw a trendline, a third point is necessary to validate or test a trendline.

C)
Everytime a trend line is touched it is said to be”tested.”

If it is touched and it bounces off it is said to be “validated.” The more times a trendline is tested and validated, the more significant it becomes.

If the trendline is touched and goes through it is said to be “violated. Once a trendline is violated it is redrawn with new peaks or troughs.

D) Channel lines are drawn parallel to trendlines but away from the price action. If the market was trending up,the channel line would be drawn above the up trendline, and represents the resistance level. If the market was trending down, the channel line would be drawn below the down trendline, and represent the support level.

D) If a channel line is violated, the chartist has the option of moving the channel line further away from the trendline, or redrawing both the trendline and channel line once two new peaks or troughs have been established.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does it mean for a trendline to be tested?

A

Every time a trendline is touched it is said to be “tested”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If a trendline is touched and it bounces off it is said to be _________.

A

validated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The more times a trendline is tested and validated, the more _____________.

A

significant it becomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a trendline is touched and goes through it it is said to be _________.

A

Violated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Once a trendline is violated it is ______________

A

redrawn with new peaks and troughs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Channel lines are drawn _________ to trendlines but away from the ___________.

A

Parallel, price action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If the market was trending up, the channel line would be drawn _________ the up trendline, and represent the ________ level.

A

above, resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If the market was trending down, the channel line would be drawn _________ the down trendline, and represent the ________ level.

A

below, support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What happens when a channel line is violated?

A

Chartist can either:
- Redraw channel line further from the trendline
- Redrawn both channel and trendline when new peaks or troughs are established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Reversal patterns let you know when the stock market has ___________.

A

Changed directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The best known reversal pattern is the _____________

A

head and shoulders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does a head and shoulders pattern consist of?

A

A left shoulder, head and right shoulder
Creating a “neckline”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

For a head and shoulders pattern, if the right shoulder falls below the neckline, the market is expected to move from an _____ market to a _______ market

A

up , down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

For a head and shoulders pattern, if the right shoulder rises above the neckline, the market is expected to move from a _____ market to a _______ market

A

down, up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

There are many reversal patterns, they are all __________.

A

equally bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the nature of technical analysis?

A

“Trend is my friend”, not designed to pick changes in trend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Even the most well known market pundits typically get only __________ predicted changes in trend correct.

A

2 out of 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Draw an illustration of an up to down market head and shoulders pattern.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Draw an illustration of a down to up market head and shoulders pattern.

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Essay:
A) What does a head and shoulders pattern consist of?
B) Discuss movements in a head and shoulders pattern and their meaning.
C) Draw an illustration of an up to market head and shoulders pattern.
Draw an illustration of a down to market head and shoulders pattern.
Include labels of:
- Direction
- Neckline
- Head, Right/Left Shoulders
- Reversal signal

A

A)
A left shoulder, head and right shoulder
Creating a “neckline”
B)
For a head and shoulders pattern, if the right shoulder falls below the neckline, the market is expected to move from an up market to a down market
For a head and shoulders pattern, if the right shoulder rises above the neckline, the market is expected to move from a down market to a up market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

For trend analysis, we use the _____________ of past stock prices as an indicator of the trend.

A

moving average

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you calculate moving average?

A

(200 is N)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 ways signals can be generated in trend analysis using moving average?

A
  • Compare the daily closing price to a moving average
  • Compare 2 or more moving averages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The ______ the moving average the more sensitive it will be to price changes

A

shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Illustrate a trend analysis chart using moving daily closing price compared to moving average.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Illustrate a trend analysis chart using moving daily closing price comparing 2 moving averages.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a bollinger band?

A
  • Derived from moving average
  • Upper and lower band +/- standard deviation around the moving average
  • Upper band denotes resistance, lower ban denotes support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When analyzing bollinger bands, a closing price that starts at the top band and crossed through the moving average is considered a _________.

A

Sell signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When analyzing bollinger bands, a closing price that starts at the bottom band and crosses through the moving average is considered a _________.

A

Buy signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When analyzing bollinger bands, sharp price changes tend to occur after the _____________ , _____________.

A

bands tighten, after volatility lessens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When prices move outside the bollinger bands, a ____________ of the current trend is implied.

A

continuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Essay:
A) What is a bollinger band?
B) What are the signals of a bollinger band and what do they suggest?

A

A)
- Derived from moving average
- Upper and lower band +/- standard deviation around the moving average
- Upper band denotes resistance, lower band denotes support
B)
When analyzing bollinger bands, a closing price that starts at the top band and crossed through the moving average is considered a sell signal.
When analyzing bollinger bands, a closing price that starts at the bottom band and crosses through the moving average is considered a buy signal.
When prices move outside the bollinger bands, a continuation of the current trend is implied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does the relative strength approach suggests about security prices in different markets?

A
  • The prices of some securities rise faster in a bull market, or decline more slowly in a bear market than other securities.
  • Said to have relative strength
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Technicians believe that a security that has exhibited relative strength in the past will ________________

A

exhibit relative strength in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is relative strength measured in our case?

A

Price - Industry Average
Price - Market Average
Industry Average - Market Average

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Find the relative strength of:

Price - Industry Average
Price - Market Average
Industry Average - Market Average

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How do you calculate a confidence index and what is it used for?

A

Measures investor confidence by comparing the respective average yields of high-quality bonds to lower quality bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does breadth of market mean in technical analysis?

A

The relation between the number of shares advancing in price relative to the number of shares declining in price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the 2 measures for breadth of market?

A

Haurlan Intermediate Index
Arms Index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In terms of breadth of market, explain the Haurlan Intermediate Index

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In terms of breadth of market, explain the Arms Index

A
  • Flat Market:
    A = D
    Vol A = Vol D
    Arms Index = 1
  • Bullish Market:
    Vol A > Vol D
    Arms Index < 1
  • Bearish Market
    Vole A < Vold D
    Arms Index > 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Why are options and futures contracts often referred to as derivatives?

A

Because their value is derived from the price action of an underlying primary security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is another term for a derivative?

A

Contingent claims,
Because their payoff is contingent on the price movement of a primary security

64
Q

A call option gives you the right to _____ a security at a specific ________ by a specific _________.

A

buy, price, date

65
Q

A put gives you the right to _____ a security at a specific ________ by a specific _________.

A

sell, price, date

66
Q

To the option buyer, an option is a ________, to the option seller an option is a _________.

A

right, potential obligation

67
Q

How is an option differentiated from a futures contract?

A

To the option buyer, an option is a right, to the option seller an option is a potential obligation.

A futures contract is an obligation to both.

68
Q

Only _______ options have intrinsic value.

A

in the money

69
Q

All options have ___________ value.

A

Speculative value

70
Q

How do you calculate the intrinsic value of a call or a put?

A
71
Q

Illustrate a bought call option position using a chart.

A
72
Q

Illustrate a sold call option position using a chart

A
73
Q

Illustrate a bought put option position using a chart.

A
74
Q

Illustrate a sold put option position using a chart.

A
75
Q

Illustrate the effect of intrinsic value decay as a long call moves towards expiration using a chart.

A
76
Q

Illustrate a primary long position using a chart.

A
77
Q
  • What is a synthetic long position?
  • What are the advantages of a synthetic long?
  • Illustrate a synthetic long position using a chart
A
78
Q

Illustrate a primary short position using a chart.

A
79
Q
  • What is a synthetic short position?
  • What are the advantages and disadvantages of a synthetic short?
  • Illustrate a synthetic short position using a chart
A
80
Q

What is a straddle position in options?

A
  • Purchasing an equal number of puts and calls, same exercise price and expiration.
  • Exercise price is the same at the market price
81
Q

Illustrate a long straddle position using a chart.

A
82
Q

Illustrate a short straddle position using a chart.

A
83
Q

What is a strangle position in options?

A
  • Purchasing an equal number of puts and calls, same expiration.
  • Exercise prices away from the market price.
84
Q

Illustrate a long strangle position using a chart.

A
85
Q

Illustrate a short strangle position using a chart.

A
86
Q

What is a bull spread in options?

A

Buying a call at a certain exercise price, and selling a similar call with a higher exercise price, both same expiration.

87
Q

Illustrate a bull spread position using a chart.

A
88
Q

What is a bear spread in options?

A

Selling a call at a certain exercise price, and buying a similar call with a higher exercise price, both same expiration.

89
Q

Illustrate a bear spread position using a chart.

A
90
Q

What is a short butterfly spread in options?

A

Selling a call at a low exercise price, buy two calls at a middle
exercise price, and sell a call at a high exercise price, same expiration

91
Q

Illustrate a short butterfly spread position using a chart.

A
92
Q

What is a long butterfly spread in options?

A

Buying a call at a low exercise price, sell two calls at a middle exercise price, and buy a call at a high exercise price, same expiration.

93
Q

Illustrate a long butterfly spread position using a chart.

A
94
Q

What is portfolio insurance?

A

An investment strategy designed to keep the portfolio from losing value in a market downturn, while maintaining the portfolio’s ability to benefit from an upturn.

95
Q

What is the simplest form of portfolio insurance?

A

Stop loss order

96
Q

Illustrate a protective put position with charts.

A
97
Q
A

Answer in Chapter 16 Solutions Doc

98
Q

A short hedger in a futures contract is the one who _________.

A

Sells the futures contract

99
Q

A long hedger in a futures contract is the one who ________.

A

Buys the futures contract

100
Q

What is the role of a clearinghouse in a futures contract?

A

Once the price is agreed on, a clearinghouse becomes the middleman. Becoming the buyer for the seller and the seller for the buyer.

101
Q

What type of risk does a clearinghouse take on with futures contracts and how do they protect themselves from it?

A

Performance Risk

  1. Impose performance margin requirements
  2. Mark to market
  3. Impose variation margin requirements
102
Q

What is the basis in a futures contract and how is it calculated?

A

The basis quantifies the difference between the current spot price and the futures price.

Basis = Current Spot Price - Futures Price

103
Q

What are the several theories or hypotheses that are used to predict the relationship between the expected spot price and the futures price.

A

1) Expectations Hypothesis
2) Normal Backwardation Hypothesis
3) Normal Contango Hypothesis

104
Q

What does the Expectations Hypothesis say about the relationship between expected spot prices and the futures price?

A

The futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price.

Futures Price = Expected Spot Price

105
Q

What does the Normal Backwardation Hypothesis say about the relationship between expected spot prices and the futures price?

A

The futures price is a downward biased predictor of the expected spot price.

Futures Price < Expected Spot Price

106
Q

What does the Normal Contango Hypothesis say about the relationship between expected spot prices and the futures price?

A

The futures price is an upwards biased predictor of the expected spot price.

Futures Price > Expected Spot

107
Q

Illustrate the 3 Hypotheses / Theories about the relationship between expected spot prices and futures prices.

A
108
Q

What are Dr. A’s assumptions for the world of certainty in futures?

A
  1. All wheat is harvested instantly once a year.
  2. The size of the harvest is known
  3. The carry cost is unaffected by the amount of wheat stored
  4. Carry costs are unaffected by the price of the commodity
109
Q

What is carry cost comprised of, and what is the largest* component of carry cost?

A

Foregone interest*, insurance and storage.

110
Q

Draw graphs explaining a farmer’s inventory vs. wheat prices that explains when you’d store vs sell wheat.

A
111
Q

In terms of a Mutual Fund’s Cash Position: Low is _________, high is _________.

A

Bullish, Bearish

112
Q

In terms of Credit Balances on Account: Low is _________, high is _________.

A

Bullish, Bearish

113
Q

In terms of a put - call ratio: Low is _________, high is _________.

A

Bullish, Bearish

114
Q

In terms of a yield curve: Up and to the right is ___________, down and to the right is ___________.

A

Bullish, bearish

115
Q

In terms of the vix index: a low vix is ___________ and a high vix is _________.

A

Bullish, bearish

116
Q

What is Delta’s or Hedge Ratio and how do you calculate it for a call or put?

A

The change in the value of an option for a $1 increase in the price of the stock

Delta(Call) = N(d)

Delta(Put) - = 1 - N(d)

117
Q

Speculators in futures contracts are risk _________.

A

Neutral

118
Q

What are the 4 advantages to investing in real assets?

A

1) Serve as an inflation hedge
2) Serve as a hedge against the unknown or feared
3) An excellent portfolio diversifier
4) More fun

119
Q

What are the 4 disadvantages to investing in real assets?

A

1) Often do not have a large, liquid or efficient market.
2) Likely to have higher dealer spreads or commissions
3) Generally receive no income
4) Values less likely to react to hype or overreaction

120
Q

What are the “real assets” that are available?

A

Real Estate
Precious Metals
Commodities
Precious Gems
Other Collectables

121
Q

What amount of households in the U.S. own real estate?

A

65%

122
Q

What is often the largest holding in an investment portfolio?

A

A home

123
Q

How do you access real estate investment?

A

Direct investment
REITs
Partnerships

124
Q

What is one of the most volatile real investment alternatives?

A

Precious metals

125
Q

When does the price of precious metals typically rise?

A

When the rest of the market falls

126
Q

How do you access precious metal investment?

A

Gold stocks
Gold futures
Gold ETFs

127
Q

Commodities typically move _________ of the rest of the market

A

Opposite

128
Q

How do you access commodity investment?

A

Commodity stocks
Commodity futures
Commodity ETFs

129
Q

Precious gems are ____________ , but popular with the _____________.

A

not a good investment, Europeans

130
Q

What is “private equity” investment?

A

Investing in companies that are not public

131
Q

What is the goal of private equity investment?

A

Buying private companies that are currently private and helping them go public

132
Q

What do private equity managers cite as an indication of their effectiveness?

A

The number of “exits” they’ve have and the returns on exits.

133
Q

There is a high correlation between:

A

Private equity activity and IPOs + exits

134
Q

How will most people access private equity?

A

A limited partnership fund

135
Q

The manager of a LP Fund in private equity is the _________ partner, while investors are _________ partners.

A

general, limited

136
Q

Typically investment investments in limited partnerships is restricted to _________ clients, usually these clients have a net worth in excess of __________.

A

qualified, $500,000

137
Q

Private equity can be seen as a ____________ form of public equity.

A

less efficient

138
Q

The gains to be made in the ________ market cap sectors of private equity are often _________ then than the public sector.

A

lower , higher

139
Q

It has been shown that the performance of larger cap sectors of private equity is _______________ than the smaller cap public equity sectors.

A

not substantially larger

140
Q

What are the ways a private equity increase the value of a company for shareholders?

A

1) Improving EBITDA
2) Leverage
3) Buy low and sell high

141
Q

How can private equity increase the EBITDA of a company?

A

Improve efficiency, grow revenue, cut costs, shorten sales cycle

142
Q

How can private equity use leverage to increase the value of a firm?

A

Use the debt to increase assets

143
Q

How can a private equity firm make money “buying low and selling high”

A

Making money on the share prices of the company appreciating at the time of IPO

144
Q

What is the danger of a private equity firm relying on multiple expansion to profit?

A

Not typically repeatable, better to increase business fundamentals

145
Q

What is the J curve effect?

A

When you invest in private equity, the general partner will immediately start taking their fees. As such a private equity fund will typically have negative returns at the beginning of an investment before becoming positive.

146
Q

What is the typical timeline for a private equity purchase to exit?

A

7 years

147
Q

In slower economic times, a private equity purchase to exit timeline will likely be affected how?

A

+2 years

148
Q

In stronger economic times, a private equity purchase to exit timeline will likely be affected how?

A

-2 years

149
Q

How long does the J curve effect typically last?

A

2-3 years

150
Q

What is the illusion of misstated volatility in private equity?

A

Because a private equity investment does not strike a daily NAV, the volatility of private equity appears less than public equity.

This is an illusion, private equity has greater volatility than small cap public equity.

151
Q

What does a typical private equity fund fee structure look like?

A

1-2% committed capital

20% performance fee on everything over 0

152
Q

What are the differences between venture capital and private equity?

A
  • Investing in startups, not established businesses
  • Higher failure rate 2-3 / 10
  • Need for understanding of tech or science
  • Lack of regional diversification
  • Longer periods until firms become cash flow positive
  • Need for additional capital injections to avoid dilution
153
Q

Illustrate the life of a typical private equity INVESTMENT (1 company).

A
154
Q

Illustrate the life of a private equity FUND.

A
155
Q

Illustrate the J curve effect using a chart

A
156
Q
A
157
Q
A