40: Gynecology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 contraindications to estrogen therapy?

A
  • Endometrial cancer
  • Thromboembolic disease
  • Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
  • Breast cancer
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2
Q

What is Mittelschmerz?

A

Pain that can be confused with appendicitis that is caused by rupture of a graafian follicle

[It occurs 14 days after the 1st day of menses.]

[Wikipedia: Mittelschmerz is a medical term for “ovulation pain” or “midcycle pain”. About 20% of women experience mittelschmerz, some every cycle, some intermittently. Hormonal forms of contraception can be taken to prevent ovulation—and therefore ovulatory pain—but otherwise there is no known prevention.]

[UpToDate: This ovulatory event causes recurrent midcycle pain in females with regular ovulatory cycles. This pain is caused by normal follicular enlargement just prior to ovulation or to normal follicular bleeding at ovulation. The pain is typically mild and unilateral; it occurs midway between menstrual periods and lasts for a few hours to a couple of days.]

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3
Q

What are the following characteristics of endometriosus?

  • Three most common symptoms
  • Most common site
A
  • Three most common symptoms: Dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation), dyspareunia (pain with intercourse), infertility
  • Most common site: Ovaries

[It can involve the rectum and cause bleeding during menses -> endoscopy shows a blue mass.]

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4
Q

What should be done if an incidental ovarian mass is discovered at the time of laparotomy for another procedure?

A
  • Biopsy the mass
  • 4 quadrant wash
  • Biopsy omentum
  • Look for metastasis and biopsy if present

[Do not perform an oophorectomy.]

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5
Q

Which sexually transmitted infections are associated with the below characteristics?

  • Vesicles
  • Condylomata
  • Painless chancre
  • Diplococci
  • Positive dark-field microscopy
A
  • Vesicles: HSV
  • Condylomata: HPV
  • Painless chancre: Syphilis
  • Diplococci: Gonococcus
  • Positive dark-field microscopy: Syphilis
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6
Q

At what gestational age can most pregnancies be seen on ultrasound?

A

6 weeks

[UpToDate:When cardiac activity is present, the fetal heart can usually be heard by 12 weeks of gestation using a Doppler instrument. Transvaginal ultrasound can identify fetal cardiac motion as early as 5.5.]

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7
Q

What are the 4 ligaments of the uterus?

A
  1. Round ligament
  2. Broad ligament
  3. Suspensory (Infundibulopelvic) ligament
  4. Cardinal ligament

[UpToDate: Uterosacral and cardinal ligament complex — The uterosacral/cardinal ligament complex suspends the uterus and upper vagina in its normal orientation. It serves to maintain vaginal length and keep the vaginal axis nearly horizontal in a standing woman so that it can be supported by the levator plate. Loss of this support contributes to prolapse of the uterus and/or vaginal apex. The cardinal ligaments are condensations of connective tissue that are several centimeters in width and run from the cervix and upper vagina to the pelvic sidewall. The uterine vessels run for much of their course within the cardinal ligaments. The uterosacral ligaments are bands of connective tissue that are fused with the cardinal ligaments at their point of insertion in the cervix. The uterosacral ligaments pass posteriorly and inferiorly to attach to the ischial spine and sacrum.

Round ligaments — The round ligaments are extensions of the uterine musculature. They begin at the uterine fundus anterior and inferior to the fallopian tubes, travel retroperitoneally through the layers of the broad ligament, then enter the inguinal canal, and terminate in the labia majora. The male homolog of the round ligaments is the gubernaculum testis.

Broad ligament — The broad ligament covers the lateral uterine corpus and upper cervix. The boundaries of the broad ligament are: superiorly, the round ligaments; posteriorly, the infundibulopelvic ligaments; and inferiorly, the cardinal and uterosacral ligaments. It consists of anterior and posterior leaves that separate to enclose viscera and blood vessels. Structures within the broad ligament are considered retroperitoneal. Dissection between these leaves is necessary to provide exposure of these structures. Various portions of the broad ligament are named for nearby structures, ie, the mesosalpinx (located near the fallopian tubes) and the mesovarium (located near the ovary). The broad ligament is composed of visceral and parietal peritoneum that contains smooth muscle and connective tissue.

Endopelvic fascia — The pelvic viscera are covered by endopelvic fascia, a connective tissue layer that provides support to the pelvic organs, yet allows for their mobility to permit storage of urine and stool, coitus, parturition, and defecation.

Ovary — The ovaries are suspended lateral and/or posterior to the uterus, depending upon the position of the patient. The supporting structures of the ovaries include the utero-ovarian ligament that attaches the ovary to the uterus; the infundibulopelvic ligament (also referred to as the suspensory ligament of the ovary), through which the ovarian vessels travel, that attaches the ovary to the pelvic sidewall; and the broad ligament, which condenses to form the mesovarium. It is also attached to the broad ligament through the mesovarium.]

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8
Q

What is the extent that endometrial cancer has spread in each stage of the disease?

  • Stage I
  • Stage II
  • Stage III
  • Stage IV
A
  • Stage I: Endometrium
  • Stage II: Cervix
  • Stage III: Vagina, peritoneum, and ovary
  • Stage IV: Bladder and rectum
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9
Q

What are the risk factors for vulvar cancer as it pertains to the below factors?

  • Age (young or old)
  • Parity (nulliparous or multiparous)
  • Weight (thin or obese)
A
  • Age: Elderly
  • Parity: Nulliparous
  • Weight: Obese

[Usually occus unilaterally.]

[UpToDate: The age-adjusted incidence of vulvar cancer in the United States was 2.5 per 100,000 women, based upon 1997 to 2004 data from a national cancer database. Vulvar carcinoma is encountered most frequently in postmenopausal women. The mean age at diagnosis is 65, but may be falling. This was illustrated in a study of 78 women diagnosed with vulvar cancer between 1979 and 1993 in which the average age at presentation dropped from 69 to 55 during this interval. Within the United States, almost 4900 cases are diagnosed each year, with over 1000 of those women expected to succumb to their disease.

Risk factors for vulvar cancer include cigarette smoking, vulvar dystrophy (eg, lichen sclerosus), vulvar or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, immunodeficiency syndromes, a prior history of cervical cancer, and northern European ancestry.

Two independent pathways of vulvar carcinogenesis are felt to currently exist, the first related to mucosal HPV infection and the second related to chronic inflammatory (vulvar dystrophy) or autoimmune processes. HPV has been shown to be responsible for 60% of vulvar cancers. Specifically, HPV 16 and 33 are the predominant subtypes accounting for 55.5% of all HPV-related vulvar cancers.

The increasing incidence of HPV-related vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia among young women may account for the fall in mean age of diagnosis of vulvar cancer discussed above. HPV DNA is found more commonly in vulvar cancers of young women who smoke as compared with older nonsmokers. Early detection and treatment of vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia may prevent the development of cancer. This may explain why the incidence of invasive vulvar cancer has remained stable even though the incidence of vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia has increased.]

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10
Q

What are the various treatments of cervical cancer depending on stage?

A
  • Microscopic disease without basement membrane invasion: Cone biopsy (conization sufficient to remove disease)
  • Stage I and Stage IIa: Total abdominal hysterectomy (TAH)
  • Stage IIb to Stage IV: XRT

[UpToDate: Women are defined as having early-stage cervical cancer if their cancer was diagnosed on microscopic examination (stage IA) or they have a clinically visible lesion confined to the cervix measuring less than 4 cm (stage IB1).

For women with early-stage cervical cancer, we suggest a modified radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymphadenectomy rather than primary chemoradiation (Grade 2C). We reserve primary radiation therapy (RT) for women who are not candidates for primary surgery due to medical comorbidities or poor functional status.

For women with microinvasive disease (stage IA1) who have no evidence of intermediate- or high-risk features, we suggest conization or extrafascial hysterectomy rather than radical hysterectomy (Grade 2C).

For women of reproductive age who wish to preserve their fertility and have a lesion size ≤2 cm and no lymph node metastases, uterus-preserving surgery is a reasonable treatment option.

For women with early-stage cervical cancer with intermediate-risk features (ie, lymphovascular invasion, cervical stromal invasion, or tumor is ≥4 cm), we suggest adjuvant RT rather than chemoradiation (Grade 2C).

For women with early-stage cervical cancer with high-risk features (ie, positive surgical margins, pathologically involved pelvic nodes, or positive involvement of the parametria), we recommend adjuvant chemoradiation rather than RT alone (Grade 1A). We suggest adjuvant RT be administered with single-agent cisplatin rather than the combination of cisplatin plus 5-FU (Grade 2C).

Stage is the most important prognostic factor, followed by nodal status. Outcomes are worse for women with involved pelvic or paraaortic nodes.

Hormone replacement therapy appears to be a safe treatment option for women with cervical cancer who report bothersome symptoms following treatment.]

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11
Q

Which uterine ligaments are characterized by each of the below?

  • Allows anteversion of the uterus
  • Contains uterine vessels
  • Contains ovarian artery, nerve, and vein
  • Holds cervix and vagina
A
  • Allows anteversion of the uterus: Round ligament
  • Contains uterine vessels: Broad ligament
  • Contains ovarian artery, nerve, and vein: Infundibular ligament
  • Holds cervix and vagina: Cardinal ligament

[UpToDate: Uterosacral and cardinal ligament complex — The uterosacral/cardinal ligament complex suspends the uterus and upper vagina in its normal orientation. It serves to maintain vaginal length and keep the vaginal axis nearly horizontal in a standing woman so that it can be supported by the levator plate. Loss of this support contributes to prolapse of the uterus and/or vaginal apex. The cardinal ligaments are condensations of connective tissue that are several centimeters in width and run from the cervix and upper vagina to the pelvic sidewall. The uterine vessels run for much of their course within the cardinal ligaments. The uterosacral ligaments are bands of connective tissue that are fused with the cardinal ligaments at their point of insertion in the cervix. The uterosacral ligaments pass posteriorly and inferiorly to attach to the ischial spine and sacrum.

Round ligaments — The round ligaments are extensions of the uterine musculature. They begin at the uterine fundus anterior and inferior to the fallopian tubes, travel retroperitoneally through the layers of the broad ligament, then enter the inguinal canal, and terminate in the labia majora. The male homolog of the round ligaments is the gubernaculum testis.

Broad ligament — The broad ligament covers the lateral uterine corpus and upper cervix. The boundaries of the broad ligament are: superiorly, the round ligaments; posteriorly, the infundibulopelvic ligaments; and inferiorly, the cardinal and uterosacral ligaments. It consists of anterior and posterior leaves that separate to enclose viscera and blood vessels. Structures within the broad ligament are considered retroperitoneal. Dissection between these leaves is necessary to provide exposure of these structures. Various portions of the broad ligament are named for nearby structures, ie, the mesosalpinx (located near the fallopian tubes) and the mesovarium (located near the ovary). The broad ligament is composed of visceral and parietal peritoneum that contains smooth muscle and connective tissue.

Endopelvic fascia — The pelvic viscera are covered by endopelvic fascia, a connective tissue layer that provides support to the pelvic organs, yet allows for their mobility to permit storage of urine and stool, coitus, parturition, and defecation.

Ovary — The ovaries are suspended lateral and/or posterior to the uterus, depending upon the position of the patient. The supporting structures of the ovaries include the utero-ovarian ligament that attaches the ovary to the uterus; the infundibulopelvic ligament (also referred to as the suspensory ligament of the ovary), through which the ovarian vessels travel, that attaches the ovary to the pelvic sidewall; and the broad ligament, which condenses to form the mesovarium. It is also attached to the broad ligament through the mesovarium.]

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12
Q

Vaginal bleeding in a postmenopausal patient is what until proven otherwise?

A

Endometrial cancer

[Uterine polyps have a very low (0.1%) chance of malignancy.]

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13
Q

What are the 3 main risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. Previous tubal manipulation
  2. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  3. Previous ectopic pregnancy
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14
Q

Which 4 characteristics of an ovarian cyst are contraindications for surveillance alone?

A
  1. Septations
  2. Increased vascular flow
  3. Solid components
  4. Papillary projections

[Cysts with any of the above characteristics should be removed with intraoperative frozen section. If cancer is present on frozen section, a total abdominal hysterectomy should be performed (this may need to be tailored to the patient’s wishes if premenopausal and wanting children). If none of the above characteristics are present, the patient is a candidate for a repeat ultrasound in 1 year.]

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15
Q

How is the risk of ovarian cancer affected by the following?

  • OCP use
  • Nulliparity
  • Late menopause
  • Bilateral tubal ligation
  • Early menarche
A
  • OCP use: Decreased risk
  • Nulliparity: Increased risk
  • Late menopause: Increased risk
  • Bilateral tubal ligation: Decreased risk
  • Early menarche: Increased risk
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16
Q

What are the following characteristics of cervical cancer?

  • First nodes cervical cancer spreads to
  • HPV viruses associated with cervical cancer
  • Most common type
A
  • First nodes cervical cancer spreads to: Obturator nodes
  • HPV viruses associated with cervical cancer: HPV 16 and 18
  • Most common type: Squamous cell cancer
17
Q

What are 5 risk factors for endometrial cancer?

A
  1. Nulliparity
  2. Late 1st pregnancy
  3. Obesity
  4. Tamoxifen
  5. Unopposed estrogen

[UpToDate: Endometrioid histology tumors (type I) comprise 80% of endometrial carcinomas, as noted above. This section will describe risk factors for these tumors. Risk factors for type II endometrial carcinomas (serous and clear cell) are discussed in detail separately.

Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is estrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous estrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin. Other risk factors include obesity, nulliparity, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension.]

18
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a female patient with acute abdominal pain, positive beta-HCG, negative ultrasound for gestational sac?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

[Can also have missed period, vaginal bleeding, hypotension. Significant shock and hemorrhage can occur from an ectopic pregnancy.]

19
Q

What are the following characteristics of gynecologic cancer?

  • Leading cause of gynecologic death
  • Most common malignant tumor in femal genital tract
A
  • Leading cause of gynecologic death: Ovarian cancer
  • Most common malignant tumor in femal genital tract: Endometrial cancer
20
Q

What is the extent that cervical cancer has spread in each stage of the disease?

  • Stage I
  • Stage II
  • Stage III
  • Stage IV
A
  • Stage I: Cervix
  • Stage II: Upper 2/3 of vagina
  • Stage III: Pelvis, side wall, lower 1/3 of vagina
  • Stage IV: Bladder and rectum
21
Q

What is the extent that ovarian cancer has spread in each stage of the disease?

  • Stage I
  • Stage II
  • Stage III
  • Stage IV
A
  • Stage I: One or both ovaries only
  • Stage II: Limited to pelvis
  • Stage III: Spread throughout abdomen
  • Stage IV: Distant metastasis
22
Q

What are the following characteristics of vaginal cancer?

  • Most common type of vaginal cancer
  • Exposure associated with clear cell cancer of vagina
  • Name of rhabdosarcoma of vagina that occurs in young females
A
  • Most common type of vaginal cancer: Squamous cell cancer
  • Exposure associated with clear cell cancer of vagina: Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
  • Name of rhabdosarcoma of vagina that occurs in young females: Sarcoma botryoides

[XRT is used for most cancers of the vagina.]

[UpToDate: Adenocarcinomas represent nearly all of the primary vaginal cancers in women younger than 20 years old. Adenocarcinomas may arise in areas of vaginal adenosis, Wolffian rest elements, periurethral glands, and foci of endometriosis. Clear cell variants are the best known type of adenocarcinoma, primarily because of their occurrence in young women who have been exposed in utero to diethylstilbestrol (DES). Grossly, clear cell carcinomas of the vagina usually present as polypoid masses, most often on the anterior wall of the vagina. Approximately 70% of patients are stage I at the time of diagnosis.

DES exposure can result in both cervical and vaginal clear cell adenocarcinomas. As an example, in one report of genital clear cell carcinomas in the Netherlands, vaginal tumors were detected in 33% of cases and cervical tumors were detected in 80%. In addition, the incidence of invasive or in situ squamous cell cancer of the cervix is increased in women exposed to DES in utero. In one report from the Netherlands DES Information Center, the prevalence of cervical cancer was 5.4-fold higher than expected, based on age and period-specific prevalence rates from the Netherlands cancer registry.

In females exposed in utero to DES, the actual risk of developing clear cell adenocarcinoma through age 34 is only 1 in 1000, with the highest risk in those who were exposed before 12 weeks of gestation. The median age at diagnosis of DES-related clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina is 19 years, with a range of 7 to 33 years. Nonmalignant abnormalities can also occur; areas of vaginal adenosis and structural abnormalities of the uterus, cervix, or vagina are present in 45% and 25% of these women, respectively. Thus, it is recommended that women exposed to DES in utero have their first gynecologic examination at menarche with a careful assessment of the cervix and vagina, in addition to cervical and vaginal cytological examination. An examination of DES-exposed women should consist of colposcopic inspection of the cervix and vagina, yearly cytologic examination of the cervix and vagina, and careful palpation of the cervix and entire vaginal wall.

Most women with DES-associated clear cell vaginal cancer have good outcomes with primary radiation, surgery, or both. On the other hand, adenocarcinomas that occur in non DES-exposed women tend to have a poorer outcome.]

23
Q

What is the name for stomach cancer that has metastasized to the ovary and what classically shows up on pathology?

A
  • Name: Krukenberg tumor
  • Pathology: Signet ring cells

[UpToDate: Krukenberg tumors are ovarian metastases of primary tumors of the gastrointestinal tract that in some way activate the surrounding stroma. They are solid tumors and 80% are bilateral. Most of the handful of pregnant women with these tumors reported in the literature had hirsutism or virilization, and half delivered virilized infants.]

24
Q

What are the below characteristics of vulvar cancer treatment?

  • Size cutoff at which point treatment changes
  • Treatment if below cutoff
  • Treatment if above cutoff
A
  • Size cutoff: 2 cm
  • Treatment if < 2cm (stage I): WLE and ipsilateral inguinal node dissection
  • Treatment if > 2cm (stage II or greater): Radical vulvectomy (bilateral labia) with bilateral inguinal dissection, postop XRT if close margins (< 1cm)

[Paget’s vulvar intra-epithelial neoplasia III (VIN III) or higher is premalignant.]

[UpToDate: Vulvar cancer is the fourth most common gynecologic cancer in high-resource countries. Most vulvar cancers are squamous cell histology.

Vulvar cancer is staged using a hybrid of clinical staging and the surgical staging system of the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) and International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging systems. Tumor size and depth of invasion are determined mostly on physical examination and vulvar biopsy, and lymph nodes are evaluated by physical examination, imaging, and lymphadenectomy or sentinel lymph node biopsy.

Excision of the primary vulvar lesion is performed by radical local excision, if feasible. Large, central, or multicentric lesions may require modified radical vulvectomy. Resection of only involved tissue with an adequate margin conserves vulvar anatomy and aids wound healing.

Evaluation or management of lymph nodes is determined primarily by whether there are clinically palpable groin nodes on physical examination.

  • Women with stage IA disease require surgical resection of the primary lesion alone, with no lymphadenectomy.
  • Women with no palpable groin nodes undergo complete inguinofemoral lymphadenectomy. Selected patients with stage IB or II disease are candidates for sentinel node biopsy.
  • Women with palpable groin nodes do not undergo complete lymphadenectomy and are typically managed with a debulking procedure for the inguinofemoral nodes.

For women with stage IB to II squamous cell vulvar cancer who are at low risk for lymph node metastases (lesions <2 cm, lateral, no palpable nodes), we suggest a unilateral (ipsilateral) lymphadenectomy or sentinel node biopsy rather than bilateral lymphadenectomy (Grade 2C). More data are needed regarding selection criteria for sentinel node biopsy in terms of the upper limit of tumor size and the risk of groin recurrence. Many institutions also offer sentinel node biopsy to patients with a tumor diameter up to <4 cm.]

25
Q

Which gynecologic diagnosis is under hormonal influence and can cause recurrent abortions, infertility, and bleeding?

A

Uterine fibroids (leiomyoma)

26
Q

Which subtype of the following cancers has the worst prognosis?

  • Ovarian cancer
  • Endometrial cancer
A
  • Ovarian cancer: Clear cell subtype
  • Endometrial cancer: Serous and papillary subtypes

[Wikipedia: Clear cell ovarian tumors are part of the surface epithelial-stromal tumor group of ovarian cancers, accounting for 6% of these cancers. Clear cell tumors are also associated with the pancreas and salivary glands.]

27
Q

What is the treatment for abnormal uterine bleeding in patients with the below characteristics?

  • <40 year old with anovulation
  • <40 year old with leiomyoma
  • >40 year old
A
  • <40 year old with anovulation: Clomiphene citrate
  • <40 year old with leiomyoma: GnRH agonists (leuprolide)
  • >40 year old: Biopsy to rule out cancer

[UpToDate: Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is a common gynecologic problem and may cause anemia and impair quality of life. Prolonged bleeding that is not cyclical is often caused by ovulatory dysfunction (AUB-O). In contrast, heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) is cyclical and often associated with structural uterine disorders.

AUB treatment choices should take the following factors into consideration: etiology; severity of bleeding (eg, anemia, interference with daily activities); associated symptoms and issues (eg, dysmenorrhea/pelvic pain, infertility); contraceptive needs and plans for future pregnancy; medical comorbidities; risk of venous or arterial thrombosis; and patient preferences regarding, as well as access to, medical versus surgical and short-term versus long-term therapy.

The goal of initial therapy is to control the bleeding, treat anemia (if present), and restore quality of life. Initial therapy is typically pharmacologic. Once the initial treatment goals have been accomplished, some women are satisfied with continuing chronic medical therapy, while others desire a treatment that requires less maintenance or is definitive.

For most women with HMB, we suggest estrogen-progestin contraceptives rather than other medications as first-line therapy (Grade 2C). Oral or injectable progestin-only medications are also reasonable as first-line management. The levonorgestrel-releasing (20 mcg/day) intrauterine device (LNg20 IUD; Mirena) is the most effective medical treatment of HMB. However, due to logistical/financial issues, it is often appropriate to begin therapy with estrogen-progestin regimens or oral/injectable progestin therapy.

Tranexamic acid or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are useful for patients with HMB who have contraindications to or would prefer to avoid hormonal agents. Expectant management is reasonable for women who are not anemic and do not desire treatment.

For women with AUB-O, estrogen-progestin formulations, oral progestin therapy, or the LNg20 are first-line treatment options, as these approaches reduce bleeding and decrease the risk of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer.

We suggest the LNg20 rather than endometrial ablation (Grade 2C). Endometrial ablation is a reasonable choice in women who do not desire future pregnancy and wish to avoid using or changing an intrauterine device. Hysterectomy is a reasonable option in women who do not desire future pregnancy, who desire definitive therapy, and who are aware of the risk of perioperative complications

Estrogen-progestins contraceptives are contraindicated in women with risk factors for venous or arterial thrombosis (eg, history of venous thromboembolism, known thrombogenic mutations, ≥35 years-old and smoking ≥15 cigarettes/day). Progestins may be appropriate for some women with such risk factors, but medical consultation may be required. For women at an increased risk of venous or arterial thrombosis treated for AUB with progestins, we suggest the LNg20 rather than depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) or high-dose oral progestins (Grade 2C).]

28
Q

At what beta-HCG level can the following be seen on ultrasound?

  1. Gestational sac
  2. Fetal pole
A
  1. Gestational sac: Seen with beta-HCG of 1,500
  2. Fetal pole: Seen with beta-HCG of 6,000

[UpToDate: Human chorionic gonadotropin — Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood or urine is the basis of all pregnancy tests. HCG is secreted into the maternal circulation after implantation, which occurs 6 to 12 days after ovulation. This is the earliest that hCG can be detected with an ultrasensitive test. Late implantation has been associated with an increased risk of pregnancy loss.

The hCG concentration doubles every 29 to 53 hours during the first 30 days after implantation of a viable, intrauterine pregnancy; a slower rise is suggestive of an abnormal pregnancy (eg, ectopic, early embryonic death).

In a study of women with normal menstrual cycles who were attempting to conceive, the median hCG concentration on the first day of expected but missed menses was 239 milli-int. units/mL in serum and 49 milli-int. units/mL in a spot urine, but there was a wide range among individuals. The range of hCG values was narrower in a study of over 4400 women who conceived by IVF, underwent embryo transfer two to three days after egg retrieval, and had at least one viable embryo at 8 weeks of gestation: the median hCG concentration on day 12 after embryo transfer was 118 milli-int. units/mL (interquartile range 98).

The concentration of hCG peaks at 8 to 10 weeks of gestation, averaging 60,000 to 90,000 milli-int. units/mL at that time, but again the range of normal is quite wide (5000 to 150,000 milli-int. units/mL or more); thus, hCG levels are not useful for estimating gestational age, except in the first one to three weeks post-conception. In the next 10 weeks, hCG levels decline, reaching a median concentration of about 12,000 milli-int. units/mL at 20 weeks, again with a wide range of normal: 2000 to 50,000 milli-int. units/mL or more. HCG concentration stays relatively constant from about the 20th week until term.]

29
Q

What are the following characteristics of pelvic inflammatory disease?

  • Main risk factor
  • Two most common causes
  • Diagnostic characteristics
  • Treatment
A
  • Main risk factor: Multiple sexual partners
  • Two most common causes: Chlamydia (most common), gonorrhea
  • Diagnostic characteristics: Cervical motion tenderness, cervical cultures, positive gram stain
  • Treatment: Ceftriaxone (for gonorrhea) and doxycycline (for chlamydia)

[UpToDate: PID is a polymicrobial infection, which generally requires broad coverage, particularly among those with severe disease requiring hospitalization. Acute PID is an ascending infection caused by cervical microorganisms (including C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae), as well as the vaginal microflora, including anaerobic organisms, enteric gram-negative rods, streptococci, genital mycoplasmas, and Gardnerella vaginalis, which is associated bacterial vaginosis. Bacterial vaginosis results in complex alterations of the normal vaginal flora, which may alter host defense mechanisms in the cervicovaginal environment. Mycoplasma genitalium is recognized as a cause of urethritis in men, but its role in pelvic inflammatory disease is less well-defined.

The presumptive clinical diagnosis of PID is made in sexually active young women, especially women at high risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), who present with pelvic or lower abdominal pain and have evidence of cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness on exam.

The sensitivity of this clinical diagnosis is only 65% to 90%, but because of the potential for serious reproductive sequelae if PID treatment is delayed or not given, this presumptive diagnosis is sufficient to warrant empiric antimicrobial therapy for PID. Even patients with minimal or subtle findings should be treated since the potential consequences of withholding therapy are great.

In general, adding more diagnostic criteria increases the specificity, but decreases the sensitivity of the diagnosis. The following additional findings can be used to support the clinical diagnosis of PID:

  • Oral temperature >101°F (>38.3°C)
  • Abnormal cervical or vaginal mucopurulent discharge or cervical friability
  • Presence of abundant numbers of white blood cells (WBCs) on saline microscopy of vaginal secretions (eg, >15 to 20 WBCs per hpf or more WBCs than epithelial cells)
  • Documentation of cervical infection with N. gonorrhoeae or C. trachomatis

For outpatient therapy of mild or moderate PID, we suggest ceftriaxone (250 mg intramuscularly in a single dose) plus doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day for 14 days) (Grade 2B). We suggest the addition of metronidazole (500 mg orally twice a day for 14 days) for those with a history of gynecological instrumentation in the preceding two to three weeks.]

30
Q

Which types of ovarian cancer are associated with the following characteristics?

  • Estrogen secreting tumor causing precocious puberty
  • Androgen secreting tumor causing masculinization
  • Thyroid tissue
  • Elevated beta-HCG
A
  • Estrogen secreting tumor causing precocious puberty: Granulosa-theca tumor
  • Androgen secreting tumor causing masculinization: Sertoli-Leydig tumor
  • Thyroid tissue: Struma ovarii
  • Elevated beta-HCG: Choriocarcinoma

[Other ovarian tumor types include: teratoma, mucinous, serous, and papillary tumors.]

31
Q

What is the treatment for endometriosus?

A

Oral contraceptives

[UpToDate: Our approach to treating endometriosis-related pain treatment is based on the severity of symptoms. Other causes of pelvic pain are excluded prior to treatment.

For women with mild to moderate pain, we suggest nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and continuous hormonal contraceptives rather than either agent alone (Grade 2C). These therapies are low-risk, have few side effects, are low-cost, and are generally well-tolerated compared with other medical therapies. Women who wish to conceive can use the NSAID alone.

Women with adequate symptom improvement continue the hormonal therapy/NSAID regimen until pregnancy is desired or the average age of menopause is reached. Women whose symptoms do not improve continue NSAID treatment and are offered an alternate hormonal combination (eg, change to a different estrogen-progestin contraceptive or norethindrone acetate).

For women with severe symptoms, symptoms that do not respond to the above therapies, or recurrent symptoms, we suggest a trial of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist with add-back hormonal therapy rather than surgical resection (Grade 2C). GnRH agonist treatment has demonstrated efficacy without the risks or negative impact on ovarian reserve of surgery.

Women who continue to have refractory symptoms despite GnRH agonist treatment are offered medical therapy with an aromatase inhibitor.

Women whose pain does not respond to the above treatments are offered laparoscopy for confirmation of the diagnosis and surgical resection.]

32
Q

What is the treatment for each stage of endometrial cancer?

  • Stage I
  • Stage II
  • Stage III
  • Stage IV
A
  • Stage I: Total abdominal hysterectomy and BSO or XRT
  • Stage II: Total abdominal hysterectomy and BSO or XRT
  • Stage III: Total abdominal hysterectomy and BSO and XRT
  • Stage IV: Total abdominal hysterectomy and BSO and XRT

[UpToDate: We recommend total extrafascial hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy performed either via laparotomy or laparoscopy for staging and initial management of endometrial carcinoma (Grade 1B).

Women with apparent stage IA grade 1 endometrial carcinoma who wish to preserve fertility can opt to avoid TAH-BSO and undergo progestin therapy, but the optimum surveillance of these women is not known and they are at risk for recurrent and synchronous disease. Thus, we recommend that these women undergo TAH-BSO after completion of childbearing, even in cases with demonstrated tumor regression (Grade 1C).

We suggest surgical cytoreduction for women with pelvic or intra-abdominal disease (Grade 2C).

The status of both the pelvic and paraaortic lymph nodes should be assessed intraoperatively in all patients. Given the importance of identification of nodal metastases to staging and treatment decisions, this assessment should be performed by experienced surgeons, such as gynecological oncologists.

Lymph node dissection provides the most comprehensive and precise evaluation of patients with apparent stage I endometrial carcinoma (Grade 2B). It is reasonable not to remove lymph nodes in those who do not have individual patient or tumor characteristics (eg, serous, clear cell, or high-grade histology; myometrial invasion >50%; or a large tumor) associated with a high risk of nodal metastases. Women with endometrial carcinoma who do not undergo at least sampling of pelvic and paraaortic lymph nodes at the time of surgery are incompletely surgically staged.

For women with endometrial carcinoma who are undergoing lymph node evaluation, we suggest pelvic and extended paraaortic lymph node dissection rather than nodal sampling alone (Grade 2C).

For women with stage II endometrial carcinoma, we suggest performing a simple hysterectomy (extrafascial class I) with lymphadenectomy rather than radical hysterectomy (Grade 2C). The exceptions to this are women with gross cervical involvement in whom performing a simple hysterectomy would cut through the tumor (all gross disease should be removed) and/or those in whom it is uncertain whether the primary is cervical or uterine.]

33
Q

Which syndrome is characterized by a pelvic ovarian fibroma that causes ascites and hydrothorax and what is the treatment?

A

Syndrome: Meig’s syndrome

Treatment: Excision of tumor cures syndrome

[UpToDate: The association of ovarian fibroma with ascites and/or pleural effusion is termed Meigs’ syndrome. Fluid accumulation is probably related to substances like vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) that raise capillary permeability. Removal of the neoplasm results in elimination of ascites and pleural effusion. Several cases of Meigs’ syndrome have been reported in association with elevated serum CA 125 levels. Thus, neither ascites or pleural effusion, nor an elevated CA 125 is necessarily indicative of an advanced epithelial ovarian carcinoma in a woman with a pelvic mass.

Pseudo-Meigs’ syndrome (a clinical syndrome of pleural effusion, ascites, and an ovarian mass that is not a fibroma or fibroma-like mass/tumor) has been reported from a number of sources, such as leiomyomas, struma ovarii, mucinous cystadenoma, teratoma, and malignancies that are metastatic to the ovary (particularly colorectal cancer).

Ovarian fibromas associated with basal cell cancers are called nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome or Gorlin syndrome. Other associated findings include odontogenic keratocysts, brain neoplasms, and mesenteric cysts. Gorlin syndrome is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait with high degree of penetrance (97%), but variable expressivity. Whether the inherited germline abnormality responsible for Gorlin syndrome (a mutation in the patched or PTCH1 gene on chromosome 9) is related to the development of ovarian fibromas as well is unclear.]

34
Q

Which type of abortion is described by each of the below?

  • 1st trimester bleeding, closed os, positive sac on ultrasound, and no heart beat
  • 1st trimester bleeding, positive heartbeat
  • Tissue protrudes through os
A
  • 1st trimester bleeding, closed os, positive sac on U/S, and no heart beat: Missed abortion
  • 1st trimester bleeding, positive heartbeat: Threatened abortion
  • Tissue protrudes through os: Incomplete abortion
35
Q

What are the below characteristics of ovarian cancer?

  • Stage of ovarian cancer with bilateral ovary involvement
  • Most common initial site of regional spread
  • Role of debulking
  • Treatment
A
  • Stage of ovarian cancer with bilateral ovary involvement: Stage Ib
  • Most common initial site of regional spread: Other ovary
  • Role of debulking: Can be effective at helping chemo and XRT (including omentectomy)
  • Treatment: Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy for all stages

[Treatment includes pelvic and para-aortic lymph node dissection, omentectomy, 4 quadrant washes, and chemotherapy (Cisplatin and Paclitaxel).]