4. Pharmacology II Flashcards

1
Q

Antithyroid and Thyroid drugs

• 3 Hormones secreted by thyroid gland
– ____ (Tetraiodothyronine) = T4
– ____ = T3
– ____ – decreases calcium in blood stream by decreasing osteoclast activity and increasing Ca excretion

A

thyroxine
triiodothyronine
calcitonin

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2
Q

• insulin is one of the endocrine hormones that don’t go through this hypothalamus pituitary
end organ access BUT there are releasing factors from the ____ (in this case thyrotropin releasing factor or hormone) that stimulates the ____ gland to secrete thyroid stimulating hormone which in fact then binds to receptors on the thyroid gland that releases T3 and T4
◦ if everything is working properly and you get too much T3 and T4 in the blood stream, there is negative feedback on the ____ and ____ to turn off the release of thyrotropin releasing hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone
• the hormones T3 and T4 (that have 3 and 4 ____ respectively) really rev things up:
◦ increasecellmetabolism
◦ help in growth and development
◦ make catecholamines work better, things like NE and Epinephrine work better in the body
‣ they have a so called ____ effect
• HOWEVER, when too many floating in body, the NE and E effects run wild and we’ll talk about
hyperthyroidism in a bit

A

hypothalamus
pituitary

pituitary
hypothalamus
permissive

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3
Q

Thyroid Hormone Synthesis

• this is the sythetic pathway to make thyroid hormone
• to make thyroid hormone you need ____ (get from diet- usually salted thing)
‣ obviously this is energy decent pump because this is an anion and charged things don’t like to easily go through tissues
◦ so it goes from blood into thyroid gland –>
◦ gets process by an enzyme (____) to form this reactive form of iodine (this is like iodine minus an electron) –>
◦ and then this will combine with tyrosine moieties, ____ within the gland to form
thyroglobulin T4 and thyroglobulin T3 (NOTE TYPO: the word “thyroglobulin is suppose to be
thyroglobulin) –>
◦ the thyroglobulin entity gets ____ and you get free T3 and T4 –>
◦ it gets released to the blood stream
‣ a little of it is T3 but most of it is ____
‣ but within the blood stream, some of the T4 can lose an iodine and become a ____

• so what’s important? these are all potential targets to treat hyperthyroidism!
◦ there were drugs that were developed to block places all along this mechanism that we’ll talk about
• in the end, in most hypothyroid people, these drugs eventually fail or the endocrinologists are tired of dealing with bouts of hypertension and cardiac arrhythmias and the gland gets fried :(

A
iodine
peroxidase
thyroglobulin
cleaved
T4
T3
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4
Q
Thyroid Hormone Characteristics
• Can be \_\_\_\_ in gland for months
• Highly \_\_\_\_ bound
• Increases \_\_\_\_ activity
• Increases \_\_\_\_ synthesis
• Increases \_\_\_\_ growth
• Increases \_\_\_\_ uptake, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis
• Increases density of \_\_\_\_ receptors
• Makes \_\_\_\_ nervous system work better
A
stored
protein
metabolic
protein
bone
glucose
alpha and beta
sympathetic
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5
Q
Hypothyroidism
  • In adults also called \_\_\_\_ 
– Extreme somnolence
– \_\_\_\_ and decreased cardiac output 
– Mental sluggishness
– Weight \_\_\_\_
– Edema in extremities and elsewhere
– Intolerance to \_\_\_\_
– Alopecia including eyebrows 
– \_\_\_\_ fragility
A
myxedema
bradycardia
gain
cold
capillary
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6
Q
Hypothyroidism continued
• In child called “\_\_\_\_”
– Failure of \_\_\_\_ growth
– Mental retardation
– Dental anomalies
• \_\_\_\_ eruption
• Under developed \_\_\_\_ giving appearance of severe maxillary prognathism
– Unless recognized in first few months of childhood and thyroid replacement therapy is initiated CNS damage is \_\_\_\_
A
cretinism
skeletal
late
mandible
permanent
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7
Q
Causes of Hypothyroidism
• Thyroid gland \_\_\_\_
• \_\_\_\_
• Lack of \_\_\_\_ in the diet
• \_\_\_\_ iodide to treat hyperthyroidism
• \_\_\_\_ of gland or too much of the gland to treat hyperthyroidism
A
atrophy
autommune
iodide
radioactive
removal
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8
Q

Hypothyroid Drugs (all are PO)

  • Thyroid USP – ____ Combo (desiccated cow glands). 120-180 mg/day
  • Levothyroxine (Synthroid®)–Synthetic ____. 200 μg/day (about 1000 X more potent). Since some T4 de-iodated essentially replace ____.
  • Liothyronine (Cytomil®) – Synthetic ____. ____ half life than Levothyroxine. Greater risk of ____. 25 μg/day
  • Liotrix (Euthroid®) Synthetic T3 + T4

Toxicity usually from therapeutic overdose. ____, tachycardia, arrhythmias, ____. Increased sensitivity to ____ (epinephrine) if blood levels too high.

A
T3 + T4 
T4
both
T3
shorter
toxicity

HTN
anxiety
catecholamines

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9
Q

Hyperthyroidism (Thyrotoxicosis)

• Causes–____ nodule or a tumor, ____ Disease which is a profusely enlarged gland

• Symptoms
Ø \_\_\_\_ and arrhythmias
Ø Hypertension
ØExtreme \_\_\_\_ to both endogenous and exogenous catecholamines (i.e. epinephrine)
Ø Mydriasis
Ø \_\_\_\_ sweating
Ø CNS stimulation including tremors 
ØAcceleration of \_\_\_\_
A

hot
graves

tachycardia
sensitivity
excessive
osteoporosis

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10
Q

Treatment of hyperthyroidism

• this is the first place where we can treat hypothyroidism ◦ there are two drugs: perchlorate and thiocyanate
‣ perchlorate: isn’t available anymore because it’s found in ____ and sky rockets and regular rocket fuel and basically it’s really nasty!
‣ what it did was it fools the thyroid gland or iodide pump into sucking it up instead of the iodine anion but again this stuff was no good (nephrotoxic)

‣ Thiocyanate: now you think my god cyanide! well thiocyanate is kind of interesting it is often found in
crusiverous(?) vegetables like ____, cauliflower, and some green leafy things like kale and there is some controversy that maybe people should’t eat more than 4 servings of broccoli a week
• again it kind of tricked the iodide pump into sucking it up and not ____ iodine
‣ rarely used
• by the way this stuff is 100 to 1000 fold less powerful than pure ____: cyanide is a poison; cyanide ties up hemoglobin so that it can’t transport oxygen; the way to treat cyanide poisoning in the ER is inducing
____ so you can give an overdose of a drug like nitroglycerin to induce methemoglobinemia, when the iron goes from FE2+ to Fe3+ it spits the cyanide off and then get the person on dialysis and get rid of the cyanide and then you treat the methemoglobinemia with ____
‣ so this drug isn’t ____ but it does have the cyanide molecule in there, rarely used but a possibility

A
clorox
broccoli
anionic
cyanide
methemaglobenmia
methylene blue
toxic
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11
Q

Treatment of hyperthyroidism

• the 3 big uses of these , actually works at a couple different places on this pathway but this is the main spot where this ____, or this reactive form of iodine that’s missing an electron or two, it blocks, it’s combining with thyroglobulin to
form thyroglobulin T4 and thyroglobulin T3, so these are the drugs that you’re most likely to see people on

• other agents used: lugol solution, this is almost only solely used before ____
◦ this stuff tastes like drinking ocean water, it’ really really salty but the idea is you get this enormous amount of ____ in the blood stream and it kind of feeds back on the thyroid gland and says don’t release any more thyroid hormone in a while
◦ so when people are surgically manipulating the gland to get it out, you don’t squeeze out as much thyroid hormone
• the other things that show up in hyperthyroidism: ____,
◦ this makes sense because what’s one of the symptoms of hyperthyroidism?
‣ they’re ____ and have tachy arrhythmiaas so they’ll take care and dampen that, but for some reason beta blockers inhibit the conversion of T4 to T3 and T3 is the more powerful version of thyroid hormone
• ____ like cortisone do the same thing, they kind of will block the conversion of T4 to T3
• some other strategies:
◦ eventually all this drug therapies fail or the endocrinologist says you’re having too many bouts of hypertension and cardiac arrhythmia and says we need to fry the glands

A

hypoiodate
surgery
iodine

beta blockers
HTN
glucocorticoids

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12
Q

Other Treatments for Hyperthyroidism

• ____
• Radioactive ____ (usually PO)
• ____ (Inderal®) and other Beta Blockers
• ____ and other barbiturates
– Reduces T4 and T3 levels by ____ induction
– ____ effects of beneficial

A
surgery
iodide
propranolol
phenobarbital
enzyme
sedative
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13
Q

Parathyroid and Bone Metabolism Drugs
• ____ glands located behind the thyroid gland

• Parathyroid hormone(PTH):
– Increases extracellular (blood) calcium levels by:
• Increasing bone ____
• Increasing kidney ____ of calcium

– Stimulation of PTH release caused by ____ calcium in blood stream. Remember that corticosteroids inhibit ____ absorption which in turn inhibits calcium absorption and decreases calcium blood levels. PTH secretion is then turned on leading to bone ____ and osteoporosis.
– Inhibition of PTH release caused by ____ calcium in blood and ____ in vitamin D in diet.

A

4

resorption
reabsoprtion

decreased
vitamin D
excess
increase

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14
Q

Other Substances Involved in Calcium Uptake
• Calcitonin (opposes ____ action)
– Released from ____ cells of thyroid
– Decreases blood calcium by:
• Decreasing ____ activity
• Increasing calcium ____ by kidney
– Used to treat osteoporosis and ____ Disease
• Intransasal formulation = Calcitonin ____ (Salmonine®), very expensive

• Vitamin D
– Increases blood calcium levels by:
• Increasing calcium ____ from GI tract • Decreases calcium ____ from kidney

A
PTH
parafollicular
osteoclastic
excretion
Paget's
salmon

absorption
excretion

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15
Q

Osteoporosis and Bisphosphonate therapy

  • Osteoporosis is a major cause of morbidity, functional dependence and institutionalization in older Americans. One out of every two ____ will sustain an osteoporosis related fracture (such as wrist, spine or hip) in their lifetime. An estimated 10 million Americans over the age of 50 have osteoporosis, while another 34 million are at risk. As the population ages, the number of hip fractures in the United States could triple by 2020.
  • Bisphosphonates are analogs of inorganic ____ and are used to treat bone loss associated with osteoporosis and Paget’s disease of bone.

Bisphosphonates inhibit ____ differentiation, and induce osteoclast ____ resulting in an imbalance in the bone remodeling process. They, thereby, promote an increase in bone trabecular thickness and bone mass.

A

women
pyrophosphate
osteoclast
apoptosis

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16
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax®) Structure

• this is the gold standard drug!
• there’s the ____ group (the 2 p’s and the oxygen and one carbon) (the red I
circled is pyrophosphate group)
• this one’s ____ containing

A

pyrophosphate

nitrogen

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17
Q

Orally Administered Bisphosphonates

• so these are the players (they all end in ____)
• so any dronate is a bisphosphoante
• ones with asterisk don’t have the ____
• will show difference in how they ____ depending on whether or not they have nitrogen
• Fosamax Plus D is literally Fosamax plus ____ to increase calcium absorption
◦ now they have once a week Fosamax (which is what Mrs. Hersh takes)

A

dronate
nitrogen
work
vitamin D

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18
Q

Intravenously Administered Bisphosphonates

• some of these drugs via IV formulations are used in ____!
• reasons they’re used in cancer (mainly breast) but others that metastasize the bone also because when you get metastasis in bone, you get bone ____
• they’re used to prevent bone fractures and ____ (excessive levels of calcium)
◦ excessive levels of calcium can cause cardiac arrhythmias
‣ we have calcium channel blockers used in the heart so that’s one of the things that you can end up with in hypercalcemia

• the other thing that these drugs do:
• when used in cancer they’re not only given IV, they’re given more ____!
◦ they now have IV formulations that they give once or twice a week for osteoporosis
◦ but for cancer, they’re given ____ and much ____ doses
‣ and that’s why you see a higher incidence of ____ of the jaw with the IV formulations used for cancer compared to IV formulations used for osteoporosis and certainly oral formulations used for osteoporosis
‣ the blood levels are just much much higher in cancer chemotherapy
• now you might say Hersh, this doesn’t end in dronate, well, we can call it zoladronate (dw he won’t ask for the companies etc)
• he just wants us to know in general how these drugs work and a little bit of the differences
between nitrogen containing and non nitrogen containing

A

cancers
demineralization
hypercalcemia

frequently
weekly
higher

osteoradionecrosis

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19
Q

• the older drugs, the simple bisphosphanates that don’t contain nitrogen actually tie up ATP
◦ they form a toxic ____ metabolite which within the osteoclast, they get into the osteoclast and this toxic ATP metabolite just causes the osteoclast to die (it causes ____)
• obviously things that are tying up ATP, you get more worried about since ATP is so important in our body than the newer ones that seem to primarily work by blocking the synthesis of certain proteins
• it blocks an enzyme called ____
◦ and these farnesylated proteins go on to help osteoclasts grow and survive so it’s more of like a ____ effect versus this one is ____ (not tying up ATP)
• so it’s a bit more ____ or specific

A

ATP
apoptosis

farnesyldiphosphate synthetase
bactericidal
static
selective

20
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax®) Studies

• the data is quite amazing
• these are huge fosamax studies
• they put some patients on placebo because wasn’t sure it was going to work
• we see changes in bone mineral density via DXA scan
• the people that got placebo, can see bone mineral density doesn’t improve and it goes down by 0.5% or so
• the people on fosamax 10mg a day for up to 3 years, their bone mineral density
____ by 9-10% and the effects are shown starting ____ like in 3 months!
• btw, the graphs show one study done in the US and the other multinationally but it’s
the same story
• the end point is that it’s increasing bone mineral density but are there less
fractures????…

A

increased

early

21
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax®) Studies

• …well… this is the cumulative incidence of hip fractures over 3 years in people
◦ they took high risk population and people that already had radiographic
evidence of 1 vertebral fracture, maybe they’re complaining of some back pain or maybe are asymptomatic but it was there
• while this does’t look like much, the people that got the placebo over the 3 years,
they had more than a 2% incidence of hip fractures and whereas the people who got fosumax, it was only slightly more than 1% (so ____% reduction)
◦ and that’s the worst type of fracture to get with osteoporosis (the hip fracture he means)

A

50

22
Q

• if we look at other fractures, it’s the same story
• btw relative reduction is the ____
• so again one new vertebral fracture, about ____% reduction compared to placebo
◦ again this study was 2,000 individuals
• 2 new verbal fractures diagnosed radiographically are 90% reduction
• hip fracture, again 51% reduction
• wrist or forearm fracture, almost a 50% so ya know it’s not just the mechanisms it’s
there

A

% reduction

47

23
Q

Use of Bisphosphonates in Cancer Therapy

  • Only ____ formulations
  • Inhibit bone ____ and fractures from metastatic breast cancer and other cancers that metastasize to bone.
  • Effective in treating ____ associated with the bone resorption
  • May have some indirect benefit in treating the cancer by their ____ effects
A

intravenous
resorption
hypercalcemia
antiangiogenic

24
Q

Denosumab (XGEVA®, Proliva®)

  • Human monoclonal antibody directed against receptor activator of ____.
  • ____ injection (XGEVA® once/4 weeks, Proliva® twice/year)
  • Blocks osteoclast ____ and activation
A

nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL)
subcutaneous
differentiation

25
Q

Bisphosphonate Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (BRONJ)

  • Most cases (>90%) associated with ____ formulations in cancer patients
  • Dental surgical procedures in these patients especially ____ increase risk.
  • Up to 20% incidence in intravenous Bisphosphonate users who have cancer
  • Less than 0.5% risk in patients taking oral bisphosphonates with ____
  • Can occur also with denosumab and other antiangiogenic agents. So maybe better name is MRONJ.
A

intravenous
extractions
osteoporosis

26
Q

1) Secretion of female sex hormones from ovaries under control of 2 pituitary gonadotrophic hormones: Leutinizing Hormone and Follicle Stimulating Hormone.
2) LH and FSH release is in turn stimulated by hormone releasing factors (Leutinizing Hormone Releasing Factor) from the hypothalamus.
3) Two female sex hormones are secreted by the ovary: Estrogens (Estradiol, Estrone, Estriol) and Progesterone.
4) At beginning of cycle to midpoint (day 14), ____ secretion increases, leading to an increase in ____ secretion by the maturing follicle. The uterine lining (endometrium) also proliferates.
5) Approximately on Day 12, two days prior to ovulation, ____ release continues to increase resulting in a surge of ____ and FSH release eventually resulting in ovulation. Up until this point this time estrogen is stimulatory. 6) Around Day 14 = Ovulation (Follicle ruptures, ovum released). After this point the remaining ovarian cells around the follicle (Corpus Leuteum) secrete ____ till menstruation (uterine secretory phase).
7) The excessive estrogen feeds back on estrogen receptors on the pituitary and hypothalamus leading to a decrease in ____ and FSH release. This in turn causes a decrease in ____ and progesterone secretion.
8) If pregnancy does not occur the decreased estrogen and progesterone causes the corpus leuteum to ____, the uterine endometrium regresses, resulting in menstrual blood flow.

A

FSH
estrogen

estrogen
LH

progesterone
LH
estrogen

degenerate

27
Q
  • Bottom line: Except for a very brief period – relatively high estrogen concentrations blocks ____ and ____ release from the pituitary. ____ estrogen does the same thing, resulting in a block of ovulation. This is the rationale for incorporating estrogen into oral contraceptive pills.
A

LH
FSH
exogenous

28
Q

Two semisynthetic estrogens employed in oral contraceptives.
1) E____
2) ____
Estrogens are not used alone because “unopposed” estrogens increase the risk of ____ cancer.

Estrogens are used in combination with a group of semisynthetic progesterones known as ____. Progestins:

1) Enhance the ____ of cervical fluid impairing sperm motility
2) Make endometrium ____ for egg implantation
3) Inhibit ____ but not as predictably as estrogens
4) Inhibits contractions of ____

A
ethinyl estradiol
mestranol
endometrial
progestins
viscosity
unsuitable
ovulation
fallopian tubes
29
Q

Prototype pill: ____ + Norethindrone = Ortho Novum®
Combo pill when used correctly > 99% effective. However typical failure rate in USA is 3%. Failure rate among teenagers 4% - 8%.

Oral Progestins by themselves when used correctly only 97% effective. Patient may still be ____. In addition, too much intraperiod bleeding, plus can cause increases in blood ____, decreases in insulin response, increases in blood lipids and increases in blood pressure. Lead to the development of combo pills with ____ progestin concentrations

A

mestranol
ovulating
glucose
decreased

30
Q

The most critical side effect of the combination pill is the increased likelihood of ____ disease. (1:1000 incidence in women not taking contraceptive, 3:1000 in women taking OCs.)

This is probably an ____ side effect and lead to the development of pills with decrease estrogen concentrations (so-called mini pills).

Greatest danger of ____ side effects (myocardial infarctions and stroke) appears to occur in oral contraceptive users over the age of 35 that also ____.
In nonsmokers age 30 – 39 on OCs, rate = 4/100,000. In heavy smokers age 40 – 44 on OCs, rate = 185/100,000.

A

thromboembolitic

estrogen

cardiovascular

smoke

31
Q

Some Benefits of Combo Pill

1) Decreased risk of ____ and ovarian cancers.
2) Decreased ____ loss during menstruation. Actually, sometimes employed (along with iron supplements) to treat iron deficiency anemia.
3) Sometimes effective in the treatment of ____ refractory to NSAIDs.

A

endometrial
blood
dysmenorrhea

32
Q

Types of Combination Pills

1) Monophasic pills have a ____ dose of the estrogen and progestin in each pill taken throughout the 21-day cycles. (Off pill for a week to allow for normal menstruation).
2) Biphasic pills typically have a constant dose of the ____ and two doses of the ____ which is increased halfway through the cycle
3) Triphasic pills gradually increase the dose of the ____ during the cycle (some also increase the estrogen dose through midpoint and then drop it).
4) 91-day birth control pills – essentially a ____ pill taken for 84 days straight and 7 days off. So typically menstruate only once every ____ months. Clinical trials have revealed more ____ bleeding with this type of birth control.

A

constant

estrogen
progestin

progestin

monophasic
3
intraperiod

33
Q

Other Contraceptives
1) Coitus ____ – NOT A GOOD IDEA!

2) DES (diethyl stibesterol) – A nonsteroidal ____. Used to be employed as a “morning after” pill. Problem: if already pregnant exogenous estrogens can be ____. In the 1950s (before this was known) DES was given to pregnant women who were at high risk for spontaneous abortions. Some offspring (mainly females) developed unusual cancers of the ____ and reproductive tract (Clear Cell Carcinomas) many years later. Today a typical combination oral contraceptive such as Ovral® = 0.5 mg EE + 0.5 mg ____ will be administered at double the usual oral contraceptive dose within 72 hours of “the event” followed by a 2nd ____ dose 12 hours later. DES employed today for treatment of some hormonal dependent cancers in women and men.
3) Depo-Provera – An IM ____ that reduces ____ problems. Very effective: pregnancy rates in one study 16/4000. Free of potential ____ events caused by estrogens. Occasionally see some Progestin side effects: increases in ____ and lipids.

A
estrogen
teratogenic
genioturinary
norgestrol
double

progestin
compliance
thromboembolitic
blood pressure

34
Q

Other contraceptives

4) Topical ethinyl estradiol/norelgestromin patch (Ortho Evra®) – applied to dry skin of ____, upper arms, buttocks, or abdomen. ____ weeks on, one week off like combo pills. Then need new patch. Appears to be decreased efficacy with increased ____ especially if > 198 pounds.
5) Vaginal ring containing ethinyl estradiol/etonogestrel (NuvaRing®). Again ____ weeks on, then remove for one week to allow for menstruation. Then need new ring. One issue with ring is that it can be expelled for example during a ____ movement if constipated. If this happens clean off in cool or luke warm ____ and reinsert.

A

shoulder
3
body weight

3
bowel
water

35
Q

Other Uses of Estrogens/Progestins

Hormone Replacement Therapy – very controversial these days. Decreases severe ____ symptoms and seems to reduce the incidence and severity of post-menopausal ____. However, some studies showed that estrogen replacement (even when combined with a progestin) seemed to slightly increase the risk of ____ cancer.
Schairer et al, JAMA 2000: Odds ratios: No hormone replacement = 1.0, Estrogen alone = 1.2, Estrogen plus Progestin = 1.4

Breast cancers - ____, an estrogen receptor antagonist

A

menopausal
osteoporosis

breast cancer

tamoxifen

36
Q

Glucocorticoid – an ____ steroid or synthetic drug whose main effect is the ability to regulate ____ metabolism. Naturally produced glucocorticoid in humans is ____. Glucocorticoid potency reflects how readily the drug induces ____ deposition in the liver and directly parallels anti-____ potency.

A
adrenal
carbohydrate
cortisol
glycogen
inflammatory
37
Q

corticosteroids

____ effects on catecholamine action. Drugs like epinephrine and albuterol display ____ B2 adrenergic receptor activity with glucocorticoids on board.

A

permissive

enhanced

38
Q

corticosteroids

Many metabolic effects

o ↑ ____ deposition in the liver
o ↑ ____
o ↑ ____ release in response to ↑ glucose levels in blood
o ↑ ____ deposition especially around face (moon face) and upper back (buffalo hump) with long term use. (Cushing’s Syndrome)
o ↓ activity of vitamin D leading to ↓ calcium ____. This in turn can activate ____(because of low calcium in the blood) leading to bone resorption and a potential acceleration of osteoporosis in at risk individuals. This is a ____ (not anabolic) effect.
o ↓ ____ muscle mass because of ↑ release of amino acids from muscle

A
glycogen
gluconeogenesis
insulin
fat
absorption
PTH
catabolic

skeletal

39
Q

corticosteroids

Potent anti-inflammatory action (major use of these drugs)

o ↓ # of ____, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils
o ↓ cellular response to ____
o ↓ ____ by macrophages
o ↓ release of ____, interleukins, and TNF my macrophages and lymphocytes
o ↓ prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis by blocking ____
o ↓ production of COX especially ____

A
lymphocytes
antigens
phagocytosis
interferons
phospholipase A2
COX-2
40
Q

corticosteroids

Other effects

o ↑ production of ____ and platelets (useful in certain anemias)
o ↑ ____ production in stomach. Generally, not as bad as NSAIDs but the combination (an NSAID plus a glucocorticoid) can greatly increase the risk of ulcers.
o Stimulate ____ development (pulmonary surfactant) in developing fetus. Mom who is going to deliver ____ often put on glucocorticoid therapy prior to child birth to decrease the incidence of new born respiratory distress syndrome.

A

red blood cells
acid
lung
premature

41
Q

Mineralocorticoid – An adrenal steroid or synthetic drug whose primary action is to increase ____ and ____ reabsorption in the kidney tubule and stimulate ____ excretion.

Naturally produced mineralocorticoids in humans are ____ and aldosterone. Remember that the potassium sparing diuretic ____ (an aldosterone receptor antagonist), causes water and sodium ____ but little if any potassium ____.

Many of clinical useful anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids) also have some mineralocorticoid activity. See Table below.

A

sodium
water
potassium

11-deoxcorticosterone

spiranolactone
excretion
loss

42
Q

mineralocorticoid

Structure Activity Relations

 Steroids that lack a ____ on carbon 17 lack significant glucocorticoid activity. See structures of aldosterone and deoxycorticosterone.
 Steroids that possess an ____ on carbon 17 possess glucocorticoid activity
 ____ between carbon 1 and 2 increases the glucocorticoid and anti-inflammatory potency of the drug as in prednisolone.
 Dexamethasone possesses ____ between carbon 1 and 2, ____ at carbon 9 and ____ at carbon 16. These 3 properties make it the most ____ (along with betamethasone) glucocorticoid and anti-inflammatory steroid we spoke about.

A
hydroxyl
OH
unsaturation (double bond)
unsaturation
halogenation (F)
methylation
potent
43
Q

Some conditions treated with glucocorticoids

	Gastrointestinal inflammatory diseases
o	\_\_\_\_
o	Crohn’s disease
o	\_\_\_\_ disease
	Prevention of organ \_\_\_\_ (kidney, heart, liver etc) rejection
	Collagen vascular diseases
o	\_\_\_\_
o	Sarcoidosis
A

ulcerative colitis
celiac
transplant
lupus erythematosus

44
Q

Some conditions treated with glucocorticoids

 Dermatological disturbances (often as an ointment)
o ____
o Psoriasis
o ____
 Other allergic reactions but not primary drug for ____
 Asthma (often as an inhalant)
 Arthritic diseases
o ____ (short-term bridge drug to decrease joint swelling)
o ____ (often a local injection into a joint)

A

poison ivy
lichen planus
anaphylaxis
rheumatoid arthritis

45
Q

 Decrease postoperative ____ after wisdom tooth surgery (local injection or short-term use of tablets like a ____ (Medrol®) dose-pack.
 Cerebral ____ and increased intracranial pressure (from trauma, tumors, meningitis, and strokes)

Toxicity of glucocorticoids
	Decreased \_\_\_\_ to infection
	Cataracts
	\_\_\_\_
	Muscle wasting
	\_\_\_\_ (from mineralocorticoid activity)
	Peptic ulcer
	\_\_\_\_ (diabetes)
	Suppression of the hypothalamic – pituitary – adrenal axis.  20 mg of cortisone for 2 weeks can suppress axis for up to 2 years increasing the risk for an acute adrenal crisis.
A

swelling
methylprednisolone
edema

resistance
osteoporosis
hypertension
hyperglycemia